AIBE 19 (XIX) 2024 Set A is a real All India Bar Examination paper: 100 multiple choice questions, three hours, one mark each and no negative marking. You sit it here in exam mode, with the timer, the question palette and mark for review working as they do in the real thing. Of its 100 questions, 7 were withdrawn by the Bar Council, so 93 are scored.
Every answer comes from the Bar Council of India's own final answer key, published at allindiabarexamination.com, not from anyone's reading of the paper. The pass mark is 45% for General and OBC candidates. Of the candidates who have finished this paper here, 1 in 6 scored below it. 200+ candidates have attempted it on this practice.
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Q1. In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?
- ASom Prakash vs. Union of India
- BAjay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
- CSukhdev vs. Bhagatram
- DR.D. Shetty vs. International Airport Authority
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Q2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
- AGopala vs. State of Madras
- BKameshwar Singh vs. State of Bihar
- CGolaknath vs. State of Punjab
- DBasheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner
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Q3. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
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Q4. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act? (i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi. (ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the house of people. (iii) It also adds Article 334 A which states in that the said amendment will commence after the first census have been taken after the commencement of the said Act. (iv) The above stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from search commencement.
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- A(i), (ii) & (iii)
- B(i), (iii) & (iv)
- C(ii), (iii) & (iv)
- DAll of these
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Q5. The Parliament enacts the "Fair Housing Act, 2024", which includes the following provisions: (1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender. (2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of ₹ 10,000 for discrimination. (3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years. A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law. What principle did the court apply in this decision?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ADoctrine of Eclipse
- BDoctrine of Severability
- CDoctrine of Basic Structure
- DDoctrine of Colourable Legislation
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Q6. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the --------
- AGovernor
- BCommittee on Public Undertakings
- CEstimates Committee
- DPublic Accounts Committee
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Q7. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
- AArticle 119
- BArticle 111
- CArticle 129
- DArticle 135
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Q8. Which article deals with the powers. privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members ?
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Q9. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
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Q10. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
- AEither House of Parliament
- BSupreme Court
- COnly Lok Sabha
- DRajya Sabha
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Q11. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be "Criminal Force":
- AWhen it is used unintentionally.
- BWhen intentionally uses force only.
- CWhen it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.
- DWhen it is used in self-defence.
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Q12. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
- AOne hundred rupees
- BFive hundred rupees
- CThree hundred rupees
- DOne thousand rupees
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Q13. According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed? (1) Robbery (2) House-breaking after sunset (3) Theft, mischief or house trespass
- A(1) only
- B(1) and (3) both
- C(1) and (2) both
- D(1) (2) and (3)
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Q14. Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- ASimple hurt under Section 323 of IPC
- BVoluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
- CVoluntarily causing hurt under Section 324 of IPC
- DAttempt to commit culpable homicide under Section 308 of IPC
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Q15. Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Which of the following offenses has Amit committed?
- AMurder under Section 302 of IPC
- BCulpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC
- CCausing death by negligence under Section 304A of IPC
- DVoluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
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Q16. Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram. Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
- AAttempt to commit theft
- BHouse trespass with intent to commit theft
- CAttempt to commit robbery
- DBurglary
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Q17. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
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Q18. A new offense of 'Snatching' has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines 'Snatching' as an offense?
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Q19. Consider the following statements and answer the question given below: Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following: The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when - (1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel. (2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested. (3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away. (4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances. Which of the above is/are the correct statement?
- A(1) and (3)
- B(2) and (4)
- COnly (4)
- DOnly (2)
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Q20. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as ----------.
- ANCR
- BZero FIR
- CFalse FIR
- DCounter FIR
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Q21. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ------ years.
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Q22. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in
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Q23. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
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Q24. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
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Q25. Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
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Q26. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
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Q27. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
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Q28. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
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Q29. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
- AThe District Court A where the suit is currently pending.
