Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2021-22 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2021-22 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2021-22 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject four changes make that worth saying. Section 89, on settling a suit outside the court, was replaced outright by Schedule IV to the Mediation Act, 2023. The Supreme Court, by its order of 10 January 2022, excluded 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period of limitation, which is enough to reverse the answer to a problem in this folder, and that answer works both figures so the reader can see why. Adverse possession became a sword as well as a shield in 2019, and it is set in four of these papers. The United Arab Emirates was notified a reciprocating territory under Section 44A in January 2020. One smaller change is noted where it arises: the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 put 'speed post with registration and proof of delivery' in place of 'registered post acknowledgement due' in Section 148A and in Orders V, XXI and XXXIX, from 20 December 2025, one day after the 2025-26 regular paper was sat.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2021-22 examination, in the order it was set.
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The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2021-22 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
28 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Multiple choice questions
Answer
The answer is (a), it may be rejected.
Order VII Rule 11(a) provides that the plaint shall be rejected where it does not disclose a cause of action. The word in the rule is "shall": once the court is satisfied that the plaint, read as it stands, discloses no cause of action, rejection follows.
Answer
The answer is (d), where the Plaintiff resides.
Section 19 provides that where a suit is for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable property, and the wrong was done within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, within the local limits of the jurisdiction of another court, the suit may be instituted at the option of the plaintiff in either of the said courts.
The two options the section gives are therefore the place where the wrong was done and the place connected with the defendant. The plaintiff's own residence is not one of them.
Answer
The answer is (d), at or before settlement of Issues.
Section 21(1) provides that no objection as to the place of suing shall be allowed by any appellate or revisional court unless such objection was taken in the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity and, in all cases where issues are settled, at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
Answer
The answer is (a), a judgment of a foreign Court.
Section 2(6) provides that "foreign judgment" means the judgment of a foreign court, and section 2(5) provides that "foreign court" means a court situate outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.
Answer
The scan of this paper is missing a page, and options (c) and (d) of this question are on it. Only options (a) and (b) survive, and both are wrong, so the answer has to be given as law rather than as a letter.
The correct answer is that issues arise out of the plaint and the written statement together, that is, out of the material propositions of fact or law affirmed by one party and denied by the other.
Order XIV Rule 1(1): issues arise when a material proposition of fact or law is affirmed by the one party and denied by the other.
Rule 1(2): material propositions are those propositions of law or fact which a plaintiff must allege in order to show a right to sue, or a defendant must allege in order to constitute his defence.
Rule 1(3): each material proposition affirmed by one party and denied by the other shall form the subject of a distinct issue.
Rule 1(5): at the first hearing of the suit the court shall, after reading the plaint and the written statements and after examination under Rule 2 of Order X and after hearing the parties or their pleaders, ascertain upon what material propositions of fact or of law the parties are at variance, and shall thereupon proceed to frame and record the issues on which the right decision of the case appears to depend.
So an issue cannot arise out of the plaint alone, because an allegation that is not denied raises no issue at all; and it cannot arise out of the written statement alone, because there is nothing to deny. It takes both: an affirmation and a denial. Options (a) and (b) each describe half of the requirement, and each is wrong for that reason.
Answer
The answer is (d), to suits as well as execution proceedings.
Explanation VII to section 11, inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976, provides that the provisions of this section shall apply to a proceeding for the execution of a decree, and that references in this section to any suit, issue or former suit shall be construed as references, respectively, to a proceeding for the execution of the decree, question arising in such proceeding and a former proceeding for the execution of that decree.
Answer
The answer is (d), all civil courts.
Section 151 provides that nothing in this Code shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the Court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court. The section says "the Court", without qualification, and the Code applies to all civil courts; so the inherent power is saved to every civil court, from the court of the Civil Judge upwards, and not to any particular grade.
Answer
The answer is (c), when it appears that there is not sufficient ground for a review.
Order XLVII Rule 4(1) provides that where it appears to the court that there is not sufficient ground for a review, it shall reject the application.
Answer
The answer is (a), an open court.
Section 153B provides that the place in which any Civil Court is held for the purpose of trying any suit shall be deemed to be an open Court, to which the public generally may have access so far as the same can conveniently contain them. The proviso permits the presiding Judge, if he thinks fit, to order at any stage of any inquiry into or trial of any particular case, that the public generally, or any particular person, shall not have access to, or be or remain in, the room or building used by the Court.
Answer
The answer is (a), a continuation of original proceedings.
An appeal is a rehearing of the suit by a superior court, and the settled principle is that an appeal is a continuation of the suit. Section 107(2) puts it in statutory form: the Appellate Court shall have the same powers and shall perform as nearly as may be the same duties as are conferred and imposed by this Code on Courts of original jurisdiction in respect of suits instituted therein.
Answer
The answer is (c), substantial.
Section 100(1) provides that an appeal shall lie to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any court subordinate to the High Court if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law. The word in the section is "substantial" and nothing more.
Answer
The answer is (c), 90 days.
Section 148A(5) provides that where a caveat has been lodged under sub-section (1), such caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged, unless the application referred to in sub-section (1) has been made before the expiry of the said period.
Answer
The answer is (b), the State Government.
