Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Environmental Legislations
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 6 Environment and Legal Order
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Environmental Legislations
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 6 Environment and Legal Order
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 14 September 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.
The law in these answers is stated as at September 2026, and five changes date most textbooks here. The Indian Penal Code and the Code of Criminal Procedure were replaced on 1 July 2024, so public nuisance is now section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and the magistrate's order to remove it section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita. Since 1 April 2024 most contraventions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 attract penalties imposed by an adjudicating officer, appealable to the National Green Tribunal, instead of prosecution. Coastal questions are answered on the CRZ Notification, 2019, and an amendment in force from 7 September 2023 takes coastal aquaculture outside its prohibitions. The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025 took effect on 9 April 2025, and the punishments under sections 51 to 53 were cut from 15 May 2026. And Vanashakti v. Union of India, 29 July 2026, holds that prior environmental clearance is mandatory and that regularisation after the event can only be narrow and time-bound.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 7 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question has two limbs of equal weight, and most candidates write only the first. For the features, walk the Act chapter by chapter so that every feature carries its section number, and state the Act as it stands after the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, because the penalty chapter every older book describes no longer exists. For the measures, do not write a wish list: tie each recommendation to a failure the Act has actually shown, and use at least three decided cases to prove the failure.
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (Act 29 of 1986) received assent on 23 May 1986 and came into force on 19 November 1986. Its long title describes it as an Act to provide for the protection and improvement of environment, and its preamble recites the decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment at Stockholm in June 1972, which is why Parliament could legislate for the whole country under Article 253 without the State resolutions that the Water Act, 1974 had required under Article 252. It was passed in the shadow of the Bhopal gas leak of December 1984, and its design answers that disaster: one general statute, one set of central powers, and a machinery for hazardous substances that did not exist before.
It extends to the whole of India under section 1(2), and section 1(3) allows different dates to be appointed for different provisions and areas. That power is how the new penalty sections were brought into force on 1 April 2024.
Its definitions are drawn to cover everything. Section 2(a) says environment includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists among and between them and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property. Section 2(b) defines an environmental pollutant as any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment, and section 2(c) makes pollution the presence of such a pollutant. The words "tend to be" allow action before harm is proved.
It defines the dangerous categories separately. Handling in section 2(d) covers manufacture, processing, treatment, package, storage, transportation, use, collection, destruction, conversion, offering for sale and transfer. Hazardous substance in section 2(e) is a functional test, any substance or preparation liable by its chemical or physico-chemical properties or handling to cause harm, and occupier in section 2(f) includes the person in possession of the substance. Section 2(ca), inserted in 2023, defines the new Fund.
Section 3(1) is the heart of the Act. The Central Government has power to take all such measures as it deems necessary or expedient for protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, controlling and abating pollution. Section 3(2) then lists fourteen particular heads without limiting that generality, among them coordination of State action, a nation-wide programme, standards for environmental quality and for emissions and discharges, restriction of areas in which industries or processes may be carried on, procedures for preventing accidents, safeguards for hazardous substances, inspection, laboratories, information and manuals.
Section 3(3) allows authorities to be created by order, with such of the Central Government's powers as the order confers, including the power of direction under section 5. Every coastal zone management authority and every State environment impact assessment authority exists under this sub-section. Section 4 allows officers to be appointed with such powers as are entrusted to them.
Section 5 gives the Act its teeth. Directions may be issued in writing to any person, officer or authority, notwithstanding any other law, and the Explanation declares that they include the closure, prohibition or regulation of any industry, operation or process and the stoppage or regulation of electricity, water or any other service. Section 5A, inserted by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, gives any person aggrieved an appeal to the Tribunal. Section 6 is the rule-making power for ambient standards, maximum concentrations including noise, safeguards for hazardous substances, restrictions on the location of industries and accident prevention.
The single most important consequence of this chapter is that the operative law is outside the Act. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2019 and the Environment Impact Assessment Notification, 2006 are made under section 3 read with rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, which requires a draft notification, sixty days for objections and a final notification, subject to a public interest dispensation in rule 5(4).
