AIBE 17 (XVII) 2023 Set C is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing. Of its 100 questions, 2 were withdrawn by the Bar Council, so 98 are scored.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, published at allindiabarexamination.com, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates. Of the candidates who have finished this paper here, 13% scored below it. 80+ candidates have attempted it on this practice.
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Q1. Sapinda Relationship means
- A3rd generation (mother), 7th generation (father)
- B3rd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
- C3rd generation (mother), 4th generation (father)
- D2nd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
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Q2. Which one of the following is not a ground of divorce in the Hindu Marriage Act?
- AMental Disorder
- BVenereal Disease in communicable form
- CIncurable Unsound Mind
- DLiving separately for less than three months.
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Q3. Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which of the following enactments?
- ASpecial Marriage Act, 1954
- BChristian Marriage Act, 1872
- CIndian Divorce Act, 1869
- DSpecial Marriage Act, 1872
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Q4. The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 deals with
- ARights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
- BEffects of adoption
- CPresumption as to the document relating to adoption
- DCancellation of adoption
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Q5. Which of the following categories of cases will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
- AFamily Pension
- BPetitions from riot victims
- CNeglected Children
- DLandlord-Tenant matter
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Q6. Who is known as Father of Public Interest Litigation in India?
- AJustice A. N. Ray
- BJustice Y. V. Chandrachud
- CJustice R. S. Pathak
- DJustice P. N. Bhagwati
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Q7. Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 (Sec. 144-147 BNSS). Which section of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with it?
- ASection 5
- BSection 6
- CSection 7
- DNone of these
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Q8. Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act?
- ABigamy
- BDegrees of Prohibited Relationship
- CSapinda Relationship
- DChild marriage
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Q9. Which of the following writ can be issued against usurpation of public office?
- AWrit of Mandamus
- BWrit of Certiorari
- CWrit of Quo Warranto
- DWrit of Prohibition
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Q10. Ridge V. Baldwin's case deals with
- ACorporation
- BNatural Justice
- CState Liability
- DDelegated Legislation
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Q11. Meaning of "Audi alteram partem":
- AA person cannot be condemned without being heard
- BAn adjudicating authority must give a speaking order
- CNo man can be a judge in his own case
- DNo one should fear the courts.
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Q12. Rules made by Bar Council of India in exercising its rule making power under -------
- AThe Advocates Act, 1951
- BThe Advocates Act, 1954
- CThe Advocates Act, 1961
- DThe Advocates Act, 1964
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Q13. An advocate may, while practicing, take up teaching of Law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University, so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in the teaching of Law do not exceed --------- hours in a day.
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Q14. In which of the following landmark case the advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had forged the court order?
- APratap Narain V. Y. P. Raheja
- BVikramaditya V. Smt. Jamila Khatoon
- CBabulal Jain V. Subhash Jain
- DSmt. P. Pankajam V. B. H. Chandrashekhar
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Q15. Which of the following is not a real purpose of Public Interest Litigation?
- AVindication of the rule of law
- BFacilitate effective access to Justice
- CMeaningful realization of Fundamental Rights
- DGetting famous and making wealth
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Q16. In Hussainara Khatoon V. State of Bihar, ---------- emerged as a basic fundamental right.
- ARight to Speedy Justice
- BRight to Clean Environment
- CRight to Free Legal Aid
- DNone of these
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Q17. "Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil" is associated with
- ALabour Law
- BCompany Law
- CBanking Law
- DService Law
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Q18. Under which Section of The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an appeal to National Green Tribunal (NGT) lies?
- ASection 4A
- BSection 5A
- CSection 6A
- DSection 7A
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Q19. Which one of the following Fundamental Duties relates to Environmental Protection?
