Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Law Relating to Customs and Foreign Exchange
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 2 Business Law
2022 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Law Relating to Customs and Foreign Exchange
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 2 Business Law
2022 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 12 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when the paper was set, and four changes alter answers here. The Customs and Central Excise Settlement Commission ceased to accept applications after 31 March 2025 and ceased to operate from 1 April 2025 under the Finance Act 2025, its work passing to an Interim Board for Settlement of three revenue officers with no judicial member, so immunity from prosecution under section 127H is no longer obtainable. FEMA has had no Appellate Tribunal of its own since 26 May 2017, the SAFEMA Tribunal serving under a substituted section 18 with sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26 and 29 to 31 omitted. Section 6(3) was omitted on 15 October 2019, moving non-debt capital account transactions to the Central Government. And from 1 May 2025 section 18(1B) requires a provisional assessment to be finalised in two years and section 18A allows a voluntary post-clearance revision of an entry.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 7 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Form 20090. Attempt any four questions, all questions carry 25 marks
any four of seven · 100 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the three words in the question in that order, because they are three successive stages; what makes a FEMA breach a contravention rather than an offence, and the four consequences of that classification; the substantive obligations whose breach is the contravention, so the answer has content and not only labels; section 13 with exact figures and the 2015 special class; section 11(3) as a separate penalty; section 14 as enforcement rather than punishment; then compounding in full, with the 2024 Rules, the compounding authorities, what compounding does and does not extinguish, and the single case where it is excluded.
FEMA does not create offences for the ordinary breach; it creates contraventions, and everything else in this answer follows from that classification. Section 13(1) attaches liability to a person who contravenes any provision of this Act, or any rule, regulation, notification, direction or order issued in exercise of the powers under this Act, or any condition subject to which an authorisation is issued by the Reserve Bank.
Four consequences follow and they should be stated at the outset. There is no mens rea requirement: the section attaches to the fact of contravention, not to an intention to contravene. There is no prosecution before a criminal court for the ordinary breach and no power of arrest, the Directorate of Enforcement investigating under section 37 with the powers of an income-tax authority. Liability arises "upon adjudication" by an Adjudicating Authority under section 16, so it is not self-operating. And the standard of proof is the preponderance of probabilities, not proof beyond reasonable doubt.
The contrast with FERA makes the classification vivid. Under the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 a breach was a criminal offence, section 59 presumed guilt, and section 35 gave the Enforcement Directorate a power of arrest. FEMA removed all three. That was the central purpose of the 1999 reform.
A contravention is only meaningful by reference to an obligation, and the obligations in this Act are few enough to list.
Section 3 forbids, save as otherwise provided or with the general or special permission of the Reserve Bank, (a) dealing in or transferring any foreign exchange or foreign security to any person not being an authorised person; (b) making any payment to or for the credit of any person resident outside India in any manner; (c) receiving otherwise than through an authorised person any payment by order or on behalf of any person resident outside India; and (d) entering into any financial transaction in India as consideration for or in association with the acquisition or creation or transfer of a right to acquire any asset outside India.
The Explanation to section 3(c) is the anti-hawala provision and deserves separate treatment. Where a person in, or resident in, India receives any payment by order or on behalf of a person resident outside India through any other person, including an authorised person, without a corresponding inward remittance from any place outside India, he is deemed to have received such payment otherwise than through an authorised person. The deeming is what catches a compensatory payment, because the vice is not the receipt of rupees but the absence of a matching inward remittance.
Section 4 forbids a person resident in India from acquiring, holding, owning, possessing or transferring any foreign exchange, foreign security or any immovable property situated outside India. Section 6 regulates capital account transactions. Section 7 requires the export declaration of full value. Section 8 requires all reasonable steps to realise and repatriate foreign exchange due or accrued. Section 10(5) and (6) impose duties on and through the authorised person.
Contraventions divide in practice into three classes and saying so shows familiarity with how the Act works. Reporting or procedural contraventions, principally delay in filing Form FC-GPR or FC-TRS on an inward investment, are far the commonest and almost always end in compounding. Substantive contraventions, such as receiving investment in a prohibited sector or beyond a sectoral cap, go to adjudication. Contraventions involving undisclosed foreign assets are dealt with separately and severely under sections 13(1A) to (1D) and 37A.
Section 13(1) fixes the general penalty and the figures must be exact. On adjudication the person is liable to a penalty up to thrice the sum involved in such contravention where such amount is quantifiable, or up to two lakh rupees where the amount is not quantifiable, and where such contravention is a continuing one, a further penalty which may extend to five thousand rupees for every day after the first day during which the contravention continues.
Two points about the drafting deserve comment. The words are "up to", so the maximum is a ceiling and not a tariff; the Adjudicating Authority must apply his mind to quantum and give reasons, taking account of whether the contravention was technical or substantive, whether any gain accrued, and whether it was voluntarily disclosed. And the two lakh rupee figure applies only where the sum involved is not quantifiable, which in practice is confined to reporting failures where no amount can be attributed.
Section 13(2) adds confiscation. The Adjudicating Authority may, in addition to any penalty, direct that any currency, security or any other money or property in respect of which the contravention has taken place shall be confiscated to the Central Government, and further direct that the person's foreign exchange holdings be brought back into India or retained outside India in accordance with directions. The Explanation extends "property" to deposits in a bank where the property was converted into such deposits, Indian currency where it was converted into that currency, and any other property which has resulted out of the conversion of that property, so that a change of form cannot defeat the order.
Sections 13(1A) to (1D), inserted with effect from 9 September 2015, create the special class. Where a person is found to have acquired foreign exchange, foreign security or immovable property situated outside India of aggregate value exceeding the threshold prescribed under the proviso to section 37A(1), he is liable under section 13(1A) to a penalty up to three times the sum involved and confiscation of the value equivalent situated in India; under section 13(1C) he is, in addition, punishable with imprisonment which may extend to five years and with fine; under section 13(1B) the Adjudicating Authority may, on reasons recorded in writing, recommend prosecution, which the Director of Enforcement may direct on reasons recorded; and under section 13(1D) no court may take cognizance except on a complaint in writing by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Director.
Section 11(3) is a separate and much smaller penalty against an authorised person. For contravening a direction of the Reserve Bank or failing to file a return as directed, the Reserve Bank may, after a reasonable opportunity of being heard, impose a penalty up to ten thousand rupees, with an additional penalty up to two thousand rupees for every day of a continuing contravention. The disparity with section 13 is deliberate: the authorised person is a regulated intermediary, not the beneficiary of the transaction.
Section 14 is enforcement and not punishment, and the distinction is worth insisting on. A person who fails to make full payment of the penalty within ninety days from the date on which the notice for payment is served is liable to civil imprisonment, but only after a show cause notice and a satisfaction recorded in writing either that he has, after the notice, dishonestly transferred, concealed or removed property to obstruct recovery, or that he has the means to pay and refuses or neglects to do so.
Section 14(11) fixes the term at up to three years where the demand exceeds one crore rupees and up to six months in any other case; section 14(12) provides that release does not discharge the liability but bars a second arrest under the same certificate; and the Explanation to section 14(6) deems the karta to be the defaulter where the defaulter is a Hindu undivided family.
Section 14A has never been brought into force. It would authorise an officer of Enforcement not below the rank of Assistant Director to recover arrears with the powers of an income-tax authority under the Second Schedule to the Income-tax Act, 1961, but the India Code footnote records that it "shall stand inserted (date to be notified) by Act 28 of 2016, section 229", and no commencement notification has issued.
Section 15 is the provision through which the overwhelming majority of contraventions actually end, and an elaborate answer must give it as much space as the penalty.
Section 15(1): any contravention under section 13 may, on an application made by the person committing such contravention, be compounded within one hundred and eighty days from the date of receipt of application by the Director of Enforcement or such other officers of the Directorate of Enforcement and officers of the Reserve Bank as may be authorised in this behalf by the Central Government, in such manner as may be prescribed.
Section 15(2): where a contravention has been compounded, no proceeding or further proceeding, as the case may be, shall be initiated or continued against the person committing such contravention in respect of the contravention so compounded.
The governing rules are the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024, notified by the Department of Economic Affairs on 12 September 2024 in supersession of the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2000, made under section 46 read with section 15. They set out the compounding authorities and their monetary competence, the powers of those authorities, the procedure on an application and the post-compounding procedure. The application fee was raised from five thousand to ten thousand rupees plus goods and services tax, and digital payment of the fee and of the compounding amount was introduced.
The division of work between the two regulators should be stated. The Reserve Bank compounds the ordinary contraventions, principally the reporting and investment failures under the Non-debt Instruments Rules and the export realisation defaults, and publishes its orders, which in practice function as the working guidance of the field. The Directorate of Enforcement deals with the serious contraventions, including hawala under section 3 and cases involving section 4.
Four features of compounding deserve emphasis. It is voluntary and applicant-driven: no authority can compound of its own motion. It is available before or during adjudication, and an application suspends the adjudication in practice. It extinguishes the contravention, not merely the penalty, so section 15(2) closes the matter completely. And it produces a priced administrative order rather than a reasoned adjudication, which is efficient but is the reason this branch of the law has developed very little case law.
One exclusion is absolute. Section 37A(6) provides that nothing contained in section 15 shall apply to section 37A, so where an Authorised Officer has seized the value equivalent situated in India of foreign assets suspected to be held in contravention of section 4, the matter cannot be compounded at all. Read with section 13(1C), which makes the same conduct punishable with imprisonment up to five years, the message is that undeclared foreign wealth is the one thing FEMA will not allow to be bought off.
The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.
An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.
The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.
Why it bears on this question. It is the strongest modern authority on the first word of the question. The Supreme Court treated a FEMA breach as remediable and compoundable, and made that the reason for holding that it does not offend the fundamental policy of Indian law. A contravention is therefore a curable irregularity in a regulated market, not a wrong against the State.
On quantum and on the exercise of the power to penalise at all, the governing authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.
But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.
Why it bears on this question. Section 13(1) gives a ceiling of thrice the sum involved, not a tariff, and this decision supplies the principle behind the discretion: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not automatic, and is not for a technical or venial breach or for a breach flowing from a bona fide belief.
Conclusion. The nature of a FEMA breach is civil, and the classification determines everything that follows. Section 13 attaches liability to a contravention without any requirement of mens rea, adjudged on the preponderance of probabilities by a departmental Adjudicating Authority, with no prosecution and no power of arrest, in deliberate contrast to FERA's criminal offence, presumption of guilt in section 59 and arrest power in section 35.
