BSc Biotechnology Sem V 2023 2024 Oct 2024 BIOTECH MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY & INSTRUMENTATION Question Paper - Mumbai University | munotes

Questions asked in this paper

• 1. Attempt all questions

1. Q2 All questions carry equal marks
2. Q4 Use of log tables and non-programmable calculators is allowed
3. Q1 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
4. Q1 Nucleocapsid of a virus is made up of
   • a) Nucleus and capsomers
   • b) Envelope and protein
   • c) Protein and Nucleic acid
   • d) viral nucleus
5. Q2 Which of the following is the example of double stranded DNA virus
   • d) Pox Virus
6. Q3 Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
7. Q4 of the following phases determines the specificity of the virus?
   • a) Uncoating
   • b) Release
   • c) Attachment
   • d) Penetration
8. Q5 The replication of hepatitis B includes which of the following stages?
   • a) Movement of intact virus to the cellular cytoplasm for replication
   • b) Conversion of relaxed circular viral DNA in to covalently closed circular (CCC) DNA in the nucleus
   • c) Virions produced in the cytoplasm by cellular DNA polymerase
   • d) Oncogenic activity to transform liver cells General steps in a viral multiplication cycle are
   • a. adsorption, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release
   • b. endocytosis, replication, assembly, and budding
   • c. adsorption, duplication, assembly, and lysis
   • d. endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and exocytosis
9. Q7 Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) , kuru, scrapie, and Mad Cow disease are caused by:
10. Q8 The process of readily counting Bacteriophages is called
11. Q9 A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used to support viral replication is a —
12. Q1 b. Answer the following questions: (Any Two) 14 marks
13. Q1 Discuss the importance of prions and the diseases they cause
14. Q2 What happens in each step of the viral replication process for DNA
15. Q3 Name the criteria used for classifying viruses as per classification
16. Q2 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
17. Q1 Which of these is a Beta lactamase inhibitor
    • c) Clavulanic Acid
18. Q2 Which of the following classes of antibiotics bind to 50S subunit of
19. Q3 Tetracycline acts as an antibiotic through the following mode of action
    • a) Detergent-like mode of action
    • b) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
    • c) Inhibition of protein synthesis
    • d) Inhibition of folate synthesis
20. Q4 sort of drug is ketoconazole?
    • a) An antifungal agent
    • b) An antibacterial agent
    • c) An anticancer agent
    • d) An viral agent Bacitracin are responsible for
    • b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
    • c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
    • d) Inhibition of protein synthesis
21. Q6 | Which of the following antibiotics acts by inhibition of nucleic acid
    • a) Penicillin
    • c) Sulphonamides
22. Q7 with penicillin allergies are frequently allergic to another class of antibiotics. Which one?
23. Q8 Most commonly used topical antifungal for treatment of oral candida
24. Q9 of the following is not used in the HIV-1 treatment? Give an account on the following questions: (Any Two) 14
25. Q1 Explain the mode of action of nucleic acid inhibitors giving suitable
26. Q2 Explain selective toxicity as a characteristic of a chemotherapeutic agent
27. Q3 What are antifungals? Explain any two types of anti-fungal drugs used for systemic infections
28. Q3 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
29. Q1 The scattering of light can yield a number of valuable insights into the properties of macromolecules like
    • a) Molecular mass
    • b) Dimensions
    • c) Diffusion coefficients
    • d) All of these
30. Q2 Full form of ICP is
31. Q3 The solid samples are analysed in IR spectroscopic analysis by
    • a) Heating
    • c) Boiling
    • d) Neither of these
32. Q4 The detection of non-fluorescent compounds can be achieved by coupling a fluorescent probe, this is called
    • a) Extrinsic fluorescence
    • b) Intrinsic fluorescence
    • c) Auto fluorescence
    • d) Semi fluorescence
33. Q5 When the incident light beam hits a molecule in its ground state, there is a low probability that the molecule is excited and occupies the
    • a) Next higher vibrational state
    • b) Next lower vibrational state
    • c) Heat energy
    • d) Neither of these
34. Q6 The Golay cells are
    • a) Monochromators
    • b) Electrodes
    • c) Detectors
    • d) Neither of these
35. Q7 This instrument does not have a light source or a monochromator
    • a) Spectrophotometer
    • c) Colorimeter
    • d) Photometer
36. Q8 The major disadvantage of spectrofluorimetry is
    • a) Time required
    • b) Quenching
    • c) Use of two monochromators
    • d) Inaccuracy
37. Q9 Methods for determination of molecular mass in a solution
    • a) Membrane osmometry
    • c) Light scattering
    • d) All of these Discuss the following: (Any Two) 14
38. Q1 Explain the principle and applications of Infrared spectroscopy
39. Q2 What is dynamic light scattering? Write its applications
40. Q3 Explain the principle and applications of Atomic absorption
41. Q4 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
42. Q1 Method of detection and measurement of radioactivity
    • a. Ionization of gases
    • b. Excitation of solids or liquids
    • c. Autoradiography
    • d. All of these
43. Q2 unit of radioactive decay is
    • a. Electron volt
    • c. milli Curie
    • d. All of these
44. Q3 Small rapidly moving particles that carry a single negative charge are
    • a. a.- particles
    • b. Negatron
    • d. None of these
45. Q4 In this form of decay a proton captures an electron orbiting in the
    • a. Electron capture
    • b. Alpha emission
    • c. Gamma emission
    • d. Neither of these
46. Q5 The chromatography that exploits the unique property of extremely specific biological interactions to achieve separation and purification is
    • a. Gel permeation
    • b. Ion exchange
    • c. Affinity
47. Q6 The elution technique that gives better resolution as compared to
    • a. Continuous elution
    • b. Exchanger elution
    • c. Ionic elution
    • d. Acid elution
48. Q7 Chromatography that can be used to concentrate solutions
    • a. Gel permeation
    • b. Ion exchange
    • c. Affinity
49. Q8 The degree to which a method can quantify the analyte in the presence of interferents is called
    • a. Selectivity
    • b. Linearity
    • c. Precision
    • d. None of these
50. Q9 The technique that is much superior in terms of speed, efficiency, sensitivity and ease of operation is
    • a. Adsorption Chromatography
51. Q4 b. Answer the following questions: (Any Two) 14 marks
52. Q1 Explain in detail the applications of tracer techniques in biology
53. Q2 Explain the principle and working of HPLC
54. Q3 Explain the principle, material and applications of Affinity Write Short notes on the following: (Any Four) 20
    • a. Anti virals
    • b. Penicillins
    • d. Applications of Spectrofluorimetry
    • e. Immunoaffinity chromatography
    • f. Autoradiography

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