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LLM Group 2 Business Law Law Relating to Customs and Foreign Exchange 2018 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Law Relating to Customs and Foreign Exchange

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

LLM · Group 2 Business Law

2018 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 12 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2018 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when the paper was set, and four changes alter answers here. The Customs and Central Excise Settlement Commission ceased to accept applications after 31 March 2025 and ceased to operate from 1 April 2025 under the Finance Act 2025, its work passing to an Interim Board for Settlement of three revenue officers with no judicial member, so immunity from prosecution under section 127H is no longer obtainable. FEMA has had no Appellate Tribunal of its own since 26 May 2017, the SAFEMA Tribunal serving under a substituted section 18 with sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26 and 29 to 31 omitted. Section 6(3) was omitted on 15 October 2019, moving non-debt capital account transactions to the Central Government. And from 1 May 2025 section 18(1B) requires a provisional assessment to be finalised in two years and section 18A allows a voluntary post-clearance revision of an entry.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2018 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  14 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Q.P. Code 26069. Attempt any four questions, all questions carry equal marks of 25 each, cite relevant case laws in support of your answer

any four of seven · 100 Marks

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1)Expound the law relating to 'smuggling' and 'confiscation' of the improperly imported goods under section 111 and 125 of the Customs Act, 1962.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition of smuggling in section 2(39) and why it is defined by reference to confiscation rather than by a description of conduct, which is the structural insight the question is built on; the grounds in section 111 grouped rather than recited; the difference between confiscation of goods and penalty on a person; section 124 as the gateway; then section 125 in detail, because the question names it, with the may and shall distinction, the ceiling on the fine, the 2018 time limit, and the continuing duty liability; and section 126 vesting with section 150 sale.

"Smuggling" is defined by its consequence, not by its conduct

Section 2(39) defines "smuggling", in relation to any goods, as any act or omission which will render such goods liable to confiscation under section 111 or section 113. That definition is circular in appearance and deliberate in substance, and an answer that notices this earns its opening marks.

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Parliament did not attempt to describe smuggling as a course of conduct. It could have defined it as clandestine importation, or importation by concealment, or evasion of duty. Instead it defined it entirely by reference to the two confiscation sections, so that the content of "smuggling" is whatever section 111 makes liable to confiscation on the import side and whatever section 113 makes liable on the export side.

Three consequences follow and they should be stated. First, smuggling under this Act is much wider than clandestine importation: a consignment openly presented but wrongly described, or imported under an exemption whose condition is not observed, is smuggled goods within section 2(39) because it is liable to confiscation under section 111(m) or (o). Second, the definition operates only in relation to goods, so a person is not "a smuggler" under the Act but is a person concerned in smuggling. Third, because section 2(39) points at liability to confiscation and not at an established confiscation, the goods answer the description from the moment the act or omission occurs, which is what allows seizure under section 110 on a reason to believe long before adjudication.

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The definition matters outside this Act as well, because the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 borrows the customs concept for its preventive detention jurisdiction, and section 123, which reverses the burden of proof for notified goods, is worded by reference to a reasonable belief that the goods are smuggled goods.

Section 111: the grounds of confiscation of improperly imported goods

Section 111 lists in clauses (a) to (o) the circumstances in which goods brought from a place outside India become liable to confiscation. Grouping them is far better than reciting them.

Group one, the place and manner of arrival. Clause (a) covers goods unloaded or attempted to be unloaded at any place other than a customs port or customs airport appointed under section 7 for the unloading of such goods. Clause (b) covers goods imported by land or inland water through a route other than a route specified under section 7(c). Clause (c) covers dutiable or prohibited goods brought into any bay, gulf, creek or tidal river for the purpose of being landed at a place other than a customs port. Clause (f) covers goods not included in the import manifest or import report where required.

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Group two, prohibition. Clause (d) is the widest ground in the section: any goods which are imported or attempted to be imported or are brought within the Indian customs waters for the purpose of being imported, contrary to any prohibition imposed by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force. The words "any other law" carry into the Customs Act every import prohibition in the statute book, from the Drugs and Cosmetics Act to the Wild Life (Protection) Act to a policy restriction under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, and section 11 is the provision under which the Central Government imposes prohibitions for the purposes listed in it.

Group three, concealment and misdeclaration. Clause (i) covers dutiable or prohibited goods found concealed in any manner in any conveyance; clause (l) covers goods not included, or in excess of those included, in the entry made under this Act; clause (m) covers goods which do not correspond in respect of value or in any other particular with the entry made under this Act, or in the case of baggage with the declaration made under section 77.

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Group four, unauthorised dealing and breach of condition. Clause (j) covers dutiable or prohibited goods removed or attempted to be removed from a customs area or a warehouse without the permission of the proper officer or contrary to the terms of that permission; clause (k) covers goods which do not correspond with the entry where a person has entered them; and clause (o) covers goods exempted, subject to a condition, from duty or a prohibition, in respect of which the condition is not observed unless the non-observance was sanctioned by the proper officer.

The penalty provisions must be distinguished from confiscation and named. Section 112 imposes a penalty on any person who does or omits to do any act rendering goods liable to confiscation under section 111, or who acquires possession of or deals with such goods, and it is quantified by reference to the duty sought to be evaded or the value of the goods.

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Section 114A imposes a penalty equal to the duty or interest determined where the short levy is by reason of collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, and section 114AA a penalty up to five times the value of the goods for knowingly making or using a false or incorrect material particular. Confiscation is action against the thing; penalty is action against the person; and the Act intends them to be cumulative, as section 127 confirms by providing that an award of confiscation or penalty does not prevent any other punishment.

Section 124 is the gateway, and no confiscation is lawful without it. No order confiscating goods or imposing a penalty may be made unless the owner or the person concerned is given a written notice, with the prior approval of an officer not below the rank of Assistant Commissioner, informing him of the grounds, an opportunity to make a representation in writing, and a reasonable opportunity of being heard, the first proviso permitting the notice and representation to be oral at his request. Where the goods were seized, section 110(2) requires the notice within six months, extendable once by six months for reasons recorded and communicated, failing which the goods must be returned.

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Section 125: the option to pay a fine in lieu of confiscation

Section 125 is the safety valve of the whole confiscation scheme, and the distinction it draws is its point.

Where the goods are prohibited, the option is discretionary; where they are not, it is mandatory. The section provides that whenever confiscation of any goods is authorised by the Act, the officer adjudging it may, in the case of any goods the importation or exportation whereof is prohibited under this Act or under any other law for the time being in force, and shall, in the case of any other goods, give to the owner of the goods, or where the owner is not known, to the person from whose possession or custody the goods have been seized, an option to pay in lieu of confiscation such fine as the said officer thinks fit.

The reasoning behind the distinction is worth a sentence. Where the goods are not prohibited, the State's interest is fiscal, and forfeiting goods that could lawfully have been imported on payment of duty would be a punishment out of proportion to the wrong; so the owner must be allowed to redeem them. Where the goods are prohibited, the State's interest is regulatory, and to compel redemption would be to allow a person to buy his way into possession of goods the law says may not be here at all; so the officer retains a discretion to refuse.

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The discretion under the "may" limb is a real discretion and must be exercised judicially. It is not a licence to refuse redemption in every prohibited-goods case, nor a licence to allow it in every case. The officer must consider the nature of the prohibition, whether it is absolute or conditional, the conduct of the importer, and whether releasing the goods would defeat the object of the prohibition. Goods prohibited for reasons of public health or safety will rarely be released; goods restricted for reasons of trade policy, where the importer could have obtained a licence, frequently are.

The ceiling on the fine is fixed by the first proviso. The fine shall not exceed the market price of the goods confiscated, less in the case of imported goods the duty chargeable thereon. The second proviso limits the fine in a case where the proceedings are deemed concluded under the provisos to section 28(2) or 28(5).

Section 125(2) preserves the duty. Where the option is exercised, the owner is liable, in addition to the fine, to pay any duty and charges payable in respect of the goods. Redemption is therefore not an alternative to duty; it is an alternative to forfeiture, and the duty follows the goods.

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Section 125(3), inserted with effect from 29 March 2018, fixed a time limit that had been missing for fifty six years. Where the fine is not paid within one hundred and twenty days from the date of the option, the option becomes void, save where an appeal against the order is pending. Before that amendment an option could be left unexercised indefinitely while the goods deteriorated in a customs warehouse and the department could neither release nor dispose of them.

Section 126 completes the sequence. Where goods are confiscated they vest in the Central Government, and the proper officer takes and keeps possession. Section 150 governs sale of the goods and applies the proceeds in a fixed order: first the expenses of sale, then freight and other charges, then duty, then charges due to the person having custody, then any amount due from the owner, and only then is the balance paid to the owner.

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The authority on proving that goods are smuggled

Collector of Customs, Madras v. D. Bhoormull, (1974) 2 SCC 544, decided on 3 April 1974 is the leading decision on where the burden lies and how it is discharged. Acting on information, preventive officers of the Madras Custom House found packages of foreign goods at a shop, about to be despatched to Bangalore. The person in possession gave no account at all of how he had come by them, and the department had no direct evidence of any illicit importation.

The Supreme Court held that where section 123 does not apply, the burden of proving that goods are smuggled lies on the department, that being the ordinary rule in a quasi-criminal proceeding; but that the burden is discharged on the totality of the circumstances, and the department is not required to prove its case with mathematical precision or to establish the actual act of smuggling. The unexplained possession of goods of foreign origin, coupled with the possessor's refusal to disclose his source, may itself supply the proof.

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Why it bears on this question. Section 2(39) defines smuggling by reference to liability to confiscation under section 111, so a confiscation proceeding must establish the facts that attract one of its clauses. This decision fixes who must do so and how: where section 123 does not apply the burden is on the department, and it is discharged on the totality of the circumstances, unexplained possession of foreign goods being capable of supplying the proof.

The authority on the penalty that accompanies confiscation

On quantum and on the exercise of the power to penalise at all, the governing authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.

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But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.

Why it bears on this question. Sections 112 and 114 impose a penalty on the person alongside the confiscation of the goods, and the discretion they confer is governed by this decision: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not to be imposed merely because it is lawful to do so, and is not for a technical or venial breach or one flowing from a bona fide belief. It is also the principle behind the mandatory redemption offer in section 125.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. The structure of this part of the Act is easy to miss and it decides the answer. "Smuggling" in section 2(39) is not defined by conduct at all but by consequence: it is any act or omission which renders goods liable to confiscation under section 111 or section 113. That makes the concept far wider than clandestine landing, so that a misdescribed consignment openly presented, or one imported under an exemption whose condition is broken, is smuggled goods for the purposes of the Act and of section 123's reverse burden and of preventive detention under COFEPOSA.

Section 111 then supplies the content in fifteen clauses, which fall into four groups: the place and manner of arrival, prohibition under this or any other law through clause (d) read with section 11, concealment and misdeclaration, and unauthorised removal or breach of an exemption condition. Confiscation under section 111 is directed at the goods; sections 112, 114A and 114AA punish the person separately and cumulatively; and section 124 makes a written notice stating the grounds, a representation and a hearing conditions precedent to either, with section 110(2) fixing a six month window where the goods were seized.

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Section 125 is what keeps the scheme proportionate. The officer shall offer a fine in lieu where the goods are not prohibited, because the State's interest there is only fiscal, and may do so where they are, because the State's interest there is regulatory and redemption would let a person buy possession of what the law excludes. The fine cannot exceed market price less duty, duty remains payable in addition under section 125(2), and since 29 March 2018 the option lapses if not taken up within one hundred and twenty days unless an appeal is pending. What is confiscated vests in the Government under section 126 and is sold under section 150, the balance after duty, charges and dues going back to the owner.

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2)Examine the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 relating to 'Arrest, Seizure and Confiscation'. Can the culpable mental state be presumed?[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the three powers, but organised here around the civil and criminal divide, because the second limb of the question is about a criminal presumption and the answer reads best if that divide is the spine; seizure and confiscation as the civil track, arrest as the criminal track, and the point that a single consignment generates both; then section 138A in full, with sub-section (2), and the two companion presumptions in sections 123 and 139; and a clear answer to the question asked, which is yes, but only in a prosecution, only for an offence requiring a culpable mental state, and only at the standard of proof section 138A(2) fixes.

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Two tracks from one consignment

A single interception generates two entirely separate proceedings and the Act keeps them apart. On the civil track, the goods are seized under section 110, a notice issues under section 124, and an adjudicating officer confiscates under sections 111 to 121 and imposes a penalty under sections 112, 114, 114A or 114AA, deciding on the preponderance of probabilities. On the criminal track, the person may be arrested under section 104, prosecuted under sections 132 to 135A with the previous sanction of the Commissioner under section 137(1), and convicted only on proof beyond reasonable doubt. The presumption in section 138A belongs to the second track alone, and that is the first thing to say in answer to the question.

Seizure: the interim power

Section 110(1) permits the proper officer to seize goods where he has reason to believe that they are liable to confiscation. The belief is a jurisdictional fact: it must exist, be based on material and be recorded. Where seizure is impracticable, the proviso permits a constructive seizure, by an order to the owner not to remove, part with or deal with the goods except with the officer's permission.

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Section 110(1A) to (1C) allow certified inventory and early disposal of goods notified as perishable, hazardous, prone to depreciation or difficult to store, on an application to a Magistrate for certification of description, quantity and quality, with photographs and samples, and the certified inventory then stands in place of the goods in evidence.

Section 110(2) is the safeguard. If no notice under section 124 is given within six months of the seizure, the goods must be returned to the person from whose possession they were seized; the period is extendable by a further six months by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner for reasons recorded in writing and informed to the person concerned before the expiry of the original period. Both conditions, the recording and the communication in time, are mandatory.

Section 110(3) extends seizure to documents and things useful for or relevant to any proceeding, with a right in section 110(4) to take copies or extracts. Section 110A permits provisional release on bond and security pending adjudication, which is commercially the most used provision in the chapter.

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Confiscation: the proprietary penalty

Sections 111 and 113 make goods liable to confiscation on import and export respectively, on grounds covering the place and manner of arrival, any prohibition under this or any other law, concealment, misdeclaration, unmanifested goods, unauthorised removal and breach of an exemption condition. Section 115 extends confiscation to the conveyance, with a proviso protecting a conveyance used for hire where the owner proves it was used without his knowledge or connivance, and permitting a fine not exceeding the market price of the smuggled goods in lieu. Section 118 extends it to the package and its other contents, section 119 to goods used for concealing smuggled goods, section 120 to smuggled goods that have changed form, and section 121 to the sale proceeds of smuggled goods.

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Section 124 governs the procedure and requires a written notice with the prior approval of an officer of at least Assistant Commissioner rank, stating the grounds; an opportunity to represent in writing; and a reasonable opportunity of being heard. Section 125 requires the adjudicating officer to offer a fine in lieu of confiscation where the goods are not prohibited and permits him to do so where they are, capping the fine at market price less duty, and since 2018 requiring payment within one hundred and twenty days. Section 126 vests confiscated goods in the Central Government.

Arrest: the criminal power

Section 104(1) permits an officer of customs empowered by general or special order of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, who has reason to believe that a person has committed an offence punishable under section 132, 133, 135, 135A or 136, to arrest him and to inform him as soon as may be of the grounds of arrest. The list is exhaustive, and section 134, refusal to be X-rayed, is not in it.

Section 104(2) requires production before a Magistrate without unnecessary delay; section 104(3) gives the officer, for the purpose of releasing on bail, the powers of an officer in charge of a police station.

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Section 104(4) fixes cognizability and its four limbs must be exact. An offence is cognizable only where it relates to prohibited goods; or to evasion or attempted evasion of duty exceeding fifty lakh rupees; or to fraudulently availing of, or attempting to avail, drawback or an exemption from duty exceeding fifty lakh rupees; or to fraudulently obtaining an instrument under this Act or under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, where the duty relatable to its utilisation exceeds fifty lakh rupees. Section 104(5) makes every other offence non-cognizable.

That structure answers Om Prakash v. Union of India, (2011) 14 SCC 1, decided on 30 September 2011, which held customs and excise offences non-cognizable and therefore bailable, requiring a warrant; Parliament carved out the cognizable categories by amendments in 2012, 2013 and 2019.

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The controlling decision on how the power must now be exercised is Radhika Agarwal v. Union of India, 2025 INSC 272, decided on 27 February 2025, in which the Supreme Court, hearing about 279 petitions led by Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 336 of 2018, upheld the arrest powers under the Customs Act and the CGST Act while requiring that the arrest rest on credible material, that the officer's reasons to believe be recorded in writing, and that those reasons be furnished to the arrested person, drawing the safeguards from Articles 21 and 22 and from D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal.

Can the culpable mental state be presumed?

The answer is yes, and it is contained in section 138A, but it is subject to four qualifications, each of which carries marks.

The provision. Section 138A(1): in any prosecution for an offence under this Act which requires a culpable mental state on the part of the accused, the court shall presume the existence of such mental state, but it shall be a defence for the accused to prove the fact that he had no such mental state with respect to the act charged as an offence in that prosecution. The Explanation defines "culpable mental state" as including intention, motive, knowledge of a fact and belief in, or reason to believe, a fact.

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Qualification one: it operates only in a prosecution. The words are "in any prosecution for an offence under this Act". A departmental adjudication under section 124 is not a prosecution, and the presumption has no application there. It is not needed there either, because the adjudicating authority decides on preponderance of probabilities and many of the confiscation grounds in section 111 are not dependent on a mental element at all.

Qualification two: it operates only where the offence itself requires a culpable mental state. Section 135, which uses the words "knowingly" and "knows or has reason to believe", plainly does. Section 133, obstruction, and section 134, refusal to be X-rayed, do not turn on a mental element in the same way, and the presumption is not attracted to an offence of strict liability.

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Qualification three, and it is the one most often omitted: section 138A(2) fixes the standard. For the purposes of the section, a fact is said to be proved only when the court believes it to exist beyond reasonable doubt and not merely when its existence is established by a preponderance of probability. That cuts both ways. The accused must displace the presumption to that standard; but equally, the prosecution must prove the actus reus, the facts on which the presumption is founded, beyond reasonable doubt before the presumption becomes available. The presumption does not relieve the prosecution of its primary burden.

Qualification four: it is a rebuttable presumption and not a deeming of guilt. The defence is expressly preserved, and the burden it casts is one the accused can discharge from facts within his own knowledge, which is the constitutional justification for a reverse onus. That is the same reasoning which sustains reverse-onus provisions under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

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Two companion presumptions belong in the answer because they are cumulative with section 138A. Section 123 provides that where goods to which it applies are seized in the reasonable belief that they are smuggled goods, the burden of proving that they are not smuggled goods lies on the person from whose possession they were seized, or on the owner if he claims to be such; it applies to gold and manufactures thereof, watches, and any other class of goods notified by the Central Government. Section 139 provides that where a document produced or seized is tendered in evidence, the court shall presume the genuineness of the signature and handwriting, and where it was seized, the truth of its contents, unless the contrary is proved.