The obligations whose breach is the contravention are few: sections 3 and 4 on dealing and holding, with the Explanation to section 3(c) deeming a payment received on a non-resident's instructions without a corresponding inward remittance to have been received otherwise than through an authorised person, which is how hawala is caught; section 6 on capital account transactions; sections 7 and 8 on export declaration and repatriation; and section 10 on the authorised person.
The penalty is up to thrice the sum where quantifiable, up to two lakh rupees where not, and up to five thousand rupees a day if continuing, with confiscation under section 13(2) following the property into whatever it has been converted into, and a much smaller supervisory penalty of ten thousand rupees with two thousand rupees a day against an authorised person under section 11(3). Section 14 supplies civil imprisonment only against a defaulter after ninety days, capped at three years above one crore rupees and six months below, and section 14A, enacted in 2016, has never been notified.
Compounding under section 15 is what the system actually runs on. Any contravention may be compounded on the applicant's own application within one hundred and eighty days of its receipt, by the Director of Enforcement or authorised officers of the Directorate and the Reserve Bank, under the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024 notified on 12 September 2024 in supersession of the 2000 Rules; and section 15(2) then bars any proceeding or further proceeding in respect of that contravention. The single exception is the one that shows where the Act still means to be severe: section 37A(6) excludes compounding altogether for a seizure of equivalent Indian assets in respect of undisclosed foreign holdings, which sections 13(1A) to (1D) also make punishable with imprisonment up to five years.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition in section 2(2) and the fact that assessment has been self-assessment since 2011; the machinery of section 17 with the speaking order in section 17(5); the valuation input from section 14 and the rate and date from section 15; then provisional assessment under section 18, its three gateways, the bond, and the two-year finalisation limit imposed with effect from 1 May 2025, which is the single most important recent change and which no older textbook contains; section 18A; and a critical evaluation identifying the three real defects, the allocation of risk, the delay that section 18(1B) has now addressed, and the ITC Ltd obstacle.
Section 2(2) defines assessment very widely. It means determination of the dutiability of any goods and the amount of duty, tax, cess or any other sum payable, and it includes provisional assessment, self-assessment, re-assessment and any assessment in which the duty assessed is nil. The width is deliberate: it allows a nil assessment and a self-assessment to be treated as assessments for every other purpose in the Act, including appeal under section 128 and refund under section 27.
The 2011 amendment reversed the burden of the exercise, and this is where a critical answer must begin. Before it, the importer filed an entry and an officer assessed the duty. Since then section 17(1) requires the importer or exporter to self-assess the duty leviable, and the officer's role has become a verification role. That single change transferred a technical exercise, the classification of goods under an eight-digit tariff and their valuation, from a trained officer to the trade.
Section 17(2) empowers the proper officer to verify the entries made under section 46 or section 50 and the self-assessment, and for that purpose to examine or test any imported or export goods and to require the production of any document or information. Section 17(3) allows him to require documents or information for verification. Section 17(4) permits re-assessment where, on verification, examination or testing, or otherwise, the self-assessment is found to be incorrect. Section 17(5) requires that where the re-assessment is contrary to the self-assessment and is not accepted in writing by the importer or exporter, the proper officer shall pass a speaking order within fifteen days from the date of re-assessment of the bill of entry or shipping bill.
Section 17(5) is the principal legal protection in the section and the hook on which most successful challenges hang. A re-assessment without a speaking order gives the importer nothing to appeal against and no reasons to answer, and is bad. The fifteen-day period is directory in the sense that a late order is not void, but an order never passed is fatal.
The valuation input is section 14, which fixes the value as the transaction value, the price actually paid or payable for delivery at the time and place of importation, where the buyer and seller are not related and price is the sole consideration, with specified additions for commissions, brokerage, engineering, design work, royalties, licence fees, transport, insurance, loading, unloading and handling, and with the Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 supplying a mandatory sequence of alternatives. Section 15 fixes the rate and date by reference to the presentation of the bill of entry under section 46, or for warehoused goods the bill of entry for home consumption under section 68.
Section 46 requires the bill of entry to be presented and, importantly, requires the importer to make and subscribe to a declaration as to the truth of its contents and to produce the invoice and other documents. That declaration is what makes a false entry an offence under section 132 and attracts the penalty under section 114AA, and it is the counterpart of the self-assessment obligation.
Section 18 exists because clearance cannot always wait for certainty, and it permits duty to be assessed provisionally on security.
The three gateways are exhaustive and must be stated. Provisional assessment is available where the importer or exporter is unable to make self-assessment under section 17(1) and makes a request in writing for provisional assessment; where the proper officer deems it necessary to subject any imported or export goods to any chemical or other test; where the importer or exporter has produced all necessary documents and furnished full information but the proper officer deems it necessary to make further enquiry; and where necessary documents have not been produced or information has not been furnished and the proper officer deems it necessary to make further enquiry. In each case the goods clear on the importer or exporter furnishing such security as the proper officer deems fit for the payment of the deficiency, if any.
Section 18(2) provides that when the duty is finally assessed or re-assessed, the amount paid provisionally is adjusted, with the importer paying any deficiency or being entitled to a refund of any excess. Section 18(3) makes the importer liable to interest on any deficiency from the first day of the month in which the duty was provisionally assessed until payment. Section 18(4) entitles him to interest on a delayed refund. Section 18(5) applies the unjust enrichment test, requiring the refundable amount to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund unless the claimant establishes that the incidence of the duty was not passed on.
The Finance Act 2025 has changed this section fundamentally and this is the currency point on which the question turns. New section 18(1B) imposes a time limit of two years for finalising a provisional assessment, running from the date of the provisional assessment, extendable by a further one year by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs for sufficient cause recorded. Where an assessment was already pending, the period runs from the date the Finance Act 2025 received assent. The proper officer is required to inform the importer or exporter of the reasons where finalisation does not occur within the period. The amendments took effect from 1 May 2025.
Section 18A, inserted by the same Finance Act with effect from 1 May 2025, is the companion reform: it permits a voluntary revision of an entry after clearance within the time and manner prescribed, so that an importer who discovers a short payment may deposit the differential with interest under section 28AA, and one who discovers an overpayment has a route that does not require him to appeal against his own assessment.
Defect one: self-assessment allocated the risk without allocating the expertise, and the Act's answer is incomplete. Classification under the tariff and valuation under section 14 are specialist exercises, and placing them on the importer speeds clearance at the cost of converting an error of judgment into a short payment carrying interest under section 28AA at between ten and thirty-six per cent and, where the ingredients are made out, a penalty under section 112 or section 114AA. The Act's answer is that a bona fide error is met by re-assessment rather than penalty; but whether an error is bona fide is decided in the first instance by the department, and the extended five-year period under section 28(4) is available on an allegation of suppression which the importer must then displace.
Defect two, now largely cured: provisional assessments used to remain open indefinitely. Before 1 May 2025 section 18 contained no outer limit on finalisation. Assessments referred to the Special Valuation Branch in related-party imports, and those turning on a certificate of origin under a free trade agreement, routinely stayed provisional for many years. The importer's working capital sat in a bond and security, his accounts could not be closed, and there was no statutory lever to compel a decision. Section 18(1B) now supplies the lever, with two years extendable by one and a duty to inform. It is the clearest recent instance of the Act being amended in response to a practical grievance rather than to a judgment, and it deserves to be recorded as a genuine improvement.
Defect three: the ITC Ltd obstacle, now partly cured. In ITC Ltd v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Kolkata IV, decided 18 September 2019, 2019 INSC 1049, the assessee had cleared goods on self-assessed bills of entry, paid additional customs duty, and claimed a refund of about Rs 35.89 crore under section 27 without appealing against any bill of entry. The Supreme Court held the claim not maintainable: a self-assessment is itself an order of assessment, it is appealable under section 128, and the refund authority cannot sit in appeal over an assessment that stands. The consequence was that an importer who assessed himself wrongly had to appeal against his own return within the appellate limitation before he could recover anything. Section 18A now permits a voluntary post-clearance revision and largely removes that difficulty, six years after it arose.
Defect four: the identity of the officer who may re-open. In Canon India Pvt. Ltd v. Commissioner of Customs, decided 9 March 2021, the Supreme Court quashed notices issued by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence under section 28, reasoning that the section speaks of "the proper officer" so that only the officer who assessed, or his successor in that office, could re-open.
Parliament amended sections 2(34), 3 and 5 by the Finance Act 2022 with a retrospective validation, and on 7 November 2024 a three-judge Bench allowed the review and reversed the 2021 judgment, holding that section 2(34) must be read harmoniously with section 6, which permits functions to be entrusted to diverse classes of officers, so that DRI officers to whom the function has been validly allocated are competent under section 28. Demands of the order of Rs 20,000 crore were released. An answer stating Canon India as good law in 2026 is stating a recalled judgment.
| Assessment under section 17 | Provisional assessment under section 18 | |
|---|---|---|
| Who acts | The importer or exporter self-assesses | The proper officer assesses provisionally |
| Trigger | Every entry under section 46 or 50 | Only the statutory gateways: inability to self-assess on written request, test required, further enquiry needed, documents or information not produced |
| Assessment under section 17 | Provisional assessment under section 18 | |
|---|---|---|
| Security | None | Such security as the proper officer deems fit |
| Finality | Final unless re-assessed under section 17(4) or re-opened under section 28 | Not final; finalisation is a separate later act |
| Time limit | Section 28 gives two years, or five in a suppression case | Two years from provisional assessment, extendable by one year, under section 18(1B) since 1 May 2025 |
| Interest | Section 28AA | Section 18(3) on the deficiency, section 18(4) on a delayed refund |
| Refund | Section 27, subject to unjust enrichment | Section 18(5), subject to the same test |
| Appeal | The self-assessment is itself appealable, ITC Ltd | The order of final assessment is the appealable order |
Conclusion. Assessment under the Customs Act has since 2011 been the importer's own act, with the officer verifying under section 17(2), re-assessing under section 17(4) and obliged by section 17(5) to pass a speaking order within fifteen days where the re-assessment is not accepted in writing. The base comes from section 14's transaction value with the 2007 Rules behind it, and the rate and date from section 15. That structure buys speed and pays for it by placing a technical burden, and the risk of interest and penalty, on the trade.
