AIBE 20 (XX) 2025 Set A is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing. Of its 100 questions, 5 were withdrawn by the Bar Council, so 95 are scored.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates. Of the candidates who have finished this paper here, 41% scored below it. 500+ candidates have attempted it on this practice.
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Q1. If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
- AThe bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning
- BThe bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty
- CThe bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order
- DThe bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person
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Q2. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
- ASeven
- BTen
- CFourteen
- DTwenty-one
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Q3. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ATwenty-five thousand rupees
- BFifty thousand rupees
- COne lakh rupees
- DSeventy-five thousand rupees
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Q4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption. Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years. Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q6. If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
- AFive years
- BSeven years
- CTen years
- DThree years
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Q7. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?
- ASection 27
- BSection 125
- CSection 302
- DSection 482
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Q8. Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
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Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of Rs 4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
- AOne year
- BTwo months
- CFour months
- DSix months
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Q10. According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?
- A3 years
- B5 years
- C7 years
- D10 years
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Q11. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
- AOnly when they prove the guilt of the accused directly
- BOnly when they form part of a dying declaration
- CWhen they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact
- DWhen they are part of an admission made in writing
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Q12. What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- AThe evidence must have been recorded in the presence of a jury.
- BThe proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest.
- CThe evidence must have been published in a government gazette.
- DThe evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.
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Q13. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
- ADraft agreements between individuals
- BPersonal diaries of government officials
- CInternal notes of a private company
- DJudicial and executive acts of public officers
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Q14. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
- AThe statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended
- BThe statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit
- CThere must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists
- DThere must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act
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Q15. As per Section 30 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years' imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?
- A1 year
- B2 years
- C6 months
- D3 months
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Q16. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?
- AArticle 39
- BArticle 41
- CArticle 47
- DArticle 45
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Q17. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
- AOnly the High Court exercising writ jurisdiction
- BThe Appellate Court hearing the appeal
- CThe District Registrar of Property Records
- DThe Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction
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Q18. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee?
- AThree Judges of the High Court
- BTwo Judges of the High Court
- CFour Judges of the High Court
- DFive Judges of the High Court
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Q19. According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63?
- AImprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees
- BImprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees
- CImprisonment up to five years and fine up to three lakh rupees
- DImprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees
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Q20. As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?
- AArticle 28(1)
- BArticle 29(1)
- CArticle 30(2)
- DArticle 32
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Q21. Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding 5,000?
- ASix weeks
- BTwo months
- CThree months
- DSix months
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Q22. Which of the following situation falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
- ADecree for 1,800, detention up to three months
- BDecree for 3,500, detention up to six weeks
- CDecree for 6,200, detention up to six months
- DDecree for 10,000, detention up to one year
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Q23. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?
- AThirty days
- BFifteen days
- CSixty days
- DNinety days
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Q24. How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ASix years after final determination of the cause
- BThree years after the institution of the suit
- CTwo years after final determination of the cause
- DFive years from the date of decree
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Q25. According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
- AThe tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely
- BThe tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings
- CThe tribunal assumes the claim is admitted
- DThe tribunal terminates the proceedings
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Q26. If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
- AOne month
- BTwo months
- CSix months
- DThree months
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Q27. What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?
- ASix months
- BOne year
- CTwo years
- DThree years
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Q28. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?
- AArticle 21
- BArticle 32
- CArticle 226
- DArticle 14
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Q29. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ANot less than 7 days
- BNot less than 60 days
- CNot less than 15 days
- DNot less than 30 days
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Q30. Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
- ASection 302 of the Indian Penal Code
- BSection 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- CSection 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- DSection 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
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Q31. According to Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:
- A1,20,000
- B50,000
- C5,00,000
- D10,00,000
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Q32. Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?
- AWhen the applicant has filed a request for early examination.
- BWhen secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.
- CWhen the patent has already been granted by the Controller.
- DWhen the applicant has requested for an extension of time.
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Q33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette. Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person. Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness. In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q35. Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
- AHouse Rent Allowance granted by private companies
- BEntertainment Allowance granted to government employees
- CTransport Allowance provided to all salaried persons
- DLeave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel
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Q36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction. Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received. In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q37. In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it. Conclusions: I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act. II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct?
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
- DNeither Conclusion I nor II follows
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Q38. Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?
