AIBE 12 (XII) 2018 Set B is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing. Of its 100 questions, 5 were withdrawn by the Bar Council, so 95 are scored.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, published at allindiabarexamination.com, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates.
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Q1. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court
- AAny public-spirited person
- BNGO or Association with public spirit
- CGroup of public-spirited persons who have no personal interest
- DAll the above
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Q2. Doctrine of 'Pleasure' applies to
- ALegislative
- BCivil Servants
- CJudges
- DCabinet Ministers
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Q3. Articles of a company can be altered by
- AThe directors of the company
- BThe official of the company
- CShareholders by passing an ordinary resolution
- DShareholders by passing a special resolution
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Q4. Article 361 provides
- AAuthority to Union government to dismiss the state governments
- BAuthority to the state governments to pass legislation
- CProtection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts
- DNone of the above
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Q5. Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with
- ASection 298 of IPC
- BSection 296 IPC
- CSection 297 IPC
- DNone of the above
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Q6. Under Section 320 (1), Cr.P.C. for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable
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Q7. Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism
- ABar Council of India
- BElection Commission
- CComptroller and Auditor General
- DLok Adalat
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Q8. Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor
- AFather
- BBrother
- CThe executor appointed by father
- DGrand father
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Q9. Indian Evidence Act was enacted in
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Q10. Which is the correct state statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer
- ALawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott'
- BAn advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
- CAn advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
- DAll of the above
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Q11. Droite Administration is a system of administration
- AFrench system
- BBritish system
- CAmerican system
- DIrish System
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Q12. Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes
- AIndian Telecommunication Act
- BIndian Penal Code
- CIndian Evidence Act
- DInformation Technology Act
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Q13. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in
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Q14. A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts
- ASection 107, IPC
- BSection 120 (B) of IPC
- CSection 114 of IPC
- DSection 144 of IPC
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Q15. A land mark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is
- AKeshavanand Bharti V/s. State of Kerela
- BGolaknath V.s State of Punjab
- CMC Mehta V/s. Union of India
- DADM Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla
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Q16. Section 24A of Advocates Act 1961 provides the
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AAppointment of Attorney General
- BRegular attendance at law College
- CAdmitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
- DElection to state Bar Council
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Q17. Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least
- A100 shares
- B20 shares
- C10 shares
- D1 share
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Q18. GST came into force from
- A1st January, 2017
- B1st April, 2017
- C1st July, 2017
- D1st August, 2017
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Q19. Examination in Chief is conducted by the
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AChief Examiner of the court
- BA lawyer appointed by the accused
- CA lawyer appointed by the government
- DPresiding judge in the court
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Q20. The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of
- AThe Stockholm Conference
- BThe Nairobi Conference
- CThe Vienna Conference
- DThe Rio De Janeiro Conference
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Q21. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under
- AWealth Tax
- BGST
- CIncome Tax Act, 1961
- DFinance Act, 1992
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Q22. A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is..........
- AIrregular
- BVoid
- CVoidable
- DNone of these
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Q23. Section 10 of the CPC provides for
- AStay of the suit
- BSummoning witness
- CExamination of witness
- DSentencing the judgement
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Q24. Who is prevented from being testified under Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act
- AA lunatic who cannot understand the question put to him
- BExtreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
- CA tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
- DAll the above
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Q25. Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai V/s. Union of India
- ARelating to the President Rule in state
- BRelating to the illegal detention
- CRelating to the right to clean environment
- DNone of the above
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Q26. The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in
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Q27. Who is lawful guardian
- AA person who in law represents the Minor
- BA person who has been appointed by the court
- CA person who has been authorized to represent an unmarried daughter
- DAll the above
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Q28. Who is a protected workman
- AWorkman given police protection during labour strike
- BWorkman protected by insurance coverage
- CWorkman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
- DWorkman protected from being arrested by a court order
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Q29. A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of
- AA word
- BA device
- CA label
- DAll the above
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Q30. The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of
- ALegal Service Corporation Act, 1974
- BLegal Aid and Advice Act, 1949
- CLegal Services Authorities Act, 1987
- DNone Of the above
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Q31. Shah Bano case was related to
- ADowry demand
- BHarassment at work place
- CMaintenance of divorced Muslim women
- DTriple divorce of Muslim Women
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Q32. Who is garnishee
- AA third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
- BA borrower arrested for defaulting
- CA person who cannot repay a bank loan
- DA person who mortgaged his farm land
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Q33. Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the court
- AThe Tahsildar
- BThe Sub Collector
- CThe Deputy Collector
- DThe Collector
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Q34. For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in
- A3 years
- B3 months
- C6 months
- DNo specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
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Q35. Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section
- ASection 2(1)(b)
- BSection 20
- CSection 21
- DNone of the above
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Q36. Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the code of civil procedure?