The critical observation to close on is that these three presumptions together shift a very great deal, and that the protection lies in their preconditions: section 123 requires a reasonable belief at the time of seizure, which is itself justiciable; section 138A requires an offence which needs a culpable mental state and holds the standard at beyond reasonable doubt; and section 139 is displaced by proof to the contrary.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. Arrest, seizure and confiscation are not three versions of one power but the operative provisions of two different tracks generated by the same consignment. Seizure under section 110 is interim and possessory, resting on a recorded reason to believe and disciplined by the six month rule in section 110(2) with its single extension for reasons recorded and communicated, relieved in practice by provisional release under section 110A. Confiscation under sections 111 to 121 is final and proprietary, reached only through the notice, representation and hearing that section 124 makes conditions precedent, and softened by section 125, under which the offer of a fine in lieu is mandatory for goods that are not prohibited and discretionary for those that are. Both are decided on preponderance of probabilities.

Arrest under section 104 belongs to the other track. It is available only for offences under sections 132, 133, 135, 135A and 136, and only the four categories in section 104(4), turning on prohibited goods or on figures exceeding fifty lakh rupees, are cognizable; everything else is non-cognizable under section 104(5), which is Parliament's answer to Om Prakash.

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Non-bailability is a separate scheme resting on a different list: section 104(6) makes non-bailable only an offence punishable under section 135 relating to evasion exceeding fifty lakh rupees, to prohibited goods notified under section 11 which are also notified under section 135(1)(i)(C), to undeclared goods whose market price exceeds one crore rupees, to fraudulent drawback or exemption exceeding fifty lakh rupees, or to the fraudulent obtaining of an instrument where the relatable duty exceeds fifty lakh rupees; section 104(7) makes every other offence bailable. The two lists do not coincide, and treating cognizability and bailability as one test is a common and costly error. Since Radhika Agarwal on 27 February 2025 the officer must hold credible material, record his reasons to believe and furnish them to the person arrested.

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The culpable mental state can be presumed, and section 138A says so, but only in a prosecution, only for an offence which requires such a state, and only on the footing that section 138A(2) holds proof at beyond reasonable doubt rather than preponderance, so that the presumption never relieves the prosecution of proving the underlying facts to the criminal standard. Read with section 123's reverse burden for notified goods seized in a reasonable belief, and section 139's presumption about documents, the Act shifts a great deal onto the accused; what keeps that constitutional is that each shift has a precondition the department must first establish, and each is rebuttable.

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3)Critically evaluate the Doctrine of "Promissory Estoppel" with reference to section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the doctrine's origin and its Indian reception, worked as cases and not as propositions; section 25 as the power against which it is asserted, with sub-sections (1) and (2) distinguished; the four decisions that decide this question, Motilal Padampat, Kasinka Trading, Shrijee Sales and MRF; the reconciliation between them, which is the heart of a critical evaluation; the limits of the doctrine, that it does not lie against the legislature and cannot compel an ultra vires act; and the recent reinforcement of strict construction of exemptions in Dilip Kumar.

The doctrine and its Indian reception

Promissory estoppel holds that where one party has by his words or conduct made to the other a clear and unequivocal promise intended to create legal relations, knowing or intending that it would be acted upon, and the other has acted upon it and altered his position, the promisor is not allowed to go back on it. It originates in Central London Property Trust Ltd v. High Trees House Ltd, [1947] KB 130, and in India it was received and greatly extended as a rule operating against the Government.

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Union of India v. Indo-Afghan Agencies Ltd, AIR 1968 SC 718, is the starting point. An exporter of woollen goods was promised import entitlements under an export promotion scheme calculated on the value of his exports. Having exported, he was granted an entitlement for a smaller amount. The Supreme Court held that the Government was bound by its representation, notwithstanding that the scheme was executive and not statutory, and that the doctrine of executive necessity was no answer.

Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1979) 2 SCC 409, is the high-water mark and must be set out properly. The State announced that new industrial units would be exempt from sales tax for three years. The appellant, relying on that announcement, and after obtaining a specific confirmation from the Chief Secretary, borrowed heavily and set up a vanaspati factory. The State then resiled, first offering a reduced concession and finally none.

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The Supreme Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel applies against the Government in the exercise of its executive and administrative functions; that no consideration is necessary, detriment or alteration of position being enough; that the doctrine is not defeated by the plea of executive necessity; and, critically, that where the Government pleads that the public interest requires it to resile, it must place before the court the material on which it acted, so that the court can judge whether the equity has been displaced. Bhagwati J. also held that ignorance of one's legal rights does not prevent an estoppel from arising.

The important limit stated in the same case is that the doctrine cannot compel the Government to do something the law forbids. There is no estoppel against a statute, and an officer's promise cannot enlarge a statutory power or create a jurisdiction that does not exist.

Section 25: the power against which the estoppel is asserted

Section 25(1) is the general exemption power. If the Central Government is satisfied that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, exempt generally, either absolutely or subject to such conditions as may be specified, goods of any specified description from the whole or any part of the duty of customs leviable thereon.

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Three features of that sub-section decide the estoppel question. The power is exercised by notification, which is legislative in character rather than a promise made to an identified person. It is exercised on a satisfaction as to the public interest, which is a continuing condition, not one spent when the notification issues. And it operates generally, on a class of goods, not on a named importer.

Section 25(2) is the special or ad hoc exemption. The Central Government may, by special order in each case, exempt from duty, under circumstances of an exceptional nature to be stated in such order, any goods on which duty is leviable. Here the act is directed at a particular consignment and is closer to a representation to an individual, though the requirement that the exceptional circumstances be stated keeps it from becoming a dispensing power.

Section 25(4) and (5) govern publication and commencement, and section 25(6) contains a general exemption where the duty is of a small amount. Sections 25A and 25B provide for exemption of goods imported for repair, further processing or manufacture and re-export, and for goods re-imported for those purposes.

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The decisions that answer the question

Kasinka Trading v. Union of India, (1995) 1 SCC 274, decided on 18 October 1994, is the leading case and must be worked in detail. A notification under section 25(1) exempted PVC resin from customs duty and stated that it would remain in force up to and inclusive of 31 March 1981. Importers entered into contracts and opened letters of credit on the faith of it. The notification was withdrawn on 16 October 1980, before the stated date. The importers invoked promissory estoppel.

The Supreme Court rejected the plea, and its reasoning has four strands. First, a notification under section 25(1) is issued in the public interest and is not a promise or representation made to any individual; it is the exercise of a statutory power for a public purpose, and its issue is conditioned on a satisfaction that may lawfully change. Second, the doctrine of promissory estoppel cannot be invoked in the abstract, and the courts are bound to consider all aspects, including the object to be achieved and the public good at large.

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Third, public interest is the superior equity which can override individual equity, and the doctrine must yield where it would be inequitable to hold the Government to its representation. Fourth, and this is the sharpest holding, the principle applies even where a period has been indicated for which the notification was to remain in force: the statement of a period does not convert a public-interest exemption into a contract.

Shrijee Sales Corporation v. Union of India, (1997) 3 SCC 398, followed and refined it. The Court held that once public interest is shown to require the withdrawal of an exemption, promissory estoppel cannot be pressed, and that the only question left for the court is whether the change of policy is genuine and made in the public interest, not whether the court agrees with it. The court reviews the existence of the public interest, not its wisdom.

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MRF Ltd v. Assistant Commissioner (Assessment) Sales Tax, (2006) 8 SCC 702, is the modern restatement. A State had granted an exemption for a specified period and then withdrew it. The Supreme Court held that promissory estoppel is an equitable doctrine which must yield when equity so requires, that the Government cannot be compelled to carry out a representation contrary to law or to the public interest, and that the burden of establishing that the change was not in the public interest lies on the party asserting the estoppel once the Government has disclosed its reasons. It also reiterated that there can be no estoppel against a statute, so that where the exemption itself was beyond power, no estoppel can validate it.

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The critical evaluation

The first criticism is that the reconciliation between Motilal Padampat and Kasinka Trading is real but narrow, and it turns on what kind of act is being challenged. Motilal Padampat concerned a specific representation, confirmed in correspondence to an identified party who then borrowed money and built a factory. Kasinka Trading concerned a general notification addressed to the world. The doctrine is at its strongest against an individuated promise and at its weakest against a general legislative or quasi-legislative act. Section 25(1), being exercised by notification and generally, falls on the weak side; section 25(2), being a special order in an individual case, falls closer to the strong side, and that distinction is the most useful thing an answer can offer.

The second criticism is that "public interest" does most of the work and is rarely tested. Motilal Padampat required the Government to place its material before the court; Shrijee Sales limited the court to asking whether the change of policy is genuine. In practice a bare assertion of changed economic circumstances is seldom probed, and the burden the later cases place on the importer, to show that the withdrawal was not in the public interest, is close to impossible to discharge from outside government.

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The third criticism is that the result is commercially harsh and the law offers no substitute remedy. An importer who opens an irrevocable letter of credit on the strength of a notification expressed to run for a fixed period, and finds the exemption withdrawn while his goods are on the water, has no claim in estoppel after Kasinka Trading and no claim in contract, because there is no contract. The only partial protections are administrative: the practice of grandfathering goods already shipped, and section 159A, which preserves rights and obligations accrued under a rescinded notification unless a different intention appears.

The fourth point is the limit that operates in the Government's favour and against it equally. There is no estoppel against a statute. An officer cannot by representation confer an exemption the notification does not give; nor can the Government rely on an estoppel to sustain a levy the Act does not authorise, because Article 265 requires authority of law for every tax.

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The fifth point is the recent hardening of the interpretative rule, which compounds the importer's difficulty. In Commissioner of Customs v. Dilip Kumar and Company, (2018) 9 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench of five judges held that an exemption notification must be construed strictly and that ambiguity in it must be resolved in favour of the revenue, overruling the earlier line that gave the benefit of doubt to the assessee. So the importer must now bring himself squarely within the words of the notification, and cannot rely on estoppel if the notification is withdrawn. Both halves of his position have moved against him within a generation.

Conclusion

Conclusion. Promissory estoppel in India runs against the Government in its executive and administrative capacity, needs no consideration, is not defeated by executive necessity, and requires the Government to disclose the material on which it says the public interest compelled it to resile: that is Indo-Afghan Agencies and Motilal Padampat, and it remains good law. What has happened since is that the doctrine has been confined at exactly the point where section 25 operates.

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Kasinka Trading holds that a notification under section 25(1) is not a promise to any individual but the exercise of a statutory power on a satisfaction of public interest which may lawfully change; that public interest is the superior equity; and that the doctrine does not apply even where the notification named a period for which it was to remain in force. Shrijee Sales limits the court to asking whether the change of policy is genuine, and MRF places on the party asserting the estoppel the burden of showing that the withdrawal was not in the public interest.

The critical assessment is therefore that the doctrine survives in principle and is almost unavailable in practice against a general exemption, while retaining real force against a special order under section 25(2) or a specific assurance to an identified importer who has altered his position. The commercial consequence is severe and unremedied, because there is no contract behind a notification and no compensation for its withdrawal, section 159A being the only saving of accrued rights. And since Dilip Kumar in 2018 the importer's position has narrowed further, because an ambiguity in the exemption he is claiming is now resolved against him rather than in his favour.

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4)Explain the FEMA, provisions relating to Adjudication and Appeal.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the four tiers in order, but organised here around the degree of independence at each level, which is the most useful spine for a question that just says "explain"; section 16 in detail, including the four constraints on the Adjudicating Authority; the narrow jurisdiction of the Special Director (Appeals) under section 17; the abolition of FEMA's own Tribunal by the Finance Act 2017 and the list of omitted sections; the pre-deposit in the first proviso to section 19(1) and the revisional power in section 19(6); section 35 to the High Court; section 34's exclusion of civil courts; and the special appeal route in section 37A(5).

Tier one: the Adjudicating Authority, section 16

The Adjudicating Authority is an officer of the Central Government and the least independent link in the chain, so the Act constrains him in four ways.

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Appointment and jurisdiction. For the purpose of adjudication under section 13, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, appoint as many officers of the Central Government as it thinks fit as Adjudicating Authorities, and section 16(2) requires the same order to specify their respective jurisdictions. There is therefore no roving jurisdiction.

Constraint one: he cannot act on his own. Section 16(3) provides that no Adjudicating Authority shall hold an enquiry except upon a complaint in writing made by an officer authorised by a general or special order of the Central Government. The complaint is the foundation of jurisdiction, and an inquiry begun without one is void.

Constraint two: he must hear. Section 16(1) requires an inquiry in the prescribed manner after giving the person alleged to have committed the contravention a reasonable opportunity of being heard for the purpose of imposing any penalty. The proviso allows him, where he is of opinion that the person is likely to abscond or to evade payment of the penalty, to direct him to furnish a bond or guarantee for such amount and on such conditions as he deems fit.

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Constraint three: the person may be represented. Section 16(4) allows the person to appear in person or to take the assistance of a legal practitioner or a chartered accountant of his choice.

Constraint four: he must be timely. Section 16(6) requires him to deal with the complaint as expeditiously as possible and to endeavour to dispose of it finally within one year from the date of receipt of the complaint, with a proviso requiring him to record periodically the reasons in writing where he cannot.

His powers are those of a civil court. Section 16(5) gives him the same powers as are conferred on the Appellate Tribunal by section 28(2): summoning and enforcing attendance and examining on oath, requiring discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning public records subject to sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, issuing commissions, reviewing its decisions, dismissing for default or deciding ex parte, and setting such orders aside. His proceedings are judicial proceedings within sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code, and he is deemed a civil court for sections 345 and 346 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

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A point of currency worth a line. Those cross-references are to the Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act, all three of which were replaced on 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. FEMA has not been amended to follow, and the references are carried by section 8 of the General Clauses Act, 1897.

Tier two: the Special Director (Appeals), section 17

This is the tier whose jurisdiction is most often stated too widely. Under section 17(1) the Central Government appoints, by notification, one or more Special Directors (Appeals) to hear appeals against orders of Adjudicating Authorities, specifying in the notification the matters and places in relation to which each may exercise jurisdiction.

Section 17(2) confines the jurisdiction. An appeal lies to him only from an order made by an Adjudicating Authority being an Assistant Director of Enforcement or a Deputy Director of Enforcement. Orders of higher Adjudicating Authorities go straight to the Appellate Tribunal.

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Section 17(3) fixes the limitation at forty-five days from receipt of the copy of the order, in the prescribed form with the prescribed fee, with a proviso permitting a later appeal on sufficient cause. Section 17(4) allows him, after hearing, to pass such order as he thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against. Section 17(6) gives him the civil court powers of section 28(2) and makes his proceedings judicial proceedings.

His qualifications are fixed by section 21, as substituted in 2017: a person is not qualified unless he has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held a post in Grade I of that Service, or has been a member of the Indian Revenue Service and has held a post equivalent to a Joint Secretary to the Government of India. Section 23 leaves his salary and conditions to be prescribed, and section 27 provides him with officers and employees.

Tier three: the Appellate Tribunal, sections 18 and 19

This is where an answer written from a pre-2017 text goes wrong, and the correction is the most valuable thing in this question.

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As enacted, FEMA constituted its own Appellate Tribunal for Foreign Exchange. The Finance Act 2017 (Act 7 of 2017), by section 165 with effect from 26 May 2017, substituted section 18 to read that the Appellate Tribunal constituted under sub-section (1) of section 12 of the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976 shall, on and from the commencement of Part XIV of Chapter VI of the Finance Act, 2017, be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act, exercising the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under the Act.

The same section omitted the whole apparatus that had supported the old Tribunal. Section 20 (Composition of the Appellate Tribunal), section 22 (Term of office), section 24 (Vacancies), section 25 (Resignation and removal), section 26 (Member to act as Chairperson in certain circumstances), section 29 (Distribution of business amongst Benches), section 30 (Power of the Chairperson to transfer cases) and section 31 (Decision to be by majority) all stand omitted. Sections 21, 23, 27, 32 and 33 were substituted so that they now deal only with the Special Director (Appeals).

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A residue is worth pointing out. Sections 2(d), 2(f) and 2(s) still define "Bench", "Chairperson" and "Member" of an Appellate Tribunal which FEMA no longer constitutes, and section 32, as substituted, now confers the right to be represented by a legal practitioner or chartered accountant only before the Special Director (Appeals), the words "Appellate Tribunal or the" having been substituted out. The statutory right to representation before the Tribunal has therefore quietly gone, and rests on the Tribunal's own procedure and on natural justice under section 28(1).

Section 19 gives the appeal. The Central Government or any person aggrieved by an order of an Adjudicating Authority other than those covered by section 17, or of the Special Director (Appeals), may appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.

The first proviso is the pre-deposit and it is unqualified. Any person appealing against an order levying any penalty shall, while filing the appeal, deposit the amount of such penalty with such authority as may be notified by the Central Government. The second proviso allows the Tribunal, where it is of opinion that the deposit would cause undue hardship, to dispense with it subject to such conditions as it may impose to safeguard realisation of the penalty.

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Section 19(2) fixes the limitation at forty-five days from receipt of the order, with a proviso for sufficient cause. Section 19(3) allows the Tribunal, after hearing, to pass such orders as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside. Section 19(5) requires an endeavour to dispose of the appeal within one hundred and eighty days, with reasons recorded in writing if it cannot. Section 19(6) is a suo motu revisional power: the Tribunal may, for the purpose of examining the legality, propriety or correctness of any order made by an Adjudicating Authority under section 16, on its own motion or otherwise, call for the records of the proceedings and make such order as it thinks fit.

Section 28 governs procedure at both appellate levels. The Tribunal and the Special Director (Appeals) are not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but are guided by the principles of natural justice and may regulate their own procedure; they have the civil court powers already listed; and section 28(3) makes their orders executable as a decree of a civil court, with power under section 28(4) to transmit an order to a civil court for execution.

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Tier four: the High Court, section 35

Section 35 gives the final appeal. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the High Court within sixty days of communication, on any question of law arising out of such order, with a proviso allowing a further period not exceeding sixty days where the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause.

The Explanation identifies the High Court: the High Court within whose jurisdiction the aggrieved party ordinarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain; and where the Central Government is the aggrieved party, the High Court within whose jurisdiction the respondent, or any of them, so resides, carries on business or works for gain.

Note the limit. The appeal lies only on a question of law, so the Tribunal is the final fact-finding authority, and a finding of fact reached on evidence is not open to challenge in the High Court unless it is perverse or based on no evidence.

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Exclusion of civil courts, and the special route under section 37A

Section 34 provides that no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which an Adjudicating Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or the Special Director (Appeals) is empowered by or under the Act to determine, and that no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under the Act.

Section 37A(5) creates a separate appellate entry. Where the Competent Authority, an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary, confirms or sets aside a seizure of assets of equivalent value in India under section 37A, any person aggrieved may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal directly, bypassing the Adjudicating Authority and the Special Director (Appeals) altogether.

What the adjudicating machinery exists to decide

The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.

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An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.

The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.

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Why it bears on this question. It illustrates what an adjudication under section 16 would have had to determine and why the answer matters commercially. The Supreme Court's holding that a FEMA breach is remediable and compoundable is a statement about the character of the jurisdiction the Adjudicating Authority exercises: it is corrective, not punitive, which is why section 15 can take a matter out of his hands altogether.