- AArticle 51A (b)
- BArticle 51A (g)
- CArticle 51A (j)
- DArticle 51A (k)
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Q20. Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer, made an appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal. Later Mr. A aggrieved by an order of Cyber Appellate Tribunal, may prefer an appeal ---------
- AIn any District Court
- BIn Higher Tribunal
- COnly in High Court
- DOnly in Supreme Court
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Q21. Mr. X, a person who is intended by Mr. Y an originator to receive the electronic record is, under the IT Act, known as
- AIntermediary
- BOriginators Agent
- CAddressee
- DKey Holder
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Q22. The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is-
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Q23. If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of Disciplinary Committee of State Bar Council made under Section 35 of the Advocate Act or Advocate General of the State may prefer and appeal to the Bar Council of India within ____________ days of the date of communication of order.
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Q24. ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert itself into a Public Company. It can do so by altering its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association and by passing ---------
- AOrdinary Resolution
- BSpecial Resolution
- CBoard Resolution
- DNone of these
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Q25. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------ to carry out the prescribed duties.
- ASafety officer
- BWelfare officer
- CDevelopment officer
- DNone of these
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Q26. Suppose road accident occurs, then being an Advocate what is the correct way of approaching the situation?
- AFIR > Petition > Summon to Insurance Company
- BPetition > FIR > Summon to Insurance Company
- CSummon to Insurance Company > Petition > FIR
- DFIR > Summon to Insurance Company > Petition
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Q27. The principle of "Ubi jus ibi idem remedium" was recognized in
- AWinterbottom V. Wright
- BChapman V. Pickersgill
- CAshby V. White
- DRylands V. Fletcher
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Q28. Gloucester Grammar School Case is a landmark case based on which of the following maxim?
- ADamnum sine injuria
- BInjuria sine damnum
- CVolenti non fit injuria
- DAudi alteram partem
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Q29. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 shall have the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds
- A1 Crore
- B10 Crores
- C50 Crores
- D100 Crores
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Q30. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer in and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen.
- AHindi
- BEnglish
- CDevanagari Script
- DLanguage specified in 8th Schedule of the Constitution
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Q31. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as -- ----.
- AOccupier
- BManaging Director
- CChairman
- DManager
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Q32. Mr. Kapoor purchased a residential house in January, 2021 for 80,00,000. He sold the house in April, 2022 for 94,00,000. In this case the gain of 14,00,000 arising on account of sale of residential house will be charged to tax under which of the following head?
- AIncome from capital gains
- BIncome from house property
- CIncome from profits and gains from business or profession
- DIncome from other sources
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Q33. Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his M/s Singh Traders. The office of the firm is located in Delhi whereas its godowns are located in the State of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) respectively. M/s Singh Traders made following intra-state supplies from different States during the current financial year: (i) Delhi - Taxable Supplies: ₹ 21,00,000 (ii) Punjab - Exempted Supplies: ₹ 6,00,000 (iii) Uttar Pradesh- Taxable and Exempted Supplies: ₹ 3,00,000 each respectively. (iv) J&K - Taxable and Exempted Supplies: ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000 respectively. Ascertain the States in which Mr. Manjot is required to take registration under GST.
- ADelhi, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and J&K
- BDelhi, Uttar Pradesh and J&K
- CDelhi and Uttar Pradesh
- DDelhi
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Q34. The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers are presently pegged at
- A0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 26%
- B0%, 6%, 12%, 18%, 28%
- C0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%
- D0%, 5%, 12%, 16%, 28%
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Q35. Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to -----.
- AState Commission
- BConsumer Tribunal
- CNational Commission
- DHigh Court
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Q36. For an individual to be deemed to be resident in India in any previous year one of the condition is:
- AIf he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year.
- BIf he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the previous year.
- CIf he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the previous year.
- DIf he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the previous year.
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Q37. A ----- injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from, the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
- ATemporary
- BPerpetual
- CBoth Temporary and Perpetual
- DNone of these
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Q38. According to Section 5 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided in -----
- AThe Specific Relief Act, 1963
- BThe Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- CThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- DThe Transfer of Property Act, 1882
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Q39. Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called an ------ mortgage.
- AConditional
- BEnglish
- CSimple
- DUsufructuary
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Q40. In which of the following cases it was decided that a contract with minor is void?