Provisional assessment under section 18 is the exception, available only through its stated gateways, secured by such security as the officer deems fit, carrying interest on the deficiency under section 18(3) and subject on refund to the unjust enrichment test in section 18(5). Its historic defect was the absence of any outer limit, which left Special Valuation Branch and free trade agreement references open for years with the importer's capital locked in a bond. Section 18(1B), in force from 1 May 2025, now requires finalisation within two years, extendable by one year by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, with a duty to inform where that is not met.
The critical verdict is that the two most serious objections to this part of the Act have both been answered in the same Finance Act, and that the answers came from Parliament rather than from the courts. Section 18(1B) ended indefinite provisional assessment, and section 18A ended the position created by ITC Ltd in 2019, under which an importer had to appeal against his own self-assessment before he could claim a refund.
What remains unresolved is the allocation of risk: the importer classifies and values, the department verifies, and the five-year period in section 28(4) is available on an allegation of suppression which he must displace. On the question of who may make that allegation, the position was unsettled by Canon India in 2021 and settled the other way on review on 7 November 2024, so that an officer to whom the function is validly allocated under section 6, including one of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, is a proper officer for section 28.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question says "define and describe", so define the officer first, because the powers are conferred on defined classes and not on customs officers generally; then take the three powers in turn and, for each, state precisely what the officer must hold, what he must record, and what he must tell the person, which is the framework the Supreme Court adopted in February 2025; sections 100 to 105, 110 and 104; the constitutional overlay; and Radhika Agarwal.
The Act does not confer these powers on "customs officers" at large, and the classes must be named. Section 3 lists the classes of officers of customs: the Principal Chief Commissioner and Chief Commissioner, the Principal Commissioner and Commissioner, the Principal Commissioner (Appeals) and Commissioner (Appeals), Joint Commissioners, Deputy Commissioners, Assistant Commissioners, and such other class of officers as the Board may appoint. Section 4 empowers the Board to appoint such persons as it thinks fit to be officers of customs, and section 5 provides that an officer may exercise the powers conferred on any officer subordinate to him.
Section 2(34) defines "proper officer", in relation to any functions under the Act, as the officer of customs who is assigned those functions by the Board or the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs. Section 6 permits the Central Government to entrust, either conditionally or unconditionally, to any officer of the Central or a State Government or a local authority, any functions of the Board or an officer of customs.
The relationship between sections 2(34) and 6 was the question in the Canon India litigation and it is now settled. In Canon India Pvt. Ltd v. Commissioner of Customs, decided 9 March 2021, the Supreme Court read "the proper officer" in section 28 as meaning only the officer who had assessed. On 7 November 2024 a three-judge Bench allowed the review and reversed that decision, holding that section 2(34) must be read harmoniously with section 6, so that an officer to whom the function has been validly allocated, including an officer of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, is a proper officer. The lesson for this question is that the identity of the empowered officer is a jurisdictional fact in every case.
Section 100: search of persons in transit. The proper officer may search a person if he has reason to believe that the person has secreted about his person any goods liable to confiscation or any documents relating thereto. The section applies to a person who has landed from or is about to board or is on board a vessel within Indian customs waters; who has landed from or is about to board or is on board a foreign-going aircraft; who is entering or about to leave India by land or inland water; or who is in a customs area.
Section 101: search anywhere in India for notified goods. An officer of customs empowered by general or special order of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, and not below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner, may search any person if he has reason to believe that the person has secreted about his person gold, diamonds, manufactures of gold or diamonds, watches, or any other class of goods notified by the Central Government.
What must be held: a reason to believe. In both sections the belief is the jurisdictional fact. It must exist, must be based on material, and cannot be a bare suspicion.
What must be recorded: less than one would expect. Neither section 100 nor section 101 requires the reason to be recorded in writing, in contrast to section 105, which does for premises. That asymmetry is a real defect: the more intrusive power over the body carries the lighter recording obligation.
What must be told: section 102, and only on request. When an officer is about to search a person under section 100 or 101, he shall, if such person so requires, take him without unnecessary delay to the nearest gazetted officer of customs or Magistrate. That officer or Magistrate shall forthwith discharge the person if he sees no reasonable ground for search, and otherwise direct that a search be made. Before the search the officer shall call upon two or more persons to attend and witness it, and may issue an order in writing to them. No female shall be searched by anyone excepting a female.
The criticism is narrow and precise: the right operates only "if such person so requires", and nothing in the section obliges the officer to tell him it exists. Departmental practice is to record that the person was informed and declined, and that record is the only evidence of compliance. Measured against the modern standard, this is the provision most in need of a statutory duty to inform.
Section 103: search of the body. Where the proper officer has reason to believe that a person has any goods liable to confiscation secreted inside his body, he may detain him and shall produce him without unnecessary delay before the nearest Magistrate. The Magistrate, if satisfied that there is reasonable ground, may direct that the person be taken to a registered medical practitioner for an X-ray or other examination, and on a report that goods are secreted, may direct suitable action for bringing them out; if he sees no reasonable ground, he shall discharge the person. This is the only power in the Act that requires judicial authorisation before it is exercised, and it is correctly the most tightly controlled, because it is the most intrusive.
Section 105: search of premises. The Assistant Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner of Customs, or in a border area an officer of lower rank so empowered, may, if he has reason to believe recorded in writing that any goods liable to confiscation, or any documents or things which in his opinion will be useful for or relevant to any proceeding under this Act, are secreted in any place, authorise an officer to search or himself search. Section 105(2) applies the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 relating to searches, so far as may be, subject to the modification that the sanction of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner is substituted for that of a Magistrate. The substitution replaces a judicial authorisation with an executive one, which is the standing objection to this section.
Section 110(1): where the proper officer has reason to believe that any goods are liable to confiscation under the Act, he may seize them; where seizure is not practicable, the proviso allows a constructive seizure by an order to the owner not to remove, part with or otherwise deal with the goods except with his previous permission.
Section 110(1A) to (1C) permit certified inventory and early disposal of goods notified by reason of their perishable or hazardous nature, depreciation in value with the passage of time, constraints of storage space or any other relevant consideration, the proper officer preparing an inventory, applying to a Magistrate for certification of description, quantity and quality, taking photographs and drawing samples, the certified inventory then standing in place of the goods in evidence.
Section 110(2) is the discipline on the power, and it is one of the few places where the Act itself requires reasons to be communicated. If no notice under section 124 is given within six months of the seizure, the goods must be returned to the person from whose possession they were seized. The period may be extended by a further six months by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, for reasons to be recorded in writing and informed to the person concerned before the expiry of the original period. Both the recording and the timely communication are mandatory.
Section 110(3) extends seizure to documents or things useful for or relevant to any proceeding, with a right in section 110(4) for the person from whom they were seized to make copies or take extracts in the presence of an officer. Section 110A permits provisional release of seized goods, documents or things, or of a provisionally attached bank account, on bond with such security and conditions as the adjudicating authority may require.
Section 104(1): an officer of customs empowered in this behalf by general or special order of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs, who has reason to believe that any person has committed an offence punishable under section 132, 133, 135, 135A or 136, may arrest him and shall, as soon as may be, inform him of the grounds for such arrest. The list of offences is exhaustive, and section 134, refusal to be X-rayed, is not among them, so a person who refuses an X-ray cannot be arrested for that refusal.
Section 104(2) requires the arrested person to be taken to a Magistrate without unnecessary delay; section 104(3) gives the officer, for the purpose of releasing on bail or otherwise, the same powers and subjects him to the same provisions as an officer in charge of a police station.
Section 104(4) fixes cognizability, and its four limbs must be given exactly. Notwithstanding the Code of Criminal Procedure, an offence is cognizable where it relates to (a) prohibited goods; or (b) evasion or attempted evasion of duty exceeding fifty lakh rupees; or (c) fraudulently availing of or attempting to avail of drawback or any exemption from duty provided under this Act, where the amount of drawback or exemption from duty exceeds fifty lakh rupees; or (d) fraudulently obtaining an instrument for the purposes of this Act or the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, and such instrument is utilised under this Act, where the duty relatable to such utilisation of the instrument exceeds fifty lakh rupees. Section 104(5): save as otherwise provided in sub-section (4), all other offences under the Act shall be non-cognizable.
That structure is Parliament's answer to Om Prakash v. Union of India, (2011) 14 SCC 1, decided 30 September 2011, which held offences under the Customs Act and the Central Excise Act to be non-cognizable and therefore bailable, so that an arrest required a warrant. The cognizable categories were carved out by amendments in 2012, 2013 and 2019.
Radhika Agarwal v. Union of India, 2025 INSC 272, was decided on 27 February 2025 on a batch of about 279 petitions led by Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 336 of 2018, challenging the powers of arrest under the Customs Act and under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
The Supreme Court upheld the provisions. It affirmed Parliament's legislative competence under Article 246A to enact penal provisions for goods and services tax enforcement and dismissed the challenge to sections 69 and 70 of the CGST Act. It held that an arrest for a cognizable and non-bailable offence does not require a prior adjudication of the duty liability.
But it made the exercise of the power justiciable on three conditions. The officer must act on credible material; his "reasons to believe" must be recorded in writing; and those reasons must be furnished to the arrested person, so that he is in a position to challenge the arrest. The Court drew the safeguards from Articles 21 and 22 and from D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, and applied its reasoning in Arvind Kejriwal v. Directorate of Enforcement on the communication of grounds of arrest.
Two further provisions complete the criminal picture. Section 137(1) requires the previous sanction of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner before a court takes cognizance of an offence under section 132, 133, 134, 135, 135A or 135AA, so the department itself decides whether to prosecute. Section 137(3) permits compounding by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner before or after prosecution, at a price fixed by the Customs (Compounding of Offences) Rules, 2005, subject to the provisos that exclude repeat offenders and persons whose conduct also offends the narcotics, chemical weapons or arms legislation.
Conclusion. The powers are conferred on defined officers, not on the department at large: section 3 lists the classes, section 2(34) defines the proper officer as one to whom functions are assigned, and section 6 permits entrustment to other officers, the relationship between the two having been settled by the review judgment of 7 November 2024 in favour of the department. Every one of the powers then rests on a state of mind the officer must actually hold.
Search of a person under sections 100 and 101 requires a reason to believe, and section 101 additionally requires the authorisation of an officer of at least Assistant Commissioner rank; the safeguard is section 102, which entitles the person on request to be taken before the nearest gazetted officer or Magistrate, requires two witnesses and forbids the search of a female by anyone but a female, but which operates only if he asks and does not oblige the officer to tell him so. Section 103, the internal search, is the only power in the Act requiring a Magistrate's direction and a registered medical practitioner, and it is correctly the tightest. Section 105 requires the reason to believe to be recorded in writing but replaces the Magistrate's sanction with the Commissioner's.