The decision that shows what the civil model replaced

A second authority, and one that comes from the statute this Act replaced, is Directorate of Enforcement v. Deepak Mahajan, (1994) 3 SCC 440, decided on 31 January 1994. Deepak Mahajan was detained by officers of the Directorate of Enforcement for a contravention of FERA and produced before the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, who was asked to authorise judicial remand under section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The question was whether a Magistrate has jurisdiction to remand a person arrested by an officer who is not a police officer and where no First Information Report exists.

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The Supreme Court held that he has. Section 35(2) of FERA and section 104(2) of the Customs Act, which require an arrested person to be taken to a Magistrate without unnecessary delay, substantially fulfil the conditions of section 167(1), so the Magistrate may authorise detention and the officer may seek remand.

Why it bears on this question. It supplies the contrast that makes the present position intelligible. Under FERA an officer of Enforcement could arrest and then obtain judicial remand under section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure while the investigation continued; FEMA gives the Directorate the powers of an income-tax authority under section 37 and nothing more, and confines imprisonment to civil imprisonment of a defaulter under section 14.

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What an adjudication must disclose: Natwar Singh

On the procedure the Adjudicating Authority owes the person before it, the leading decision is Natwar Singh v. Director of Enforcement, (2010) 13 SCC 255. The noticees were alleged to have dealt in and acquired foreign exchange of about US $8,98,027 in connection with Iraq oil contracts in contravention of FEMA. On being served with a notice under Rule 4(1) of the Foreign Exchange Management (Adjudication Proceedings and Appeal) Rules, 2000, they demanded copies of every document in the Adjudicating Authority's possession, including some eighty-three thousand documents on which no reliance at all had been placed.

The Supreme Court read Rule 4 as a two-stage process: the first stage is a notice asking the person to show cause why an inquiry should be held at all, and the second is the inquiry itself. Although Rule 4 does not in terms require documents to be supplied, the Court read into Rule 4(1) an obligation to furnish the documents on which the authority has actually relied in forming its opinion, so that the person can meaningfully show cause. It held with equal firmness that neither the statute, nor the Rules, nor the principles of natural justice require the disclosure of unused material at that preliminary stage.

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Why it bears on this question. This is the case that supplies the procedural content of a FEMA adjudication, which a question on adjudication or on the appellate structure cannot be answered without. It fixes what the person is entitled to before the inquiry begins, relied-upon documents and no more, and it fixes the point at which the authority's duty of disclosure becomes a full one, which is the inquiry itself. It also explains why appeals from these authorities matter: the safeguards at the first stage are deliberately limited, so the correction of an adjudication is expected to come from the appellate tiers rather than from an expanded hearing below.

What the Directorate must prove when it relies on a statement: Vinod Solanki

On the use of a statement that the maker later takes back, the governing decision is Vinod Solanki v. Union of India, (2008) 16 SCC 537, decided on 18 December 2008. A penalty had been imposed under FERA on the strength of an inculpatory statement which the maker afterwards retracted, saying that it had been obtained from him under threat.

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The Supreme Court held that the initial burden of proving that a confession is voluntary lies on the Department and not on the person who made it. An authority or court that proposes to act on a retracted statement as a voluntary one must apply its mind to the retraction and reject it in writing, with reasons; it cannot pass over the retraction in silence. The Court balanced that with a qualification which is as important for the answer: a bald assertion of coercion or duress, unsupported by any material, will not be enough to have the statement discarded, so the person retracting must give the authority something to act on.

Why it bears on this question. Adjudication under section 13 rests very largely on statements recorded in the course of an investigation, and this case is the answer to the objection that a civil standard of proof leaves the person before the authority without protection. It does not. The burden of establishing that a statement was voluntary sits on the Directorate, and a reasoned rejection of the retraction in writing is a condition of using the statement at all. Read with the civil character of the proceeding, the position is that the Directorate has the lighter standard of proof but not a free hand with its evidence.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. FEMA's adjudication and appeal structure has four tiers and they can be read as a scale of increasing independence. The Adjudicating Authority under section 16 is a departmental officer, and the Act therefore hedges him about: he may act only on a written complaint by an authorised officer, must give a reasonable opportunity of being heard, must allow representation by a legal practitioner or chartered accountant, must endeavour to decide within a year and record reasons if he does not, and exercises the powers of a civil court under section 28(2) in proceedings that are judicial proceedings for the purposes of the penal law.

The Special Director (Appeals) under section 17 is the first appellate tier and his jurisdiction is deliberately narrow, extending only to orders of an Assistant Director or a Deputy Director, on a forty-five day limitation, and section 21 requires him to come from the Indian Legal Service in Grade I or from the Indian Revenue Service at Joint Secretary level.

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The Appellate Tribunal is the first genuinely independent forum, and the answer must say what it now is. Since 26 May 2017 the Tribunal constituted under section 12(1) of SAFEMA serves as FEMA's Tribunal under a substituted section 18, and sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30 and 31 stand omitted, while section 32 now gives a statutory right of representation only before the Special Director (Appeals).

Appeal lies under section 19 within forty-five days, but the first proviso requires the penalty to be deposited on filing, subject only to a discretionary dispensation for undue hardship, and section 19(6) gives the Tribunal a suo motu revisional power over any section 16 order. From there section 35 allows sixty days to the High Court on a question of law alone, section 34 shuts the civil courts out of the field entirely, and section 37A(5) provides a direct appeal to the Tribunal against a Competent Authority's confirmation of a seizure of equivalent Indian assets.

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5)Define and explain the following expressions under FEMA:[25]

  • (a) Capital Account Transactions.
  • (b) Current Account Transactions.
  • (c) Contraventions and Penalties.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the three heads as one sequence, because the first two define what may lawfully be done and the third is what happens when the line is crossed, and saying so at the start gives the answer a spine; the definitions verbatim from sections 2(e) and 2(j), including the dead cross-reference in 2(e); section 6 as restructured on 15 October 2019 and section 5 with the Current Account Transactions Rules; then section 13 with exact figures, section 13(1A) to (1D), section 11(3), section 14 and compounding under section 15 with the 2024 Rules.

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The sequence: two classes of transaction, one set of consequences

FEMA divides every dealing in foreign exchange into two classes and the division is exhaustive. Section 2(j) defines a current account transaction as a transaction other than a capital account transaction, so the capital definition governs and the current is the residue. Section 6 regulates the first; section 5 frees the second. The third head of the question, contraventions and penalties, is the sanction that attaches when either boundary is crossed, and also when the obligations in sections 7, 8 and 10 are broken.

(a) Capital account transactions

Section 2(e): a capital account transaction means a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India, or assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India, and includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of section 6.

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The closing words are now a dead cross-reference. Section 6(3) was omitted with effect from 15 October 2019 by section 139 of Act 20 of 2015, so the definition incorporates a sub-section that no longer exists. The substantive test in the opening words is unaffected, and it is the alteration of a cross-border balance-sheet position: a resident acquiring shares abroad, a non-resident acquiring shares in India, a resident borrowing abroad, or a guarantee given for a foreign subsidiary, which is caught expressly because contingent liabilities are included.

Section 6(1) permits any person to sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person for a capital account transaction, subject to sub-section (2).

The rule-making power is now split and that split is the whole of the modern law. Section 6(2): the Reserve Bank, in consultation with the Central Government, may specify the permissible classes of capital account transactions involving debt instruments, the limits of admissibility and any conditions. Section 6(2A), inserted with effect from 15 October 2019: the Central Government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, may prescribe the permissible classes not involving debt instruments, the limits and the conditions. Section 6(7): "debt instruments" means such instruments as the Central Government may determine in consultation with the Reserve Bank.

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The proviso to section 6(2) is a real limit on both regulators. Neither may impose any restriction on the drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of amortisation of loans or for depreciation of direct investments in the ordinary course of business. Servicing capital already lawfully raised is beyond restriction.

Sections 6(4) and (5) grandfather assets acquired on the other side of the residence line, permitting a person resident in India to hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security or immovable property outside India acquired, held or owned when he was resident outside India or inherited from such a person, and giving the mirror right to a person resident outside India. Section 6(6) empowers the Reserve Bank to regulate the establishment in India of a branch, office or other place of business by a person resident outside India.

The instruments to name are the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 of the Central Government, the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 of the Reserve Bank, and the Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments Regulations, 2019, with section 47(3) saving the Bank's earlier regulations until the Government amends or rescinds them.

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(b) Current account transactions

Section 2(j): a current account transaction means a transaction other than a capital account transaction and, without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, such transaction includes (i) payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current business, services, and short-term banking and credit facilities in the ordinary course of business; (ii) payments due as interest on loans and as net income from investments; (iii) remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children residing abroad; and (iv) expenses in connection with foreign travel, education and medical care of parents, spouse and children.

The four limbs are illustrations, not the definition. The definition is residual, and the limbs were included because those four categories, which follow Article XXX(d) of the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund, were the ones the drafters wished to place beyond argument.

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Section 5 is the operative freedom. Any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person if such sale or drawal is a current account transaction, subject to the proviso that the Central Government may, in public interest and in consultation with the Reserve Bank, impose such reasonable restrictions for current account transactions as may be prescribed.

The restrictions are in the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000, and they are arranged in three schedules. Schedule I lists transactions prohibited outright, including remittance out of lottery winnings, remittance of income from racing or riding, remittance for the purchase of lottery tickets, sweepstakes or football pools, and payment of commission on exports towards equity investment in joint ventures or wholly owned subsidiaries abroad. Schedule II lists transactions requiring prior approval of the Central Government through the relevant ministry. Schedule III lists transactions requiring prior approval of the Reserve Bank beyond specified limits, and it is Schedule III that the Liberalised Remittance Scheme operates against for resident individuals.

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The line between the two classes is drawn by asking whether the transaction alters a cross-border asset or liability. A payment for imported goods does not; a subscription to shares does. Interest on a loan is current; the repayment of the principal is capital. That single test decides almost every borderline case.

(c) Contraventions and penalties

Section 13(1) is the general provision and the figures must be exact. If any person contravenes any provision of this Act, or any rule, regulation, notification, direction or order issued in exercise of the powers under this Act, or any condition subject to which an authorisation is issued by the Reserve Bank, he shall, upon adjudication, be liable to a penalty up to thrice the sum involved in such contravention where such amount is quantifiable, or up to two lakh rupees where the amount is not quantifiable, and where the contravention is a continuing one, a further penalty which may extend to five thousand rupees for every day after the first day during which the contravention continues.

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Three features of that sub-section deserve comment. There is no mens rea requirement: the section attaches to the fact of contravention. The words are "up to", so the maximum is a ceiling and the Adjudicating Authority must apply his mind to quantum. And the liability arises "upon adjudication", so it is not self-operating.

Section 13(2) adds confiscation. The Adjudicating Authority may, in addition to any penalty, direct that any currency, security or any other money or property in respect of which the contravention has taken place shall be confiscated to the Central Government, and further direct that the person's foreign exchange holdings be brought back into India or retained outside India in accordance with his directions. The Explanation extends "property" to deposits in a bank into which the property was converted, Indian currency into which it was converted, and any other property resulting from that conversion, which prevents a change of form defeating the order.

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Sections 13(1A) to (1D), inserted with effect from 9 September 2015, create a severe special regime for undisclosed foreign assets. Where a person is found to have acquired foreign exchange, foreign security or immovable property situated outside India of aggregate value exceeding the threshold prescribed under the proviso to section 37A(1), he is liable under section 13(1A) to a penalty up to three times the sum involved and to confiscation of the value equivalent situated in India; under section 13(1C) he is punishable with imprisonment up to five years and with fine, in addition to the penalty; under section 13(1B) the Adjudicating Authority may, on reasons recorded, recommend prosecution, and the Director of Enforcement may direct it; and under section 13(1D) no court may take cognizance except on a complaint in writing by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Director.

Section 11(3) is the separate supervisory penalty on an authorised person, for contravening a direction of the Reserve Bank or failing to file a return: up to ten thousand rupees, with a continuing penalty up to two thousand rupees for every day. It is far smaller than the section 13 penalty because the authorised person is a regulated intermediary and not the beneficiary of the transaction.

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Section 14 is enforcement, not punishment. A person who fails to pay the penalty within ninety days of service of the notice of demand is liable to civil imprisonment, but only after a show cause notice and a satisfaction recorded in writing either that he has dishonestly transferred, concealed or removed property to obstruct recovery, or that he has the means and refuses or neglects to pay. Section 14(11) fixes the term at up to three years where the demand exceeds one crore rupees and up to six months in any other case, and section 14(12) provides that release does not discharge the liability but bars a second arrest under the same certificate.

Section 15 is the exit and in practice it is the most used provision in the Act. Any contravention under section 13 may, on the application of the person committing it, be compounded within one hundred and eighty days of receipt of the application by the Director of Enforcement or by such other officers of the Directorate of Enforcement and of the Reserve Bank as the Central Government may authorise.

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Section 15(2) provides that once compounded, no proceeding or further proceeding shall be initiated or continued in respect of that contravention. Compounding is now governed by the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024, notified on 12 September 2024 in supersession of the 2000 Rules, which fix the compounding authorities and their monetary competence, raise the application fee from five thousand to ten thousand rupees plus goods and services tax, and permit digital payment.

One exclusion must be stated. Section 37A(6) provides that nothing in section 15 applies to section 37A, so a seizure of equivalent Indian assets for undisclosed foreign holdings cannot be compounded at all.

Section 42 supplies vicarious liability where the contravener is a company, catching the person in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business under sub-section (1), subject to a defence of no knowledge or due diligence, and any director, manager, secretary or officer with whose consent or connivance or by whose neglect the contravention occurred under sub-section (2), with the Explanation making a firm a company and a partner a director. Section 43 provides that proceedings under section 13 do not abate on the death or insolvency of the person liable.

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The case that tested all three heads at once

The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.

An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.

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The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.

Why it bears on this question. The transaction in it was a capital account transaction, the objection was that it broke the pricing rules, and the answer turned on the character of the resulting contravention. It therefore bears on each head of this question: it identifies a share transfer to a non-resident as capital account, and it holds that a contravention of the rules governing it is remediable and compoundable rather than void.

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The authority on what the penalty for such a contravention should be

On quantum and on the exercise of the power to penalise at all, the governing authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.

But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.

Why it bears on this question. The third head asks about contraventions and penalties, and section 13 confers a discretion by saying 'up to' thrice the sum. This decision supplies the principle that governs it: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not to be imposed merely because it is lawful, and is not for a technical breach or an honest misunderstanding.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. The three expressions form a single sequence. A capital account transaction under section 2(e) is one that alters cross-border assets or liabilities including contingent liabilities, and it is regulated under section 6, whose architecture changed on 15 October 2019 when section 6(3) was omitted, section 6(2A) gave non-debt instruments to the Central Government and section 6(7) left the definition of debt instruments to it, leaving the Reserve Bank with debt under section 6(2) and section 47(3) saving its older regulations. A current account transaction under section 2(j) is defined as everything that is not capital, with four illustrative limbs, and section 5 makes it free subject only to the reasonable restrictions in the Current Account Transactions Rules, 2000 with their three schedules.

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Contravention is the crossing of either line, and the consequences are graded. Section 13(1) attaches a penalty of up to thrice the sum involved where quantifiable, up to two lakh rupees where not, and up to five thousand rupees a day for a continuing contravention, with no mens rea requirement and with confiscation available under section 13(2), extended by its Explanation to whatever the property has been converted into. Section 11(3) provides a much smaller supervisory penalty against an authorised person. Section 14 supplies civil imprisonment for a defaulter after ninety days, capped at three years above one crore rupees and six months below, and section 42 reaches those in charge of a company or firm while section 43 prevents abatement on death or insolvency.

The two things that keep the scheme workable and the two that make it severe sit at opposite ends. Compounding under section 15, within one hundred and eighty days and now under the 2024 Rules, disposes of the overwhelming majority of contraventions, most of them reporting delays; and section 15(2) closes the matter for good. Against that, sections 13(1A) to (1D) restore imprisonment up to five years and confiscation of equivalent Indian assets for undisclosed foreign holdings, and section 37A(6) puts that class of case beyond compounding altogether.

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6)How the Importer-Exporter Code number and licensing is helpful to regulate Import-Export Trade in India.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: that the question asks how these two instruments help regulate, so the answer must be functional and not merely descriptive; the statutory basis of each, sections 7 and 9 of the 1992 Act; the four regulatory functions the code performs, identification, gatekeeping, linkage across three statutes and sanction; the four functions the licence performs, quantity control, sectoral control, conditionality and benefit delivery; the enforcement machinery in sections 8, 11 and 15; and a candid assessment of the limits of the system.

The two instruments and their statutory basis

The Importer-exporter Code is an identity; a licence is a permission. Keeping that distinction at the front of the answer is what turns a descriptive answer into an analytical one.

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Section 7 of the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 creates the code. No person shall make any import or export except under an Importer-exporter Code Number granted by the Director General or the officer authorised by the Director General in this behalf, in accordance with the procedure specified by the Director General. The proviso, inserted with effect from 27 August 2010, confines the requirement in the case of import or export of services or technology to a provider taking benefits under the foreign trade policy or dealing with specified services or specified technologies.

Section 9 creates the licence. As substituted in 2010, section 9(2) empowers the Director General or an authorised officer, on application and after such inquiry as he thinks fit, to grant or renew or refuse to grant or renew a licence to import or export such class or classes of goods, services or technology as may be prescribed, and to grant, renew or refuse a certificate, scrip or any instrument bestowing financial or fiscal benefit, recording his reasons in writing for a refusal. Section 9(3) requires the instrument to be in the prescribed form, valid for the period specified and subject to prescribed terms; section 9(4) permits suspension or cancellation for good and sufficient reasons recorded in writing after a reasonable opportunity of being heard; and section 9(5) gives an appeal in the manner provided by section 15.

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Section 5 supplies the policy under which both operate, empowering the Central Government to formulate and announce the foreign trade policy by notification and to amend it in like manner, and section 6 creates the office of the Director General of Foreign Trade to advise on the policy and to be responsible for carrying it out.

How the code regulates: four functions

Function one: identification. The code is a single ten-digit number, now aligned with the Permanent Account Number, issued electronically and held by every person who imports or exports goods. It converts an anonymous flow of consignments into a set of identified traders, and every bill of entry and shipping bill carries it. Without a single identifier the rest of the regulatory apparatus, which depends on aggregating a trader's activity over time, could not function at all.

Function two: gatekeeping. Because section 7 makes the code a condition precedent to any import or export, the State controls entry into foreign trade at a single point. A person who has been excluded cannot trade, and the exclusion is effective the moment the code is suspended, without any need to intercept individual consignments.

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Function three, and it is the most important: linkage across three statutes. The code is the number by which the customs authorities identify the trader on every entry, by which his authorised dealer bank reports his transactions to the Reserve Bank under FEMA, and by which the Directorate General of Foreign Trade grants and monitors policy benefits. Because a single identifier runs through the Customs Act, FEMA and the 1992 Act, information collected under one can be used under another.

An export declared on a shipping bill under section 50 of the Customs Act is the same transaction the bank must follow to realisation under section 8 of FEMA, and the Reserve Bank's Export Data Processing and Monitoring System matches the two by the code. That linkage is the single greatest regulatory achievement of the system, and it is what makes under-invoicing and non-realisation detectable at all.

