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AIBE 18 (XVIII) 2023 Set A

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Paper AIBE XVIII 2023 Set A Section All questions (100) Marks +1 each, no negative marking AIBE XXII (22) in 42 days Locked

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AIBE 18 (XVIII) 2023 question paper, Set A: all 100 questions

AIBE 18 (XVIII) 2023 Set A is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing. Of its 100 questions, 7 were withdrawn by the Bar Council, so 93 are scored.

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  1. Q1. The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated from the experience of the following country?

    • AAmerica
    • BAustralia
    • CIreland
    • DUnited Kingdom

  2. Q2. Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority?

    • AMandamus
    • BQuo warranto
    • CCertiorari
    • DProhibition

  3. Q3. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?

    • A52nd Amendment
    • B54th Amendment
    • C56th Amendment
    • D58th Amendment

  4. Q4. Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legislation?

    • AState of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh
    • BM. Karunanidhi v Union of India
    • CState of Karnataka v Union of India
    • DKeshavan Madhava Menon v State of Bombay

  5. Q5. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?

    • AThe Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
    • BThe Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
    • CThe Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
    • DThe Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961

  6. Q6. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?

    • AArticle 248
    • BArticle 252
    • CArticle 254
    • DArticle 256

  7. Q7. What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing official language of Union from English to Hindi?

    • A5 years
    • B10 years
    • C15 years
    • D25 years

  8. Q8. In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?

    • AChakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar
    • BK.C. Vasanth Kumar v State of Karnataka
    • CA.B.S.K. Sangh (Rly) v Union of India
    • DState of Kerala v N.M. Thomas

  9. Q9. Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of India?

    • AArticle 19(1)(b)
    • BArticle 19(1)(d)
    • CArticle 19(1)(e)
    • DArticle 19(1)(g)

  10. Q10. Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?

    • ADoctrine of Harmonious construction
    • BDoctrine of Casus Omissus
    • CDoctrine of Liberal interpretation
    • DDoctrine of Pith and substance

  11. Q11. In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, 1860 may not apply? i. An offence committed by Indians outside India. ii. An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India. iii. Any person committing offence targeting computer resources located in any country.

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • AOnly i
    • BOnly ii
    • COnly iii
    • DOnly i & ii

  12. Q12. How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

    • A3
    • B4
    • C5
    • D6

  13. Q13. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing, while playing fairly, A hurts Z severely. Which of the following offence is committed by A?

    • AHurt
    • BAttempt to murder
    • CGrievous hurt
    • DNo offence

  14. Q14. In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend to causing death?

    • AIn case when an assault is causing apprehension of murder.
    • BIn case when assault is reflecting intention of committing rape.
    • CIn case when assault is reflecting intention of causing simple hurt.
    • DIn case when assault is reflecting intention of gratifying unnatural lust.

  15. Q15. For which of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word benefit does not include pecuniary benefits?

    • ASection 89
    • BSection 155
    • CSection 156
    • DSection 370

  16. Q16. X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil without her consent intending to annoy her. As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following offence he has committed?

    • AHurt
    • BCriminal force
    • CAssault
    • DGrievous hurt

  17. Q17. What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order that such minor may be used for the purposes of begging?

    • AImprisonment for 5 years and fine
    • BImprisonment for 7 years and fine
    • CImprisonment for 10 years and fine
    • DImprisonment for life and fine

  18. Q18. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him money. Which of the following punishment may be given to X for the act committed by him as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

    • AImprisonment upto 2 years, or with fine or with both.
    • BImprisonment upto 3 years, or with fine or with both.
    • CImprisonment upto 5 years, or with fine or with both.
    • DImprisonment upto 7 years, or with fine or with both.

  19. Q19. Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorised to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    • ASentence of death.
    • BSentence of imprisonment for life.
    • CSentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
    • DSentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.

  20. Q20. A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer if such person comes under which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    • ASection 41
    • BSection 41A
    • CSection 42
    • DSection 43

  21. Q21. Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled for maintenance under Section. 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • AHusband presumes that wife is living in adultery.
    • BVoluntarily wife refuses to live with husband.
    • CWife living separately as husband keeps a mistress.
    • DWife is forcefully removed from the house.

  22. Q22. Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    • AMedical examination of the victim of rape.
    • BAttendance of witness by police officer.
    • CRecording of confession statement.
    • DRecording of first information report by police officer.

  23. Q23. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to diary of proceedings in investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    • AThe statements of witnesses recorded during investigation shall be inserted in the diary.
    • BThe diary shall be duly paginated.
    • CThe diary may be used as evidence.
    • DCan be used by the police officers to refresh memory.