- BThe High Court or the Supreme Court
- CThe Civil Judge in District Court B
- DA committee of local advocates
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Q30. Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party? Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application anddecides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
- AOrder 1, Rule 10 - Joinder and Substitution of Parties
- BOrder 7, Rule 11 - Rejection of Plaint
- COrder 5 - Service of Summons
- DOrder 6, Rule 17 - Amendment of Pleadings
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Q31. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
- ASection 96
- BSection 100
- CSection 115
- DSection 104
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Q32. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
- A30 Days
- B60 Days
- C120 Days
- D90 Days
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Q33. Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?
- ASection 132
- BSection 133
- CSection 128
- DSection 130
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Q34. What is the term used for a court's power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
- ARes Judicata
- BReference
- CReview
- DTransfer of suits
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Q35. Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
- AOrder XXXV
- BOrder XXXVII
- COrder XXXIV
- DOrder XXXVI
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Q36. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?
- ASection 11
- BSection 10
- CSection 12
- DSection 9
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Q37. ----------- of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
- ASection 88
- BSection 89
- CSection 92
- DSection 86
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Q38. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
- ASection 35
- BSection 35 (A)
- CSection 35 (B)
- DSection 36
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Q39. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
- AInducement
- BCoerciof
- CThreat
- DPromise
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Q40. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in
- ASection 12 of the BSA, 2023
- BSection 13 of the BSA, 2023
- CSection 14 of the BSA, 2023
- DSection 15 of the BSA, 2023
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Q41. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
- AThe recovered laptop and fingerprints are automatically considered conclusive proof of Rajesh's guilt.
- BThe recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
- CThe evidence is inadmissible because the police did not obtain a search warrant before recovering the laptop.
- DThe fingerprints must be verified by at least two independent forensic experts before beingpresentedincourt.
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Q42. Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as a electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as a
- APrimary evidence
- BSecondary evidence
- CCircumstantial evidence
- DScientific evidence
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Q43. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
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Q44. According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
- AAlways relevant to prove conduct
- BOnly when related to other relevant fact
- CNever relevant
- DOnly in criminal cases
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Q45. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
- AThe officer's signature is assumed to be forgery
- BThe officer did not hold the claimed officer character at the time of signing
- CThe officer held the official character claimed when signing or certifying the document
- DThe document's authenticity is independent of the official's official character
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Q46. Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when the leading questions are permissible in the court proceedings?
- ALeading questions are always allowed during examination- in chief without restriction,
- BLeading questions are not allowed during cross-examination
- CLeading questions can be asked in an examination-in chief, re-examination, cross examination without any objection.
- DLeading questions are permitted during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.
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Q47. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
- AThe mediator imposes a binding decision.
- BIt involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.
- CThe mediator acts as a judge and renders a verdict.
- DIt is always court-ordered.
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Q48. A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?
- AThe court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.
- BThe parties must mutually select an arbitrator, and if they fail, the arbitration will not take place.
- CThe arbitrator must be appointed by the Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) in all cases.
- DThe parties can resolve the appointment issue by opting for conciliation instead of arbitration.
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Q49. Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
- AIt is generallyfasterthanlitigation.
- BIt offers more confidentiality than traditional court cases.
- CIt always results in a binding decision.
- DIt is often less expensive than court proceedings.
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Q50. Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?
- ASection 34 of the Act deals with the enforcement of an arbitral award.
- BSection 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set- aside by the court.
- CSection 9 of the Act governs the enforcement of arbitral awards.
- DSection 11 of the Act deals with the enforcement of arbitral awards, not the appeal.
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Q51. Which sections discusses with regard to "sapinda relationships" under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
- ASections 3(f) (i), 5(v)
- BSections 3(f) (i), 5(iv)
- CSections 3(f) (i) \& (ii), Explanation to section 3 (g), 5 (iv)
- DSections 3(f) (i) \& (ii), Explanation to section 3 (g), 5(v)
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Q52. Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person, to marry again ---------.
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- Ahave to wait for a period of one year from the date of the decree.
- Bhave to wait for a period of six month from the date of the decree.