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Function four: sanction. Section 8 is what gives the code teeth, and its width is deliberate. The code may be suspended or cancelled where the holder has contravened the Act, the rules or orders or the foreign trade policy, or any other law for the time being in force relating to central excise or customs or foreign exchange, or has committed any other notified economic offence; or where the Director General has reason to believe that he has made an export or import prejudicial to the trade relations of India with any foreign country, or to the interests of other persons engaged in imports or exports, or has brought disrepute to the credit or the goods of, or services or technology provided from, the country.

The procedure requires a written notice of the grounds, a reasonable opportunity to represent in writing, and a hearing if desired. Under section 8(2), a person whose code is suspended or cancelled may thereafter trade only under a special licence.

The regulatory point about section 8 is that it makes a customs or FEMA contravention cost the trader his ability to trade at all, which is a far heavier consequence than the monetary penalty in section 11, and it is the reason the code is the most effective single instrument in this Act.

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How licensing regulates: four functions

Function one: quantity and safeguard control. Where goods are placed in the restricted category, a licence is needed for each consignment, and the number and size of licences issued controls the volume of imports. Section 9A, inserted in 2010, gives this a statutory footing for safeguard purposes: where goods are imported in such increased quantities and under such conditions as to cause or threaten serious injury to domestic industry, the Central Government may impose quantitative restrictions, subject to the proviso exempting a developing country whose share does not exceed three per cent, or several such countries whose aggregate does not exceed nine per cent, and subject to the limits that the restriction ceases after four years unless extended and may never continue beyond ten years.

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Function two: sectoral and strategic control. The Indian Trade Classification (Harmonised System) schedule classifies every item as free, restricted, prohibited or canalised, and licensing is the instrument that operates the second of those categories. The strategic end of it is sections 14A to 14E, inserted in 2010, which impose controls on the export of specified goods, services and technology, transfer controls, catch-all controls and a power to suspend or cancel a licence for specified goods, with section 14E(1) routing the penalty for a contravention relating to specified goods to the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005. That is India's non-proliferation export control regime, and it sits inside a trade statute.

Function three: conditionality. A licence can carry conditions that a duty rate cannot. The advance authorisation scheme permits duty-free import of inputs against an export obligation, and the Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme permits duty-free import of capital goods against an obligation to export a multiple of the duty saved. The instrument that makes these work is the licence and the bond that accompanies it, and the sanction for default is the recovery of duty with interest and action under section 11.

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Function four: benefit delivery. Since the 2010 amendment substituted "licence, certificate, scrip or any instrument bestowing financial or fiscal benefits" for the bare word "licence" throughout section 9, the same machinery delivers export incentives. Duty credit scrips issued under schemes such as the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products are granted, transferred, suspended and cancelled under section 9, and are therefore subject to the same notice and hearing requirements and the same appeal. Before 2010 these instruments rested on policy alone and their statutory footing was doubtful.

Enforcement, and the assessment

Section 11 supplies the monetary sanction. A contravention attracts a penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees and not more than five times the value of the goods, services or technology, whichever is more, and the same range applies under section 11(3) to a knowingly forged, tampered or materially false declaration. Section 11(4) permits a settlement on admission, section 11(5) permits recovery including by requiring an officer of customs to deduct the amount as if it were payable under the Customs Act, 1962, and section 11A requires all penalties to be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.

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Section 13 makes the Director General or a notified officer the Adjudicating Authority; section 15 gives an appeal within forty-five days, extendable by thirty, subject to a mandatory pre-deposit of the penalty or redemption charges with a dispensation for undue hardship; and section 16 gives a power of review, with a show cause notice required within two years where the variation would prejudice a person.

The assessment should be honest and it has three parts. The system's strength is the code, because a single identifier running through three statutes makes conduct visible that would otherwise be invisible, and section 8 makes the consequence of misconduct proportionate to the trader's dependence on trade. The system's weakness is that licensing is a quantity instrument in a tariff world: since the dismantling of import licensing in the 1990s, the great majority of goods are free, and the licence now does most of its work not as a restriction but as a vehicle for conditional duty exemption and for incentives, which is a different function from the one the Act was drafted for.

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And a residual defect is that section 11B still refers to the Settlement Commission constituted under section 32 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for the regularisation of an export obligation default, a body that ceased to function on 1 April 2025 under the Finance Act 2025, so a provision the Act relies on for default cases now points at nothing.

The authority on the force of a trade scheme

Union of India v. Indo-Afghan Agencies Ltd, AIR 1968 SC 718 is the decision that gave a trade scheme legal force against the Government that announced it. An exporter of woollen goods was promised import entitlements under an export promotion scheme, calculated on the value of what he exported. Having exported, he was granted an entitlement for a smaller amount, the authorities taking the view that the scheme bound nobody because it was executive and not statutory.

The Supreme Court held the Government bound by its representation. A scheme announced to traders, on the faith of which they act, cannot be departed from at will merely because it is administrative in form, and the plea of executive necessity is no answer. The decision is the origin of the modern law that a trade policy, though made by notification and amendable by notification, is not a licence to disappoint those who have already acted on it.

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Why it bears on this question. The code and the licence both operate under the foreign trade policy, which section 5 allows the Central Government to announce and amend by notification. This decision establishes that such a scheme is not a mere administrative indulgence: a trader who has acted on it may hold the Government to it, and executive necessity is no answer.

The authority on how far a trade policy may be relied on

The second authority is Kasinka Trading v. Union of India, (1995) 1 SCC 274, decided on 18 October 1994, which decides how far a trader may rely on a policy announced to him. A notification under section 25(1) of the Customs Act exempting PVC resin from duty was expressed to remain in force up to and inclusive of 31 March 1981. Importers entered into contracts and opened letters of credit on the faith of it. The exemption was withdrawn on 16 October 1980, before the stated date.

The Supreme Court refused to hold the Government to it. A notification issued in the public interest is not a promise or representation made to any individual; the doctrine of promissory estoppel cannot be invoked in the abstract; public interest is the superior equity which overrides individual equity; and the principle applies even where a period has been indicated for which the notification was to remain in force.

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Why it bears on this question. It answers the criticism that section 5 leaves the substance of the Act to a policy the Government may amend by notification. The decision holds that a concession granted in the public interest may be withdrawn in the public interest even where a period was named, so a trader who plans on the faith of a policy carries the risk of its change; and it explains why section 8, which can cost him his Importer-exporter Code, is a heavier sanction than anything in section 11.

Conclusion

Conclusion. The two instruments regulate in different ways and the answer turns on keeping them apart. The Importer-exporter Code under section 7 is an identity and a gate: no person may import or export without it, subject only to the 2010 proviso for services and technology, and it is the number by which customs, the authorised dealer bank under FEMA and the Director General all know the same trader. That linkage is what makes an under-invoiced export or an unrealised bill detectable, because the shipping bill filed under the Customs Act and the realisation monitored under section 8 of FEMA are matched by the same code. And section 8 of the 1992 Act converts a contravention of the customs or foreign exchange law into the loss of the right to trade at all, leaving the trader able to act only under a special licence.

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Licensing under section 9 is a permission, and it performs four functions: controlling quantity, most formally through the safeguard machinery of section 9A with its three and nine per cent developing-country thresholds and its ten-year outer limit; controlling sectors and strategic goods, through the Indian Trade Classification and the catch-all controls of sections 14A to 14E which route penalties to the Weapons of Mass Destruction Act of 2005; imposing conditions, which is how advance authorisation and the Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme tie duty-free imports to export obligations; and delivering benefits, since the 2010 amendment brought certificates, scrips and other instruments bestowing fiscal benefit within the same section.

Behind both stand section 11's penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees and up to five times value, section 15's appeal on pre-deposit within forty-five days, and section 16's two-year review. The candid assessment is that the code has grown in importance and the licence has changed its function: in a largely tariff-based trade regime the licence now works mainly as a conduit for conditional exemption and incentive rather than as a restriction, and one of the Act's own provisions for default, section 11B, now refers to a Settlement Commission that ceased to exist on 1 April 2025.

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7)Write notes on any three (3) of the following:[25]

  • (i) Unjust enrichment.
  • (ii) Compounding of offences mechanism U/s. 137(3) of the Customs Act, 1962.
  • (iii) Assessment.
  • (iv) 'Death or insolvency' and its effect on pending cases under FEMA.
  • (v) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India

Answer

For full marks, cover: all five notes to about six marks each; for (i) sections 27(2) and 28D with Mafatlal Industries and ITC Ltd; for (ii) section 137(3) with the Compounding Rules, the provisos, and the consequence of the Settlement Commission's abolition; for (iii) self-assessment under section 17 with sections 18, 18A and 28; for (iv) section 43 and the fact that it prevents abatement; for (v) section 6 as restructured in 2019, the two routes and Press Note 3.

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(i) Unjust enrichment

The principle is that a person should not be enriched at another's expense without legal justification, and in customs law it identifies who actually lost the money when duty was wrongly collected. If the importer recovered the duty from his buyer in the price, refunding it to him leaves him better off than if the duty had never been levied, at the expense of the consumer who bore it.

Two provisions embody it. Section 27(2) requires duty and interest found refundable to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund established under section 12C of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and paid to the applicant only in the excepted cases, principally where the incidence of the duty has not been passed on to any other person, or where the duty was paid by an individual on goods imported for his personal use, or the claim is for refund of export duty under section 26 or of drawback. Section 28D raises a presumption that the full incidence of the duty has been passed on to the buyer unless the contrary is proved. Section 18(5) applies the same test to refunds arising on the finalisation of a provisional assessment.

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Mafatlal Industries Ltd v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536, decided 19 December 1996 by nine judges, is the source. The Court reconciled a long line of conflicting decisions and held that every claim for refund, except where the levy is held unconstitutional, must be made and adjudicated under section 11B of the Central Excise Act or section 27 of the Customs Act and nowhere else; that a civil suit for refund does not lie, nor may Article 226 be used to bypass the statutory machinery; and that the claimant must prove that he has not passed on the burden. The reasoning is that refunding a tax to someone who has already recovered it is itself an unjust enrichment.

ITC Ltd v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Kolkata IV, 18 September 2019, 2019 INSC 1049, added the procedural obstacle. A refund of about Rs 35.89 crore of additional customs duty was claimed on self-assessed bills of entry which had never been appealed. The Court held the claim not maintainable: a self-assessment under section 17 is an order of assessment, appealable under section 128, and the refund authority cannot sit in appeal over it. Section 18A, inserted with effect from 1 May 2025, now permits a voluntary post-clearance revision of an entry with interest under section 28AA, which is Parliament's answer to that difficulty.

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(ii) Compounding of offences under section 137(3)

Section 137(3) permits any offence under Chapter XVI to be compounded, either before or after the institution of prosecution, by the Principal Chief Commissioner of Customs or Chief Commissioner of Customs, on payment by the person accused of the offence to the Central Government of such compounding amount and in such manner of compounding as may be specified by rules.

Four features should be stated. The power sits at a high level, with the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner and not the adjudicating officer, which keeps it away from the officer investigating the case. It is available before or after prosecution has begun, so an accused may compound even at trial. It is exercised on payment of an amount fixed by rules, so it is not a bargain struck case by case. And it operates on the offence, extinguishing the criminal liability, while leaving the civil consequences of duty, confiscation and penalty untouched.

The rules are the Customs (Compounding of Offences) Rules, 2005, which prescribe the application, the report of the reporting authority, the opportunity of being heard, and the compounding amounts, calculated as percentages of the duty evaded or the market value of the goods depending on the offence.

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The provisos exclude classes of person, and they are the substance of the section. Compounding is not available to a person who has been allowed to compound once in respect of an offence under specified sections; to a person accused of an offence under the Act which is also an offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000, or the Arms Act, 1959; to a person convicted by a court under the Act on or after 30 December 2005; and to a person against whom proceedings for the imposition of a preventive detention order under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 have been initiated. The exclusions are aimed at repeat offenders and at offences whose gravity lies outside the revenue.

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The abolition of the Settlement Commission has made compounding the only exit, and that is the currency point. Until 31 March 2025 a person exposed to both adjudication and prosecution could apply under section 127B to the Customs and Central Excise Settlement Commission and obtain, under section 127H, immunity from prosecution and from the imposition of penalty and fine on making a full and true disclosure. The Finance Act 2025 discontinued the Commission from 1 April 2025, transferring pending applications to an Interim Board for Settlement of three officers of the rank of Chief Commissioner or above nominated by the Board, with no judicial member. Immunity from prosecution can therefore no longer be obtained by settlement, and compounding under section 137(3), with its exclusions, is what remains.

(iii) Assessment

Assessment is defined very widely by section 2(2): determination of the dutiability of any goods and the amount of duty, cess, interest, penalty, fine or any other sum payable, and it includes provisional assessment, self-assessment, re-assessment and any assessment in which the duty assessed is nil.

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Since 2011 the primary act is the importer's. Section 17(1) requires the importer or exporter to self-assess the duty. Section 17(2) empowers the proper officer to verify the entries and the self-assessment, examining or testing the goods and requiring documents or information. Section 17(4) permits re-assessment where the self-assessment is found incorrect, and section 17(5) requires a speaking order within fifteen days where the re-assessment is not accepted in writing by the importer.

Valuation feeds the assessment through section 14, which fixes the transaction value, being the price actually paid or payable for delivery at the time and place of importation, where the buyer and seller are not related and price is the sole consideration, with the Customs Valuation Rules, 2007 supplying a mandatory sequence of alternatives. Section 15 fixes the rate and date, by reference to the presentation of the bill of entry under section 46 or, for warehoused goods, of the bill of entry for home consumption under section 68.

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Section 18 permits provisional assessment on bond and security where a document or information is missing, a chemical or other test is required, or further enquiry is necessary. Since 1 May 2025, section 18(1B) requires finalisation within two years, extendable by one year by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner for sufficient cause recorded, and the officer must inform the importer where finalisation does not occur in time. Section 18A, of the same date, permits a voluntary revision of an entry after clearance.

Section 28 governs re-opening: two years ordinarily, five years where the non-levy or short levy is by reason of collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, with determination required within six months or one year respectively under section 28(9). Whether the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence may issue such a notice was answered against the department in Canon India Pvt. Ltd v. Commissioner of Customs, 9 March 2021, and in its favour on review on 7 November 2024, the three-judge Bench holding that section 2(34) must be read harmoniously with section 6, so that officers to whom the function has been validly allocated are proper officers under section 28.

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(iv) 'Death or insolvency' and its effect on pending cases under FEMA

The provision is section 43, headed "Death or insolvency in certain cases", and its effect is the opposite of what the heading might suggest to a hurried reader.

It provides that any right, obligation, liability, proceeding or appeal arising in relation to the provisions of section 13 shall NOT abate by reason of the death or insolvency of the person liable under that section, and that upon such death or insolvency such rights and obligations shall devolve on the legal representative of such person or the official receiver or the official assignee, as the case may be. The proviso provides that a legal representative of the deceased shall be liable only to the extent of the inheritance or estate of the deceased.

The common law rule displaced is actio personalis moritur cum persona. Without section 43, a penalty proceeding against a person who died would simply end and his estate would pass undiminished; and an insolvency would extinguish the liability along with his other debts. The section prevents both by declaring that the proceeding does not abate and by providing for devolution so that there is a party against whom it can continue.

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Four features are worth stating. It is confined to section 13, the civil penalty jurisdiction, and cannot carry a criminal liability under section 13(1C) to a representative, since criminal liability is personal. It covers insolvency as well as death, so the official assignee takes the liability with the estate. It expressly covers appeals, so an appeal filed by a person who dies is continued rather than treated as abated. And the proviso is a genuine protection, capping the heir's exposure at what he actually receives so that his own property is untouched.

The examiner's point is the one to end on. Several papers in this folder ask about "abatement under FEMA", and section 43 is always the provision meant. It is an anti-abatement provision, and an answer describing when proceedings abate states the reverse of the law.

(v) Foreign Direct Investment in India

Foreign direct investment is a capital account transaction within section 2(e), because a non-resident's subscription to the equity of an Indian company alters that non-resident's assets in India.

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The governing power moved in 2019 and that is the fact that dates an answer. With effect from 15 October 2019, section 6(3) was omitted, section 6(2A) was inserted giving the Central Government power to prescribe permissible classes of capital account transactions not involving debt instruments, and section 6(7) was inserted leaving the definition of "debt instruments" to the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank. The governing instruments are now the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 made by the Central Government, with the Debt Instruments Regulations, 2019 and the Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments Regulations, 2019 completing the set, and section 47(3) saving the Reserve Bank's earlier regulations until amended or rescinded.

Two routes operate. Under the automatic route no prior approval is required and the investee reports after the event. Under the Government route prior approval of the administrative ministry is needed, obtained through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal since the Foreign Investment Promotion Board was abolished in 2017.

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Prohibited sectors are a short list: lottery and gambling and betting including casinos, chit funds, Nidhi companies, trading in transferable development rights, real estate business or construction of farm houses, manufacture of cigars and tobacco substitutes, and sectors not open to private investment such as atomic energy and railway operations other than the permitted segments.

Press Note 3 of 2020, issued on 17 April 2020, is the most important recent restriction. An entity of a country sharing a land border with India, or where the beneficial owner of an investment is situated in or is a citizen of such a country, may invest only under the Government route, and the same applies to a transfer of ownership resulting in such beneficial ownership. It was made part of the Non-debt Instruments Rules by amendment and was introduced to guard against opportunistic acquisitions when valuations fell at the start of the pandemic.

Reporting is where contraventions arise. Receipt of consideration is reported and Form FC-GPR filed on allotment through the Reserve Bank's Single Master Form; a transfer between a resident and a non-resident is reported in Form FC-TRS; and an annual return on foreign liabilities and assets is due each July. Delay is a contravention under section 13 and is ordinarily compounded under section 15 and the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. The five notes cover both statutes and the point at which they meet. Unjust enrichment answers who should receive a refund, and sections 27(2) and 28D, with Mafatlal Industries behind them, answer that it is whoever bore the burden, with the Consumer Welfare Fund taking the money otherwise; ITC Ltd then made the claim procedurally harder by holding a self-assessment to be an appealable order, and section 18A from 1 May 2025 has supplied the answer.

Compounding under section 137(3) is the criminal exit, exercised at Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner level, before or after prosecution, at a price fixed by the 2005 Rules, and closed to one allowed to compound once in respect of an offence under sections 135 or 135A, one accused of an offence which is also an offence under the narcotics, chemical weapons, arms or wild life protection legislation, one involved in smuggling SCOMET items, ITC (HS) prohibited items or goods affecting friendly relations, one allowed to compound once where the value exceeded one crore rupees, and one convicted under the Act on or after 30 December 2005. Its importance has grown sharply since 1 April 2025, because the Settlement Commission and with it the immunity from prosecution under section 127H have gone.

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Assessment is now self-assessment under section 17 with verification, re-assessment and a speaking order, provisional assessment under section 18 with a two-year finalisation limit since 1 May 2025, voluntary revision under section 18A, and re-opening under section 28 within two or five years by a proper officer whose identity Canon India settled in 2021 and unsettled again on review in 2024.

