AIBE 15 (XV) 2021 Set A is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, published at allindiabarexamination.com, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates.
-
Q1. Section 66-A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of
- AJustice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India
- BMP Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
- CShreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
- DGagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra
-
Q2. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of
- AThe Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
- BJohn Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
- CA. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
- DDinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar
-
Q3. According to Factories Act
- A"child" means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age;
- B"child" means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
- C"child" means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
- D"child" means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age
-
Q4. This UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act. - held in the case of
- AUnion of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
- BUnion of India Vs M.C. Mehta
- CTata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
- DUnion of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd
-
Q5. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in-
- Aa document signed by the parties;
- Ban exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
- Can exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
- DAll of the above
-
Q6. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under- ------- of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
- ASection 7
- BSection 4
- CSection 20
- DSection 22
-
Q7. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. - Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
- ASection 92
- BSection 124
- CSection 115
- DSection 101
-
Q8. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals
- AThe Arbitration Act, 1940,
- BThe Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
- Cthe Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
- DAll of the above
-
Q9. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of
- AUnlawful Assembly
- BArrest without warrant
- Csearch and seizures
- DPlea bargaining
-
Q10. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
- ASection 109 of Cr.P.C.
- BSection 110 of Cr.P.C
- CSection 111 of Cr.P.C.
- DNone of the above
-
Q11. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay?
- AA can, under Section 43 para 1
- BA can under Section 49 para 1
- CA cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
- DZ can be compelled only for one third
-
Q12. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as
- AAgency
- BBailment
- CGuarantee
- DContingency
-
Q13. Section 14A inserted by THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to
- APower of the Courts to engage experts
- BEstablishment of Special Court
- CExpeditious disposal of case
- DSpecific performance with regard to contracts
-
Q14. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under............ of the Constitution
- AArticle 323B
- BArticle 323A
- CArticle 233
- DArticle 323
-
Q15. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under
- ASection 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
- BSection 7 (1) (b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
- CSection 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
- DSection 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961
-
Q16. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules
- Aqualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
- Bthe class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
- Cthe standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose.
- DAll of the above
-
Q17. Requisites of a valid adoption: no adoption shall be valid unless- (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. - mentioned under
- ASection 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- BSection 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- CSection 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- DSection 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
-
Q18. According to the Muslim women (protection of right son marriage) act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be
- AVoid
- BCognizable
- Ccompoundable
- DAll of the above
-
Q19. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:
- Acoparcenary rights at par with men;
- Binheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
- Cinheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
- DAll of the above
-
Q20. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for
- ACustody of the Children
- BPermanent alimony and maintenance
- CMaintenance Pendente lite
- DDivision of matrimonial property
-
Q21. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under
- ASection 18 (2) (f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- BSection 18 (2) (d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- CSection 18 (2) (a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- DSection 18 (2) (g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
-
Q22. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under
- ASection 33 of CPC
- BSection 35A of CPC
- CSection 30 of CPC
- DSection 35 of CPC
-
Q23. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant
- AOrder 5 Rule 19A
- BOrder 5 Rule 19
- COrder 5 Rule 20
- DOrder 5 Rule 21
-
Q24. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;
- AThe facts that A asked C to lend him money,
- BD said to C in A's presence and hearing "I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,"
- CA went away without making any answer
- DAll of the above
-
Q25. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under
- ASection 25 of the Evidence Act
- BSection 26 of the Evidence Act
- CSection 27 of the Evidence Act
- DSection 29 of the Evidence Act
-
Q26. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. this is under........ of the Evidence Act
- ASection 42
- BSection 45
- CSection 50
- DSection 55
-
Q27. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, 'environmental pollutant' means
- Aany solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
- Bonly gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
- Cany solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
- Dany solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
-
Q28. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to
- AWildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- BScheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
- CThe Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
- Dboth A & B
-
Q29. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication - is known as
- APharming
- BSmishing
- CPhishing
- DDidling
-
Q30. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of
- A7 years.
- B10 years
- C11 years
- D14 years
-
Q31. "From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence.... In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.P.C." - This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of
- ANalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
- BRaj Singh Vs State (1998)
- CShamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
- DState of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta
-
Q32. Indemnity contract is defined under
- ASection 124 of the Indian Contract Act
- BSection 67 of the Indian Contract Act
- CSection 127 of the Indian Contract Act
- DSection 128 of the Indian Contract Act
-
Q33. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to
- ACoercion
- BFraud
- CMistake of fact
- DMistake of law
-
Q34. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
- ASection 162
- BSection 164
- CSection 163A
- DSection 165
-
Q35. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section........ of Cr.P.C.