  24. Q24. In which of the following cases manner of committing offence is not required to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    • AA is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.
    • BA is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.
    • CA is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.
    • DA is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.

  25. Q25. Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • AOffence under Section 454 of the IPC.
    • BOffence under Section 504 of the IPC.
    • COffence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
    • DOffence punishable with life imprisonment.

  26. Q26. Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for reference to High Court?

    • ASection 275
    • BSection 325
    • CSection 383
    • DSection 395

  27. Q27. A person accused of the following offence may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: i. Accused of offence under Section 376AB of the IPC. ii. Accused of offence under Section 376DA of the IPC. iii. Accused of offence under Section 376DB of the IPC.

    • Ai & ii
    • Bii & iii
    • Ciii & i
    • Di, ii & iii

  28. Q28. Which of the following act if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered, shall vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • ATender a pardon under Section 306 of CrPC.
    • BRecall a case and try it under Section 410 of the CrPC.
    • CAttaches property under Section 83 of the CrPC.
    • DHold an inquest under Section 176 of the CrPC.

  29. Q29. Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • AAverments made in the plaint
    • BAverments made in the written statement
    • CBoth (A) & (B)
    • DNeither (A) nor (B)

  30. Q30. Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • ASuit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
    • BSuit for rights of franchise.
    • CSuit for specific reliefs.
    • DSuit relating to rights of worship.

  31. Q31. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in representative suit?

    • ASection 11, Explanation V
    • BSection 11, Explanation VI
    • CSection 11, Explanation VII
    • DSection 11, Explanation VIII

  32. Q32. In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant?

    • AIf defendant reside within the local limit of the court's jurisdiction.
    • BIf defendant resides with within 40 miles from the court.
    • CIf defendant resides 250 miles away from the court in an area having public conveyance available.
    • DWoman to whom Section 132 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply.

  33. Q33. In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • ADismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff's failure to pay costs.
    • BDismissal of suit because neither party appeared.
    • CDismissal of suit in because plaintiff did not appear.
    • DDismissal of suit because plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within given time limit once it returned unserved.

  34. Q34. How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • ATwo times
    • BThree times
    • CFour times
    • DNo limit prescribed

  35. Q35. Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?

    • AThe Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
    • BThe Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
    • CThe Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
    • DSuch provision does not exist.

  36. Q36. Which of the following is not included in the word costs as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • AThe expenses of the witnesses incurred.
    • BLegal fees and expenses incurred.
    • CFooding and lodging expenses incurred.
    • DAny other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings.

  37. Q37. What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for service of notice on him in case of a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?

    • ASeven days from the date of receiving of summons.
    • BTen days from the date of receiving of summons.
    • CFifteen days from the date of receiving of summons.
    • DThirty days from the date of receiving of summons.

  38. Q38. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to lower court?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • AOrder XLI Rule 23
    • BOrder XLI Rule 23-A
    • COrder XLI Rule 24
    • DOrder XLI Rule 25

  39. Q39. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

    • AWhatever said by A or B at the time of beating.
    • BWhatever done by A or B at the time of beating.
    • CWhatever said by by-standers at the time of beating.
    • DWhatever said by A or B a day before the day of beating.

  40. Q40. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that the confession to police-officer shall not be proved against him?

    • ASection 24
    • BSection 25
    • CSection 26
    • DSection 27

  41. Q41. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?

    • ASection 25
    • BSection 29
    • CSection 32
    • DSection 37

  42. Q42. Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of the documents?

    • AContents of the documents shall be proved by primary evidence.
    • BContents of the documents may be proved by secondary evidence.
    • CContents of the documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence.
    • DContents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.

  43. Q43. Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

    • ALeading questions may be asked in examination- in-chief.
    • BLeading questions may be asked in cross- examination.
    • CLeading questions may be asked in re- examination.
    • DLeading question cannot be asked in cross- examination.

  44. Q44. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence?

    • AAnvar P.V. v P.K. Basheer
    • BState of Haryana v Jai Singh
    • CState of Maharashtra v Natwarlal Damodardas Soni
    • DState of Punjab v Jagir Singh

  45. Q45. Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

    • AConfession always go against a person making it.
    • BAdmissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted.
    • CAdmissions may operate as an estoppel.
    • DConfession is statement written or oral which is direct admission of suit.

