AIBE 11 (XI) 2017 Set C is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, published at allindiabarexamination.com, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates.
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Q1. The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from-
- AFrench administration
- BBritish Administration
- CSwedish Administration
- DGerman Administration.
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Q2. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, an inquiry Commission is appointed by-
- ACentral Government or State Government
- BUnion Public Services Commission
- CState Public commission
- DSupreme Court of India
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Q3. Information Technology Act was enacted in-
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Q4. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective-
- ATo provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
- BTo facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the Government
- CTo amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
- DAll of the above
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Q5. What is meant by Homicide -
- ASuicide by human being not at home
- BSuicide at home
- CKilling of a human being by another human being
- DKilling of human being by animal
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Q6. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence
- AUnder Section 274-276 of IPC
- BUnder Section 277-278 of IPC
- CUnder Section 272-273 of IPC
- DNone of the above
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Q7. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
- ARigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
- BRigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
- CRigorous imprisonment for life term
- DDeath sentence
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Q8. Offences relating to elections are -
- AContained in the IPC as originally enacted
- BAre introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
- CAre not covered by IPC
- DNone of the above
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Q9. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
- AWrongful restraint
- BWrongful confinement
- COutrage the modesty of a woman
- DMaintenance to the divorced woman
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Q10. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to
- AWater pollution
- BAir and water pollution
- CNoise and air pollution
- DWater and noise pollution
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Q11. What is the punishment for advocates if the established findings of the Bar Council is misappropriation -
- AImpose a fine
- BName of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
- CSuspension from practice
- DAll of the above
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Q12. On being aggrieved by the order of state Bar Council, one can appeal to
- AHigh Court
- BSupreme Court
- CBar Council of India
- DIndian Law Commission
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Q13. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates
- ASection 29
- BSection 35
- CSection 37
- DAll of the above
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Q14. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with-
- AQualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the bar
- BQualification to become the Advocate General
- CQualification to become the Solicitor General of India
- D(2) and (3)
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Q15. Under the Workmen's Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
- AInsurance certificate
- BMedical examination
- CMedical Certificate
- D(2) and (3)
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Q16. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 says that the commissioner shall have the power of -
- AA Court
- BA Tribunal
- CA quasi judicial form
- DAll of the above
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Q17. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is -
- AIndustrial peace and economic justice
- BTo create harmonious relation between employer and employee
- CTo prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.
- DAll of the above
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Q18. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of
- ALock out
- BLay off
- CStrike
- DHartal
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Q19. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
- A1st March, 1955
- B1st March, 1986
- C1st March, 1994
- D1st March, 1894
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Q20. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means
- AUseful for residential purpose
- BUseful for commercial purpose
- CUseful for cultivation
- DUseful for industrial purpose
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Q21. Section 154 under IT Act is;
- AFor filing return of income
- BFor filing return with late fee
- CRectification of mistakes
- DAppeal against the order passed by the IT
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Q22. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act
- AAny stock in trade
- BSpecial Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
- C(1) and (2)
- DNone of the above
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Q23. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by
- AThe Tribunal
- BParties understanding to decide by mutual
- CThe petitioner
- DThe Defendant
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Q24. The Arbitral proceedings shall stand terminated
- AOn making on the final award
- BBy an order of the arbitral tribunal
- CWhen the parties to the dispute agrees to terminate proceedings
- DAll of the above
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Q25. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a
- AOrder of district collector
- BOrder of Income Tax commissioner
- CDecree of a civil court
- D(1) and (2)
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Q26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Section 18-27 states
- AThe Conducting of Arbitral proceedings
- BReceipt and Written Communications
- CExternal of judicial intervention
- DAwarding final decision
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Q27. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given state, under Section 271 of Cr.P.C.
- AState Government
- BCentral Government
- CSupreme Court of India
- D(1) and (2) Both
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Q28. A decree can be -
- AFinal
- BPreliminary
- COnly Preliminary not final
- DEither preliminary or final
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Q29. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC-
- AUnder Section 2 (6) of CPC
- BUnder Section 2(7) of CPC
- CUnder Section 2(8) of CPC
- DNone of the above
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Q30. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under
- AArticle 310
- BArticle 315
- CArticle 320
- DArticle 325
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Q31. Right to personal liberty includes-
- ARight against custodial violence
- BRight of under trials to separate them from convicted
- CRight against Public hanging
- DAll of the above
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Q32. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is -
- APresident
- BPrime Minister
- CThe Defence Minister
- DChief Marshal
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Q33. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
- A62 years
- B60 years
- C58 years
- D65 years
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Q34. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of-
- AConcurrent list.