- AOrder 12, Rule 1
- BOrder 17, Rule 10
- COrder 33, Rule 18
- DOrder 35, Rule 1
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Q37. The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:
- AHanda v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
- BDr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
- CPeter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
- DNone of the above
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Q38. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by
- ASection 25
- BSection 33
- CSection 35
- DNone of the above
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Q39. Which one is a case of public interest
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AVishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
- BMinerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
- CMunicipal Council, Ratlam Vs. Vardichand AIR 1980
- DAll the above
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Q40. Under Section 239 CrPC, the Magistrate can
- AFrame charges against the accused person
- BDischarge the accused if charges are groundless
- COpen trial for evidence
- DConvict the accused if pleaded guilty
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Q41. Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances
- AWhen the state legislature is not in session
- BDuring the course of legislature session
- COn the recommendation of the state cabinet
- DWith the permission of the union government
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Q42. A person arrested should not be detained more than
- A48 hours
- B24 hours
- C14 days
- D90 days
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Q43. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance
- ASon who is a minor
- BDaughter who is not married
- CGrand parents
- DAn illegitimate son
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Q44. In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on
- AThe Petitioner
- BThe respondents
- CThe state government
- DThe Court
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Q45. In which of the following of Section 59 Cr.P.C. the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place
- AOn his own bond
- BOn bail
- CUnder special order of the Magistrate
- DAll of them
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Q46. Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to he Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 is
- ADispute between employers and employers
- BDispute between employers and workman
- CDispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non- employment
- DAll the above
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Q47. English case Ryland V/s. Fletcher laid down a very important rule
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AAbsolute Liability
- BVicarious Liability
- CIndirect Liability
- DFinancial Liability
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Q48. Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:
- AThe parties must be competent to contract
- BThere must be mental consent
- CThere must be a transfer of property
- DThere must be an agreement to sell
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Q49. "Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law". In which case supreme court made this remark
- AA. K. Gopalan V/s State of Madras
- BM.C Mehta V/s Union of India
- CD. K Basu V/s State of Bengal
- Dvishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
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Q50. Doctrine of "LIS PENDENS" is given under which section of the transfer of property Act
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Q51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
- AIt is a true law
- BIt has vertical structure
- CIt has well established institutes of governance
- DIt has formal law enforcing agencies
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Q52. Deferred Mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse
- AThis statement is true under Sunni law
- BThis statement is not true
- CDeferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
- DDeferred is mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse
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Q53. Dying declaration must be made by
- AThe dying person in hospital
- BThe doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
- CThe deceased before death
- DNearest relative of the deceased
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Q54. Judgement should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court
- ABy delivering the whole of the judgement
- BBy reading out the whole of the judgement
- CBy reading out the operative part of the judgement
- DAll of the above
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Q55. Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution
- ASection 242 Cr. P.C
- BSection 264 Cr. P.C
- CSection 237 Cr. P.C
- DSection 235 Cr. P.C
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Q56. Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under
- ASection 9 of IPC
- BSection 8 of IPC
- CSection 7 of IPC
- DNone of the above
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Q57. Recovery of specific immovable property is defined
- ASection of 5 of Specific Relief Act
- BSection 120 (B) of IPC
- CUnder section 10 of Sale of goods Act
- DNone of the Above
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Q58. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with
- ARevision petition in division bench of High Court
- BAppeal in Supreme Court
- CReturn of Wealth Tax
- DNone of the above
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Q59. The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate ................. of any correction made in the award to all the persons included
- AApproval
- BStay
- CAnnouncement
- DNotice
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Q60. "A" is at work with a hatchel: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in
- ASection 80 of IPC
- BSection 84 of IPC
- CSection 81 of IPC
- DSection 85 of IPC
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Q61. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v/s. Union of India, (1995) 1 SC 14, in this PIL which issue was exposed before the court
- AThe plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
- BAbolition of child labour
- CUnemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
- DPoor salary of maid servants
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Q62. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature
- AChapter III
- BChapter IV
- CChapter IX
- DChapter IX and X
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Q63. The FIR gives information of
- AReport to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
- BReport submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
- CThe commission of a cognizable crime
- DNone of the above
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Q64. Control over sub ordinate courts shall be vested in the
- AHigh Court
- BSupreme Court
- CChief Minister
- DGovernor
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Q65. Section 34 of the CPC provides
- AThe payment of fine imposed by the court
- BPayment of compensation to the other party
- CPayment of interest
- DNone of the above
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Q66. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ACoercive question
- BConfusing question
- CMisleading question
- DRhetoric Question
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Q67. According to Clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of Section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety:
- AMay render himself personally liable
- BHe may only give a change upon his property
- CHe may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
- DAll of these
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Q68. Section 49 of Factories Act 1947 explains about
- ACanteen
- BCreche
- CWelfare officer
- DRest room
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Q69. The word " case" used in Section 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and
- AIt means any state of facts juridically considered
- BIt includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of these
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Q70. "A" finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to "B" and appropriates to his own use. "A" is guilty of
- ACriminal breach of trust
- BCheating
- CCriminal misappropriation
- DTheft white
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Q71. The word "is not possessed of sufficient means" in Order 33 Rule 1 refer:
- ATo dower debt due by the petitioner's husband
- BTo property over which petitioner has actual control
- CTo sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
- DNone of these
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Q72. Section 22-B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to
- AAbolish Lok Adalat
- BWorks of Lok Adalat
- CPowers of Lok Adalat or Permenent Lok Adalat
- DNone of the above
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Q73. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected
- AUnder Section 151 of CPC
- BUnder Section 152 of CPC
- CUnder Section 153 of CPC
- DUnder Section 153 A of CPC
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Q74. Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is
- AAdmissible
- BNot admissible
- CChallengeable
- DNone of the above
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Q75. Supreme court has decided in Keshavanand Bharti V/s. State of Kerala, that
- AParliament can amend any provision of the constitution
- BParliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
- CParliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
- DNone of the above
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Q76. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?