Section 43 of FEMA prevents a penalty proceeding from abating on death or insolvency, devolving it on the legal representative or official assignee subject to the estate limit. And foreign direct investment is the capital account transaction whose legal basis moved from the Reserve Bank to the Central Government on 15 October 2019, is delivered through the automatic and Government routes, is closed in a short list of sectors, and since Press Note 3 of 2020 requires Government approval for every investment beneficially owned in a land-border country.

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SECTION II

Q.P. Code 50133. Attempt any four questions, all questions carry equal marks of 25 each, cite relevant case laws wherever necessary

any four of seven · 100 Marks

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1)Examine the powers of Customs Officers for search, seizure and arrest of a person under the Customs Act, 1962[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the powers in the order in which they are exercised on a real interception, which is the clearest spine for a question about a person; section 106 stopping a conveyance, sections 100 to 103 searching the person, section 105 searching premises, section 110 seizing, section 108 summoning and questioning, and section 104 arresting; the safeguard attached at every stage; the constitutional overlay of Articles 20(3), 21 and 22; and Radhika Agarwal of 27 February 2025 as the controlling authority on the last step.

The sequence of an interception

A customs officer acting against a person moves through six statutory stages, and every one of them carries its own precondition. The Act is best explained by following that sequence rather than by listing powers.

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Stage one: stopping the conveyance, section 106

Section 106 empowers the proper officer, where he has reason to believe that any aircraft, vehicle or animal in India, or any vessel in India or within the Indian customs waters, has been, is being or is about to be used in the smuggling of any goods or in the carriage of any smuggled goods, to stop it or, in the case of a vessel, to signal it to stop, and to search it. If it does not stop, he may use all lawful means to compel it, and the sub-section adds that where those means fail the vessel or aircraft may be fired upon. It is one of the very few provisions in Indian fiscal legislation authorising force of that order, and its precondition, a reason to believe directed at the use of the conveyance in smuggling, is correspondingly specific.

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Stage two: searching the person, sections 100 to 103

Section 100 permits search of a person in transit. Where the proper officer has reason to believe that any person to whom the section applies has secreted about his person any goods liable to confiscation or any documents relating thereto, he may search him. The section applies to a person who has landed from or is about to board, or is on board, a vessel within Indian customs waters; who has landed from or is about to board, or is on board a foreign-going aircraft; who is entering or about to leave India by land or inland water; or who is in a customs area.

Section 101 permits search anywhere in India for notified goods. Where an officer of customs empowered by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, and not below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner, has reason to believe that any person has secreted about his person gold, diamonds, manufactures of gold or diamonds, watches, or any other class of goods notified by the Central Government, he may search him. The narrower authorisation is the safeguard, because the power is not confined to ports and borders.

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Section 102 is the principal safeguard and it must be stated fully. When an officer is about to search any person under section 100 or section 101, he shall, if such person so requires, take him without unnecessary delay to the nearest gazetted officer of customs or Magistrate. That officer or Magistrate, if he sees no reasonable ground for search, shall forthwith discharge the person, and otherwise shall direct that the search be made. Before making a search the officer shall call upon two or more persons to attend and witness it and may issue an order in writing to them to do so. No female shall be searched by anyone except a female.

The practical criticism is that the right in section 102 depends on the person knowing of it. The section is triggered only "if such person so requires", and a person who is not told cannot require. The departmental practice of recording that the person was informed and declined is the only evidence that the section was honoured, and a search where no such record exists is open to serious challenge.

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Section 103 governs the internal search and is the most tightly controlled power in the Act. Where the proper officer has reason to believe that a person has any goods liable to confiscation secreted inside his body, he may detain him and shall produce him without unnecessary delay before the nearest Magistrate. The Magistrate, if satisfied that there is reasonable ground, may direct that the suspect be taken to a registered medical practitioner for an X-ray or other examination, and where the practitioner reports that goods are secreted, the Magistrate may direct suitable action for bringing them out. The section also provides for the person's rights before the Magistrate and for his discharge where the Magistrate sees no reasonable ground.

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Stage three: searching premises, section 105

Section 105 permits the Assistant Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner of Customs, or in a border area an officer of lower rank so empowered, if he has reason to believe that any goods liable to confiscation, or any documents or things which in his opinion will be useful for or relevant to any proceeding under this Act, are secreted in any place, to authorise a search or himself to search that place. The reason to believe must be recorded, and by section 105(2) the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 relating to searches apply so far as may be, with the modification that the sanction of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner is substituted for that of a Magistrate.

Stage four: seizure, section 110

Section 110(1) permits seizure of goods where the proper officer has reason to believe them liable to confiscation, with a constructive seizure by order where actual seizure is impracticable. Section 110(2) requires the section 124 notice within six months, extendable once by six months for reasons recorded and communicated, failing which the goods must be returned. Section 110(3) extends the power to documents and things, with a right in section 110(4) to take copies or extracts, and section 110A permits provisional release on bond.

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Stage five: summoning and questioning, section 108

Section 108 empowers a gazetted officer of customs to summon any person whose attendance he considers necessary either to give evidence or to produce a document or any other thing in any inquiry which the officer is making. All persons so summoned are bound to attend, to state the truth upon any subject respecting which they are examined, and to produce such documents as may be required, and every such inquiry is deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.

The constitutional question this raises is the hardest in this area. Article 20(3) protects a person accused of any offence from being compelled to be a witness against himself. The reconciliation has been that a customs officer is not a police officer, that a summons under section 108 is issued in an inquiry and not in a prosecution, and that the person summoned is not, at that stage, a person accused of an offence. The criticism is that the distinction is formal, because the person summoned is very often the person the department intends to prosecute, and the protection then turns on the label attached to the stage rather than on the reality of the compulsion.

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Section 138B is the statutory answer and it is a partial one. A statement made and signed before a gazetted officer is relevant for proving the truth of the facts it contains only in two situations: where the maker is dead, cannot be found, is incapable of giving evidence, is kept out of the way by the adverse party, or his presence cannot be obtained without unreasonable delay or expense; or where the maker is examined as a witness before the court or adjudicating authority and that authority forms an opinion, having regard to the circumstances, that the statement should be admitted in the interests of justice.

Stage six: arrest, section 104

Section 104(1) permits an officer of customs empowered in this behalf by general or special order of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, who has reason to believe that any person has committed an offence punishable under section 132, 133, 135, 135A or 136, to arrest him and to inform him as soon as may be of the grounds for such arrest. The list is exhaustive and section 134 is not in it.

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Section 104(2) requires the arrested person to be taken to a Magistrate without unnecessary delay; section 104(3) gives the officer, for the purpose of releasing on bail or otherwise, the same powers as an officer in charge of a police station.

Section 104(4) fixes cognizability. Notwithstanding the Code of Criminal Procedure, an offence is cognizable only where it relates to prohibited goods, or to evasion or attempted evasion of duty exceeding fifty lakh rupees, or to fraudulently availing of or attempting to avail drawback or an exemption exceeding fifty lakh rupees, or to fraudulently obtaining an instrument under this Act or the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 where the duty relatable to its utilisation exceeds fifty lakh rupees. Section 104(5) makes all other offences non-cognizable, and section 104(6) and (7) classify offences as bailable or non-bailable accordingly.

That structure is Parliament's answer to Om Prakash v. Union of India, (2011) 14 SCC 1, decided 30 September 2011, which held offences under the Customs Act and the Central Excise Act to be non-cognizable and bailable, requiring a warrant. The categories were carved out by amendments in 2012, 2013 and 2019.

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The controlling authority is now Radhika Agarwal v. Union of India, 2025 INSC 272, decided on 27 February 2025. Hearing about 279 petitions led by Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 336 of 2018, the Supreme Court upheld the arrest provisions of the Customs Act and of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, holding Parliament competent under Article 246A and rejecting the challenge to sections 69 and 70 of the CGST Act.

But it laid down that an arrest for a cognizable and non-bailable offence, while it needs no prior adjudication of liability, must rest on credible material; the officer's "reasons to believe" must be recorded in writing; and those reasons must be furnished to the arrested person so that the arrest can be challenged. It drew the safeguards from Articles 21 and 22 and from D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, and applied its reasoning in Arvind Kejriwal v. Directorate of Enforcement on communication of grounds.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. Followed in sequence, the Act's powers against a person show a consistent pattern: each power is conditioned on a state of mind the officer must actually hold and, at the sharper end, record, and each carries a safeguard proportioned to what it takes away. A conveyance may be stopped under section 106 on a reason to believe it is being used in smuggling, and may in the last resort be fired upon. A person may be searched under section 100 in transit or under section 101 anywhere in India for notified goods on the authorisation of at least an Assistant Commissioner, and section 102 gives him the right, on request, to be taken before a gazetted officer or a Magistrate, requires two witnesses, and forbids any male from searching a female. An internal search under section 103 needs a Magistrate's direction and a registered medical practitioner.

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Premises may be searched under section 105 on a recorded reason to believe, with the Code of Criminal Procedure applied and the Commissioner's sanction substituted for a Magistrate's. Goods may be seized under section 110, with the six month notice rule and provisional release under section 110A. And a person may be summoned under section 108 in an inquiry deemed a judicial proceeding, where the Article 20(3) objection is met by the formal answer that he is not yet accused, and softened only by section 138B's control on the use of the statement.

Arrest is the last stage and the most confined. It is available only for offences under sections 132, 133, 135, 135A and 136; only the four categories in section 104(4), each turning on prohibited goods or a figure exceeding fifty lakh rupees, are cognizable, everything else being non-cognizable under section 104(5) after Om Prakash and the amendments of 2012, 2013 and 2019; and since Radhika Agarwal on 27 February 2025 the officer must hold credible material, record his reasons to believe in writing and furnish them to the person arrested. The one part of the sequence that remains genuinely open to objection is section 108, because a compelled statement taken in an inquiry from a person who is not yet formally accused, and used against him once he is, rests on a distinction between stages that does not match what happens in practice.

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2)Critically evaluate the Doctrine of 'unjust enrichment' in relation to the Customs Act, 1962.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the doctrine's general foundation, including sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, so that the customs application is seen as a species of a wider principle; the constitutional problem it answers, which is the tension between Article 265 and the fact that an indirect tax is passed on; Mafatlal Industries worked in full, including its exceptions; the statutory codification in sections 27, 28D and 18(5) and the Consumer Welfare Fund; then the critical evaluation, which must identify the real difficulties, namely the impossibility of proof in many cases, the treatment of capital goods and of provisional assessment, and the ITC Ltd obstacle now partly cured by section 18A.

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The general doctrine, and the special problem of an indirect tax

Unjust enrichment is the principle that a person who has been enriched at the expense of another, without a legal justification for the enrichment, must make restitution. Indian law recognises it generally in Chapter V of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, "Of certain relations resembling those created by contract", and particularly in section 70, which obliges a person who enjoys the benefit of a lawful act done for him non-gratuitously to compensate the doer, and in section 72, which obliges a person to whom money has been paid by mistake or under coercion to repay it.

In customs and excise the doctrine appears in an inverted form, and understanding the inversion is the key to the whole topic. Ordinarily unjust enrichment is invoked by the person who has lost money against the person who has gained it. Here it is invoked by the State against the claimant: the State says that although it collected the duty unlawfully, refunding it to the importer would enrich the importer unjustly, because the importer has already recovered the amount from his buyer in the price of the goods.

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The constitutional problem is real and should be stated. Article 265 provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law, so a duty collected without authority must, in principle, be returned. But an indirect tax is by its nature designed to be passed on: the importer is the taxable person, the consumer is the economic bearer. If the tax comes back to the importer, the person who actually paid it gets nothing, and the importer receives a windfall equal to a tax he never bore. The doctrine of unjust enrichment is the law's answer to that mismatch between the legal incidence and the economic incidence of the tax.

Mafatlal Industries: the decision that settled it

Mafatlal Industries Ltd v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536, was decided on 19 December 1996 by a Bench of nine judges, convened to resolve a long line of conflicting decisions on refund of indirect taxes and to reconsider earlier authority which had allowed refunds without regard to the passing on of the burden.

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The holdings that matter are four. First, every claim for refund of duty must be made and adjudicated under the statutory machinery, that is under section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or section 27 of the Customs Act, 1962, and not otherwise; the machinery is a complete code. Second, a civil suit for refund does not lie, and the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 cannot be used to bypass the statutory route, though it survives in the exceptional case.

Third, the claimant must establish that he has not passed on the incidence of the duty to any other person, and a refund is otherwise refused. Fourth, and this is the exception which the answer must state, where the levy is held to be unconstitutional, that is outside the legislative competence of the enacting body or in violation of a fundamental right, the claim stands on a different footing and is not confined to the statutory machinery, though even there the court may mould relief.

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The reasoning is not a technicality and should be presented as principle. The Court reasoned that the object of a refund is to restore the loss to the person who suffered it. Where the manufacturer or importer has recovered the duty in his price, he has suffered no loss; refunding him would give him twice over and would leave the consumers, who cannot practically be identified or repaid, uncompensated. The Consumer Welfare Fund is the legislature's answer to the question of where the money should go instead: not to the trader, and not retained by the State as ordinary revenue, but to a fund applied for the benefit of consumers.

The statutory codification

Section 27 provides for refund of duty and interest, requiring an application before the expiry of one year from the date of payment, with the limitation not applying where the duty was paid under protest, and requiring the applicant to furnish documentary or other evidence to establish that the amount was paid by him and that the incidence had not been passed on.

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Section 27(2) is the operative unjust enrichment provision. The amount determined to be refundable is to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund, established under section 12C of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and is to be paid to the applicant instead only in the excepted cases, which include: where the duty was paid by the importer and he had not passed on the incidence to any other person; where it is a refund of export duty under section 26; where it is a refund of drawback; where the duty was borne by a buyer who had not passed it on; and where the duty was borne by an individual and the goods were imported for his personal use.

Section 28D supplies the presumption. Every person who has paid duty on any goods shall, unless the contrary is proved, be deemed to have passed on the full incidence of that duty to the buyer. The burden therefore lies squarely on the claimant from the outset.

Section 18(5) applies the same test to a refund arising on the finalisation of a provisional assessment, and section 28C requires a person selling goods on which duty has been paid to prominently indicate in all documents relating to assessment, sales invoices and other like documents the amount of duty which will form part of the price, which is the mechanism by which the passing on can later be proved or disproved.

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The critical evaluation

The first and strongest criticism is the practical impossibility of proof in many cases. Where goods are sold at a uniform market price, or where the importer's price list did not change when the duty was imposed or withdrawn, the importer may be quite unable to show that the duty was not built into his price, even though economically he may have absorbed it. Certificates from chartered accountants and evidence that the duty was carried in the books as "duty receivable" rather than as an expense are the usual proof, and their acceptance varies. The result is that a levy admitted to be unlawful is very often not refunded to anybody, and the money reaches the Consumer Welfare Fund, whose disbursements bear no relation to the consumers who bore the particular tax.

The second criticism concerns capital goods and inputs. Where the duty was paid on capital goods used in the claimant's own manufacture, or on inputs consumed in a product whose price is set by competition, the passing on is diffuse and cannot sensibly be traced. Applying a presumption designed for traded goods to that situation produces arbitrary results, and the courts have had to soften the presumption by treating the question as one of fact in each case, which reintroduces the uncertainty the presumption was meant to remove.

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The third criticism is that the doctrine sits awkwardly with provisional assessment. Under section 18(5) an excess collected under a provisional assessment is subject to the same test, even though the importer could not have known at the time of sale what the final duty would be and therefore could not rationally have priced for it. The section makes no allowance for that, and the importer who has cleared goods on a bond and priced them at the provisional rate bears the risk of a refund he cannot recover.

The fourth criticism is procedural and is the one that generated the most litigation. In ITC Ltd v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Kolkata IV, decided 18 September 2019, 2019 INSC 1049, the assessee claimed a refund of about Rs 35.89 crore of additional customs duty paid on self-assessed bills of entry, without having appealed against any of them. The Supreme Court held the claim not maintainable: a self-assessment under section 17 is itself an order of assessment, it is appealable under section 128, and the officer deciding a refund application cannot sit in appeal over an assessment that stands. So an importer who had assessed himself at the wrong rate had to appeal against his own return within the appellate limitation before he could even reach the unjust enrichment question.

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Parliament has now partly cured that, and the cure is the currency point. Section 18A, inserted by the Finance Act 2025 with effect from 1 May 2025, permits a voluntary revision of an entry after clearance within the prescribed time and manner, so that an importer who discovers an error may correct it, paying the differential with interest under section 28AA where he has short paid and claiming the excess where he has overpaid, without having to appeal against himself. The sequence, a judicial hardening in 2019 followed by a legislative softening in 2025, is the clearest illustration in this subject of how the law in this area actually develops.

The fifth point is one of fairness in the other direction, and it should be conceded. The doctrine is not merely a device to help the revenue keep money it collected unlawfully. Before Mafatlal Industries there were genuine instances of traders recovering very large sums of duty which their customers had paid, and the windfall was indefensible. A critic who attacks the doctrine wholesale has to explain what should happen to money that the claimant demonstrably did not bear, and the Consumer Welfare Fund, imperfect as it is, is a better answer than a windfall.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. Unjust enrichment enters customs law inverted. Ordinarily the doctrine is a sword in the hands of the person who lost the money; here it is a shield in the hands of the State against a claimant who did not. It answers a genuine problem, namely that Article 265 requires an unlawfully collected tax to be returned while the economics of an indirect tax mean that the person entitled to claim it is usually not the person who bore it.

Mafatlal Industries, decided by nine judges in December 1996, fixed the position: refunds must go through section 27 and nowhere else, no civil suit lies, the claimant must prove that he did not pass on the burden, and only where the levy is unconstitutional does the claim stand on a different footing. Sections 27(2), 28C, 28D and 18(5) codify that, with section 28D presuming that the burden was passed on and the Consumer Welfare Fund receiving whatever the claimant cannot establish is his.

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The criticisms are real and should be made. Proof of non-passing on is often impossible where prices are set by the market rather than by cost, so a levy conceded to be unlawful is frequently refunded to nobody. The presumption fits traded goods and fits capital goods and inputs badly. It applies with full force to provisional assessments under section 18(5), where the importer could not have priced for a duty not yet determined.

And until 2025 the procedural obstacle from ITC Ltd required an importer to appeal against his own self-assessment before the question could even be reached, an obstacle section 18A has now largely removed by permitting a voluntary post-clearance revision. What survives all of that is the core of the doctrine, which is sound: a person who has already recovered a tax from his customers has lost nothing, and a rule that refuses to pay him twice is not an injustice but the avoidance of one.

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3)Examine the salient features of FEMA and explain how far it has contributed to the improvement of Foreign Exchange in India.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the features compactly, since they have to leave room for the second limb; then the second limb properly, which means asking what "improvement of Foreign Exchange in India" can honestly be attributed to a statute, distinguishing what the Act did from what liberalisation, the tax regime and the external environment did; four channels through which the Act plausibly contributed; and a candid conclusion that neither overclaims nor dismisses.

The salient features, stated compactly

FEMA, Act 42 of 1999, came into force on 1 June 2000 by notification G.S.R. 371(E) dated 1 May 2000, replacing the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973. Its long title is the shortest statement of its purpose: to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.