Seizure under section 110 requires the same reason to believe and is disciplined by section 110(2), which returns the goods after six months unless a section 124 notice issues, and permits one extension only for reasons recorded and communicated before the original period expires, with provisional release available under section 110A.
Arrest under section 104 is the narrowest power of all: available only for offences under sections 132, 133, 135, 135A and 136, with only four cognizable categories under section 104(4), each turning on prohibited goods or on a figure exceeding fifty lakh rupees, everything else being non-cognizable under section 104(5). Non-bailability is a separate scheme resting on a different list: section 104(6) makes non-bailable only an offence punishable under section 135 relating to evasion exceeding fifty lakh rupees, to prohibited goods notified under section 11 which are also notified under section 135(1)(i)(C), to undeclared goods whose market price exceeds one crore rupees, to fraudulent drawback or exemption exceeding fifty lakh rupees, or to the fraudulent obtaining of an instrument where the relatable duty exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
Section 104(7) makes every other offence bailable. The two lists do not coincide, and treating cognizability and bailability as one test is a common and costly error. And since Radhika Agarwal on 27 February 2025 the officer must hold credible material, record his reasons to believe in writing, and furnish those reasons to the person arrested, so that what was previously an internal record has become a communicable and challengeable one.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the paper's misprint should be noticed and passed over in a phrase, and the answer written on section 138A; the presumption in full, with sub-section (2) and the two companion presumptions; a genuine critical evaluation, which means asking whether a reverse onus in a fiscal statute is justified and what keeps it constitutional; then the second and quite separate half of the question, the interpretation of customs law, which has two distinct bodies of rule, the statutory General Rules for the Interpretation of the Import Tariff and the general canons for a taxing statute, with Dilip Kumar on exemptions as the most important recent change.
The paper prints "'33Presumption of Culpable Mental State'", with a stray "33" attached to the word Presumption. The provision meant is section 138A of the Customs Act, 1962, which is headed "Presumption of culpable mental state" and is the only provision in the Act bearing that description. The answer proceeds on section 138A.
Section 138A was inserted by the Customs, Gold (Control) and Central Excises and Salt (Amendment) Act, 1973, section 9, with effect from 1 September 1973, and its purpose was practical. In a smuggling prosecution the physical facts, the recovery, the documents, the movement of the goods, are provable from records and seizures. The mental element, the knowledge that the goods were prohibited or that the declaration was false, exists only in the accused's mind and can rarely be proved directly.
Section 138A(1): in any prosecution for an offence under this Act which requires a culpable mental state on the part of the accused, the court shall presume the existence of such mental state, but it shall be a defence for the accused to prove the fact that he had no such mental state with respect to the act charged as an offence in that prosecution.
The Explanation: "culpable mental state" includes intention, motive, knowledge of a fact and belief in, or reason to believe, a fact. The word "includes" makes the list non-exhaustive, and the inclusion of motive is unusual, since motive is ordinarily evidence of intention rather than an element of it.
Section 138A(2) is the limb most often omitted and the one that keeps the section defensible: for the purposes of the section, a fact is said to be proved only when the court believes it to exist beyond reasonable doubt and not merely when its existence is established by a preponderance of probability.
The case for it rests on necessity and on the location of knowledge. A professional carrier can always say that he did not know what was in the consignment. Where the prosecution has proved possession, movement and misdeclaration, the only fact left is one that lies peculiarly within the accused's knowledge, and a rule that requires him to speak to it is not obviously unfair. That is the same reasoning that sustains reverse-onus provisions under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Four features confine the presumption and each is a real limit. It operates only in a prosecution, so it has no application to departmental adjudication under section 124, which proceeds on preponderance anyway and where many grounds of confiscation under section 111 require no mental element at all. It operates only where the offence itself requires a culpable mental state, so it does not reach an offence of strict liability. It is rebuttable, the defence being preserved in terms. And section 138A(2) fixes the standard at beyond reasonable doubt, which cuts both ways: the accused must displace it to that standard, but the prosecution must first prove the foundational facts to the same standard before the presumption is available at all. A presumption that rests on facts proved only on a balance of probabilities would be a very different provision.
The case against it has three strands and each should be stated.
First, the presumption does not stand alone, and the cumulative effect is greater than any part. Section 123 places on the possessor of gold, watches or other notified goods, seized in a reasonable belief that they are smuggled, the burden of proving that they are not. Section 139 presumes the genuineness of documents produced or seized and, where seized, the truth of their contents. In a typical prosecution the department proves possession of notified goods; section 123 makes them smuggled unless the accused disproves it; section 139 makes the seized documents true unless he disproves them; and section 138A makes his mind guilty unless he disproves that. The accused is then answering three presumptions at once.
Second, the material against him is very often his own compelled statement. Section 108 permits a gazetted officer to summon any person, obliges him to state the truth, and declares the inquiry a judicial proceeding within sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code. Article 20(3) is said not to apply because he is not yet a person accused of any offence, which is a formal answer to a real compulsion. Section 138B controls the later use of such a statement, making it relevant only where the maker is examined as a witness and the authority records an opinion that it should be admitted in the interests of justice, or where he is dead, cannot be found, is incapable of giving evidence, is kept out of the way, or cannot be produced without unreasonable delay or expense. That is a control on admissibility and not on the compulsion.
Third, the practical answer to the criticism is that section 138A rarely decides anything, because prosecutions are rare. Section 137(1) requires the Commissioner's sanction before cognizance; section 137(3) permits compounding before or after prosecution at a price fixed by the Customs (Compounding of Offences) Rules, 2005; and the department's primary remedies, confiscation and penalty, are civil and quick. The presumption is best understood as a provision that makes prosecution credible as a threat rather than one that regularly produces convictions.
The balanced conclusion on this half is that the reverse onus is justified in principle and safe in law because of the preconditions, and that the objection worth pressing is not to section 138A itself but to the combination of section 138A, section 123, section 139 and section 108, which together leave very little for the prosecution to prove once possession is established.
The second half of the question is a different subject and must be organised separately. There are two bodies of interpretative rule and confusing them costs marks.
The first is statutory and applies to classification. The First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 is preceded by the General Rules for the Interpretation of the Import Tariff, which enact in India the international rules accompanying the Harmonised Commodity Description and Coding System. They are applied in strict sequence, and an officer who reaches a later rule without exhausting the earlier ones has misapplied them.
Rule 1: classification is determined according to the terms of the headings and any relative section or chapter notes, which are legally binding and not explanatory matter. Rule 2(a): a heading covering an article covers it incomplete or unfinished, provided it has the essential character of the complete article, and also covers it presented unassembled or disassembled. Rule 2(b): a reference to a material includes mixtures or combinations of that material with others.
Rule 3 resolves competition between two or more headings: 3(a) the heading giving the most specific description prevails; 3(b) failing that, classification is by the material or component which gives the goods their essential character; 3(c) failing that, the heading occurring last in numerical order among those which equally merit consideration. Rule 4: goods not classifiable by the preceding rules go under the heading appropriate to the goods to which they are most akin. Rule 5: cases and packing materials. Rule 6: sub-headings are compared only at the same level, and the section and chapter notes apply.
Two aids sit alongside those rules. The Explanatory Notes to the Harmonised System published by the World Customs Organization are persuasive but not binding and are routinely used to resolve heading disputes. And where the tariff uses a word that has a settled meaning in the trade, the trade or commercial parlance test applies in preference to a scientific or dictionary meaning, unless the tariff itself defines the term.
The second body of rule consists of the general canons for a taxing statute, and they differ by function.
A charging provision is construed strictly. If the subject does not fall within the letter of the charge he is not taxed, however clearly he may be within its spirit; there is no equity about a tax; and nothing is to be read in or implied. Article 265 supplies the constitutional reason: no tax may be levied or collected except by authority of law.
A machinery provision is construed so as to make the charge workable, and not so as to defeat it. Where a machinery provision is capable of two readings, the one that gives effect to the charge is preferred.
An exemption provision is now construed strictly against the claimant, and this is the most important change of the last decade. In Commissioner of Customs v. Dilip Kumar and Company, (2018) 9 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench of five judges held that an exemption notification must be construed strictly, that the burden of proving applicability lies on the assessee, and that where there is ambiguity in an exemption notification the benefit of doubt cannot be claimed by the subject and must be interpreted in favour of the revenue, expressly overruling the contrary line.
The distinction the Court drew must be reproduced accurately: ambiguity in a charging provision favours the subject, because the State must establish its right to tax; ambiguity in an exemption favours the revenue, because the subject claims a benefit and must bring himself squarely within it. Every textbook printed before 2018 states the opposite.
Two further canons complete the answer. A penal provision in a fiscal statute is construed strictly in favour of the accused, so section 135 is not extended by analogy. And a beneficial or procedural amendment may be applied to pending matters, whereas a provision creating or enlarging a liability operates prospectively unless expressly made retrospective, which is why the retrospective validation enacted by the Finance Act 2022 in relation to notices under section 28 had to be spelt out in terms.
Romesh Chandra Mehta v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1970 SC 940 is the decision that governs the standing of a customs officer and of a statement taken by him. Persons intercepted with smuggled goods made statements to customs officers under sections 107 and 108 and later objected that those statements had been extracted from them in a proceeding declared to be judicial, and were therefore hit by Article 20(3), which protects a person accused of an offence from being compelled to be a witness against himself.
The Supreme Court rejected the objection on two grounds that have governed the subject ever since. A customs officer is not a police officer: he remains a revenue officer concerned with the detection of smuggling and the enforcement of duty, and an arrest by him is not an accusation. And at the time a statement is recorded under section 108 the maker is not a person accused of any offence, because the officer is conducting an inquiry and has laid no charge, so Article 20(3) is not attracted.
Why it bears on this question. The presumption in section 138A is applied in a prosecution whose evidence is very often a statement recorded under section 108, and this is the authority that makes such a statement admissible and holds that Article 20(3) is not attracted. It is also where the criticism bites, because the protection is withheld on the footing that the maker was not yet an accused.
Collector of Customs, Madras v. D. Bhoormull, (1974) 2 SCC 544, decided on 3 April 1974 is the leading decision on where the burden lies and how it is discharged. Acting on information, preventive officers of the Madras Custom House found packages of foreign goods at a shop, about to be despatched to Bangalore. The person in possession gave no account at all of how he had come by them, and the department had no direct evidence of any illicit importation.