- BState list
- CUnion list
- DNone of the above
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Q35. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in-
- ASection 2 (a) of CrPC
- BSection 2 (b) of CrPc
- CSection 2 (c) of CrPc
- DSection 20 of IPC
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Q36. Under Section 21 of CrPC Special Executive appointed by Magistrate may be
- ACentral Government
- BHigh Court
- CSupreme Court
- DState Government
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Q37. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person
- AUnder Section 49, CrPC
- BUnder Section 50, CrPC
- CUnder Section 51, CrPC
- DUnder Section 52, CrPC
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Q38. The Special Court is-
- ANot subordinate to High Court
- BSuperior to High Court
- CSupplement to High Court
- DEqual to Supreme Court
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Q39. The powers under Section 159 of CrPC can be exercised by a magistrate-
- AWhen the police decides not to investigate the case
- BWhen the investigation is still going on
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of the above
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Q40. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 can be used in trial
- AFor contradicting the witness
- BFor corroborating the witness
- CIncorporating in the charge sheet
- DDischarging the accused
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Q41. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided
- AUnder Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
- BUnder Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
- CUnder Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
- DNone of the above
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Q42. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in CrPC
- AUnder Section 214
- BUnder Section 215
- CUnder Section 216
- DUnder Section 210
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Q43. Under Sections 59 to 60 of Indian Act the oral statement Evidence means
- AAll statements made before the Court by the witness
- BAll statement made before the police by the accused
- CAll statement of facts which a witness heard to say
- DAll of the above
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Q44. Under the Evidence Act, Court includes
- AAll Judges
- BAll Magistrates
- CAll Arbitrators
- D(1) and (2)
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Q45. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of
- AUnder Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
- BUnder Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
- CUnder Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
- DNone of the above
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Q46. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
- ADocument forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
- BDocuments forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
- CDocuments and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
- DDocuments and circulars from University of Delhi
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Q47. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
- APossession of driving licence while
- BPossession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
- CRevoking driving licence if drunk drive is detected
- DState government's power to control the road transport
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Q48. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
- AMust be a Hindu only
- BA Hindu or Jew
- CMay be Hindu or Christian
- DNone of the above
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Q49. Polygamy was permitted in Hindus before the year
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Q50. Mohan gets married to his sister's daughter Kriti
- AThe marriage is valid if the custom allows it
- BThe marriage is void
- CThe marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
- DThe marriage is valid only the Panchayat permits
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Q51. Within the purview of water Act, the meaning of stream is defined as-
- AIncludes a river but not a water course
- BIncludes a water course but not a river
- CIncludes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
- DIncludes a river, a water course and subterranean river
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Q52. Cheque bouncing cases charged under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trained by
- ABank Tribunal
- BConsumer Forum
- CMagistrate Court
- DSessions Court
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Q53. Which of the following is not a civil nature -
- ARight to take out procession
- BRight to worship in a temple
- CRight to Caste and Religion
- DAll of the above
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Q54. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies -
- AThe suit is liable to be dismissed
- BThe suit is liable to be stayed
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of the above
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Q55. Under Section 16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction is -
- AWhere the property is situated
- BWhere the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of the above
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Q56. Pleading means -
- APlaint and written statement
- BPlaint only
- CWritten statement
- DOral statement by the pleader
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Q57. On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII rule 10 of CPC the court may
- Apass any other order
- BOrder for striking off the decree
- CMay pronounce the judgement at once
- DAny of the above
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Q58. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government
- ASection 5
- BSection 6
- CSection 7
- DSection 8
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Q59. The Patent Act became a law in
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Q60. Which one is not a fundamental right?
- ARight to Freedom of Assembly
- BRight to Property
- CRight to equality
- DRight to freedom of speech and Expression
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Q61. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
- AConfiscation of Passport was correct
- BRight to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
- CRight to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of passport is not in accordance to the law
- DNone of the above
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Q62. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement
- AIn the interest of general public
- BIn the interest of political leaders
- CIn the interest of women safety
- DAll of the above
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Q63. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of constitution
- AA company
- BA corporation
- COnly citizens
- DCitizens and aliens
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Q64. Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be -
- AAn accused
- BA witness
- CA witness against himself
- DHostile witness
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Q65. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as
- AJudges Transfer case
- BIllegal Detention case
- CMandal Commission case
- DConstitutional case
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Q66. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted wan
- ANK Chanda V/s State of Haryana
- BOlga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
- CPV. Narasimha Rao V/s Union of India
- DRatlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
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Q67. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is
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Q68. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives
- ACertification of incorporation
- BLetter of intent
- COccupation certificate
- DNone of the above
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Q69. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee
- AConcurrence of three parties fairies.