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Q39. After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ALoss due to falling land prices in the market
- BLoss due to cancellation of tenant agreements
- CLoss of employment in nearby areas
- DBona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process
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Q40. According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?
- A2,000
- B10,000
- C5,000
- D3,000
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Q41. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?
- AWhen the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance
- BWhen it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor
- CWhen it is delivered to the office of the proposer party
- DWhen the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records
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Q42. A tenant rents a shop in the city for running a retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days' notice must legally be given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?
- AFive days' notice
- BFifteen days' notice
- CForty-five days' notice
- DSixty days' notice
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Q43. According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143?
- ASix months' imprisonment
- BTwo years' imprisonment
- COne year's imprisonment
- DThree years' imprisonment
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Q44. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties. Conclusions: I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized. II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
- DNeither Conclusion I nor II follows
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Q45. Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest. Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard.
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q46. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent. Conclusions: I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it. II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
- DNeither Conclusion I nor II follows
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Q47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape. Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true
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Q48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property. Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true
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Q49. Read the given Statements and choose the correct option. A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements: Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications. Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.
- AOnly Statement 1 is true
- BOnly Statement 2 is true
- CBoth Statements 1 and 2 are true
- DNeither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
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Q50. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India. Conclusions: I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council. II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
- DNeither Conclusion I nor II follows
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Q51. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1 : Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property. Statement 2 : Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to conditions.
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son. Reason (R) : This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct ?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Q53. As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term ?
- AIt becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
- BIt operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
- CIt constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
- DIt suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
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Q54. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration ?
- AAn oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' 5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last month.
- BA written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.
- CA promise to subscribe 1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
- DA promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
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Q55. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of :
- AUltra Vires
- BExcessive Delegation
- CConditional Legislation
- DSeparation of Powers
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Q56. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree ?
- AThe petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.
- BThe petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud.
- CThe fraud relates to the social status of the respondent's family.
- DThe parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.
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Q57. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 :
- Aon the date of appointment of arbitrator.
- Bon the date the arbitration agreement is signed.
- Con the date the request for reference is received by the respondent.
- Don the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.
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Q58. Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air ?
- ASubhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598
- BNilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746
- CSheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596
- DOlga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545
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Q59. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of 'Absolute Liability' ?
- AM.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
- BM.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530
- CM.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
- DM.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
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Q60. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity ?
- ASahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
- BIn Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
- CJ. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103
- DUnion of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
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Q61. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit I. has been finally decided. II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit. III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit. IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Select the correct answer.
- AI, II and III
- BII, III and IV
- CI, III and IV
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q62. Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the I. judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court. II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property. III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account. IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same. Select the correct answer.
- AI, II and III
- BII, III and IV
- CI, III and IV
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q63. As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served. II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing. III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim. IV. without notice being served on the opposite party. Select the correct answer.
- AI and II
- BI, II and III
- CI and IV
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q64. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?
- AOnly if it is made voluntarily in writing
- BOnly if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
- COnly if it is supported by two independent witnesses
- DOnly if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed
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Q65. Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
- ASection 38
- BSection 39
- CSection 36
- DSection 46
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Q66. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?
- AA contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible.
- BA agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved.
- CA enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value. This fact may be proved.
- DA orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.
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Q67. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if : I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption. II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's or grandmother's brother of the other. IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters. Select the correct answer.
- AI, III and IV
- BIII and IV
- CII, III and IV
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q68. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment ?
- AArticle 48A
- BArticle 39A
- CArticle 51A(g)
- DArticle 51A(h)
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Q69. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the : I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years. II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years. III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years. IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year. Select the correct answer.
- AIII and IV
- BI and II
- CI, II, III and IV
- DNone of these
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Q70. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes : I. telecom service providers. II. search engines. III. cyber cafes. IV. online-auction sites. Select the correct answer.
- AI and IV
- BI and II
- CI, II and IV
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q71. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable ?
- ARefusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
- BRefusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.
- CRefusing to grant any measure under Section 9.
- DRefusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.
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Q72. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of :
- ANot exceeding 13 but not less than 9.
- BNot exceeding 11 but not less than 7.
- CNot exceeding 9 but not less than 5.
- DNot exceeding 7 but not less than 3.
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Q73. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India ?
- ASection 35
- BSection 36
- CSection 37
- DSection 38
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Q74. Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I: i. Act of God; ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria); iii. Statutory Authority; iv. Necessity. List II: 1. Vaughan v. Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H & N 679; 2. Kirk v. Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55; 3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1; 4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205.