The Supreme Court held that where section 123 does not apply, the burden of proving that goods are smuggled lies on the department, that being the ordinary rule in a quasi-criminal proceeding; but that the burden is discharged on the totality of the circumstances, and the department is not required to prove its case with mathematical precision or to establish the actual act of smuggling. The unexplained possession of goods of foreign origin, coupled with the possessor's refusal to disclose his source, may itself supply the proof.
Why it bears on this question. It states the default position that the presumptions displace. Where section 123 does not apply, the department must prove that goods are smuggled; and the fundamental principles of interpretation the question asks about are what determine when a statutory presumption may displace that default and how far.
Conclusion. The presumption of culpable mental state in section 138A, inserted in 1973, requires a court in any prosecution for an offence needing a guilty mind to presume that mind, leaving the accused to prove that he had none, and defines the state to include intention, motive, knowledge and reason to believe. It is confined in four ways, to prosecutions, to offences requiring such a state, to a rebuttable presumption, and by section 138A(2) to a standard of proof beyond reasonable doubt, which also governs the foundational facts the prosecution must prove first.
Judged alone it is a defensible reverse onus, resting on the fact that the mental element lies peculiarly within the accused's knowledge. Judged together with section 123's reverse burden for notified goods, section 139's presumption about documents and section 108's compelled statements, the accumulation is heavy, and the honest criticism is directed at the combination rather than at section 138A by itself.
The interpretation of customs law runs on two tracks that must not be merged. Classification is governed by the statutory General Rules for the Interpretation of the Import Tariff, applied in sequence: headings and binding section and chapter notes first, then incomplete, unassembled and mixed goods, then the tie-breakers of most specific description, essential character and last numerical heading, then akin goods, packing and sub-headings compared at the same level, with the World Customs Organization's Explanatory Notes as persuasive material and the trade parlance test where the tariff uses a commercial word.
Everything else is governed by the canons for a taxing statute, and they differ according to what the provision does. A charge is construed strictly in favour of the subject because Article 265 requires authority of law; machinery is construed to make the charge workable; a penal provision is construed strictly in favour of the accused. And since Dilip Kumar in 2018 an exemption is construed strictly against the claimant, ambiguity being resolved in favour of the revenue, which reverses the older rule and is the single fact most likely to distinguish a current answer from one written out of an older book.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the word is "critically evaluate", so the definitions must be stated and then tested; the two definitions verbatim, and the fact that the current account is defined residually so that the capital definition governs; the operative asymmetry between sections 5 and 6; the 2019 restructuring; then the criticism, which has four genuine limbs, the residual drafting, the borderline cases the definitions do not resolve, the split regulator, and the fact that current account freedom is qualified by rules that are not always reasonable; and a verdict.
Section 2(e): a capital account transaction means a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India, or assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India, and includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of section 6.
Section 2(j): a current account transaction means a transaction other than a capital account transaction and, without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, such transaction includes (i) payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current business, services, and short-term banking and credit facilities in the ordinary course of business; (ii) payments due as interest on loans and as net income from investments; (iii) remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children residing abroad; and (iv) expenses in connection with foreign travel, education and medical care of parents, spouse and children.
The relationship between them is the first thing to notice and the first ground of criticism. The current account is defined residually, as everything that is not capital, with four illustrative limbs that are expressly "without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing". So the whole weight of the classification rests on section 2(e), and the only operative test in the Act is whether the transaction alters cross-border assets or liabilities.
The test works well in the clear cases. A resident buying shares in a foreign company alters his assets outside India: capital. A non-resident subscribing to Indian equity alters his assets in India: capital. A resident borrowing abroad alters his liabilities outside India: capital. A guarantee given for a foreign subsidiary is caught because contingent liabilities are expressly included. Payment for imported goods alters nothing: current. Interest on a loan is current; repayment of the principal is capital, because it discharges a liability.
The Act then makes the classification matter through an asymmetry. Section 5: any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person if such sale or drawal is a current account transaction, subject to the proviso that the Central Government may, in public interest and in consultation with the Reserve Bank, impose such reasonable restrictions for current account transactions as may be prescribed. Section 6: a capital account transaction is permitted only to the extent the regulator has specified it as permissible. Current is free unless restricted; capital is restricted unless permitted.
The rule-making power was split on 15 October 2019 and the answer must state the position as it now is. Section 6(3), which had listed eleven classes of capital account transaction the Reserve Bank could prohibit, restrict or regulate, stands omitted. Section 6(2) leaves with the Reserve Bank, in consultation with the Central Government, the power to specify permissible classes of capital account transactions involving debt instruments, their limits and conditions. Section 6(2A), inserted at the same time, gives the Central Government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, the power to prescribe permissible classes not involving debt instruments. Section 6(7) provides that "debt instruments" means such instruments as may be determined by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank.
The proviso to section 6(2) is a genuine limit on both regulators: neither may impose any restriction on the drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of amortisation of loans or for depreciation of direct investments in the ordinary course of business.
Sections 6(4) and (5) grandfather assets acquired, held or owned, or inherited, while the holder was on the other side of the residence line, and section 6(6) empowers the Reserve Bank to regulate the establishment in India of a branch, office or other place of business by a person resident outside India.
The instruments are the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 of the Central Government, the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 of the Reserve Bank, and the Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments Regulations, 2019, with section 47(3) saving the Bank's earlier regulations on capital account transactions until amended or rescinded by the Central Government.
On the current account side, section 5 is worked out by the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000, whose three schedules list transactions prohibited outright, including remittance out of lottery winnings, remittance of income from racing or riding, remittance for the purchase of lottery tickets, sweepstakes or football pools, and payment of commission on exports towards equity investment in joint ventures abroad; transactions requiring prior approval of the Central Government; and transactions requiring prior approval of the Reserve Bank above specified limits. The Liberalised Remittance Scheme operates against Schedule III and is how the section 5 freedom is exercised by individuals in practice.
Criticism one: the residual definition places the entire weight on one clause, and that clause is not self-executing. Because section 2(j) says only "a transaction other than a capital account transaction", every borderline question becomes a question about section 2(e). The four inclusive limbs in section 2(j) do not help, because they are illustrations and because they were drawn from Article XXX(d) of the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund rather than from any analysis of Indian transactions. A definition that operates by subtraction is only as good as the definition it subtracts from.
Criticism two: the test does not resolve the transactions that matter most in practice. Three examples make the point. A long-term trade credit for the import of capital goods is in form a payment for goods, which is current, but in substance a borrowing, which is capital, and the regime resolves it by rule rather than by the definition. A guarantee is expressly within section 2(e) as a contingent liability, but the point at which a guarantee is "given" and therefore alters the liability is not stated. And a remittance under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme may be used for either a current or a capital purpose, so the same remittance changes character according to what the remitter does with it abroad. In each case the Act's definitions are supplemented by administrative instruction, and the instruction, not the definition, decides.
Criticism three, and the sharpest: section 2(e) now contains a cross-reference to a provision that does not exist. The definition "includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of section 6", and section 6(3) was omitted with effect from 15 October 2019. That is not merely untidy. The omitted sub-section contained the eleven enumerated classes, and the definition therefore no longer incorporates any enumeration at all; the residue of the definition is the abstract balance-sheet test alone. Parliament omitted the sub-section without consequential amendment to section 2(e), and the point survives in the Act today.
Criticism four: the split regulator has produced two rulebooks for one concept. Since 15 October 2019 a capital account transaction is governed by the Central Government's rules if it does not involve a debt instrument and by the Reserve Bank's regulations if it does, with the boundary between the two fixed by section 6(7), that is by the Central Government's own determination of what a debt instrument is. So the Government defines the category that determines which regulator has jurisdiction. There is a real institutional objection here: the definitional power and the substantive power over the larger half of the field are in the same hands, and the Reserve Bank's role is residual and dependent.
Criticism five: the freedom in section 5 is qualified by a proviso whose reasonableness is not tested. Section 5 permits restrictions that are "reasonable" and imposed "in public interest". Schedule I of the 2000 Rules prohibits, among other things, the remittance of income from racing or riding and payment for lottery tickets, which are moral rather than economic prohibitions and sit oddly in a statute whose object is the orderly development of the foreign exchange market. Whether such a restriction is "reasonable" for the purposes of the proviso has never had to be decided, because the amounts involved are small; but the proviso is drafted widely enough to carry restrictions with no exchange-management rationale at all.
What can be said in the concept's favour, and it is considerable. The distinction is not an Indian invention; it follows the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund, under which India accepted the obligations of Article VIII in August 1994 and thereby committed itself to current account convertibility while retaining freedom on the capital account. The Tarapore Committee on Capital Account Convertibility, which reported in 1997, recommended a phased approach to the capital account subject to preconditions on fiscal consolidation, inflation and financial sector health. FEMA's asymmetry is therefore a considered policy choice and not an accident of drafting, and the crises of other emerging economies in the 1990s, where sudden capital account reversals did the damage, are the reason for it.
The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.
An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.
The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.
Why it bears on this question. The transaction was a transfer of shares by residents to a non-resident, unarguably a capital account transaction, and the complaint was about its price. The Supreme Court's answer, that a contravention of the rules governing such a transfer is remediable and compoundable, is the best authority available on what follows when the capital account rules are broken.
The second authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969, and it governs the exercise of every discretionary power to penalise in an Indian fiscal statute. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.
But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.
Why it bears on this question. Every one of these provisions ends, if it ends adversely, in a penalty imposed under a discretion expressed as a maximum. This decision states how such a discretion must be exercised: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not to be imposed merely because it is lawful to do so, and is not for a technical or venial breach or one flowing from a bona fide belief.
Conclusion. The two concepts are the architecture of the whole Act. Section 2(e) defines a capital account transaction by the alteration of cross-border assets or liabilities including contingent liabilities, section 2(j) defines a current account transaction as everything else with four illustrative limbs, and the asymmetry between section 5, which frees the current account subject to reasonable restrictions, and section 6, which permits capital account transactions only to the extent specified, is what makes the classification worth litigating.
Evaluated critically, the concept has four defects and one strong justification. It is defined by subtraction, so all the weight falls on section 2(e). It does not decide the transactions that matter most, long-term trade credit, the timing of a guarantee, and a Liberalised Remittance Scheme remittance whose character depends on its use, all of which are resolved by administrative instrument rather than by the definition. Section 2(e) still incorporates by reference section 6(3), which was omitted on 15 October 2019, so the definition points at nothing and only the abstract test survives.