-
Q36. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section....... of Cr.P.C
-
Q37. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of Transformative Constitutionalism' in the case of
- ANavtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
- BSuresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation (2010)
- CNaz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
- DAruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)
-
Q38. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
- Aany citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
- Bany person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
- Cany person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
- DAll of the above
-
Q39. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals
- AForfeiture of property in certain cases.
- BNotice of forfeiture of property
- CManagement of properties seized or forfeited
- DIdentifying unlawfully acquired property
-
Q40. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation is dealt under
- ASection 178 of Cr. P.C.
- BSection 469 of Cr. P.C.
- CSection 478 of Cr. P.C.
- DSection 168 of Cr. P.C.
-
Q41. "decree-holder" means
- Aany person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
- Bany person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
- Cany Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has. been made
- Dany corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
-
Q42. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
- Aa method of agriculture horticulture
- Ba presentation of information
- Ctopography of integrated circuits
- DAll of the above
-
Q43. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre- existing
-
Q44. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ
- Afor setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
- Bfor setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
- Cfor setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
- Dfor setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
-
Q45. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1) (a) read with Article 19 (2) in the case of
- AJustice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India
- BKharak singh Vs State of U.P.
- CGovinda Vs State of M.P.
- DShreya Singhal Vs Union of India
-
Q46. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be....
-
Q47. The utility of Public Interest Litigation
- ALiberalised locus standi
- BThe proceedings are non-Adversarial
- CProcedural requirements are liberalized
- DAll of the above
-
Q48. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has 'sufficient interest' to maintain a petition under Article 32- This relates to the case of
- AParmanand Katara Vs Union of India AIR 1989, SC 2039
- BD.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
- CNeeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984SC1099
- DChameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR 1996,SC1051
-
Q49. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons." - Justice Bhagwati in the case of
- APeoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
- BAshok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
- CS. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
- DJanata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary
-
Q50. The definition of 'money' under GST law does not include
- ALetter of Credit
- BCurrency held for numismatic value
- CPay order
- DTraveler cheque
-
Q51. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by
- APrime Minister and his Council of Ministers
- BRespective Governors of the State
- CThe President
- DA collective body of Union and States
-
Q52. The definition of Contract is defined under
- ASection 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
- BSection 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act.
- CSection 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
- DSection 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.
-
Q53. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under
- ASection 326 B of the Indian Penal Code
- BSection 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
- CSection 509 of the Indian Penal Code
- DSection 295B of the Indian Penal Code
-
Q54. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is
- AAn Offence of murder
- BAn offence of Culpable homicide
- CNot an offence
- DAn Offence of causing grievous hurt
-
Q55. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search-A has committed an Offence under
- ASection 256 of IPC
- BSection 192 of IPC
- CSection 195 A of IPC
- DSection 201(a)of IPC
-
Q56. India, that is Bharat, shall be a
- AFederation of States
- Bquasi federal
- CUnion of states
- DUnitary state of a special type
-
Q57. In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that
- AIn escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
- BIn escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
- CIn escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
- DA company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people
-
Q58. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as
- AA Contract of Uberrimae fide
- BImplied Agency
- CQuantum meruit
- DDe nova contract
-
Q59. Agreement is
- Aa promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
- Benforceable by law
- Cenforceable contract
- DUn enforceable by law
-
Q60. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression "land" includes
- Abenefits to arise out of land
- Bthings attached to the earth
- Cthings permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
- DAll of the above
-
Q61. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under
- ASection 32 of Land Acquisition Act
- BSection 30 of Land Acquisition Act
- CSection 35 of Land Acquisition Act
- DSection 31 of Land Acquisition Act
-
Q62. Suits by indigent persons is dealt under
- AOrder 44 of C.P.C
- BOrder 33 of C.P.C
- COrder 55 of C.P.C
- DOrder 22 of C.P.C
-
Q63. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under
- ASection 6 of the Evidence Act
- BSection 17 of the Evidence Act
- CSection 18 of the Evidence Act
- DSection 20 of the Evidence Act
-
Q64. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. - Under which section of the Advocates Act
- ASection 7
- BSection 8
- CSection 9
- DSection 6
-
Q65. According to Justice 'Abbot Parry' what are the "Seven Lamps of Advocacy".