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Feature one: a civil contravention in place of a criminal offence. Section 13 attaches a penalty up to thrice the sum involved where quantifiable, up to two lakh rupees where not, and up to five thousand rupees a day for a continuing contravention, adjudged by an Adjudicating Authority under section 16. There is no imprisonment for the ordinary contravention; section 14 provides only civil imprisonment of a defaulter, capped by section 14(11) at three years where the demand exceeds one crore rupees and six months otherwise.

Feature two: the burden of proof restored to the department. FERA's section 59 presumed guilt; FEMA contains no such presumption for an ordinary contravention.

Feature three: a free current account and a regulated capital account. Section 5 permits any person to sell or draw foreign exchange for a current account transaction, subject only to reasonable restrictions prescribed by the Central Government in the public interest, contained in the Current Account Transactions Rules, 2000. Section 6 regulates capital account transactions, with the Reserve Bank specifying permissible debt-instrument transactions under section 6(2) and, since 15 October 2019, the Central Government prescribing non-debt transactions under section 6(2A), section 6(3) having been omitted.

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Feature four: compounding. Section 15 allows any contravention to be compounded within one hundred and eighty days of receipt of the application, and section 15(2) bars further proceedings. It is now governed by the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024, notified on 12 September 2024.

Feature five: definitions written for an open economy. Section 2(v) fixes residence primarily at more than one hundred and eighty-two days in the preceding financial year, with purpose-based exclusions; sections 2(e) and 2(j) define the two classes of transaction; section 2(u) defines "person" in seven limbs including an agency, office or branch.

Feature six: an appellate structure ending in the High Court. Section 17 gives an appeal to the Special Director (Appeals) from an Assistant or Deputy Director; section 19 to the Appellate Tribunal, which since the Finance Act 2017, with effect from 26 May 2017, is the Tribunal constituted under section 12(1) of SAFEMA, sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30 and 31 having been omitted; and section 35 to the High Court within sixty days on a question of law. Section 34 excludes the civil courts.

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Feature seven: the Reserve Bank as the operational regulator, authorising persons under section 10, directing and penalising them under section 11, inspecting under section 12 and making regulations under section 47, subject to the Central Government's directions under section 41.

How far has it contributed? Four channels, and what must be discounted

The honest starting point is that a statute does not by itself improve a country's foreign exchange position. India's reserves grew from about 38 billion United States dollars at the end of the 1990s to figures many times that; but the drivers were the liberalisation of 1991, the software and services export boom, remittances from the Indian diaspora, the opening of sectors to foreign investment, and the global cost of capital. To attribute that growth to FEMA would be to mistake a framework for a cause. What can properly be claimed is that the Act removed obstacles, reduced friction and made the market usable, and the answer should be argued through the channels by which it did so.

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Channel one: decriminalisation reduced the risk premium on doing business in India. Under FERA, a technical breach exposed a businessman to prosecution and, under section 35 of that Act, to arrest. That risk was priced into every transaction and deterred foreign counterparties as much as Indian ones. Converting the breach into a civil contravention adjudged under section 13, and providing for compounding under section 15, removed a class of risk that had no relation to the size of the transgression. That is a genuine contribution and it is the one most defensible.

Channel two: current account convertibility was given a statutory foundation. India accepted the obligations of Article VIII of the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund in August 1994, but the legal position under FERA remained one of prohibition subject to permission. Section 5 of FEMA made the freedom a statutory rule, restricted only by exception. That alignment between the international obligation and the domestic statute is what allows a trader to remit for imports, and a family to remit for education or medical care, without seeking permission.

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Channel three: the machinery for realising export proceeds was made workable. Section 7 requires a declaration of the full export value and section 8 requires all reasonable steps to realise and repatriate what is due or has accrued, with section 2(y) defining repatriation to include discharge of a foreign currency liability. Because the declaration is made on the shipping bill filed under section 50 of the Customs Act, the Reserve Bank's Export Data Processing and Monitoring System can match every shipping bill against its realisation, and the authorised dealer bank follows the outstanding bill. That system is the reason under-invoicing and non-realisation are detectable at all, and it is a direct product of the way sections 7 and 8 are drafted.

Channel four: the framework for inbound investment became predictable. Section 6 and the regulations and rules made under it converted foreign investment from a permission-based process into a largely automatic one with published sectoral caps and defined reporting. The Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 and the Single Master Form with Forms FC-GPR and FC-TRS give an investor a set of rules he can read in advance. Predictability is what a capital exporter values most, and the Act supplied it.

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What must be entered on the other side

First, the Act's own contribution to enforcement against capital flight was thin until 2015, and Parliament had to say so by amending it. Sections 13(1A) to (1D) and section 37A, inserted with effect from 9 September 2015, restore imprisonment up to five years, permit seizure of Indian assets of equivalent value where foreign assets are held in contravention of section 4, and by section 37A(6) exclude compounding. The insertion is an admission that the purely civil model did not deter undeclared foreign wealth, and the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 was enacted in the same year for the same reason.

Second, some of the Act's own machinery has never worked. Section 14A, "Power to recover arrears of penalty", enacted by Act 28 of 2016, has never been notified into force, so the intended alternative to civil imprisonment does not exist a decade later.

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Third, the institutional architecture has been weakened rather than strengthened. The Finance Act 2017 abolished FEMA's own Appellate Tribunal and transferred the jurisdiction to the SAFEMA Tribunal, which also carries the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act and Benami Property docket; section 32 as substituted now gives a statutory right of representation only before the Special Director (Appeals); and the first proviso to section 19(1) requires the whole penalty to be deposited before an appeal is heard. Those are not improvements.

Fourth, the regulator's position has narrowed twice. Capital account rule-making for non-debt instruments passed to the Central Government on 15 October 2019, and section 44A, inserted with effect from 1 October 2020, removed the International Financial Services Centre from the Reserve Bank's reach in favour of the International Financial Services Centres Authority.

The judicial measure of what FEMA achieved

The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.

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An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.

The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.

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Why it bears on this question. It is the best available evidence for the second limb of the question. The improvement FEMA made is not measurable in reserves, which the Act did not cause; it is measurable in how a breach is treated, and the Supreme Court has now held that a FEMA breach is so far from being a fundamental wrong that it does not even prevent the enforcement of a foreign award.

The decision that shows what the civil model replaced

A second authority, and one that comes from the statute this Act replaced, is Directorate of Enforcement v. Deepak Mahajan, (1994) 3 SCC 440, decided on 31 January 1994. Deepak Mahajan was detained by officers of the Directorate of Enforcement for a contravention of FERA and produced before the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, who was asked to authorise judicial remand under section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The question was whether a Magistrate has jurisdiction to remand a person arrested by an officer who is not a police officer and where no First Information Report exists.

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The Supreme Court held that he has. Section 35(2) of FERA and section 104(2) of the Customs Act, which require an arrested person to be taken to a Magistrate without unnecessary delay, substantially fulfil the conditions of section 167(1), so the Magistrate may authorise detention and the officer may seek remand.

Why it bears on this question. It supplies the contrast that makes the present position intelligible. Under FERA an officer of Enforcement could arrest and then obtain judicial remand under section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure while the investigation continued; FEMA gives the Directorate the powers of an income-tax authority under section 37 and nothing more, and confines imprisonment to civil imprisonment of a defaulter under section 14.

The case that fixes the character of a foreign exchange contravention: MCTM Corporation

The decision that settles what kind of wrong a foreign exchange contravention is, is Director of Enforcement v. MCTM Corporation (P) Ltd, (1996) 2 SCC 471. A company had been penalised under section 23(1)(a) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 for a contravention of section 10 of that Act, and it argued that no penalty could be imposed on it without proof that it had meant to break the law.

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The Supreme Court rejected that argument and drew the line that still governs. A proceeding to adjudicate a penalty is a proceeding for the breach of a civil obligation, not a criminal prosecution, and mens rea is therefore not an essential ingredient of it. What has to be shown is blameworthy conduct, and the Court held that the delinquency of the defaulter itself establishes that conduct: once the contravention is proved, the penalty follows without any further proof of a guilty mind. The Court was careful to say that this is not a relaxation of proof but a difference in the nature of the proceeding, so that the two jurisdictions, penalty and prosecution, ask different questions of the same facts.

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Why it bears on this question. This is the authority for saying that the move from FERA to FEMA was a change of kind and not of degree. FERA already knew the distinction between a penalty adjudicated for a civil breach and a prosecution, and MCTM is where the Supreme Court articulated it; FEMA then made that distinction the whole architecture of the statute. Section 13 creates a contravention, not an offence, adjudicated by an Adjudicating Authority on the balance of probabilities; section 14 knows only civil imprisonment, and only for failure to pay a penalty already imposed. An answer that says FEMA "decriminalised" foreign exchange regulation is saying, in the language of this case, that every contravention under FEMA is now a breach of a civil obligation for which no guilty intention need be shown and for which no criminal consequence follows.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. FEMA's salient features are the six or seven that follow from a single change of premise: foreign exchange stopped being a scarce national resource to be conserved and became a market to be developed. Hence a civil contravention under section 13 instead of an offence, the burden of proof on the department, a free current account under section 5 and a regulated capital account under section 6, compounding under section 15, definitions written in days and in classes of transaction rather than in intention, an appeal structure ending in the High Court on a question of law, and the Reserve Bank as the operational regulator under sections 10 to 12 and 47.

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On the second limb, the fair answer is that the Act created the conditions in which foreign exchange could accumulate rather than causing the accumulation. Its measurable contributions are four: it removed the criminal risk that FERA attached to ordinary commercial error and replaced it with an adjudication and a compounding route; it gave statutory form to the current account convertibility India had accepted under Article VIII of the IMF Articles in 1994; it built, through sections 7 and 8 and the shipping bill, a realisation-monitoring system that makes export proceeds traceable; and it made inbound investment predictable through published rules, sectoral caps and defined reporting.

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Against that, three things must be conceded. The civil model did not deter undeclared foreign assets, which is why sections 13(1A) to (1D) and 37A restored imprisonment, equivalent-value seizure and a bar on compounding in 2015. Section 14A, enacted in 2016, has never been brought into force. And the Act's institutions have been reduced rather than reinforced since 2017, its own Tribunal abolished, its right of representation before the Tribunal removed, its capital account powers transferred to the Government in 2019 and its writ over the International Financial Services Centre removed in 2020. FEMA improved the legal environment for foreign exchange decisively; the improvement in the foreign exchange position itself belongs to the economy, and the Act's honest claim is that it stopped standing in the way.

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4)Discuss the provisions relating to contraventions and penalties under the Foreign Trade (development and Regulations) Act, 1992.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: that almost the whole penal part of this Act was rewritten by the Amendment Act of 2010, so an answer from an older text is wrong; section 11 in all five sub-sections with the exact monetary range; the separate and much heavier regime for specified goods in sections 14A to 14E, which most answers omit entirely; the confiscation power in section 11(6) to (9) and section 12; the adjudication and appeal machinery in sections 13, 15 and 16 with the pre-deposit; the credit of penalties to the Consolidated Fund under section 11A; and the fact that section 11B now refers to a Settlement Commission that ceased to exist on 1 April 2025.

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The statutory setting

The Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 replaced the Imports and Exports (Control) Act, 1947, and its penal chapter was substantially rewritten by the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2010 (Act 25 of 2010) with effect from 27 August 2010. Section 11 was substituted entire, sections 11A and 11B were inserted, and sections 14A to 14E were added, so the penal law of foreign trade as it now stands is essentially of 2010 vintage.

The obligations whose breach constitutes a contravention should be identified before the penalties. They are: section 7, no import or export except under an Importer-exporter Code Number; section 9, no import or export of restricted goods except under a licence, certificate, scrip or other instrument; section 11(1), no export or import except in accordance with the Act, the rules and orders made under it and the foreign trade policy for the time being in force; section 3 orders prohibiting, restricting or regulating import or export; and sections 14A to 14C, the controls on specified goods, services and technology.

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Section 11: the general penalty

Section 11(1) states the primary duty: no export or import shall be made by any person except in accordance with the provisions of the Act, the rules and orders made thereunder and the foreign trade policy for the time being in force.

Section 11(2) is the general penalty and the figures must be exact. Where any person makes or abets or attempts to make any export or import in contravention of any provision of the Act, or any rules or orders made under it, or the foreign trade policy, he shall be liable to a penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees and not more than five times the value of the goods or services or technology in respect of which the contravention is made or attempted to be made, whichever is more.

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Three points about that formula deserve comment. It sets a floor as well as a ceiling, which is unusual in Indian fiscal legislation and reflects a policy that no contravention should be treated as trivial. The ceiling is expressed as a multiple of value rather than of duty, which makes it far heavier than the customs penalty in section 112 for the same consignment. And the closing words "whichever is more" resolve the case where five times the value is less than ten thousand rupees, so that the floor always operates. The penalty attaches to abetment and attempt as well as to the completed act.

Section 11(3) covers false and forged documents. Where a person signs or uses, or causes to be made, signed or used, any declaration, statement or document submitted to the Director General or any authorised officer, knowing or having reason to believe that it is forged or tampered with or false in any material particular, he is liable to the same range of penalty. The mental element is "knowing or having reason to believe", so constructive knowledge suffices.

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Section 11(4) provides for settlement on admission. Where a person, on a notice from the Adjudicating Authority, admits any contravention, the Adjudicating Authority may, in such class of cases and in such manner as may be prescribed, determine by way of settlement an amount to be paid by that person. It is a compounding provision in substance, and it is the reason most contraventions under this Act do not proceed to a contested adjudication.

Section 11(5) provides the modes of recovery, and one of them is the practically important one. A penalty not paid may be recovered by the Director General deducting it from money owing to the person under the control of a subordinate officer; or by the Director General requiring an officer of customs to deduct the amount from any money owing to the person under the control of that officer of customs, as if the amount were payable under the Customs Act, 1962; and by the other modes the sub-section provides. The customs route is what makes recovery effective, because an exporter's drawback and scrip entitlements sit with the customs authorities.

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Sections 11(6) to (9) deal with confiscation. Goods, materials, equipment, plant or conveyance used in the contravention may be confiscated by the Adjudicating Authority, subject to the person being given an option to pay redemption charges equivalent to the market value of the goods; and section 11(9) provides that the penalty or redemption charges may be adjudged notwithstanding the confiscation. Section 12 makes clear that a penalty or confiscation under this Act does not interfere with other punishments to which the person is liable under any other law.

Section 11A, inserted in 2010, requires all sums realised by way of penalties under the Act to be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.

The special regime for specified goods: sections 14A to 14E

This is the part of the Act that most answers miss, and it is where the heaviest sanctions are. Sections 14A to 14E were inserted in 2010 to give statutory force to India's export control obligations in relation to dual-use and strategic items, the list known as SCOMET, Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies.

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Section 14A imposes controls on the export of specified goods, services and technology, requiring compliance with the conditions the Central Government specifies. Section 14B provides transfer controls, reaching re-transfers and transfers to third parties. Section 14C is the catch-all control, which is the most significant of the group: it reaches goods, services or technology not on any list where the exporter knows or has reason to believe that they are intended for use in connection with weapons of mass destruction or their delivery systems. Section 14D permits suspension or cancellation of a licence for specified goods.

Section 14E fixes the penalties, and its first sub-section is the point. In the case of a contravention relating to specified goods, services or technologies, the penalty shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005 (21 of 2005). That Act carries imprisonment, so a contravention of the SCOMET controls is not merely a monetary matter under section 11 but a criminal offence under separate legislation. Section 14E(2) provides for penalties in the other cases within the group.

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The structural point to make is that this Act now has two penal regimes: a monetary, civil regime under section 11 for ordinary trade contraventions, and a criminal regime routed to the 2005 Act for strategic goods. An answer that describes only the first has described half the law.

Adjudication, appeal and review

Section 13 makes the Adjudicating Authority the Director General or, subject to such limits as may be specified, such other officer as the Central Government may by notification authorise. Section 14 requires that the owner of the goods be given an opportunity of being heard before confiscation or penalty. Section 17 gives the Adjudicating and other authorities the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring production of documents and receiving evidence on affidavit.

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Section 15 provides the appeal, and its second proviso is the feature to emphasise. An appeal lies to the Central Government where the decision or order was made by the Director General, and to the Director General or a superior officer authorised by him where it was made by a subordinate officer, within forty-five days of service, with the first proviso allowing a further thirty days on sufficient cause. The second proviso is a mandatory pre-deposit: no appeal against a decision imposing a penalty or redemption charges shall be entertained unless the amount has been deposited by the appellant.

The third proviso permits the Appellate Authority, where the deposit would cause undue hardship, to dispense with it unconditionally or on conditions. Section 15(2) allows the Appellate Authority to confirm, modify or reverse the order or to remand, with a proviso that an order enhancing or imposing a penalty or redemption charges or confiscating goods of a greater value may not be made without an opportunity of representation and hearing.

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Section 16 provides for review. The Central Government, in the case of a decision or order of the Director General, or the Director General in the case of a decision or order of a subordinate officer, may on its or his own motion or otherwise call for and examine the records of any proceeding, to satisfy itself as to the correctness, legality or propriety of the decision, and make such order as is deemed fit. The proviso protects the citizen: no decision may be varied so as to prejudicially affect any person unless he has, within a period of two years from the date of the decision or order, received a show cause notice, and has been given a reasonable opportunity of representation and hearing. Before 2010 the marginal heading of section 15 was "REVISION"; the 2010 amendment reorganised the two remedies into an appeal in section 15 and a review in section 16.

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Section 8, though not strictly a penalty provision, is the heaviest sanction in the Act and belongs here. The Importer-exporter Code may be suspended or cancelled where the holder has contravened the Act, the rules or the foreign trade policy, or any other law relating to central excise or customs or foreign exchange, or has committed a notified economic offence, or has made an import or export prejudicial to India's trade relations, to the interests of other traders, or bringing disrepute to the country's goods; and under section 8(2) he may thereafter trade only under a special licence. Losing the code costs a trader his business, which no monetary penalty under section 11 does.

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A provision that is now out of date should be noticed. Section 11B, inserted in 2010, provides that a settlement of customs duty and interest ordered by the Settlement Commission constituted under section 32 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 shall be deemed to be a settlement under this Act, for the regularisation of an export obligation default. That Commission ceased to function on 1 April 2025 under the Finance Act 2025, its pending applications passing to an Interim Board for Settlement of three officers of the rank of Chief Commissioner or above with no judicial member. Section 11B therefore now refers to a body that no longer exists, and the route it provided for regularising an export obligation default has, so far as the statute is concerned, been left hanging.

The authority on the penalty discretion

On quantum and on the exercise of the power to penalise at all, the governing authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.

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But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.

Why it bears on this question. Section 11(2) sets a floor of ten thousand rupees and a ceiling of five times the value, which is one of the widest penalty ranges in Indian fiscal law. This decision governs how that discretion is exercised: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not to be imposed merely because it is lawful, and is not for a technical or venial breach or one flowing from a bona fide belief.

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The authority on the policy the penalties enforce

Union of India v. Indo-Afghan Agencies Ltd, AIR 1968 SC 718 is the decision that gave a trade scheme legal force against the Government that announced it. An exporter of woollen goods was promised import entitlements under an export promotion scheme, calculated on the value of what he exported. Having exported, he was granted an entitlement for a smaller amount, the authorities taking the view that the scheme bound nobody because it was executive and not statutory.