- ASection 40
- BSection 41
- CSection 42
- DSection 37
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Q77. Financial Relations between the State and Centre are defined in constitution
- ABetween Articles 245-255
- BBetween Articles 256-263
- CBetween Articles 264 to 293
- DNone of the above
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Q78. Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad under Section 124 (A) of IPC for
- ACalling Hartal
- BBreaching public peace and tranquillity
- CSedition and disaffection to the government
- DNone of the above
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Q79. Police can seek a bond for good behaviour under Sections 109 and 110 of CrPC from
- AHabitual offenders
- BWhite collar criminals
- CJail inmates
- DNone of the above
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Q80. Dayabhaga school Presumes that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property"
- AThis statement is correct
- BThis presumption is under Mitakshara school
- CThis statement is incorrect
- DNone of these
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Q81. An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in
- AThe High Court
- BThe Supreme Court
- CThe Central Government
- DNot Appealable
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Q82. Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct
- AEthics Committee
- BProfessional Development Committee
- CDisciplinary Committee
- DHigh Court
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Q83. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes
- AProcess of Conciliation.
- BProcess of Arbitration
- CEnforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions.
- DAll of the above
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Q84. Separation of judiciary form Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article
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Q85. In-camera trials is conducted in the cases charged under section
- A302 IPC
- B307 IPC
- C376 IPC
- D498-A IPC
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Q86. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to
- AViolate legal right of the victim
- BCause damage to the victim
- CObtain benefit for the combiners
- DPerfect the interest of combiners
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Q87. Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in
- ASection 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
- BSection of 26 of Specific Relief Act
- CSection 31-33 of Specific Relief Act
- DSection 36-42 of Specific Relief Act
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Q88. Unfair labour practice by the employers
- AVictimization
- BFalse implication in criminal case
- CUntrue allegations of absence without leave
- DAll the above
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Q89. A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is
- A3 years form the date of sentencing the Judgement
- B3 years from the date of release from imprisonment
- C3 years from the date of commencing the imprisonment
- D1 year when the imprisonment ends
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Q90. Rule of Law is defined by
- AJeremy Bentham
- BSir John Salmond
- CA .Y. Diecy
- DProf. Aristotle
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Q91. What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR
- AWithin 24 hours
- BWithin 48 hours
- CWithin 14 days of the offence
- DNo time limit is specified
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Q92. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
- AThey are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
- BThey must take precedence over Section 114 or Order 47
- CBoth (1) and (2)
- DNone of these
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Q93. Which section of Sale of Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract
- ASection 50
- BSection 65
- CSection 60
- DSection 70
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Q94. Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright- act by invoking the provisions
- ASection 13-16
- BSection 17-27
- CSection 63-70
- DNone of the above
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Q95. Which section of Indian Registration Act, 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties
- ASection 11
- BSection 13
- CSection 17
- DNone of the above
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Q96. State government's power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 under section
- A67 of MV Act 1988
- B68 of MV Act 1988
- C69 of MV Act 1988
- DNone of the above
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Q97. Which is not the Private Right
- ARights of property
- BRight of freedom.
- CRights to Education
- DAll the above
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Q98. Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 CrPC?
- AIt is milder form of process
- BIt is for appearance
- CIt is for producing documents or thing
- DAll of them
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Q99. The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of Punjab is a leading case on
- ADying Declaration
- BAdmission
- CConfession
- DNone of the above
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Q100. What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act
- ARecovery of stolen property
- BRecovery of seized vehicles from RTO
- CRecovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced
- DNone of the above