- A(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
- B(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
- C(i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
- D(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
-
Q66. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company
-
Q67. An associate company, in relation to another company, means
- Aa company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
- Ba company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
- Ca company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company
- Da company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
-
Q68. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of
- AAruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)
- BCommon Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.
- CGian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
- DD Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. (1988)
-
Q69. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about
- ADoctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
- BDoctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
- CDoctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
- DDoctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is
-
Q70. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from
- AArticle 19 (1)(a)
- BArticle 20
- CArticle 13
- DArticle 14
-
Q71. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression 'liberty' is followed by the words
- Aof status and opportunity
- Bof thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
- CAssuring the dignity of the individual
- DJustice, social economic and political
-
Q72. According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a bond
- Aissued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
- Bin respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
- Cwhich the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
- DAll of the above
-
Q73. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by
- AThe Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016
- BThe Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
- CThe Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
- DThe Constitution (seventy-seven) Act 2016
-
Q74. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. - under which section of the India Evidence Act.
- ASection 12
- BSection 6
- CSection 3
- DSection 5
-
Q75. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with
- ADocumentary Evidence
- BExclusion of Oral Evidence
- CBurden of proof as to ownership
- DProof of guilt.
-
Q76. Section 113 (a) of the Evidence Act deals with
- APresumption as to abetment of murder
- BPresumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
- CPresumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
- DPresumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
-
Q77. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue
- AQueen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- BNiharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
- CKedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
- DAll of the above
-
Q78. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. - is an offence under
- ASection 295
- BSection 295A
- CSection 265A
- DSection 276
-
Q79. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except
- AA sentence of death
- BImprisonment for life
- CImprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
- DAll of the above
-
Q80. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil procedure is dealt under
- ASection 21A
- BSection 15
- CSection 218
- DSection 83
-
Q81. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor - is known as
- AIT Order
- BGarnishee Order
- CDecree Holder order
- DBank Order
-
Q82. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with
- AInterpleader suit
- BInterlocutory Order
- CRestitution Order
- DAttachment Order
-
Q83. Vis major means
- AAct of God
- BAct of Individual
- CAct of other party
- DAct of plaintiff
-
Q84. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means
- Aan act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
- Ban act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
- Can act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
- DNone of the above
-
Q85. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as
- AAbettors
- BJoint tortfeasors.
- CTort holders
- DTort holders in common
-
Q86. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and Fertilisers case relates to
- AOlieum Gas leak
- BGanga water cleaning
- CChild labour
- DBonded labour
-
Q87. A. K. Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to
- ALikelihood of Bias
- BDelegated Legislation
- CAdministrative Discretion
- DNotice
-
Q88. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of
- ADoctrine of Ultravires
- BMalafides
- CExclusion of Judicial Review
- DAll of the above
-
Q89. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section ---- of CPC
-
Q90. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with
- APresumption as to decisions of tribunals
- BPresumption as to foreign judgments
- CPresumption as to judgments of the lower court
- DPresumption as to judgments of High Court
-
Q91. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A
- AOnly in Delhi
- BOnly in Kolkata
- Cin both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
- Deither in Kolkata or in Delhi.
-
Q92. "Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability" - Justice Krishna Iyer. Name the case.
- AChandramalai Estate Vs Its workmen
- BAssociated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
- CGujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
- DIndian General Navigation and Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their workmen
-
Q93. A workman aggrieved by the order of............... may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government
- ADismissal, discharge and retrenchment
- BDismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
- CDischarge simpliciter exclusively
- DDismissal and retrenchment exclusively
-
Q94. The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in the year
-
Q95. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act, 1986
- A3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
- B5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
- C4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
- D2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
-
Q96. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of.
- A14 years
- B7 years
- C18 years
- D21 years
-
Q97. R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that
- AKilling an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder
- BNecessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable
- CKilling out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
- DNone of the above
-
Q98. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for
- ASection 6
- Bsection 10
- CSection 11
- DSection 13
-
Q99. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to
- AVoid marriages
- BVoidable marriages
- CCeremonies of Hindu marriage
- DConditions of Hindu marriage
-
Q100. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncle's son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is
- AValid
- BVoidable
- CVoid
- DValid only in north India