- ACarlill V. Carbolic Smokes Ball Co
- BChinnaih V. Ramaiah
- CMohori Bibee V. Dharmodas Ghose
- DHarvey V. Facey
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Q41. B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes at A's request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and damages of any action in respect thereof. B is sued by C and has to pay damages, and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of the Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
- AA is not liable to B upon indemnity.
- BA is liable to B upon indemnity.
- CA is not liable to C upon indemnity.
- DNone of these
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Q42. A person whom the agent names to act for the principal in the business of agency, under the express or implied authority to name, is called
- ASub-agent
- BSubstituted Agent
- CAgent
- DProcured Agent
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Q43. According to Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 appropriate Government can acquire the land for which of the following purposes? 1. for strategic purposes relating to naval, military, air force, and armed forces of the Union 2. project for water harvesting and water conservation structures, sanitation 3. project for project affected families 4. project for sports, health care, tourism, transportation or space programme
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2, 3 and 4
- C1, 2 and 4
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
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Q44. 'Specified person' under Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 means any person other than -------.
- Aappropriate Government
- BGovernment company
- Cassociation of persons or trust or society wholly or partially aided by the appropriate Government or controlled by the appropriate Government
- DAll of these
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Q45. Who shall be the Registrar of Trade Marks for the purposes of Trade Marks Act, 1999?
- AController-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks.
- BController-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
- CDirector-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
- DDirector-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
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Q46. Which one of the following is not a type/s of IPR?
- ACopyright
- BPatents
- CDesigns
- DHistorical Indications
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Q47. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to "Declaratory Decrees" under The Specific Relief Act, 1963?
- ASection 34 of the said Act deals with it.
- BIt is discretionary in nature.
- CBoth, (Section 34 of the said Act deals with it) and (It is discretionary in nature)
- DNone of these
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Q48. Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as defined under The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?
- APromissory Note
- BBill of Exchange
- CCheque
- DBilling Receipt
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Q49. By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985, Anti Defection Law was added in the Constitution of India?
- A51st Constitutional Amendment
- B52nd Constitutional Amendment
- C53rd Constitutional Amendment
- D54th Constitutional Amendment
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Q50. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court decided that, a constitutional amendment is a 'law' within the meaning of Article 13(2) and therefore if it violates any of the fundamental rights it may be declared void?
- ASajjan Singh V. State of Rajasthan
- BKeshvananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
- CIndra Sawhney V. Union of India
- DGolak Nath V. State of Punjab
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Q51. Uniform Civil Code in India is:
- AFundamental Rights
- BDirective Principles of State Policy
- CGovernment Policy
- DConstitutional Right
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Q52. As per Article 16, No citizen shall, on grounds only of ----- or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
- Areligion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
- Breligion, age, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
- Creligion, race, age, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
- Dreligion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, age
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Q53. The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be ------
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Q54. According to the Article 300A of the Constitution of India, No____________ shall be deprived his property save by authority of law.
- Aperson
- Bcitizen
- Cforeigner
- DIndian
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Q55. The title of the Constitution of India is laid down in
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AArticle 1
- BArticle 5
- CArticle 390
- DArticle 393
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Q56. Constitutional provisions of Fundamental Rights (FRs) are given under which part of the Constitution of India?
- APart I
- BPart II
- CPart III.
- DPart IV
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Q57. Under Section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code, an offence is punishable if it is done by a child
- Aof below seven years of age.
- Bof above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
- Cof above seven years of age but below ten years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
- Dof above seven years of age but below twelve years not having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
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Q58. Name two essential conditions of Penal Liability.
- AGuilty Body & Rightful Act
- BGuilty Intent & Wrong Motive
- CGuilty Mind & Wrongful Act
- DGuilty Motive and Wrongful Act
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Q59. Provisions for Right of Private Defence is given between ------- of IPC.
- ASections 74-84
- BSections 96-106
- CSections 107-120
- DSections 141-160
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Q60. The consent is not a valid consent under Section 90 of IPC:
- AIf given under fear of injury or misconception of fact.
- BIf given by person of unsound mind.