- BSurety's distinct promise to answerable
- CLiabilities to be legally enforceable
- DExistence of only one contract
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Q70. The term 'Agent' is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section
- A180 of the Act
- B181 of the Act
- C182 of the Act
- D183 of the Act
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Q71. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business
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Q72. A person who gives the guarantee is called
- ABailee
- BCreditor
- CDebtor
- DSurety
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Q73. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods
- ALien
- BStoppage in transit
- CRight of resale
- DTo ascertain price
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Q74. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
- AInjunctions
- BCourt's discretion on specific performance
- CCancellation of instruments
- DNone of the above
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Q75. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under
- AArticle 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the Constitution
- BUnder Section 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
- C(1) and (2) Both
- DNone of the above
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Q76. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
- AFree Legal Aid
- BBonded labours
- CJudges Transfer
- DIllegal detention
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Q77. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved
- ABasic future and Basic structure doctrine
- BPublic Trust doctrine
- CSeparation of power doctrine
- DPublic Interest doctrine
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Q78. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to
- ASexual harassment at workplace
- BProtection civil rights
- CUniform civil code
- DNone of the above
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Q79. Courts power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act
- AUnder Section 20
- BUnder Section 21.
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of the above
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Q80. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act
- ABy the opinion of Experts
- BBy the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
- CAfter police verification
- DBoth (1) and (2)
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Q81. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
- ANo confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
- BConfession made by a person in police custody is admissible
- CConfession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
- DBoth (1) and (3)
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Q82. The term 'Evidence' means and includes
- AOral evidence
- BDocumentary evidence
- CElectronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
- DAll of the above
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Q83. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999 defines the meaning of
- ALicence
- BTrade Mark
- CRegistration
- DCancellation
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Q84. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC
- ASection 376 (a)
- BSection 376 (b)
- CSection 354
- DSection 498
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Q85. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code) deals with the crime of
- AHouse breaking
- BDishonest misappropriation of property
- CForgery
- DForgery with cheating
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Q86. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
- ASection 503 to 506
- BSection 509 to 516
- CSection 319 to 329
- DNone of the above
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Q87. The term Tort is a-
- ALatin Word
- BFrench Word
- CEnglish Word
- DItalian Word
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Q88. In Tort, what is vicarious liability?
- AA person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
- BA person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
- CA person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
- DNone of the above
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Q89. Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, defect is meant by any fault, imperfection or Short coming in ... in relation to the goods
- AQuality and Quantity
- BPotency
- CPurity or Standard
- DAll of the above
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Q90. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God
- AStorm and cyclone
- BExtra ordinary rainfall or flood
- CLightning and thunder
- DAll of the above
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Q91. Income Tax Act was enacted in
- A1951
- B1961
- C1971
- DNone of the above
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Q92. Income is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act as-
- AProfits and gains
- BDividends
- CVoluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
- DAll of the above
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Q93. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on
- AThe High Court
- BThe Court of Civil Judge
- CThe District Judge
- DNone of the above
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Q94. Temporary Injunction can be granted
- ASuo moto
- BEx parte
- CHearing both parties
- DAll of the above
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Q95. Right to Appeal is a -
- ANatural right
- BInherent right
- CStatutory right
- DDelegated right
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Q96. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
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Q97. Which is the correct statement-
- AThere can be a will without a codicil
- BThere can be a codicil without a will
- CEvery will has a codicil
- DA codicil proceeds a will
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Q98. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, Will should be attested by-
- ABy two witnesses
- BBy two or more witness
- COnly one witness who is not a relative of testator
- DNone of the above
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Q99. 'Iddat' under Mohammadan Law refers to
- AA gift made on the occasion of marriage
- BThe right of the husband to divorce his wife
- CAttain of puberty
- DNone of the above
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Q100. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any District is appointed by
- AState Government
- BThe Central Government
- CThe Clergyman of the Church
- DHigh Court Judges