- Ai-1; ii-2; iii-3; iv-4
- Bi-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1
- Ci-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
- Di-4; ii-1; iii-3; iv-2
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Q75. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of :
- Aa Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
- Ba Chairperson and five other members.
- Ca Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
- Da Chairperson and ten other members.
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Q76. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution ?
- AIn re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956
- BKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
- CIn re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845
- DMinerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
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Q77. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements ?
- AArticle 249
- BArticle 251
- CArticle 253
- DArticle 255
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Q78. In which of the following judgment/s was the issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the Supreme Court of India ? I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295) II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568) III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) Anr. v. Union of India Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1 IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)
- AII, III and IV
- BII and III
- COnly III
- DI, II, III and IV
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Q79. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India ?
- AExecutive action of the Union of India
- BPresidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation
- CExecutive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament
- DLegislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India
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Q80. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly. Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent' ?
- ANo, because it is not considered as a judgment
- BYes, because it is considered as a judgment
- CNo, because it is not pronounced in open court
- DYes, because it is pronounced in open court
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Q81. In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- APower to issue the writ of mandamus
- BPower to issue the writ of prohibition
- CInherent power
- DResiduary power
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Q82. The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?
- AArticle 19(1)(b), Constitution of India
- BRight to Information Act, 2005
- CArticle 19(1)(a), Constitution of India
- DArticle 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively
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Q83. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of 'Validation of certain Acts & Regulations' ?
- ASchedule IX
- BSchedule III
- CSchedule V
- DSchedule X
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Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India : I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court. II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted. III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope. Select the correct answer.
- AI is false.
- BII is false.
- CIII is false.
- DAll statements are true.
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Q85. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?
- ALower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.
- BLower Judiciary has to complain about its contempt to the Supreme Court of India.
- CLower Judiciary can itself punish the contemnor for having caused its contempt.
- DThe respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls.
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Q86. The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for :
- Athreatening judges and use of abusive language during proceedings.
- Bfiling false affidavits and making reckless allegations against judges.
- Cinterfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness.
- Dcirculating scandalous pamphlets against a sitting Chief Justice.
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Q87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I: i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages; ii. Punishment of bigamy; iii. Judicial separation; iv. Voidable marriages. List II: 1. Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 2. Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 3. Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 4. Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
- Ai-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
- Bi-4; ii-3; iii-2; iv-1
- Ci-4; ii-3; iii-1; iv-2
- Di-1; ii-2; iii-4; iv-3
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Q88. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties ?
- AThe creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt
- BThe debtor's family becomes liable for the unpaid amount
- CThe co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution
- DThe entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached
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Q89. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff ?
- AWhen the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff
- BWhen the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff
- CWhen the property is held as lessee or sub-tenant of the plaintiff
- DWhen the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff
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Q90. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Statement 1 : Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States. Statement 2 : For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to "High Court" in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals. In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct ?
- ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are false
- BOnly Statement 1 is true
- COnly Statement 2 is true
- DBoth the Statements are true
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Q91. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Reason (R) : The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed. In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Q92. A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance ?
- A25,000
- B50,000
- C75,000
- D1,00,000
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Q93. If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice ?
- ABy imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term
- BBy applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences
- CBy leaving the choice of punishment to the prosecuting authority
- DBy suspending the punishment until further clarification is made
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Q94. Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is :
- Avalid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice.
- Binvalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months.
- Cvalid, since the adolescent is given a full day of rest every week.
- Dinvalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment.
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Q95. Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 ?
- AA person who purchases a refrigerator on instalments for home use.
- BA person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use.
- CA person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose.
- DA person who uses furniture bought by a relative with the latter's consent.
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Q96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death. Reason (R) : This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law. In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Q97. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents. Conclusions : I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence. II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent's conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct ?
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
- DNeither Conclusion I nor II follows
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Q98. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license ?
- AThe place where the applicant has family ancestral property.
- BThe place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year.
- CThe place where the applicant votes in local body elections.
- DThe place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.
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Q99. If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court ?
- ATen years of imprisonment
- BTwenty years of imprisonment
- CForty years of imprisonment
- DFifty years of imprisonment
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Q100. According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer ?
- AVoluntary resignation from the post by the employee.
- BDismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work.
- CDeath or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease.
- DTransfer of the employee to another department within the same organization.