- CIf given by child below 12 years of age.
- DAll of these
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Q61. Causing of the death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide as provided under…..
- AExplanation III to Section 300
- BExplanation III to Section 299
- CExplanation III to Section 301
- DExplanation III to Section 302
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Q62. Punishment for Defamation under Indian Penal Code is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to ---------- or with fine or with both.
- A2 Years
- B3 Years
- C4 Years
- D5 Years
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Q63. Which of the following is not 'Law' according to Article 13 of Indian Constitution?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ARule
- BBy-laws
- CCustom or usage
- DNone of these
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Q64. Which of the following Schedule deals with Union list, State list and Concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
- ASchedule 7
- BSchedule 10
- CSchedule 11
- DSchedule 12
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Q65. The provision of 'Plea Bargaining' under chapter XXIA of CrPC are not applicable if the offence is committed against a child below the age of -------
- A12 years
- B14 years
- C16 years
- D18 years
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Q66. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code is "SECULAR" in character was observed in which of the following case?
- ALalita Kumari V. State of Uttar Pradesh
- BArnesh Kumar's Case
- CMohd. Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum
- DSelvy V. State of Karnataka
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Q67. Who has the power of summary trial of a case?
- AChief Judicial Magistrate
- BMetropolitan Magistrate
- CAny Magistrate of first class specially empowered by the High Court
- DAll of these
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Q68. Which Sections deal with the processes to compel appearance under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973?
- ASections 61 to 90
- BSections 154 to 173
- CSections 211 to 219
- DSections 274 to 282
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Q69. An offence for which, a police officer may arrest a person without warrant is known as
- ANon-cognizable offence
- BCognizable offence
- CBailable offence
- DNone of these
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Q70. Assault or criminal force to women with intent to outrage her modesty under IPC is which kind of offence?
- ANon-Cognizable and Bailable
- BCognizable and Bailable
- CCognizable and Non-Bailable
- DNon-Cognizable and Non-Bailable
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Q71. 'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells 'Z', that they will fire at 'Z', if 'Z' attempts to leave the building. 'A' is guilty of:
- Awrongful confinement
- Bwrongful restraint
- CBoth wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint
- DNone of these
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Q72. Any police officer making an investigation under Section 160 of CrPC cannot require the attendance of a male, at a place other than the place of his residence who is
- Aunder the age of 15 years and above the age of 60 years
- Bunder the age of 18 years and above the age of 60 years
- Cunder the age of 15 years and above the age of 65 years
- Dunder the age of 18 years and above the age of 65 years
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Q73. If someone lies before the court on affidavit, how it can be tackled by the Advocates?
- APerjury Application can be filed.
- BWithdraw from the case.
- CFile application to support that.
- DPay the fine for the same.
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Q74. Proclamation for person absconding shall be published as follows: (i) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides; (ii) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village; (iii) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court-house; (iv) The Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.
- AOnly ii, iii, iv are correct.
- BOnly ii and iii are correct.
- COnly i, iii, iv are correct.
- DAll i, ii, iii, iv are correct.
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Q75. In a summons trial case instituted on a complaint wherein the summons has been issued to the accused, the non-appearance or death of the complainant shall entail --------.
- ADischarge of the accused
- BAcquittal of the accused
- CEither discharge or acquittal depending on the facts & circumstances of the case
- DNone of these
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Q76. Suppose F.I.R. is not registered by the Station House Officer. What are the options that the complainant has?
- AApproach Superintendent of Police
- BApproach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint
- CNone of these
- DBoth (Approach Superintendent of Police) & (Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint)
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Q77. Which of the following Section of Civil Procedure Code deals with the concept of Res Judicata?
- ASection 10
- BSection 11
- CSection 12
- DSection 13.
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Q78. Mr. X, Mr. Y and Mr. Z are jointly and severally liable for 10,000 under a decree obtained by Mr. A. Mr. Y obtains a decree for 10,000 against Mr. A singly and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint- decree is being executed. Which of the following option is correct for Mr. A?
- AMr. A may treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18.