And the split of the rule-making power on the same date has left the Central Government both defining "debt instruments" under section 6(7) and regulating everything that is not one under section 6(2A), which makes the Reserve Bank's jurisdiction dependent on the Government's own definition. To that may be added that section 5's proviso permits restrictions on the current account whose rationale is moral rather than economic.
The justification is that the distinction is not domestic in origin and not arbitrary in purpose. It reflects the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund, India's acceptance of Article VIII obligations in August 1994 and the Tarapore Committee's recommendation in 1997 that the capital account be opened only in stages against fiscal and financial preconditions. A country that has freed its current account and retains control of its capital account has chosen the position the experience of the 1990s recommended, and the criticisms above are criticisms of the drafting and of the institutional design, not of the underlying policy.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that "refund" in this Act is four different provisions and not one, and separating them is what earns the marks; section 26 for export duty; section 26A for defective imported goods; section 27 as the general provision with its limitation and its exceptions; section 18(4) and (5) on finalisation of a provisional assessment; then the unjust enrichment machinery which qualifies all of them, with Mafatlal Industries; the ITC Ltd obstacle and its cure in section 18A from 1 May 2025; interest on delayed refund under section 27A; and drawback under sections 74 and 75, which is a refund in substance and should be distinguished.
Section 26: refund of export duty. Where export duty has been paid on goods and those goods are returned to the exporter otherwise than by way of resale, are re-imported within one year from the date of exportation, and an application for refund is made within six months from the date on which the proper officer makes an order for the clearance of the goods, the export duty is refundable. The three conditions are cumulative, and the requirement that the return be otherwise than by way of resale is what confines the section to goods that have failed rather than goods that have been sold back.
Section 26A: refund of import duty on defective goods. This is a more modern and more useful provision. Where imported goods are found to be defective or otherwise not in conformity with the specification agreed upon between the importer and the supplier, the import duty paid is refundable, subject to conditions: the goods must not have been worked, repaired or used after importation except where such use was indispensable to discover the defect or non-conformity; they must be identified to the satisfaction of the Assistant or Deputy Commissioner as the goods imported; the importer must not have claimed drawback; and the goods must be exported, or the importer must relinquish his title to them and abandon them to the customs, or they must be destroyed or rendered commercially valueless in the presence of the proper officer, within thirty days of clearance for home consumption, extendable by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner up to three months.
The application must be made within six months of the relevant date. The section does not apply to perishable goods or to goods which have exceeded their shelf life or their recommended storage-before-use period.
Section 27: the general refund provision. Any person claiming refund of any duty or interest paid by him, or borne by him, may make an application before the expiry of one year from the date of payment. In the case of a person other than the importer, the period runs from the date of purchase of the goods. The limitation of one year does not apply where the duty or interest has been paid under protest. The application must be accompanied by such documentary or other evidence as will establish that the amount claimed was paid or borne by the applicant, and that the incidence of the duty or interest has not been passed on to any other person.
Section 18(4) and (5): refund on finalisation of a provisional assessment. Where duty was assessed provisionally under section 18 and the final assessment shows an excess, the excess is refundable with interest under section 18(4), subject to the unjust enrichment test in section 18(5), which requires the amount to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund unless the claimant establishes that the incidence was not passed on.
All four provisions are subject to the same qualification, and it is the substance of the topic.
Section 27(2) requires the amount found refundable to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund established under section 12C of the Central Excise Act, 1944. It is paid to the applicant only where he falls within one of the exceptions, and those exceptions must be listed: where the duty was paid by the importer and he had not passed on the incidence to any other person; where the goods were imported by an individual for his personal use; where the duty or interest was borne by a buyer who had not passed on the incidence; where it is a refund of export duty under section 26; where it is a refund of drawback; and where the duty was paid under protest and the amount is found refundable, in the circumstances the section provides.
Section 28D raises the presumption. Every person who has paid duty on any goods shall, unless the contrary is proved, be deemed to have passed on the full incidence of that duty to the buyer. The burden therefore lies on the claimant from the beginning.
Section 28C supplies the mechanism by which the passing on is later proved or disproved. A person selling goods on which duty has been paid must prominently indicate in all documents relating to assessment, sales invoice and other like documents the amount of such duty which will form part of the price at which the goods are sold.
The source is Mafatlal Industries Ltd v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536, decided on 19 December 1996 by a Bench of nine judges. The Court held that every claim for refund of duty, except where the levy is held to be unconstitutional, must be made and adjudicated under section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or section 27 of the Customs Act, 1962 and nowhere else; that a civil suit for refund does not lie, and Article 226 cannot be used to bypass the statutory machinery; and that the claimant must establish that he has not passed on the burden of the duty to any other person. The reasoning is that refunding a tax to a person who has already recovered it from his customers is itself an unjust enrichment, this time of the trader at the consumer's expense, and the Consumer Welfare Fund is the legislature's answer to the question where the money should go instead.
In ITC Ltd v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Kolkata IV, decided on 18 September 2019, 2019 INSC 1049, the assessee had cleared goods on self-assessed bills of entry, paid additional customs duty, and claimed a refund of about Rs 35.89 crore under section 27 without appealing against any bill of entry. The Supreme Court held the claim not maintainable. A self-assessment under section 17 is itself an order of assessment; it is appealable under section 128; and the officer deciding a refund application cannot sit in appeal over an assessment that stands, since the refund authority is not an appellate authority.
The consequence was severe and counter-intuitive. An importer who had assessed himself at the wrong rate had to appeal against his own return, within the sixty-day appellate limitation, before he could reach the refund question at all.
Section 18A, inserted by the Finance Act 2025 with effect from 1 May 2025, is Parliament's answer. It permits a voluntary revision of an entry after clearance, within the time and manner prescribed, so that an importer who discovers a short payment may deposit the differential with interest under section 28AA, and one who discovers an excess payment has a route that does not require an appeal against himself. Read with section 18(1B), which from the same date requires a provisional assessment to be finalised within two years, extendable by one year, the Finance Act 2025 has addressed the two longest-standing complaints about this part of the Act in a single enactment.
Section 27A provides for interest on a delayed refund. Where a refund ordered under section 27(2) is not made within three months from the date of receipt of the application, interest is payable at the rate fixed by the Central Government, not below five per cent and not exceeding thirty per cent per annum, from the date immediately after the expiry of three months until the date of refund. The provision is the counterpart of section 28AA, under which the assessee pays interest on delayed duty at a rate between ten and thirty-six per cent, and the asymmetry between the two ranges is a standing and fair criticism.
Drawback is a refund in substance but a different provision in law, and the distinction should be drawn. Section 74 provides for drawback on the re-export of goods which were imported and are identifiable as the same goods, at up to ninety-eight per cent of the duty paid, reduced according to the period for which the goods were used in India, on the goods being entered for export within two years of payment of duty, extendable.
Section 75 provides for drawback on imported materials used in the manufacture of goods which are exported, at rates fixed by the Drawback Rules, and section 75A provides for interest on delayed drawback. Drawback is not a refund of duty wrongly collected but a remission of duty correctly collected on goods that have left the country, and it is therefore outside the unjust enrichment test, which is why section 27(2) lists a refund of drawback among the exceptions.
Two further provisions complete the picture. Section 27(3) provides that no refund shall be made except as provided in sub-section (2), so the machinery is exclusive. And section 154 permits the correction of clerical or arithmetical mistakes in any decision or order, which is the route for an obvious error that does not require a refund claim at all.
Conclusion. Refund under the Customs Act is not one concept but four provisions with different triggers. Section 26 returns export duty where the goods come back to the exporter otherwise than by resale, are re-imported within one year, and the claim is made within six months of the clearance order.
Section 26A returns import duty on goods found defective or not in conformity with the agreed specification, provided they were not worked, repaired or used except to discover the defect, no drawback was claimed, and they are exported, abandoned or destroyed within thirty days of clearance, extendable to three months, with the section excluded for perishables and goods past their shelf life. Section 27 is the general provision, requiring an application within one year of payment, or of purchase in the case of a buyer, with no limitation where the duty was paid under protest. And section 18(4) and (5) govern the excess arising when a provisional assessment is finalised.
Every one of them is qualified by unjust enrichment. Section 27(2) sends the money to the Consumer Welfare Fund unless the claimant proves he bore the burden, section 28D presumes that he did not, section 28C requires the duty element to be shown on the invoice so that the question can be answered from documents, and Mafatlal Industries, decided by nine judges in 1996, is the source of all three, holding that the statutory route is exclusive, that no civil suit lies, and that only a claimant who did not pass on the tax may be repaid.
The two developments a current answer must carry are procedural. ITC Ltd in 2019 held that a refund claim on a self-assessed bill of entry is not maintainable unless the assessment is first modified in appeal, which turned a simple claim into a limitation-bound appeal against one's own return; and section 18A, in force from 1 May 2025, now permits a voluntary post-clearance revision of an entry, which restores the route. Interest on a delayed refund runs under section 27A after three months at between five and thirty per cent, against between ten and thirty-six per cent payable by the assessee under section 28AA. And drawback under sections 74 and 75 should be kept separate throughout: it is a remission of duty correctly collected on goods that have left the country, not a refund of duty wrongly collected, which is why it is expressly outside the unjust enrichment test.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the paper asks for any two of five, so each note a candidate writes is worth about twelve and a half marks and must be substantial; all five are written here because the two chosen differ; note (a) is the trap of the whole folder, because section 43 provides that proceedings do NOT abate; note (c) is a policy question and must be answered with measures and not with generalities; note (e) must be built provision by provision and must record that the Bank's powers have been narrowed twice since 2019.
The whole value of this note lies in recognising that section 43 is an anti-abatement provision. A candidate who sees the word "abatement" and writes about when proceedings come to an end has stated the exact reverse of the law.
The provision. Section 43 is headed "Death or insolvency in certain cases" and provides: any right, obligation, liability, proceeding or appeal arising in relation to the provisions of section 13 shall not abate by reason of death or insolvency of the person liable under that section and upon such death or insolvency such rights and obligations shall devolve on the legal representative of such person or the official receiver or the official assignee, as the case may be, with a proviso that a legal representative of the deceased shall be liable only to the extent of the inheritance or estate of the deceased.