The Supreme Court held the Government bound by its representation. A scheme announced to traders, on the faith of which they act, cannot be departed from at will merely because it is administrative in form, and the plea of executive necessity is no answer. The decision is the origin of the modern law that a trade policy, though made by notification and amendable by notification, is not a licence to disappoint those who have already acted on it.

Why it bears on this question. Section 11(1) requires trade to be in accordance with the foreign trade policy, so the policy is the norm the penalty enforces. This decision establishes that such a scheme binds the Government as well as the trader, and that a person who has acted on it may hold it to its terms.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. The penal scheme of the 1992 Act is of 2010 vintage and it has two halves. The ordinary half is section 11: a duty in sub-section (1) to trade only in accordance with the Act, the rules and orders and the foreign trade policy; a penalty in sub-section (2) of not less than ten thousand rupees and not more than five times the value of the goods, services or technology, whichever is more, extending to abetment and attempt; the same range in sub-section (3) for a knowingly forged, tampered or materially false declaration; a settlement on admission under sub-section (4); recovery under sub-section (5), including through an officer of customs as if the amount were payable under the Customs Act; confiscation with redemption charges under sub-sections (6) to (9); and credit of all penalties to the Consolidated Fund of India under section 11A.

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The other half is the strategic regime in sections 14A to 14E, covering specified goods, transfer controls and the catch-all control that reaches unlisted items intended for weapons of mass destruction, with section 14E(1) routing the penalty to the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005, which carries imprisonment. Any answer confined to section 11 has described only the commercial half of the Act.

The remedies are adjudication by the Director General or a notified officer under section 13 after a hearing under section 14; an appeal under section 15 within forty-five days, extendable by thirty, but only on a mandatory pre-deposit of the penalty or redemption charges with a discretionary dispensation for undue hardship; and a review under section 16, exercisable suo motu but requiring a show cause notice within two years before any variation prejudicial to a person.

The sanction that actually disciplines traders, however, is not monetary at all: section 8 allows the Importer-exporter Code to be suspended or cancelled for a contravention of the customs or foreign exchange law, leaving the trader able to act only under a special licence. And section 11B, the Act's own route for regularising an export obligation default, now points at a Settlement Commission abolished on 1 April 2025.

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5)Examine the provisions related to contravention, penalties, adjudications and appeals under FEMA.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the life of a single contravention from detection to the High Court, which is the spine that best fits a question naming all four stages; investigation under section 37; the complaint under section 16(3) which founds jurisdiction; the penalty under section 13 with exact figures; the compounding exit under section 15 and the 2024 Rules; adjudication under section 16; the four appellate stages with the 2017 abolition of FEMA's own Tribunal; enforcement under section 14; and the special track for foreign assets under sections 13(1A) to (1D) and 37A.

Stage one: the contravention and its detection

A contravention is the breach of a substantive obligation, and the obligations are few. Section 3 forbids dealing in or transferring foreign exchange or foreign security to a person who is not an authorised person, making a payment to or for the credit of a person resident outside India, receiving a payment on behalf of a person resident outside India otherwise than through an authorised person, and entering into a financial transaction in India as consideration for acquiring an asset outside India.

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Section 4 forbids a person resident in India from acquiring, holding, owning, possessing or transferring foreign exchange, foreign security or immovable property outside India. Section 6 regulates capital account transactions; section 7 requires the export declaration; section 8 requires realisation and repatriation; section 10(5) and (6) impose duties on and through the authorised person.

Detection is usually not by the Directorate but by the reporting system. The authorised dealer bank reports inward investment through the Single Master Form and Forms FC-GPR and FC-TRS; the Reserve Bank's Export Data Processing and Monitoring System matches shipping bills filed under section 50 of the Customs Act against realisation; and an unmatched bill or an unfiled form is what generates most proceedings. Section 10(5) obliges the authorised person to satisfy himself, by declaration and information, that a transaction is not designed for a contravention, to refuse in writing if he is not satisfied, and to report the matter to the Reserve Bank if he has reason to believe that a contravention is contemplated.

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Section 37 provides the investigation power. The Director of Enforcement and officers not below the rank of Assistant Director shall take up for investigation the contravention referred to in section 13; the Central Government may by notification authorise other officers, not below the rank of an Under Secretary, to investigate; and by section 37(3) the officers exercise the like powers as are conferred on income-tax authorities under the Income-tax Act, 1961, subject to the limitations in that Act.

Section 38 allows the Central Government to authorise a customs officer, a central excise officer, a police officer or another officer to exercise the powers of an officer of Enforcement. Section 39 raises a presumption as to documents produced, seized, or received from outside India, covering handwriting, admissibility though unstamped, and, where the document was seized, the truth of its contents.

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Stage two: the penalty

Section 13(1) fixes the general penalty: on adjudication, a penalty up to thrice the sum involved where the amount is quantifiable, up to two lakh rupees where it is not, and where the contravention is continuing, a further penalty up to five thousand rupees for every day after the first day. There is no mens rea requirement, and the words "up to" mean that the maximum is a ceiling requiring the Authority to apply his mind to quantum.

Section 13(2) adds confiscation, of any currency, security or other money or property in respect of which the contravention took place, together with a direction that foreign exchange holdings be brought back into India or retained outside in accordance with directions. The Explanation extends "property" to bank deposits into which it was converted, to Indian currency into which it was converted, and to any other property resulting from the conversion.

Section 11(3) is a separate and much smaller penalty on an authorised person, up to ten thousand rupees with a continuing penalty up to two thousand rupees a day, for contravening a direction of the Reserve Bank or failing to file a return.

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Stage three: the compounding exit, which most contraventions take

Section 15(1) permits any contravention under section 13 to be compounded on the application of the person committing it, within one hundred and eighty days of receipt of the application, by the Director of Enforcement or such other officers of the Directorate of Enforcement and officers of the Reserve Bank as the Central Government may authorise. Section 15(2) provides that where a contravention has been compounded, no proceeding or further proceeding shall be initiated or continued in respect of it.

The governing rules are the Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2024, notified on 12 September 2024 in supersession of the 2000 Rules, made under section 46 read with section 15. They fix the compounding authorities and their monetary competence, the procedure and the post-compounding steps, raise the application fee from five thousand to ten thousand rupees plus goods and services tax, and permit digital payment.

One exclusion is absolute: section 37A(6) provides that nothing in section 15 applies to section 37A, so a case of undisclosed foreign assets cannot be compounded.

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Stage four: adjudication

Section 16(1) allows the Central Government, by order published in the Official Gazette, to appoint officers as Adjudicating Authorities, holding an inquiry in the prescribed manner after giving the person a reasonable opportunity of being heard, with a proviso permitting a direction to furnish a bond or guarantee where the person is likely to abscond or evade payment. Section 16(2) requires the same order to specify jurisdictions.

Section 16(3) is the jurisdictional foundation: no Adjudicating Authority shall hold an enquiry except upon a complaint in writing made by any officer authorised by a general or special order by the Central Government. Section 16(4) permits the person to appear in person or through a legal practitioner or chartered accountant. Section 16(5) gives the same civil court powers as the Appellate Tribunal has under section 28(2), and makes the proceedings judicial proceedings within sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code, the Authority being deemed a civil court for sections 345 and 346 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Section 16(6) requires an endeavour to dispose of the complaint within one year, with reasons recorded periodically if not.

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Stage five: appeals

Section 17: the Special Director (Appeals), appointed by notification with specified jurisdiction, hears appeals only from an Adjudicating Authority who is an Assistant Director or a Deputy Director of Enforcement, within forty-five days, extendable for sufficient cause. He may confirm, modify or set aside. Section 21 requires him to be from the Indian Legal Service in Grade I or the Indian Revenue Service at a post equivalent to Joint Secretary.

Section 18: the Appellate Tribunal, and the answer must be current. The Finance Act 2017, section 165, with effect from 26 May 2017, substituted section 18 so that the Appellate Tribunal constituted under section 12(1) of the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976 is the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of FEMA, and omitted sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30 and 31, which had provided for composition, term of office, vacancies, resignation and removal, a Member acting as Chairperson, distribution of business among Benches, transfer of cases and decision by majority.

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Section 19: the appeal. The Central Government or any person aggrieved by an order of an Adjudicating Authority other than those covered by section 17, or of the Special Director (Appeals), may appeal. The first proviso requires deposit of the penalty while filing; the second proviso permits the Tribunal to dispense with it on undue hardship, on conditions. The limitation is forty-five days, extendable. Section 19(5) requires an endeavour to dispose within one hundred and eighty days. Section 19(6) gives a suo motu revisional power over the legality, propriety or correctness of any section 16 order.

Section 28 governs procedure: not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, guided by natural justice, with civil court powers, and orders executable as a decree. Section 32, as substituted in 2017, now gives the right to a legal practitioner or chartered accountant only before the Special Director (Appeals), the words "Appellate Tribunal or the" having been removed.

Section 35: the High Court, within sixty days, on any question of law, with a further period not exceeding sixty days for sufficient cause. Section 34 excludes the civil courts and forbids injunctions.

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Stage six: enforcement, and the special track

Section 14 provides civil imprisonment where the penalty is not paid within ninety days of the demand, on a recorded satisfaction of dishonest disposal or of means and refusal, with production within twenty-four hours, a fifteen day last chance under the proviso to section 14(9), and terms under section 14(11) of up to three years above one crore rupees and up to six months otherwise. Section 14(12) preserves the debt but bars a second arrest. Section 14A, the recovery provision enacted by Act 28 of 2016, has never been notified into force.

The special track for foreign assets runs outside all of this. Section 37A permits an Authorised Officer to seize the value equivalent situated in India where he has reason to believe, recorded in writing, that foreign assets are held in contravention of section 4; the order goes to a Competent Authority not below Joint Secretary rank within thirty days; disposal is within one hundred and eighty days; an appeal lies direct to the Appellate Tribunal under section 37A(5); and compounding is excluded by section 37A(6). Sections 13(1A) to (1D) attach to the same class a penalty of three times the sum with confiscation, imprisonment up to five years and fine, and a requirement of a complaint by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Director.

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Section 42 supplies vicarious liability for companies and, through its Explanation, for firms; section 43 prevents abatement of a section 13 proceeding on death or insolvency, subject to the estate limit.

The case that fixes the character of the whole scheme

The modern authority on the civil character of a FEMA breach is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, and it is worth working out because it decides the point in a commercial setting rather than in an enforcement one. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress.

An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.

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The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.

Why it bears on this question. It answers the question the stem raises about all four stages at once. Contravention, penalty, adjudication and appeal under FEMA are the machinery of a corrective jurisdiction, and the Supreme Court has treated the availability of compounding under section 15 as the reason a contravention does not offend the fundamental policy of Indian law.

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The authority on the penalty stage

On quantum and on the exercise of the power to penalise at all, the governing authority is Hindustan Steel Ltd v. State of Orissa, (1969) 2 SCC 627, decided on 4 August 1969. A government undertaking sold bricks, steel and cement, which it had procured for its own construction, to the contractors building its factory, and was assessed to sales tax as a dealer and penalised for failing to register. It was held liable to the tax.

But the penalty was set aside, and the reasoning is general. A penalty is quasi-criminal; the authority is not bound to impose one merely because it is lawful to do so; and a penalty should not be imposed for a technical or venial breach, or where the breach flows from a bona fide belief that the person is not liable. What is required is deliberate defiance of the law, contumacious or dishonest conduct, or a conscious disregard of obligation.

Why it bears on this question. Section 13 gives a ceiling and not a tariff, and this decision states the principle that governs the discretion: a penalty is quasi-criminal, is not automatic, and is not for a technical or venial breach or one flowing from a bona fide belief.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. Traced from beginning to end, a FEMA contravention passes through six stages and the Act controls each. It begins as a breach of one of the few substantive obligations in sections 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 and 10, and is usually detected not by an investigator but by the reporting system, the authorised dealer's duty to refuse and report under section 10(5), and the matching of shipping bills against realisation. It is investigated under section 37 with income-tax powers and no power of arrest.

The consequence is a civil penalty under section 13, up to thrice the sum where quantifiable, up to two lakh rupees where not, five thousand rupees a day if continuing, with confiscation under section 13(2) extended by its Explanation to whatever the property has become. Most contraventions never get further, because section 15 permits compounding within one hundred and eighty days, now under the 2024 Rules, and section 15(2) closes the matter for good.

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Where the matter is adjudicated, section 16 requires a written complaint by an authorised officer, a hearing, representation by counsel or a chartered accountant, and an endeavour to decide within a year. Appeal lies to the Special Director (Appeals) under section 17 only from an Assistant or Deputy Director, then to the Appellate Tribunal under section 19 on deposit of the penalty unless undue hardship is shown, that Tribunal being since 26 May 2017 the SAFEMA Tribunal under a substituted section 18 with sections 20, 22, 24, 25, 26 and 29 to 31 omitted, and finally to the High Court under section 35 within sixty days on a question of law alone, with section 34 excluding the civil courts.

Enforcement is by civil imprisonment under section 14, capped at three years above one crore rupees and six months below, section 14A having never been brought into force. Running outside the whole of that is the section 37A track for assets held abroad in contravention of section 4, where equivalent Indian assets may be seized, a Competent Authority of Joint Secretary rank decides within one hundred and eighty days, an appeal lies straight to the Tribunal, imprisonment up to five years is available under section 13(1C), and compounding is expressly excluded.

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6)Explain the provisions related to duty not levied, short levied or erroneously refunded under the Customs Act.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: section 28 in its present structure, which was recast in 2011 and again in 2018, so an answer must set out the two limbs, the ordinary and the extended period; the relevant date and the meaning of the expression; the voluntary payment provisions in section 28(1)(b) and 28(5) which close proceedings without adjudication; the six-month and one-year determination limits in section 28(9) with the 2018 proviso; interest under sections 28AA and 28AAA; the Canon India question of who may issue the notice and its reversal on review; and section 28A's power not to recover in cases of general practice.

The structure of section 28

Section 28 deals with the recovery of duties not levied, not paid, short levied, short paid or erroneously refunded, and its architecture is a division between innocent short payment and fraudulent short payment.

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Section 28(1) is the ordinary limb. Where any duty has not been levied or not paid, or has been short levied or short paid, or erroneously refunded, or where interest payable has not been paid, part paid or erroneously refunded, for any reason other than the reasons of collusion or any wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, the proper officer shall, within two years from the relevant date, serve a notice on the person chargeable requiring him to show cause why he should not pay the amount specified.

Section 28(4) is the extended limb. Where the non-levy, short levy or erroneous refund is by reason of collusion, or any wilful mis-statement, or suppression of facts by the importer or exporter or his agent or employee, the notice may be served within five years from the relevant date.

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The two limbs are not alternatives at the department's choice, and this is the point on which most demands are challenged. The extended period is available only if one of the three states of affairs actually exists, and the notice must plead the ingredient with particulars. Mere failure to disclose is not suppression; suppression imports a deliberate withholding with intent to evade. A demand for five years founded on a bare recital that the assessee suppressed facts is bad, and the department must be able to point to what was withheld and why the withholding was wilful.

The "relevant date" is defined in section 28(3), and its identification decides limitation. Where duty is not levied or short levied, or interest is not charged, it is the date on which the proper officer makes an order for clearance of the goods; where duty or interest is provisionally assessed, the date of adjustment of duty after the final assessment; where duty or interest is erroneously refunded, the date of refund; and in any other case, the date of payment of duty or interest.

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The voluntary payment routes

Section 28(1)(b) permits payment before notice. The person chargeable may, before the service of notice, pay on the basis of his own ascertainment or the amount ascertained by the proper officer, the duty with interest under section 28AA, and inform the proper officer in writing. Where he does so, the proper officer shall not serve any notice in respect of the amount so paid, and the proceedings are deemed concluded, subject to a proviso allowing a notice for any amount that falls short.

Section 28(5) is the parallel route in a suppression case, and its terms are stricter. Where a notice has been served under section 28(4), the person may pay the duty in full or in part as accepted by him, the interest payable, and a penalty equal to fifteen per cent of the duty specified in the notice or the duty accepted by him, within thirty days of receipt of the notice, and inform the proper officer in writing. On such payment, the proceedings in respect of the person and other persons to whom the notice is served under sections 135, 135A and 140 shall be deemed to be concluded. The fifteen per cent penalty is the price of closing a fraud case without adjudication, and the concomitant closure of the criminal proceedings against the noticee and others is the real inducement.

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Section 28(2) is the corresponding provision for the ordinary limb, under which on payment of the duty and interest the proceedings are deemed concluded.

Determination, and the time limits on the officer

Section 28(8) requires the proper officer, after considering the representation, to determine the amount of duty or interest due, not exceeding the amount specified in the notice.

Section 28(9) puts the officer under a clock and it is the most important protection in the section. The proper officer shall determine the amount within six months from the date of notice in a case falling under section 28(1), and within one year in a case falling under section 28(4), where it is possible to do so. The proviso, as it now stands, allows the period to be extended by a further six months or one year respectively by an officer senior in rank, for reasons recorded in writing, and the second proviso requires the proper officer to inform the person of the grounds for the extension.

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Section 28(9A) suspends the running of that period where the proper officer is unable to determine the amount because a stay has been granted by a court or tribunal, or the Board has issued a direction under section 151A, or the Settlement Commission has admitted an application. The suspension is significant because the third of those grounds has been overtaken by events: the Settlement Commission ceased to operate on 1 April 2025 under the Finance Act 2025, its work passing to an Interim Board for Settlement, so a reference in section 28(9A) that mattered for twenty-five years is now spent for new cases.

Section 28(10) provides that where the officer does not determine within the period, the proceedings are deemed to have concluded as if no notice had been issued, which is a genuine sanction on delay and one of the few in the Act.

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Interest

Section 28AA imposes interest on delayed payment of duty. Where any duty is not paid or short paid or erroneously refunded, the person liable shall, in addition to the duty, pay interest at the rate fixed by the Central Government, not below ten per cent and not exceeding thirty-six per cent per annum, from the first day of the month succeeding the month in which the duty ought to have been paid or from the date of the erroneous refund, until payment. The liability is automatic and does not depend on any finding of default.

Section 28AAA is the anti-abuse provision for instruments. Where an instrument issued to a person has been obtained by means of collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, the duty relatable to its utilisation may be recovered from the person to whom the instrument was issued, with interest, without prejudice to any action against the importer who used it. The section closes the gap by which a scrip obtained by fraud could be transferred to an innocent importer, leaving the department with no one to proceed against.

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Section 28B requires a person who has collected any amount in excess of the duty assessed or determined, representing it as duty, to pay it over to the Central Government, which prevents an importer from keeping a sum he has recovered from his buyer as duty but never paid.

Who may issue the notice: the Canon India question

The identity of "the proper officer" in section 28 was the most litigated question in this area between 2011 and 2024, and the sequence must be given accurately.

In Commissioner of Customs v. Sayed Ali, (2011) 3 SCC 537, the Supreme Court held that only an officer assigned the function of assessment could be the proper officer under section 28, and that a Collector of Customs (Preventive) who had not been so assigned could not issue a notice. Parliament responded by inserting section 28(11) with retrospective effect, declaring all persons appointed as officers of customs under section 4(1) before 6 July 2011 to be proper officers.