- Cmay marry immediately thereafter without the leave of the court as a matter of right,
- DNone of these
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Q53. Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decides to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Which of the following statements is true regarding the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
- AAarti can only seek divorce on the grounds of adultery.
- BAarti can seek divorce on the grounds of cruelty, as long as she proves mental or physical cruelty.
- CAarti cannot seek divorce on the grounds of cruelty as it is not recognized under the Hindu Marriage Act.
- DAarti must prove Rajesh's cruelty was intentional to succeed in the divorce petition.
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Q54. On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
- AThe local customs
- BThe Smritis
- CThe Shrutis
- DMitakshara
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Q55. Nisha and Aakash are separated, and they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890. Which of the following factors will the court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?
- AThe financial stability of both parents.
- BThe gender of the child.
- CThe welfare and best interests of the child.
- DThe parent who is financially more stable is granted custody automatically.
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Q56. Match the following: a. Spokenwords i. Sunnat - ul - Qaul b. Deepika vs. CAT ii. Customary Law c. Silence d. Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh iv. Atypical Relationships e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI v. Triple Talaq vi. Maintenance Choose the correct option:
- Aa-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-vi
- Ba-iii, b-i, c-i, d-v, e-vi
- Ca-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
- Da-iii, b-fiw, c-i, d-ii, e-vi
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Q57. Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq. Fatima is now secking maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance. Under Muslim law, which of the following statements is true regarding Fatima's claim for maintenance?
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- AFatima is not entitled to maintenance because she has remarried.
- BFatima is entitled to maintenance only for a period of three months after the divorce.
- CFatima is entitled to maintenance for herself during her iddat period and for her children- until they are self-supporting.
- DFatima claim maintenance for herself and her children indefinitely, irrespective of her remarriage or the children's age.
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Q58. The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section ----------- of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
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Q59. In which casea prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture, which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?
- AHussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case
- BSunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration
- CMukti Morcha vs. Union of India
- DThe Narasimha Rao case
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Q60. In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there and one of the following views of the Court was sustained in the said case, identify from the following-
- AThe Court established that-the right to free legal aid is a mere directive principle and cannot be enforced as a fütudamental right.
- BThe judgment primarily focused on providing monetary compensation to the affected labourers without addressing systemic issues of bonded labour.
- CThe Supreme Court recognized the right against forced labour as a fundamental right derived from the right to life and human dignity under Article 21.
- DThe Court ruled that only government agencies, and not social activists, could file petitions concerning labour rights.
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Q61. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases. Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
- ABoth statements are true.
- BOnly Statement 1 is true.
- COnly Statement 2 is true.
- DBoth statements are false.
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Q62. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of "locus standi" is relaxed in PIL cases. Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth A and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of A.
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of A.
- C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false, and (R) is true.
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Q63. Which of the following best defines delegated egislation?
- ALegislation passed by local governments
- BLaws enacted by Parliament or the Legislature.
- CLaws made by an administrative authority under powers given to them by Parliament.
- DA judicial decision made by an administrative tribunal.
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Q64. In 2020 at Dhorodo village the Panchayat elections could not happen due to Covid pandemic whilethe tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh, represented the people that year at the Panchayat post dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayatiraj Act of the state to restrict their economic activities per day to (₹100) only. In which of the following case this is allowed or restricted?
- AMCD vs. Birla Cotton Mills
- BPatna University vs. Amita Tiwari
- CJalan Trading vs. Union of India
- DNone of these
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Q65. Which of the following is/are not ground/s for judicial review of administrative action? (1) Illegality (2) Irrationality (3) Proportionality (4) Public opinion
- AOnly (2)
- B(2) and (4)
- C(1), (2) and (3)
- DOnly (4)
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Q66. What does "conflict of interest" refer to in professional ethics?