Two prohibitions carry the substantive law. Section 7 forbids any person carrying on an industry, operation or process to discharge or emit, or permit to be discharged or emitted, any environmental pollutant in excess of the prescribed standards. Section 8 forbids handling a hazardous substance except in accordance with the prescribed procedure and safeguards.
Section 9 governs accidents. Where a discharge in excess of standards occurs or is apprehended, the person responsible and the person in charge of the place must prevent or mitigate it and forthwith intimate the prescribed authorities, who must cause remedial measures to be taken, and the cost with interest is recoverable from the person concerned as arrears of land revenue.
Sections 10 to 14 are the investigation machinery. Section 10 gives an empowered person a right of entry, inspection, search and seizure, with a duty on anyone handling a hazardous substance to render assistance. Section 11 permits samples of air, water or soil, but the analysis is admissible only if the notice, presence, sealing and dispatch procedure in sub-sections (3) and (4) is followed. Sections 12 and 13 provide for environmental laboratories and Government Analysts, and section 14 makes an Analyst's report evidence of the facts it states.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 substituted sections 15 to 17 of the Act, inserted sections 14A and 14B, and added a new Chapter IIIA. A contravention of this Act is now met with a monetary penalty imposed by an officer, not with imprisonment imposed by a court.
| Section | What it penalises | Penalty |
|---|---|---|
| 14A | Contravention of section 7 or section 8 or their rules | Rs 1 lakh to Rs 15 lakh, plus Rs 50,000 a day while it continues |
| 14B | Contravention of sections 9, 10 or 11 or directions under them | Rs 10,000 to Rs 5 lakh, plus Rs 10,000 a day |
| 15 | Any other contravention for which no penalty is provided | Rs 10,000 to Rs 15 lakh, plus Rs 10,000 a day |
| 15A | Contravention by a company | Rs 1 lakh to Rs 15 lakh, plus Rs 1 lakh a day |
| Section | What it penalises | Penalty |
|---|---|---|
| 15B | Contravention by a Government Department | One month of the basic salary of the Head of the Department, subject to a due diligence proviso |
| 15F | Failure to pay a penalty within ninety days | Imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to twice the penalty, or both |
Section 15C creates the adjudicating officer, not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India or Secretary to a State Government, who must hear the person and fix the penalty having regard to the population and area affected, the frequency and duration of the contravention, the vulnerability of the class affected, the damage caused, the undue gain made, and any prescribed factor. The penalty is in addition to relief or compensation under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Section 15D gives an appeal to the Tribunal within sixty days, entertained only on deposit of ten per cent of the penalty.
Chapter IIIA creates the Environmental Protection Fund. Section 15E credits every penalty to it, section 16 applies it to awareness, education, research and the purposes of this Act and the Air Act, 1981, and section 16(5) allocates seventy-five per cent of the penalties credited to the States and Union territories. Sections 16A and 16B provide for audit by the Comptroller and Auditor-General and an annual report laid before Parliament.
Section 19 is the citizen's door. A court may take cognizance of an offence on a complaint by the Central Government or its authorised officer, by the adjudicating officer under clause (aa) added in 2023, or by any person who has given sixty days' notice of the offence and of his intention to complain. Section 18 protects action in good faith, section 20 allows the Government to require reports and returns from any person or State Government, and section 22 bars civil courts, leaving the writ jurisdiction and the Tribunal untouched.
Section 23 permits delegation of any power except the power to constitute authorities under section 3(3) and to make rules under section 25, and in practice the powers under sections 5, 10 and 11 stand delegated to State Governments and Boards. Section 24, substituted in 2023, gives the Act and its rules and orders overriding effect over anything inconsistent in any other law. Sections 25 and 26 carry the rule-making power and require rules to be laid before Parliament for thirty days.
The Act was written as power without duty, and the Supreme Court had to supply the duty. In Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, (1996) 5 SCC 647, tanneries in Tamil Nadu were discharging untreated effluent into agricultural land and the river Palar, and an affidavit placed before the Court showed that only 33 of 584 tanneries in one district had set up treatment plants. The Court held that sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are part of the law of the country, and that the onus lies on the developer to show that his activity is benign.