  46. Q46. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?

    • ASection 32 (1)
    • BSection 32 (2)
    • CSection 32 (3)
    • DSection 32 (5)

  47. Q47. Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

    • AArbitration
    • BConciliation
    • CLok Adalat
    • DNegotiation

  48. Q48. Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?

    • ANo court fee is required in Lok Adalat.
    • BLok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal matters.
    • CAward of Lok Adalat is a deemed decree.
    • DNo appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed.

  49. Q49. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

    • AArbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.
    • BArbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.
    • CArbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.
    • DArbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may arise between the parties.

  50. Q50. In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

    • AWhen a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.
    • BWhen a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.
    • CWhen he possesses the qualifications agreed by the party.
    • DWhen he becomes ineligible as per the seventh schedule of the Act.

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  1. Q51. When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

    • AWhen they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.
    • BWhen they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.
    • CWhen they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.
    • DWhen they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.

  2. Q52. Which of the following is generally not considered as a valid condition for a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

    • AThe parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
    • BThe parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.
    • CThe parties should not be sapindas of each other.
    • DThe parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.

  3. Q53. Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following: i. Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights ii. Grounds for judicial separation iii. Grounds for divorce

    • Ai & ii
    • Bii & iii
    • Ciii & i
    • DOnly iii

  4. Q54. What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?

    • AValid marriage
    • BVoid marriage
    • CVoidable marriage
    • DIrregular marriage

  5. Q55. What is 'a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her' called under the Muslim Law?

    • ATalaq-us-sunnat.
    • BTalaq-ul-biddat
    • CTalaq-i-tafweez
    • DTalaq-a-hasan

  6. Q56. A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law: i. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ii. The Special Marriage Act, 1954

    • AOnly i is correct.
    • BOnly ii is correct.
    • CBoth i and ii are correct.
    • DNeither i nor ii is correct.

  7. Q57. Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparcenary property is made available to a girl child as well?

    • AThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002
    • BThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
    • CThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
    • DThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006

  8. Q58. What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter for a valid adoption?

    • A15 years
    • B18 years
    • C21 years
    • DNo specific age difference required.

  9. Q59. Which of the following case may be considered as the first reported case of PIL in India?

    • AS.P. Gupta v Union of India
    • BHussainara Khatoon v State of Bihar
    • CM.C. Mehta v Union of India
    • DKalyaneshwari v Union of India

  10. Q60. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?

    • AJustice S.R. Das
    • BJustice V.R. Krishna Iyer
    • CJustice P.N. Bhagwati
    • DJustice H.R. Khanna

  11. Q61. Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?

    • AAgainst a State Government
    • BAgainst Central Government
    • CAgainst a private party
    • DAgainst Municipal Corporation

  12. Q62. In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?

    • ABonded labour matters.
    • BPetition from jail for pre-mature release.
    • CMatters pertaining to neglected children.
    • DPetitions against police for refusing to register a case.

  13. Q63. In which of the following landmark case it was held that Principles of Natural Justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?

    • AA.K. Kraipak v Union of India
    • BRam Jawaya Kapoor v State of Punjab
    • CSonik Industries Rajkot v Municipal Corporation, Rajkot
    • DManeka Gandhi v Union of India

  14. Q64. In which of the following judgment the Supreme Court had comprehensively reconsidered S.P. Sampath Kumar v Union of India case?

    • AJ.B. Chopra v Union of India
    • BL. Chandra Kumar v Union of India
    • CR.K. Jain v Union of India
    • DS.K. Sarkar v Vinay Chandra Mishra

  15. Q65. Who among the following defined administrative law as 'the law relating to the control of governmental power'?

    • AIvor Jennings
    • BWade
    • CK.C. Davis
    • DGarner

  16. Q66. What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practising in courts under the Advocate Act, 1961?

    • AImprisonment upto 3 months
    • BImprisonment upto 6 months
    • CImprisonment upto 9 months
    • DImprisonment upto 12 months

  17. Q67. Which provision of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates?

    • ASection 42
    • BSection 42A
    • CSection 48A
    • DSection 49

  18. Q68. Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India Rules?

    • AAn Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.
    • BAn advocate shall appear in court at all times only in the prescribed dress.
    • CAn Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.
    • DAn Advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any improper means.

  19. Q69. Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?

    • AChairman of the Bar Council of India
    • BVice-chairman of the Bar Council of India
    • CHigh Courts
    • DSupreme Court of India

  20. Q70. In which of the following situations a one person company (OPC) will mandatorily get converted into either private or public company?

    • AIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.
    • BIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
    • CIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.
    • DIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.