- AA situation involving legal disputes
- BA situation where two professionals disagree
- CA conflict between ethics and laws
- DA situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties
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Q67. Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y's interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
- AIt is a violation of Rules made by the Bar Council of India for the professional ethics
- BIt is only an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 2018
- CIt amounts to criminal conspiracy under the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- DIt amounts to the Contempt of Court under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
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Q68. The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct: (1) Criminal in nature (2) Neither civil nor criminal (3) Quasi-criminal in nature (4) Civil in nature
- ABoth (1) and (4)
- BOnly (2)
- COnly (3)
- D(1), (3) and (4)
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Q69. Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguard/s? (1) Act in a fraudulent manner (2) Providing peer-review of valuation, if necessary (3) Non-Disclosure of any prior association with the client (4) Non-Disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest
Withdrawn by the Bar Council: not scored.
- A(3) and (4)
- BOnly (2)
- COnly (4)
- D(2) and (4)
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Q70. As per Section 2(84) Share means share in the share capital of a Company and includes----------- --. (1) Debentures (2) Preference Shares (3) Stocks (4) Bonds
- A(1) and (2)
- B(1), (2) and (3)
- COnly (3)
- D(1), (2), (3) and (4)
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Q71. Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for --------
- AIssue of Shares at Premium
- BKinds of Shares Capital
- CBuy Back of Shares
- DReduction in share Capital
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Q72. A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as " X " has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Local farmers and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation and daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Despite multiple complaints to the local pollution control board, no action has been taken against the company. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
- AIt is the violation of Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- BIt is the violation of Section 40 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- CIt is not the violation of the provisions of the laws stated in the problem.
- DIt is the violation of Section 23 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
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Q73. Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
- AThe Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
- BThe Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 1981
- CThe Factories Act, 1948 1948
- DThe Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
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Q74. Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary? (1) Cyber Cafes (2) Telecom Regulators (3) Social Media Platforms (4) Internet Service Providers
- A(1), (2) and (3)
- B(1), (3) and (4)
- C(1), (2) and (4)
- D(1), (2), (3) and (4)
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Q75. Malti, a small business owner, runs an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers' personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident. On the basis of the above problem select the correct option.
- AIt is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- BIt is punishable only under the criminal laws.
- CIt is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the customers can also claim the compensation under certain circumstances.
- DThe customers do not have any legal remedy under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
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Q76. Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under The Industrial Relations Code, 2020? (1) Occupier of the factory (2) Contractor (3) Manager of the factory (4) Managing director of the factory
- A(4) Only
- B(1), (3) and (4)
- C(1), (2) and (4)
- D(1), (2) and (3)
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Q77. Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020? (1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 (3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 (4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
- AOnly (3)
- B(3) and (4)
- C(1), (2) and (4)
- D(1), (2), (3) and (4)
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Q78. ------------ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
- AIndustrial Tribunals
- BEnvironmental Tribunals
- CLabour Courts
- DNational Tribunal
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Q79. XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 04 workers without providing any compensation. The termination wasbecauseof themisconduct onthepart ofthe workers. The company issued a show cause notice and the disciplinary enquiry was also conducted against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee the services of these employees were terminated. The workers claimed the retrenchment compensation which was rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection the workers have filed a complaint in the Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
- AThe termination does not amount to retrenchment, hence no compensation.
- BThe termination amounts to lay-off, hence compensation will be awarded.
- CThe termination amounts to retrenchment, hence compensation will be awarded.
- DThe termination violated the provisions under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, hence the compensation will be awarded.
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Q80. Ms J, a banker refuses to honour cheque of Ms F. Though she was having sufficient balance yet it doesn't suffer any loss to Ms F. Ms F can file the case under which scenario?
- AVolenti-non-fit-injuria
- BInjuria-sine-damnum
- CDamnum-sine-injuria
- DRes-ipsa- loquitur
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Q81. Mr B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr A. When Mr A refused then Mr B collected some of his workmen who mustered round MrA. They tucking up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff's neck, he did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr A can file the case?
- AFalse Imprisonment
- BAssault
- CBattery
- DHurt
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Q82. Ms J knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr T was under the influence of alcohol. Consequently, car met with an accident and Ms J got injuries and she has filed the case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?