The same judgment made the point that matters for implementation. The Court observed that the main purpose of the Act was to create authorities under section 3(3) and that none had been constituted, so that courts were doing the authority's work. It directed the Central Government to constitute an authority headed by a retired High Court judge with the section 5 power of direction, to assess the loss to the ecology and the compensation payable, and it recorded that by an earlier order of 1 May 1995 in the same proceedings it had already closed 57 tanneries which had ignored repeated directions to install treatment plants. A feature of the Act became a working institution only because a court ordered it.
The second case shows the same pattern on the coast. In S. Jagannath v. Union of India, (1997) 2 SCC 87, decided on 11 December 1996, intensive shrimp farming was salinising drinking water and agricultural soil along India's coasts, chiefly in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. The Court held that shrimp ponds fell within the prohibition of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification of 1991, ordered the demolition of farms inside the zone, and directed the Central Government to constitute an authority under section 3(3) before 15 January 1997, headed by a retired Judge of a High Court and directed to apply the precautionary and polluter pays principles. The discretion in section 3(3) was converted into an obligation with a deadline.
The third case is the newest and defines the limits of section 3. In Vanashakti v. Union of India, 2026 INSC 761, decided on 29 July 2026, a Bench of three judges heard afresh the challenge to the notification of 14 March 2017 and the office memorandum of 7 July 2021, both of which allowed projects begun without prior environmental clearance to obtain one later. The Court held that prior clearance is mandatory, that section 3 permits a narrowly tailored and time-bound amnesty notification in supervening public interest, that the 2017 notification was valid delegated legislation, and that the 2021 memorandum, a perpetual amnesty by executive instruction, violated Articles 14 and 21 and was quashed prospectively.
That judgment followed the recall, on 18 November 2025 in 2025 INSC 1326, of the earlier decision of 16 May 2025 which had struck both instruments down. For this question its lesson is exact: the features of the Act allow the Central Government to regulate by notification, and the courts will not allow that architecture to be bypassed by an office memorandum.
Enforcement has been the weakest feature. Before 2024 prosecutions under the Act were rare and slow, and the sampling procedure in section 11 was a regular ground of acquittal. In Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, (2011) 8 SCC 161, the Supreme Court recorded that fifteen years after it had ordered the Bichhri chemical units to pay for restoring the village, nothing had been restored and the industries had kept the litigation alive by application after application. A statute is only as good as the recovery it secures.
The powers remain discretionary. Nothing in the Act obliges the Government to notify a standard, constitute an authority or issue a direction, and nothing obliges it to give reasons when it relaxes a notification.
The new penalties are untested and depend on capacity. The adjudicating officer must be of a senior rank, the number of such officers is small, and a penalty capped at Rs 15 lakh can be a budgeted cost for a large enterprise. The quantum factors in section 15C(4) require evidence of damage and undue gain, and Deepak Nitrite Ltd. v. State of Gujarat, (2004) 6 SCC 402, held that compensation for environmental damage cannot be levied as a flat percentage of turnover without a finding that damage was actually caused, which is the discipline the adjudicating officer will now need.
The citizen's route has narrowed. Since contraventions are no longer offences, the section 19 complaint survives in substance only for the offence of non-payment in section 15F, and a citizen's practical remedy lies before the Tribunal.
Conclusion. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is an umbrella statute of immense width: a definition of environment that reaches everything, a general power in section 3, directions with closure in section 5, two core prohibitions in sections 7 and 8, an accident duty in section 9, and since 1 April 2024 a civil penalty regime with an adjudicating officer, an appeal on a ten per cent deposit and an Environmental Protection Fund. Its weakness is that almost every provision is a power and almost none is a duty, which is why Vellore Citizens and S. Jagannath had to order the Government to use it and why Vanashakti (2026) had to police the way it was used. Better implementation therefore means duties, an independent and adequately staffed regulator, published adjudication, modern evidence and restoration funded by the polluter, so that the width of the Act is matched by the certainty of its enforcement.
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