  21. Q71. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?

    • A2
    • B3
    • C5
    • D7

  22. Q72. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India had explained the Precautionary Principle in details?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • AVellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v Union of India
    • BA.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
    • CIndian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
    • DM.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath

  23. Q73. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in the Environmental Law?

    • AVellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v Union of India
    • BOlga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation
    • CIndian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
    • DM.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath

  24. Q74. In which of the following case Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down by the Supreme Court?

    • AShreya Singhal v Union of India
    • BKartar Singh v State of Punjab
    • CK.A. Abbas v Union of India
    • DManeka Gandhi v Union of India

  25. Q75. In which of the following case an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?

    • AElectronic record sent by the originator himself.
    • BElectronic record sent by an authorised person.
    • CElectronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.
    • DElectronic record sent by an unauthorized person.

  26. Q76. What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?

    • A6 weeks
    • B8 weeks
    • C12 weeks
    • D26 weeks

  27. Q77. For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?

    • A2 weeks
    • B4 weeks
    • C6 weeks
    • D8 weeks

  28. Q78. What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?

    • A100 workers
    • B150 workers
    • C200 workers
    • D250 workers

  29. Q79. Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

    • AA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 6,000.
    • BA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 8,000.
    • CA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 10,000.
    • DA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 12,000.

  30. Q80. Who has defined tort as 'tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages'?

    • ALindsell
    • BPollock
    • CSalmond
    • DWinfield

  31. Q81. Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims?

    • ADamnum sine injuria
    • BInjuria sine demno
    • CUbi jus ibi remedium
    • DVolenti non fit injuria

  32. Q82. Which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to no fault liability?

    • ASection 140
    • BSection 151
    • CSection 162
    • DSection 128

  33. Q83. How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

    • A2
    • B4
    • C6
    • D8

  34. Q84. Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on promotion and protection of consumers' right under the Act?

    Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.

    • ACentral Consumer Protection Authority
    • BCentral Consumer Protection Council
    • CState Consumer Protection Authority
    • DState Consumer Protection Council

  35. Q85. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?

    • AArticle 246
    • BArticle 256
    • CArticle 260
    • DArticle 265

  36. Q86. Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?

    • AStart from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
    • BStart from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
    • CStart from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st December, 2020.
    • DStart from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020

  37. Q87. As per the Income Tax Act, 1961 a person is said to be resident of India in any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in the previous year:

    • A180 days
    • B182 days
    • C184 days
    • D186 days

  38. Q88. Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

    • ASection 2(31)
    • BSection 2(24)
    • CSection 2(9)
    • DSection 3

  39. Q89. Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

    • AA promise made without intention of performing it.
    • BAn active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.
    • CMere silence if not duty bound to speak
    • DAny act or omission law specifically declares to be fraudulent.

  40. Q90. Which of the following statement is correct if A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A's factory, and thereby induces B to buy the factory?

    • AContract is void ab initio.
    • BContract is voidable at the option of A.
    • CContract is voidable at the option of B.
    • DContract is voidable at the option of A & B.

  41. Q91. Which of the following injunction can be granted only by the decree made at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?

    • ATemporary injunction
    • BPerpetual injunction
    • CMandatory injunction
    • DProhibitory injunction

  42. Q92. A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

    • ASection 73
    • BSection 74
    • CSection 75
    • DSection 76

  43. Q93. What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

    • A6% per annum
    • B8% per annum
    • C9% per annum
    • DNo default rate prescribed.

  44. Q94. Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

    • ALife of the transferee
    • BA period of 18 years from the date of transfer
    • CEither (A) or (B) whichever is longer
    • DNeither (A) nor (B)

  45. Q95. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

    • APromissory note
    • BHundi
    • CBill of exchange
    • DCheque

  46. Q96. In the light of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instruments?

    • A6% per annum
    • B10% per annum
    • C18% per annum
    • D20% per annum

  47. Q97. Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no award is made, the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land shall lapse as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

    • A6 months
    • B12 months
    • C18 months
    • D24 months

  48. Q98. What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right To Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

    • A75%
    • B80%
    • C90%
    • D100%

  49. Q99. Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes. What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made by them?

    • APatents
    • BGeographical Indications
    • CTrademarks
    • DRegistered designs

  50. Q100. How long do patents usually last for?

    • A10 years
    • B20 years
    • C25 years
    • D50 years

That is all 100. Now sit AIBE 18 (XVIII) 2023 Set A as a 3-hour timed test: your score, your rank and the official answer to every question, and the same for every other AIBE question paper here.

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