- AVolenti-non-fit-injuria
- BAct of God
- CInevitable Accident
- DAct of Necessity
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Q83. Mr K is owner of a building containing a large number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which erected aftertheoccupationby MrK.Owingtonoiseand smoke of the mill several rooms remain vacated that results into loss for Mr K. Examine relevant tort fors the case.
- ADamnum-sine-injuria
- BTrespass to lan'
- CNuisance
- DNegligence
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Q84. There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the government and another was a private bus. Wherein private bus whe coming from wrong side and government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing dowy his bus after secing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.
- APrivate bus owner is negligent
- BGovemment bus owner is negligent.
- CInevitable accident.
- DContributory negligence.
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Q85. The term "Income" is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under --------------.
- ASection 2 (24)
- BSection 2 (40)
- CSection 3
- DSection 10E
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Q86. Mr. X deposits ₹ 65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under section 80 C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115 BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
- AMr. X is guilty of tax evasion/tax avoidance.
- BMr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
- CNo tax deduction can be availed under Section 80 C.
- DIt is an unlawful act to treat a personal expenditure.
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Q87. Read the given statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1:Agricultural incomeisexempt from tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961. Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeds Basic Exemption limit and Agricultural Income exceeds ₹ 5000/- is determined by Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.
- ABoth the Statements are incorrect.
- BOnly Statement 1 is true.
- COnly Statement 2 is true.
- DBoth the Statements are correct.
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Q88. Rent-Free Accommodation provided by an employer to employee is ---------------------.
- APerquisite as per Section 17(2) of the Income Tax Act
- BPerquisite as per Section 16(2) of the Income Tax Act
- CAllowance under Section 10(13A) of the Income Tax Act
- DAllowance under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act
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Q89. An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under ---------------
- ASection 2(d)
- BSection 2(e)
- CSection 2(f)
- DSection 2(g)
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Q90. The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections ------------
- A142-146
- B142-144
- C143-147
- D140-143
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Q91. "A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", the owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay ₹ 50lakhs in advance andthe remaining ₹ 1crore withinsix months. In return, "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land. However, after receiving the advance payment, " B " refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct answer.
- A"A" may file a suit in the criminal court having the powers under the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
- B"A" may file a suit in the special court constituted under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
- C"A" may file a suit in the civil court having the powers under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
- DNo suit can be brought against "A" as there
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Q92. "A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that " B " shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
- AIt amounts to Conditional Transfer of Property.
- BIt amounts to Conditional Limitations on Transfer of Property.
- CIt amounts to Subsequent Transfer of Property.
- DIt amounts to conditions precedent in the Transfer of Property.
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Q93. Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of ₹ 50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark "Insufficient Funds". On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
- AA complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within three months for the dishonour of the cheque.
- BA complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within one month for the dishonour of the cheque.
- CA complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within five months for the dishonour of the cheque.
- DA complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within two months for the dishonour of the cheque.
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Q94. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to ---------
- ARescission of contracts
- BCancellation of instruments
- CDeclaratory decrees
- DPerpetual injunction
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Q95. How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?
- AA person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by The Specific Relief Act, 1963.
- BA person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
- CA person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
- DA person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
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Q96. Which section of Law of Contract defines, "A proposal may be revoked at any time, before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards."?
- ASection 5
- BSection 4
- CSection 6
- DSection 7
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Q97. According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for: (i) Strategic purpose. (ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects. (iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.
- A(i) & (ii)
- B(ii) & (iii)
- C(i) & (iii)
- D(i), (ii) & (iii)
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Q98. Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
- ALand Acquisition Act, 1956
- BLand Acquisition Act, 1862
- CLand Acquisition Act, 1894
- DLand Acquisition Act, 1874
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Q99. Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app's name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app's source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "EitLyfe", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
- AYes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.
- BNo, because the competing app has a different name and logo.
- CYes, but only if the competitor is a small business.
- DNo, trademark infringement can only occur if there is identical copying.
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Q100. What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
- A50 years from the creation of the work
- B60 years from the date of publication
- CLifetime of the author plus 60 years
- D10 years from the date of first safe