The rule it displaces. At common law a personal action dies with the person, actio personalis moritur cum persona. Applied to a penalty, that would mean that a contravener who died while adjudication was pending escaped entirely and his estate passed to his heirs undiminished; and an insolvency would extinguish the penalty along with his other liabilities. Section 43 removes both results by two devices: a declaration that the proceeding does not abate, and a provision for devolution so that there is a party against whom it can continue.
Five features deserve statement.
First, the section is tied to section 13. It applies to any right, obligation, liability, proceeding or appeal arising in relation to the provisions of section 13, that is to the civil penalty jurisdiction. It does not and could not carry a criminal liability under section 13(1C) to a legal representative, because criminal liability is personal and dies with the accused.
Second, it covers insolvency as well as death. The official receiver or the official assignee takes the liability with the estate, so a contravener cannot defeat a penalty by an insolvency, and the penalty ranks against the estate along with his other debts.
Third, it expressly covers appeals. An appeal filed by a person who then dies is continued by his legal representative rather than treated as having abated, which matters because an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal under section 19 requires the penalty to be deposited on filing, and the deposit would otherwise be lost.
Fourth, the proviso is a real and complete protection for the heir. His liability is confined to the extent of the inheritance or estate of the deceased. His own property is untouched, and where the estate is exhausted the liability ends. Without the proviso the section would visit a penalty for another's conduct on a person who had no part in it, which would be indefensible.
Fifth, the section is procedural and does not create liability. It presumes a liability already arising under section 13 and provides only for its survival and devolution. So a legal representative may still contest the contravention itself, and the Adjudicating Authority must still be satisfied that it occurred.
A comparison completes the note. The Customs Act contains no equivalent general provision, and the position on the death of a person against whom a penalty is proposed is governed by general principle. FEMA legislated expressly because a foreign exchange penalty may be very large, is often adjudicated years after the transaction, and is frequently sought against persons whose estates would otherwise pass free of it.
Chapter IX, sections 57 to 73A, permits imported goods to be deposited without payment of duty. Its rationale is that the taxable event for the rate is removal from the warehouse and not importation, so the duty is deferred and, for goods re-exported, avoided altogether.
Three kinds of warehouse. A public warehouse licensed under section 57, in which any importer may deposit dutiable goods; a private warehouse licensed under section 58, for the deposit of dutiable goods imported by or on behalf of the licensee; and a special warehouse licensed under section 58A, for goods notified by the Board, which is locked by the proper officer, and in which no person may enter or remove goods without his permission. Section 58B provides for cancellation of a licence. The licensing conditions are in the Public Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016, the Private Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016 and the Special Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016.
The bond. Section 59 requires the importer of warehoused goods to execute a bond in a sum equal to three times the amount of duty assessed, binding himself to comply with all the provisions and the conditions of the bond, to pay on or before the specified date the duty with interest, and to pay all penalties and fines. A general bond may be executed for repeated transactions.
Custody and control. Section 60 governs the order permitting deposit. Section 73A places warehoused goods in the custody of the licensee, who is responsible for them until they are cleared and is liable, where goods are removed in contravention of section 71, to pay duty, interest, fine and penalties. The Warehouse (Custody and Handling of Goods) Regulations, 2016 and the Special Warehouse (Custody and Handling of Goods) Regulations, 2016 prescribe security, digital record-keeping, appointment of a warehouse keeper and insurance.
The period and interest. Section 61 provides that goods may remain warehoused until clearance in the case of capital goods intended for use in a hundred per cent export oriented undertaking, an electronic hardware technology park unit, a software technology park unit, or a warehouse where manufacture or other operations are permitted under section 65; until consumption or clearance for other goods in those units; and for any other goods, one year from the date of the order under section 60, extendable by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner by not more than one year at a time, on sufficient cause shown, and reducible where the goods are likely to deteriorate. Interest is payable under section 61(2) where goods remain beyond ninety days.
The owner's rights. Section 64 permits the owner, with the sanction of the proper officer and on payment of the prescribed fees, to inspect the goods, separate damaged or deteriorated goods, sort the goods or change their containers for the purpose of preservation, sale, export or disposal, deal with the goods and their containers so as to prevent loss or deterioration or damage, show the goods for sale, and take samples without entry and without payment of duty.
Manufacture in the warehouse. Section 65 permits, with the sanction of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner and subject to prescribed conditions, any manufacturing process or other operations to be carried on in relation to warehoused goods in a warehouse. It is the statutory basis of the Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse Regulations, 2019, under which a manufacturer imports inputs and capital goods without paying duty, manufactures inside the bonded warehouse, and pays duty on the imported inputs only when the finished goods are cleared into the domestic market, or none at all if they are exported. That converts the warehouse from a storage facility into a duty-deferred manufacturing regime and is the most commercially significant provision in the chapter.
Clearance. Section 68 permits clearance for home consumption on presentation of a bill of entry, payment of the import duty, interest, fine and penalties, and an order of clearance by the proper officer. Its proviso permits the owner to relinquish his title to the goods at any time before an order for clearance, in which case he is not liable to pay the duty, except where an offence appears to have been committed. Section 69 permits clearance for export on a shipping bill or bill of export, payment of export duty and charges, and an order of the proper officer.
Improper removal. Section 71 forbids removal from a warehouse except as provided. Section 72 deals with improperly removed goods, entitling the proper officer to demand the full amount of duty chargeable with all penalties, rent, interest and other charges where goods are removed in contravention of section 71, or have not been removed at the expiration of the warehousing period, or have been taken as a sample without payment of duty; and, on failure to pay, to detain and sell so much of the goods as is sufficient. Section 73 provides for cancellation and return of the bond.
This is a policy question and it must be answered with concrete measures anchored to the legal framework, not with generalities about a favourable climate.
Measure one: keep widening the automatic route and raising sectoral caps. Since foreign direct investment is a capital account transaction governed since 15 October 2019 by the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 made under section 6(2A), the direct lever is the Rules themselves. Every sector moved from the Government route to the automatic route removes an approval step and a period of uncertainty, and every cap raised removes the need for the joint venture and control arrangements that the indirect-investment rules then have to police.
Measure two: reduce the compliance friction that generates contraventions. The commonest FEMA proceeding is not an impermissible investment but a late Form FC-GPR or FC-TRS. Simplifying and consolidating reporting through the Single Master Form, extending timelines, and providing a low-cost regularisation route reduce the number of investors who acquire a compounding order in their first year in India. The Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024 move in that direction by rationalising the compounding authorities and permitting digital payment, although they also raised the fee to ten thousand rupees plus goods and services tax.
Measure three: shorten and make predictable the approval process on the Government route. Since the Foreign Investment Promotion Board was abolished in 2017 approvals are processed by the administrative ministry through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal, with standard operating procedure timelines. The measure that matters is adherence to those timelines and the giving of reasons for refusal, because an unexplained refusal is worse for investor confidence than a clear prohibition.
Measure four: tax certainty. The single most cited deterrent in the last two decades has been retrospective taxation, and the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021, which withdrew the retrospective indirect-transfer levy, was directed at exactly that. Advance rulings, a stable treaty network and predictable transfer pricing outcomes do more for inbound investment than any change in the Non-debt Instruments Rules.
Measure five: dispute resolution and contract enforcement. Investors price the cost of enforcing a contract. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 as amended, the commercial courts framework, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which gave a predictable exit and a time-bound resolution process, are structural measures that raise the return on an investment without altering the investment rules at all.
Measure six: infrastructure, logistics and the cost of trading across borders. Because most foreign direct investment in manufacturing depends on importing inputs and exporting output, customs facilitation is an investment measure. Faceless assessment, the Authorised Economic Operator programme, section 65 and the Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse Regulations, 2019 which permit duty-free manufacture in a bonded warehouse, and now section 18(1B), which since 1 May 2025 requires a provisional assessment to be finalised within two years, all reduce the working capital an investor must commit.
Measure seven, and it must be stated honestly, is the recognition that some restrictions will remain. Press Note 3 of 2020, dated 17 April 2020, requires an entity of a country sharing a land border with India, or one whose beneficial owner is in such a country, to invest only under the Government route. That is a deliberate restriction on a source of capital, taken for reasons of national economic security, and no honest answer on increasing foreign direct investment can pretend it is not a cost. The measure that mitigates it is clarity: a defined and quickly administered approval process for investments that are in fact benign.
"Export" and "import" are defined terms and the note should begin there. Section 2(23): "import", with its grammatical variations, means bringing into India from a place outside India. Section 2(18): "export" means taking out of India to a place outside India. Section 2(27): "India" includes the territorial waters of India. Section 2(28): "Indian customs waters" extends to the exclusive economic zone.
The taxable event is not the crossing of the territorial waters. Although "India" includes the territorial waters, the charge under section 12 attaches on the crossing of the customs barrier, which for goods entered for home consumption is their clearance under section 47 and for warehoused goods their removal under section 68. On the export side it is the crossing of the barrier outwards under a let export order under section 51.
The import procedure, in sequence. Section 29 requires the person in charge of a vessel or aircraft to call only at a customs port or customs airport. Section 30 requires delivery of the import manifest or import report. Section 31 forbids the master from permitting unloading until an entry inwards is granted. Section 32 forbids unloading of goods not mentioned in the manifest. Sections 33 and 34 confine unloading to approved places and to the supervision of the proper officer. Section 45 places imported goods in the custody of the approved custodian until cleared.
Section 46 requires the importer to present a bill of entry for home consumption or for warehousing, to make and subscribe a declaration as to the truth of its contents, and to produce the invoice and supporting documents. Section 47 provides for clearance for home consumption where the goods are not prohibited and the duty and charges have been paid, with interest under section 47(2) where payment is delayed beyond the permitted period. Section 48 permits goods not cleared within thirty days to be sold by the custodian with the permission of the proper officer.
The export procedure, in sequence. Section 39 forbids the master of a vessel from permitting loading of export goods until an order under section 39 is given. Section 40 forbids the person in charge from permitting loading unless a shipping bill or bill of export has been passed. Section 50 requires the exporter to present a shipping bill for goods to be exported by sea or air, or a bill of export for goods by land, and to make and subscribe a declaration as to the truth of its contents. Section 51 provides for the let export order where the goods are not prohibited and duty and charges have been paid. Sections 41 and 42 require the export manifest or export report and forbid departure without a written order.
Prohibitions and their consequence. Section 11 empowers the Central Government to prohibit either absolutely or subject to conditions the import or export of goods of any specified description, for the purposes listed, which include the security of India, public order and decency or morality, the prevention of smuggling, the conservation of foreign exchange, the protection of human, animal and plant life, the protection of national treasures and the conservation of exhaustible natural resources. A breach makes the goods liable to confiscation under section 111(d) on the import side and section 113(d) on the export side.