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In Canon India Pvt. Ltd v. Commissioner of Customs, decided on 9 March 2021, digital still image video cameras had been cleared exempt and the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence later issued notices under section 28 alleging wrongful exemption. The Supreme Court quashed them, reasoning that section 28 speaks of "the proper officer", with the definite article, so that only the officer who had assessed, or his successor in that office, could re-open; and the DRI officer, never having assessed, could not.

Parliament amended sections 2(34), 3 and 5 by the Finance Act 2022 and enacted a retrospective validation. Then, on 7 November 2024, a three-judge Bench allowed the review and reversed the 2021 decision, holding that section 2(34), which defines the proper officer as an officer to whom functions have been assigned by the Board or the Commissioner, must be read harmoniously with section 6, which permits the entrustment of functions to diverse classes of officers, so that DRI officers to whom the function has been validly allocated are competent to issue notices under section 28. Demands of the order of Rs 20,000 crore that had been held up were released.

The practical lesson is one about currency. An answer written in 2026 that states Canon India as good law states a judgment that has been recalled, and that single error will cost more marks than any omission.

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The relief provision

Section 28A is a genuine and often forgotten protection. If the Central Government is satisfied that a practice was, or is, generally prevalent regarding the levy of duty on any goods, including a practice under which such goods were not levied or were short levied, it may, by notification, direct that the whole of the duty payable on such goods, but for that practice, shall not be required to be paid in respect of the goods on which the duty was not levied or was short levied in accordance with that practice. It is the statutory recognition that an assessee who followed a settled departmental practice should not be penalised when the practice is later found to be wrong.

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Conclusion

Conclusion. Section 28 is the Act's recovery provision and its whole structure turns on a distinction between innocence and fraud. Where the short levy arose for any reason other than collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression, the notice must issue within two years of the relevant date under section 28(1); where it arose by reason of any of those three, within five years under section 28(4), and the ingredient must be pleaded with particulars because mere non-disclosure is not suppression. The relevant date is fixed by section 28(3), and in the ordinary case it is the date of the order for clearance.

The Act provides two exits without adjudication. Under section 28(1)(b) a person may pay before notice on his own ascertainment with interest and no notice then issues; under section 28(5) a person served with a fraud notice may, within thirty days, pay the duty, the interest and a penalty of fifteen per cent, whereupon the proceedings, including those against other persons under sections 135, 135A and 140, are deemed concluded. On the officer's side section 28(9) requires determination within six months or one year respectively, extendable once for reasons recorded and communicated, and the second proviso to section 28(9) treats the proceedings as concluded if he fails.

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Interest is automatic under section 28AA at a rate between ten and thirty-six per cent, section 28AAA reaches the person who obtained an instrument by fraud even where an innocent importer used it, and section 28B requires an excess collected as duty to be paid over. On who may issue the notice, Sayed Ali in 2011 and Canon India in 2021 both restricted the power, Parliament twice legislated to restore it, and the review judgment of 7 November 2024 finally settled that an officer to whom the function is validly allocated under section 6, including an officer of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, is a proper officer under section 28. Against all of that, section 28A remains as the one provision that protects an assessee who did no more than follow a generally prevalent practice.

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7)Write notes on any three (3) of the following:[25]

  • (a) Capital Account Transactions.
  • (b) Foreign Direct Investment.
  • (c) Settlement Commission.
  • (d) Option to pay in lieu of confiscation under Customs Act.
  • (e) Warehousing Regulations.

Answer

For full marks, cover: all five notes to about six marks each; for (c) the note that decides this question in 2026, namely that the Settlement Commission ceased to exist on 1 April 2025, which a candidate writing from a textbook will not know; for (d) the may and shall distinction in section 125 with the 2018 time limit; for (e) the 2016 Regulations and the MOOWR scheme, not merely Chapter IX; and for (a) and (b) the 2019 restructuring of section 6.

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(a) Capital account transactions

Section 2(e) defines a capital account transaction as a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India, or assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India, and includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of section 6. The closing words are a dead cross-reference, because section 6(3) was omitted with effect from 15 October 2019.

The substantive test is the alteration of a cross-border balance-sheet position: a resident buying shares abroad, a non-resident subscribing to Indian equity, a resident borrowing abroad, or a guarantee given for a foreign subsidiary, the last being caught because contingent liabilities are expressly included.

Section 6(1) permits any person to sell or draw foreign exchange for a capital account transaction, subject to sub-section (2). Section 6(2) leaves debt instruments with the Reserve Bank, which may specify permissible classes, limits and conditions in consultation with the Central Government. Section 6(2A), inserted on 15 October 2019, gives the Central Government power to prescribe permissible classes not involving debt instruments. Section 6(7) leaves the definition of "debt instruments" to the Central Government in consultation with the Bank.

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The proviso to section 6(2) forbids either regulator from restricting the drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of amortisation of loans or depreciation of direct investments in the ordinary course of business. Sections 6(4) and (5) grandfather assets lawfully acquired while the holder was on the other side of the residence line; section 6(6) lets the Reserve Bank regulate the establishment of a branch, office or place of business in India by a person resident outside India.

The instruments are the Non-debt Instruments Rules, 2019 of the Central Government, the Debt Instruments Regulations, 2019 of the Reserve Bank and the Mode of Payment and Reporting Regulations, 2019, with section 47(3) saving the Bank's earlier regulations until amended or rescinded.

(b) Foreign Direct Investment

Foreign direct investment is a capital account transaction, being a non-resident's acquisition of an asset in India, and since 15 October 2019 it is governed by rules of the Central Government under section 6(2A) rather than by regulations of the Reserve Bank. The Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 are the operative instrument.

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Two routes. Under the automatic route no prior approval is needed and the investee company reports after the event. Under the Government route prior approval of the administrative ministry is required, obtained through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal since the Foreign Investment Promotion Board was abolished in 2017.

Prohibited sectors include lottery and gambling and betting including casinos, chit funds, Nidhi companies, trading in transferable development rights, real estate business or construction of farm houses, manufacture of cigars and tobacco substitutes, and sectors closed to private investment such as atomic energy and railway operations other than the permitted segments.

Press Note 3 of 2020, dated 17 April 2020, requires an entity of a country sharing a land border with India, or one whose beneficial owner is situated in or is a citizen of such a country, to invest only under the Government route, and applies the same rule to a transfer of ownership resulting in such beneficial ownership. It was introduced against opportunistic acquisitions when valuations fell at the onset of the pandemic and has become a permanent feature.

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Reporting is where most contraventions arise: the receipt of consideration and Form FC-GPR on allotment, Form FC-TRS on a resident to non-resident transfer, and the annual return on foreign liabilities and assets, all through the Single Master Form. Delay is a contravention under section 13 and is ordinarily compounded under section 15 and the 2024 Rules.

(c) Settlement Commission

This note must begin with the fact that the institution no longer exists, because a candidate who describes it in the present tense in 2026 is describing a body that was wound up on 1 April 2025.

What it was. Chapter XIV-A of the Customs Act, sections 127A to 127N, provided for the Customs and Central Excise Settlement Commission. Under section 127B an importer, exporter or other person could, at any stage of a case relating to him and before adjudication, apply to the Commission to have the case settled, on making a full and true disclosure of his duty liability which he had not disclosed before the proper officer, and on satisfying the conditions the section imposed, including that a bill of entry or shipping bill had been filed, that a show cause notice had been issued, and that the additional amount of duty accepted exceeded the prescribed threshold.

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The machinery. Section 127C governed the procedure on receipt of an application, including admission, the calling of a report from the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, and the passing of an order of settlement. Section 127D gave power to order provisional attachment to protect the revenue. Section 127F gave the Commission the powers of the Customs officers and exclusive jurisdiction once an application was admitted. Section 127H was the reason applications were made at all: power to grant immunity from prosecution and from the imposition of penalty and fine, wholly or in part, subject to conditions and liable to be withdrawn where the applicant had not co-operated or had concealed particulars. Section 127I allowed a case to be sent back to the proper officer, and section 127M made the proceedings judicial proceedings.

Why it mattered. It was the only forum that could resolve a person's civil and criminal exposure in one proceeding. Adjudication could settle duty, confiscation and penalty; only the Commission could also close the prosecution, because compounding under section 137(3) is available on different terms and to fewer people.

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Its abolition. The Finance Act 2025 discontinued the Settlement Commission. It ceased to receive applications after 31 March 2025 and ceased to operate from 1 April 2025, and Chapter XIV-A was amended to transfer the pending applications to an Interim Board for Settlement, which takes them at the stage they had reached. The Interim Board consists of three officers of the rank of Chief Commissioner or above nominated by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, and it has no judicial member. The stated reason was that the graded penalty scheme and the compounding provisions had rendered the Commission redundant.

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The two consequences to state. A quasi-judicial settlement forum has become an executive one, and immunity from prosecution can no longer be obtained by settlement, leaving compounding under section 137(3) as the only route, subject to the provisos that exclude one allowed to compound once in respect of an offence under sections 135 or 135A, one accused of an offence which is also an offence under the narcotics, chemical weapons, arms or wild life protection legislation, one involved in smuggling SCOMET items, ITC (HS) prohibited items or goods affecting friendly relations, one allowed to compound once where the value exceeded one crore rupees, and one convicted under the Act on or after 30 December 2005. Section 11B of the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, which deemed a settlement by that Commission to be a settlement under that Act for regularising an export obligation default, now refers to a body that no longer exists.

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(d) Option to pay a fine in lieu of confiscation

Section 125 is the safety valve of the confiscation scheme. Whenever confiscation of any goods is authorised by the Act, the officer adjudging it may, in the case of goods the importation or exportation of which is prohibited under this Act or any other law for the time being in force, and shall, in the case of any other goods, give to the owner of the goods, or where the owner is not known, to the person from whose possession or custody the goods have been seized, an option to pay in lieu of confiscation such fine as the officer thinks fit.

The may and shall distinction is the whole point of the section, and its rationale should be given. Where the goods are not prohibited, the State's interest is fiscal and forfeiting goods that could lawfully have been imported on payment of duty would be disproportionate, so redemption must be offered. Where the goods are prohibited, the State's interest is regulatory, and compelling redemption would let a person buy his way into possession of goods the law excludes, so the officer keeps a discretion.

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The discretion under the "may" limb must be exercised judicially, having regard to the nature of the prohibition, whether it is absolute or conditional, and the conduct of the importer. Goods prohibited for public health or safety are rarely released; goods restricted for trade policy reasons, where a licence could have been obtained, frequently are.

The ceiling is in the first proviso: the fine shall not exceed the market price of the goods confiscated, less in the case of imported goods the duty chargeable thereon. Section 125(2) provides that the owner is liable, in addition to the fine, to pay any duty and charges payable in respect of the goods, so redemption is an alternative to forfeiture and not to duty. Section 125(3), inserted with effect from 29 March 2018, provides that where the fine is not paid within one hundred and twenty days of the option, the option becomes void, except where an appeal against the order is pending.

Section 126 vests confiscated goods in the Central Government, and section 150 governs sale, applying the proceeds to the expenses of sale, then freight and charges, then duty, then charges of the custodian, then dues from the owner, and the balance to the owner.

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(e) Warehousing Regulations

Chapter IX of the Customs Act, sections 57 to 73A, and the regulations made under it, permit dutiable goods to be deposited without payment of duty, and the point of the scheme is that the rate crystallises on removal rather than on importation.

Three kinds of warehouse are licensed. A public warehouse under section 57, where any importer may deposit; a private warehouse under section 58, for goods imported by or on behalf of the licensee; and a special warehouse under section 58A, for goods notified by the Board, which is locked by the proper officer and where no person may enter or remove goods without his permission. Section 58B provides for cancellation of a licence.

The operative regulations, all of 2016, should be named because the question asks about regulations. The Warehouse (Custody and Handling of Goods) Regulations, 2016; the Special Warehouse (Custody and Handling of Goods) Regulations, 2016; the Public Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016; the Private Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016; and the Special Warehouse Licensing Regulations, 2016. They govern the licensee's obligations of security, record-keeping, appointment of a warehouse keeper, maintenance of digital records, and the execution of a bond and insurance.

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Section 59 requires a bond in a sum equal to three times the duty assessed, with an undertaking to comply with the conditions, to pay the duty with interest, and to pay all penalties and fines. Section 60 governs the order permitting deposit.

Section 61 fixes the periods. For capital goods intended for use in a hundred per cent export oriented undertaking, an electronic hardware technology park unit, a software technology park unit or a warehouse where manufacture is permitted under section 65, until clearance; for other goods in such units, until consumption or clearance; and for any other goods, one year from the order under section 60, extendable by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, on sufficient cause being shown, by not more than one year at a time, and reducible where the goods are likely to deteriorate. Interest is payable under section 61(2) where goods remain beyond ninety days.

Section 64 gives the owner the right, with the sanction of the proper officer and on payment of fees, to inspect the goods, separate damaged or deteriorated goods, sort or change their containers, deal with them to prevent loss or deterioration, show them for sale and take samples.

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Section 65 is the provision of greatest commercial importance. It permits manufacture and other operations in relation to warehoused goods in a warehouse, with the sanction of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner and subject to prescribed conditions. It is the statutory basis of the Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse Regulations, 2019, under which a manufacturer imports inputs and capital goods without paying duty, manufactures inside the bonded warehouse, and pays duty on the imported inputs only when the finished goods enter the domestic market, or no duty at all if they are exported.

Clearance is under section 68 for home consumption, on a bill of entry, payment of duty, interest, fine and penalties and an order of clearance, with a proviso permitting relinquishment of title before the order of clearance, in which case the owner is not liable to duty, save where an offence appears to have been committed; and under section 69 for export, on a shipping bill or bill of export and payment of export duty and charges.

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Sections 71 to 73A close the chapter: section 71 forbids removal except as provided; section 72 deals with improperly removed goods, permitting the proper officer to demand the full duty with interest, fine and penalties and, on failure, to detain and sell so much of the goods as is sufficient; section 73 provides for cancellation and return of the bond; and section 73A places warehoused goods in the custody of the licensee, who is responsible for them until clearance and liable, where goods are removed in contravention of section 71, to pay duty, interest, fine and penalties.

The authority on what happens when the warehousing period runs out

Kesoram Rayon v. Collector of Customs, (1996) 5 SCC 576 decides the question the warehousing chapter most often throws up in practice. Goods were warehoused and were not cleared within the period permitted under section 61. The rate of duty rose before they were eventually removed, and the importer argued that duty should be charged at the rate current when the warehousing period expired rather than at the higher rate.

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The Supreme Court held that goods not removed within the permitted period are deemed to have been improperly removed under section 72 on the day the period expired, so that is the date by reference to which the rate of duty is determined, and the date on which the duty is in fact demanded or the goods physically taken away is irrelevant.

Why it bears on this question. It supplies the point the warehousing note is incomplete without. The chapter works because the rate crystallises on removal under section 68, and this decision fixes what happens when there is no removal: the goods are deemed improperly removed under section 72 on the day the period expired, and that is the date by reference to which duty is computed.

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The authority behind the foreign exchange notes

A second authority is Vijay Karia v. Prysmian Cavi e Sistemi SRL, (2020) 11 SCC 1, the leading modern decision on what follows when the foreign exchange rules are broken. The facts are worth setting out because they are a foreign exchange case in commercial dress. An Italian cable manufacturer and its Indian joint venture partners fell out; the London Court of International Arbitration made awards directing the Indian shareholders to sell their shares to the foreign party at a discount to fair market value. Enforcement in India was resisted under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the ground that a sale to a non-resident at a discounted price offends the exchange control law, then the pricing guidelines and now the Non-debt Instruments Rules, and so is contrary to the public policy of India.

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The Supreme Court enforced the awards. It held that a contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law, and that a breach of FEMA or of the rules made under it does not reach that threshold. The reason given is the one that matters for this answer: a FEMA contravention is remediable, because permission may be granted after the event and the contravention may be compounded under section 15, so the transaction is not void and the law is not defied by enforcing the award.

Why it bears on this question. It is the decision in which a capital account transaction was actually litigated to the Supreme Court, a transfer of shares by residents to a non-resident at a discount said to break the pricing rules, and it settles what follows: the contravention is remediable and compoundable rather than void.

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The case that fixes the character of a foreign exchange contravention: MCTM Corporation

The decision that settles what kind of wrong a foreign exchange contravention is, is Director of Enforcement v. MCTM Corporation (P) Ltd, (1996) 2 SCC 471. A company had been penalised under section 23(1)(a) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 for a contravention of section 10 of that Act, and it argued that no penalty could be imposed on it without proof that it had meant to break the law.

The Supreme Court rejected that argument and drew the line that still governs. A proceeding to adjudicate a penalty is a proceeding for the breach of a civil obligation, not a criminal prosecution, and mens rea is therefore not an essential ingredient of it. What has to be shown is blameworthy conduct, and the Court held that the delinquency of the defaulter itself establishes that conduct: once the contravention is proved, the penalty follows without any further proof of a guilty mind. The Court was careful to say that this is not a relaxation of proof but a difference in the nature of the proceeding, so that the two jurisdictions, penalty and prosecution, ask different questions of the same facts.

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Why it bears on this question. For a note-length answer the case supplies the one proposition that ties the FEMA definitions together. Every one of these concepts is a civil category. Because the liability created by section 13 is a breach of a civil obligation for which no guilty intention need be shown, the definitions are drafted as tests of fact, a day count for residence, a balance-sheet test for a capital account transaction, an enumerated list for a person, and the adjudication asks only whether the facts fall within them.

Conclusion

Conclusion. The five notes divide between the two statutes. Under FEMA, a capital account transaction is one that alters cross-border assets or liabilities including contingent liabilities, and its regulation was split on 15 October 2019, debt instruments remaining with the Reserve Bank under section 6(2) and non-debt instruments passing to the Central Government under section 6(2A), leaving section 2(e) pointing at an omitted sub-section. Foreign direct investment is the principal such transaction, governed now by the Non-debt Instruments Rules, 2019, delivered through the automatic and Government routes, closed in a short list of sectors, and subject since Press Note 3 of 2020 to Government approval wherever the beneficial owner sits in a land-border country.

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Under the Customs Act, the Settlement Commission is the note that must be answered as history. It offered, uniquely, immunity from prosecution and from penalty and fine under section 127H on a full and true disclosure, and it was the only forum that could dispose of civil and criminal exposure together. It ceased to accept applications after 31 March 2025 and ceased to operate from 1 April 2025, its pending work passing to an Interim Board of three officers of Chief Commissioner rank with no judicial member, so compounding under section 137(3) is now the only route to immunity.

Section 125 remains the safety valve of the confiscation scheme, requiring the offer of a fine in lieu where the goods are not prohibited and permitting it where they are, capped at market price less duty, with duty payable in addition and the option lapsing after one hundred and twenty days since 29 March 2018. And Chapter IX with the 2016 licensing and custody Regulations makes the warehouse a duty-deferment device, at its most valuable in section 65 and the Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse Regulations, 2019, under which goods can be made in India from duty-free imported inputs and the duty paid only if the product is sold here.

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