- BMr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18.
- CMr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 22 Rule 18.
- DNone of these
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Q79. A, B and C are coparceners of Joint Hindu Family. They jointly execute a mortgage in favour of Y. Y files a suit against all of them. Summons is served to C but not to A and B. None of them appears and an ex parte decree is passed against all. A and B applied to set aside the ex parte decree. The decree will be set aside against.
- AOnly C
- BOnly A & B
- CA, B and C
- DNone of these
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Q80. Which of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the Institution of Suits?
- ASection 22
- BSection 24
- CSection 26
- DSection 28
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Q81. Defendant shall, within ------ days from the date of service of summon on him, present a Written Statement of his defence (ORDER VIII).
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Q82. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
- AFirst appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
- BSecond appeal can be on substantial question of law only.
- CSecond appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
- DFirst appeal may or may not be in the High Court, Second appeal has to be in the High Court.
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Q83. Which Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with Temporary Injunction and Interlocutory Injunction?
- AOrder 38
- BOrder 39
- COrder 40
- DOrder 41
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Q84. A is a tradesman in Ahmedabad, B carries on business in Delhi. B, by his agent in Ahmedabad, buys goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the Western Roadways Transport Company. A delivers the goods accordingly in Ahmedabad. A may sue B for the price of the goods.
- AIn Ahmedabad only
- BIn Delhi only
- CIn either Ahmedabad or Delhi
- DAnywhere in India
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Q85. The doctrine of 'Res Gestae' has been discussed in which Section of the Evidence Act?
- ASection 5
- BSection 6
- CSection 10
- DSection 11
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Q86. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- ASection 17
- BSection 18
- CSection 19
- DSection 21
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Q87. Judicial Evidence means
- AEvidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts
- BEvidence received by Police Officer
- CEvidence received by Home Department
- DEvidence received by Tribunal.
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Q88. Which of the following is not a 'document' according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- AAn inscription on a metal plate or stone
- BA map or plan
- CA caricature
- DNone of these
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Q89. "Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths" is given under which Section?
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Q90. Which of the following is not 'Secondary evidence' as per Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- ACopies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies.
- BCopies made from or compared with the original.
- COral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.
- DCopies not certified under Section 63.
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Q91. As per Order VI, Pleading shall mean?
- APlaint
- BWritten Statement
- CBoth Plaint and Written Statement
- DNone of these
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Q92. Which of the following Order deals with "Death, Marriage and Insolvency of Parties"?
- AOrder 20
- BOrder 21
- COrder 22
- DOrder 23
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Q93. The Arbitral Tribunal shall not be bound by ------ in the determination of rules of procedure.
- AThe Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- BThe Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- CThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- DBoth, (The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908) and (The Indian Evidence Act, 1872)
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Q94. Which of the following Section deals with "Arbitration Agreement" in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
- ASection 6
- BSection 7
- CSection 8
- DSection 9
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Q95. Under what circumstances the arbitral proceedings can be terminated? 1. Final Arbitral award 2. Interim award 3. Where the arbitral tribunal issues an order for the termination
- A1 and 3
- B1 and 2
- C2 and 3
- D1, 2 and 3
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Q96. Under Section 29 of The Arbitration And Conciliation Act, 1996 arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, any decision of the arbitral tribunal ------
- Ashall be made by all members
- Bshall be made by 2/3 majority of its members
- Cshall be made by the chief arbitrator
- Dshall be made by majority of its members
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Q97. The provision for 'maintenance pendente lite' in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in ---.
- ASection 22
- BSection 23
- CSection 24
- DSection 25
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Q98. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 Section 2, if the husband has been insane for a period of:
- A1 year
- B2 years
- C5 years
- D7 years
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Q99. A leading question may be asked in
- AExamination-in-chief
- BRe-examination
- CCross examination
- DNone of these
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Q100. Extra Judicial Confession means
- AConfessions made either to Police or person other than Judges and Magistrates.
- BConfessions made before Magistrates.
- CConfessions made before Judges.
- DNone of these