The foreign exchange interface should be drawn, because this is a combined paper. Section 113 makes export goods liable to confiscation where the value stated in the shipping bill or the declaration under section 50 differs from the proceeds of sale or the value the exporter intends to receive, and the same transaction is a contravention of section 7 of FEMA, which requires a declaration of the full export value, and of section 8, which requires all reasonable steps to realise and repatriate. The shipping bill therefore serves two statutes at once, which is why a mis-stated export value is prosecuted under both.
Two special regimes complete the note. Section 20 governs re-importation of goods produced or manufactured in India, which are liable to duty as if they were imports, subject to the exemptions notified. Section 74 provides drawback on re-export of identifiable imported goods at up to ninety-eight per cent of the duty, and section 75 drawback on imported materials used in exported goods. Chapter XI deals with goods in transit and transhipment, and Chapter XII with goods imported or exported by post, courier and stores.
The Bank's powers come from six places and should be built up in order.
One, authorisation: section 10. The Reserve Bank may, on application, authorise any person to be known as an authorised person to deal in foreign exchange or in foreign securities, as an authorised dealer, money changer or off-shore banking unit or in any other manner as it deems fit. The authorisation is in writing and subject to conditions. Section 10(3) allows revocation at any time in the public interest, or where the authorised person has failed to comply with a condition or has contravened the Act, the proviso requiring a reasonable opportunity of representation before revocation on the second ground.
Two, direction and supervisory penalty: section 11. The Bank may give an authorised person any direction in regard to making of payment or the doing or desisting from doing any act relating to foreign exchange or foreign security, and may require him to furnish information. Section 11(3) allows it, after a reasonable opportunity of being heard, to impose a penalty up to ten thousand rupees, with a continuing penalty up to two thousand rupees for every day. That is the Bank's own penal power, quite separate from the section 13 penalty adjudged by an Adjudicating Authority.
Three, inspection: section 12. The Bank may at any time cause an inspection of the business of any authorised person, by an officer specially authorised in writing, for verifying the correctness of any statement, information or particulars furnished, obtaining information which the authorised person has failed to furnish, or securing compliance; and every authorised person, and where it is a company or firm every director, partner or officer, must produce books, accounts and documents and furnish statements within the time and manner directed.
Four, regulation-making: section 47. The Bank may make regulations to carry out the Act and the rules, and section 47(2) lists the subjects: permissible classes of capital account transactions involving debt instruments and their limits and conditions; the form and manner of the export declaration under section 7(1)(a); the period and manner of repatriation under section 8; the limits under section 9 for possession of foreign currency, for foreign currency accounts and for exempted acquisitions; and, under clause (ga), the export, import or holding of currency or currency notes.
Five, operational powers scattered through the Act. Under section 6(2) the Bank specifies the permissible classes of capital account transactions involving debt instruments. Under section 7(2) it may direct any exporter to comply with requirements so that the full export value, or such reduced value as it determines having regard to prevailing market conditions, is realised without delay. Under section 8 it specifies the period and manner of realisation and repatriation. Under section 2(h) it may notify further instruments as "currency" and under section 2(za) further instruments as "security". Under section 15 its authorised officers are among the compounding authorities, and in practice the Bank compounds the great majority of contraventions.
Six, the instruments through which it actually governs. The Master Directions and the A.P. (DIR Series) circulars translate the Act into operating instructions for every authorised dealer; the Export Data Processing and Monitoring System matches shipping bills against realisation; and the Single Master Form collects inbound investment reporting. Most compliance under FEMA happens at a bank counter under a Master Direction and never reaches an Adjudicating Authority.
The note must end by recording that the Bank's position has been narrowed twice, and that this is the analytical content. On 15 October 2019, section 6(3) was omitted and section 6(2A) gave the Central Government power over capital account transactions not involving debt instruments, so foreign direct investment passed out of the Bank's regulation-making hands to the Non-debt Instruments Rules, 2019, with section 47(3) saving its earlier regulations until the Government amends or rescinds them.
On 1 October 2020, section 44A provided that the Bank's powers under FEMA do not extend to an International Financial Services Centre set up under section 18(1) of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, and are exercisable instead by the International Financial Services Centres Authority. And section 41 has always obliged the Bank, in discharging its functions under the Act, to comply with such general or special directions as the Central Government may give.
Kesoram Rayon v. Collector of Customs, (1996) 5 SCC 576 decides the question the warehousing chapter most often throws up in practice. Goods were warehoused and were not cleared within the period permitted under section 61. The rate of duty rose before they were eventually removed, and the importer argued that duty should be charged at the rate current when the warehousing period expired rather than at the higher rate.
The Supreme Court held that goods not removed within the permitted period are deemed to have been improperly removed under section 72 on the day the period expired, so that is the date by reference to which the rate of duty is determined, and the date on which the duty is in fact demanded or the goods physically taken away is irrelevant.
Why it bears on this question. It decides what happens at the end of the warehousing period, which is the point at which the deferment the chapter offers turns into a liability. Goods not removed in time are deemed improperly removed under section 72 on the day the period expired, and the rate of duty is fixed by that date rather than by the date of eventual removal or of the demand.
A second authority is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, the leading modern decision on what follows when the foreign exchange rules are broken. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress. An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.
The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.
Why it bears on this question. It is the decision in which a capital account transaction was actually litigated to the Supreme Court, a transfer of shares by residents to a non-resident at a discount said to break the pricing rules, and it settles what follows: the contravention is remediable and compoundable rather than void.
The decision that settles what kind of wrong a foreign exchange contravention is, is Director of Enforcement v. MCTM Corporation (P) Ltd, (1996) 2 SCC 471. A company had been penalised under section 23(1)(a) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 for a contravention of section 10 of that Act, and it argued that no penalty could be imposed on it without proof that it had meant to break the law.
The Supreme Court rejected that argument and drew the line that still governs. A proceeding to adjudicate a penalty is a proceeding for the breach of a civil obligation, not a criminal prosecution, and mens rea is therefore not an essential ingredient of it. What has to be shown is blameworthy conduct, and the Court held that the delinquency of the defaulter itself establishes that conduct: once the contravention is proved, the penalty follows without any further proof of a guilty mind. The Court was careful to say that this is not a relaxation of proof but a difference in the nature of the proceeding, so that the two jurisdictions, penalty and prosecution, ask different questions of the same facts.
Why it bears on this question. For a note-length answer the case supplies the one proposition that ties the FEMA definitions together. Every one of these concepts is a civil category. Because the liability created by section 13 is a breach of a civil obligation for which no guilty intention need be shown, the definitions are drafted as tests of fact, a day count for residence, a balance-sheet test for a capital account transaction, an enumerated list for a person, and the adjudication asks only whether the facts fall within them.
On the use of a statement that the maker later takes back, the governing decision is Vinod Solanki v. Union of India, (2008) 16 SCC 537, decided on 18 December 2008. A penalty had been imposed under FERA on the strength of an inculpatory statement which the maker afterwards retracted, saying that it had been obtained from him under threat.
The Supreme Court held that the initial burden of proving that a confession is voluntary lies on the Department and not on the person who made it. An authority or court that proposes to act on a retracted statement as a voluntary one must apply its mind to the retraction and reject it in writing, with reasons; it cannot pass over the retraction in silence. The Court balanced that with a qualification which is as important for the answer: a bald assertion of coercion or duress, unsupported by any material, will not be enough to have the statement discarded, so the person retracting must give the authority something to act on.
Why it bears on this question. Adjudication under section 13 rests very largely on statements recorded in the course of an investigation, and this case is the answer to the objection that a civil standard of proof leaves the person before the authority without protection. It does not. The burden of establishing that a statement was voluntary sits on the Directorate, and a reasoned rejection of the retraction in writing is a condition of using the statement at all. Read with the civil character of the proceeding, the position is that the Directorate has the lighter standard of proof but not a free hand with its evidence.
Conclusion. The five notes divide between the two statutes and one policy question. Section 43 of FEMA is the note that separates a candidate who has read the section from one who has read the heading: it provides that a proceeding or appeal under section 13 shall not abate on death or insolvency, devolving the liability on the legal representative or the official assignee, with the proviso confining the heir to the estate he actually takes and criminal liability under section 13(1C) necessarily excluded.
Chapter IX of the Customs Act makes the warehouse a duty-deferment device, because the rate crystallises on removal and not on importation. Three kinds of warehouse under sections 57, 58 and 58A with the 2016 licensing and custody Regulations, a triple-duty bond under section 59, periods under section 61 with interest after ninety days, the owner's rights under section 64, clearance under sections 68 and 69 with the right to relinquish title before the clearance order, custody and liability on the licensee under section 73A, and, most importantly, section 65 with the Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse Regulations, 2019, under which goods are made in India from duty-free imported inputs and duty is paid only if they are sold here.
Increasing foreign direct investment is a matter of widening the automatic route and raising caps under the Non-debt Instruments Rules, reducing the reporting friction that produces most contraventions, keeping approvals under the Government route timely and reasoned, securing tax certainty after the 2021 withdrawal of retrospective indirect-transfer taxation, improving contract enforcement and insolvency resolution, and cutting the cost of trading across borders through faceless assessment, the Authorised Economic Operator scheme, section 65 manufacture and the new two-year limit on provisional assessment; while acknowledging honestly that Press Note 3 of 2020 is a deliberate restriction on one source of capital.
Export and import of goods under the Customs Act run through a fixed procedural sequence, manifest, entry inwards, unloading, custody, bill of entry with a subscribed declaration and clearance under section 47 on the import side, and shipping bill, let export order under section 51 and export manifest on the export side, with section 11 prohibitions enforced through sections 111(d) and 113(d) and with section 113 catching the mis-stated export value that is simultaneously a FEMA contravention. And the Reserve Bank's powers under sections 10, 11, 12, 47, 6(2), 7(2) and 15 make it the operational regulator of the whole field, subject to section 41's duty to follow the Central Government's directions, and subject to the two reductions of 15 October 2019 and 1 October 2020, which moved the capital account to the Government and the International Financial Services Centre to the IFSCA.
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This volume prints the 2022 Law Relating to Customs and Foreign Exchange paper set by the University of Mumbai for LLM Group 2 Business Law, with a model answer to each of its 7 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
12 August 2026.
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