BSc Biotechnology Sem V 2023 2024 Nov 2024 BIOTECH GENOMES & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY Question Paper - Mumbai University | munotes

Questions asked in this paper

• 1. Attempt all questions

1. Q2 All questions carry equal marks
2. Q4 Use of log tables and non-programmable calculators is allowed
3. Q1 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
4. Q1 To express a novel gene in a plant system, is the genetic element that is NOT required in gene construct
   • A) Promote
   • B) Gene of interest
   • C) Marker gene
5. Q2 plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is responsible for causing crown
   • A) To plasmid
   • C) Ti plasmid
6. Q3 Name the specific part of the tumor-inducing plasmid inserted into the nuclear genome of the plant
   • A) Origin of replication
   • B) T-DNA region
   • C) Vir gene
7. Q4 Name the protein product responsible for creating a transient bridge or a cell membrane connection for T-DNA transfer
   • A) VirE
8. Q5 the gas used for particle propulsion in biolistic transformation
9. Q6 the enzyme/s which are NOT used to isolate a protoplast from a plant cell
10. Q7 Which part of lipids forms the wall of transient aqueous pores after
11. Q8 Liposomes are
    • A) Naturally present structure made up of lipids and protein
    • B) Artificial structure made up of lipids used to deliver the DNA into cells
    • C) Arrangement of multilamellar and unilamellar vacuoles
    • D) Required electric impulse for DNA transformation
12. Q9 From the following given options select the disadvantage of the electroporation method for plant transformation
    • B) Suitable for both monocots and dicots only
    • C) Specific transport
    • D) Needs an ideal buffer system
13. Q1 b. Answer the following questions: (Any Two) 14 marks
14. Q1 Describe the mechanism of transfer of T-DNA in plant
15. Q2 With suitable examples explain the need for seed quality protein improvement How it can be achieved using transgenic technology?
16. Q3 Illustrate the use of a ‘cointegrate vector system’ using diagrammatic Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 06
17. Q1 In transgenic fish, AFP genes from the ocean pout codes for protein
    • a) protein
    • b) freeze protein
    • c) antifreeze protein
    • d) protein
18. Q2 The transgene which is microinjected in the fertilized egg of mice is often in a linear form and free of. vector DNA
    • d) repeated
19. Q3 is scorable reporter genes
20. Q4 In the lentiviral transfer vector, WPRE the transduction of host cells
21. Q5 have are used as templates for reverse transcriptase to synthesize a DNA copy
22. Q6 After treatment with G418 and ganciclovir, only cells that have undergone homologous recombination with specific integration will
    • a) killed
    • b) survive
    • c) not survive
23. Q7 bacteriophage P1 genome, A lox P site consists of two 13-base-pair that are separated from each other by an 8-bp spacer sequence
    • a) side repeats
    • b) repeats
    • c) simple repeats
    • d) central repeats
24. Q8 is used as biosensors of environmental pollutants
    • d) Salmon
25. Q9 _____ is the last phase in the process of fusing two haploid eukaryotic cells
    • a) Karyogamy
    • c) Xenogamy
    • d) Cytogamy
26. Q2 b. Give an account on the following questions: (Any Two) 14 marks
27. Q1 Explain the cloning of livestock by nuclear transfer method
28. Q2 Discuss the embryonic stem cell methodology for the production of transgenic
29. Q3 Discuss any one vector used for animal cells
30. Q3 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
31. Q1 A cloning vector containing regulatory sequences is called
    • a. shuttle vector
    • b. expression vector
    • d. M13 phage
32. Q2 When M 13 infects the host cell, the host cell
    • a. is lysed
    • b. continues growth at the same rate
    • c. growth is arrested after a few generations
    • d. growth is slowed down and viral particles are released
33. Q3 The enzyme that can convert staggered ends to blunt ends
    • a. DNA poll
    • c. both
    • d. neither
34. Q4 transgene in pET vector is introduced in the
    • a. Host genome
    • c. Helper plasmid
    • d. Any of them
35. Q5 Tocheck the presence of gene product of an expression vector, we can perform
    • a. Western blotting
    • b. Northern blotting
    • c. Southern blotting
    • d. Eastern blotting
36. Q6 of repetitive DNA being a part of the probe and creating a problem while identifying the overlapping fragment can be overcome in
    • a. Chromosome walking
    • b. Chromosome jumping
    • c. Both
    • d. Neither
37. Q7 Synthetic oligonucleotide probes are called
    • a. heterologous probes
    • c. DNA probes
    • d. homologous probes
38. Q8 Southern blotting, the specificity of the test lies in selection of
    • a. source DNA
    • b. radioisotope
    • d. all three
39. Q9 Introducing the transgene in the MCS of the SUP 4 gene results in
    • a. alpha complementation
    • b. beta complementation
    • c. suppressor mutation
    • d. insertional inactivation
40. Q3 b. Discuss the following: (Any Two) 14 marks
41. Q1 Southern Blotting with a diagram
42. Q2 Describe a method to prepare a cDNA library
43. Q3 pUC as a cloning vector
44. Q4 a. Select the correct alternative: (Any Six) 6 marks
45. Q1 Why are ddNTPs used in DNA sequencing?
    • A. because ddNTPs are fluorescent
    • B. because ddNTPs are efficiently incorporated into DNA
    • C. because ddNTPs cannot be incorporated into DNA-by-DNA polymerase
    • D. because ddNTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once incorporated into the
46. Q2 What is the fundamental principle underlying Sanger's method for DNA
    • A. Using chemicals for base-specific cleavage
    • B. Using dNTPs for chain termination
    • C. Using ddNTPs for chain termination
    • D. Using 32P for chain termination
47. Q3 In RNAi-mediated gene silencing, what complex forms when siRNA binds to the
48. Q4 What is the term for synthetic short strands of double-stranded DNA with one blunt end and one staggered end?
    • A. linkers
    • B. tails
    • C. adaptors
    • D. probes
49. Q5 is Cas9?
    • A. Nuclease
    • C. Primer
    • D. Probe
50. Q6 What is the term for the manipulation of a gene using engineered nucleases composed of sequence-specific DNA-binding domains fused to a Restriction
    • A. DNA Sequencing
    • C. Gene editing
    • D. Gene shifting
51. Q7 What enzyme creates double-strand breaks at the target site for genome editing?
    • D. all three
52. Q8 In the context of CRISPR, where are the repeated sequences located?
    • A. Bacterial DNA
    • B. Viral DNA
    • C. Fungal DNA
53. Q9 which DNA sequencing method does premature chain termination not occur?
    • A. Automated sequencing
    • D. None of these
54. Q4 b. Give an account of the following questions: (Any Two) 14 marks
55. Q1 What are the principles and applications of pyrosequencing in DNA sequencing?
56. Q2 How do microRNAs (miRNAs) participate in regulating gene expression in
57. Q3 What is TALEN, and how is it used in the context of gene editing?
58. Q5 Short notes on the following: (Any Four) 20 marks
    • a. Vir gene
    • b. Applications of transgenic mice
    • c. Non- radioactive labelling of DNA
    • d. Shuttle vector
    • e. Human genome mapping: Significance in health
    • f. Role of ZNF in genome editing?

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