Section 137(1) provides that the language which, on the commencement of this Code, is the language of any Court subordinate to a High Court shall continue to be the language of such subordinate Court until the State Government otherwise directs. Sub-section (2): the State Government may declare what shall be the language of any such Court and in what character applications to and proceedings in such Courts shall be written. Sub-section (3): where this Code requires or allows anything other than the recording of evidence to be done in writing in any such Court, such writing may be in English; but if any party or his pleader is unacquainted with English, a translation into the language of the Court shall, at his request, be supplied to him, and the court shall make such order as it thinks fit in respect of the costs of the translation.
Answer
The answer is (b), a Second Appeal may lie from an appellate decree passed ex parte.
Section 100(2) provides in terms that an appeal may lie under this section from an appellate decree passed ex parte.
Answer
The answer is (a), an Interim Order.
Section 109 provides that, subject to such conditions and limitations as may be specified in the Constitution, an appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court, if the High Court certifies (i) that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance, and (ii) that in the opinion of the High Court the said question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.
The section names three kinds of adjudication: a judgment, a decree and a final order. An interim or interlocutory order is not among them, and no appeal lies from one under the Code.
Answer
The answer is (d), Revision.
Section 115(1) provides that the High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies thereto, and if such subordinate court appears (a) to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or (b) to have failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or (c) to have acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity, the High Court may make such order in the case as it thinks fit.
The three clauses are, in the words of the question, excess of jurisdiction, failure of jurisdiction, and abuse or irregular exercise of jurisdiction. That mapping is exact, and it is why the answer is revision.
Answer
The answer is (c), either on an application made by any of the parties or on its own motion.
Order XLVI Rule 1 provides that where, before or on the hearing of a suit or an appeal in which the decree is not subject to appeal, or where, in the execution of any such decree, any question of law or usage having the force of law arises, on which the court trying the suit or appeal, or executing the decree, entertains reasonable doubt, the court may, either of its own motion or on the application of any of the parties, draw up a statement of the facts of the case and the point on which doubt is entertained, and refer such statement with its own opinion on the point for the decision of the High Court.
Answer
The answer is (b), for 20 years.
Section 25(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement, and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years, and where any way or watercourse, or the use of any water, or any other easement, whether affirmative or negative, has been peaceably and openly enjoyed by any person claiming title thereto as an easement and as of right without interruption and for twenty years, the right to such access and use of light or air, way, watercourse, use of water, or other easement shall be absolute and indefeasible.
Descriptive type questions
Answer
Municipal Authorities ignored complaint made by Mr. B since Mrs.
A is local Councilor of Bandra (West), Mumbai.
For full marks, cover: two different forums for two different opponents, and say why; section 16 for the civil suit and the Bombay City Civil Court's pecuniary limit; Article 226 against the Corporation with the reason that its inaction is a failure of statutory duty; the reliefs against each; and the notice under section 527 of the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1888.
(a) Which court, and why
Two different opponents call for two different forums, and the answer must separate them.
Against Mr. A, a civil suit.
The dispute between B and A is a private dispute about an easement of light and air over immovable property. Section 9 gives the civil court jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature, and a suit for an easement, for a declaration and for an injunction is plainly of a civil nature.
Section 16(d) and (e) fix the place: a suit for the determination of any other right to or interest in immovable property, and a suit for compensation for wrong to immovable property, shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situate. The property is at Bandra (West), Mumbai, so the suit lies in the civil court having territorial jurisdiction over that area.
Section 15 then requires the suit to be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it, that is, the court whose pecuniary jurisdiction covers the value of the suit. In Greater Mumbai that court is the Bombay City Civil Court, whose pecuniary jurisdiction was raised from one crore rupees to ten crore rupees with effect from 28 January 2024 by the Bombay City Civil Court (Amendment) Act, 2023; above that limit the suit lies to the Bombay High Court on its Original Side. Bandra (West) falls within the suburban jurisdiction of the City Civil Court.
Against the Municipal Authorities, a writ petition to the High Court.
The complaint against the Corporation is not that it has infringed a private right but that it has failed to perform a public duty: it has been told of a construction said to be illegal and has done nothing, and the reason given is that the builder's wife is a Councillor. That is a case of a public authority failing to exercise a statutory power for extraneous reasons, and the remedy for it is a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution to the Bombay High Court, praying for a writ of mandamus directing the Corporation to consider and decide the complaint according to law.
Why a writ and not a suit. Three reasons, and they should be given. A civil court can decide B's private right against A, but it cannot compel a statutory authority to exercise a discretion conferred on it by statute. A writ is faster, and the construction is proceeding. And the very ground of complaint, that the authority abdicated because of the influence of an elected representative, is a classic ground of judicial review: taking into account an irrelevant consideration and failing to apply its mind.
If a civil suit against the Corporation is nevertheless preferred, notice is mandatory. Section 527 of the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1888 provides that no suit shall be instituted against the Corporation, or against any municipal officer or servant, in respect of any act done in pursuance or execution or intended execution of the Act, or in respect of any alleged neglect or default in the execution of the Act, until the expiration of one month next after notice in writing has been left at the chief municipal office, stating with reasonable particularity the cause of action and the name and place of abode of the intending plaintiff and of his attorney or agent.
At the trial the plaintiff shall not be permitted to go into evidence of any cause of action except such as is set forth in the notice. Note that section 80 of the Code does not apply, because the Corporation is a statutory body and not "the Government"; its own statute supplies the notice provision.
(b) The reliefs
Against Mr. A, in the civil suit:
A declaration that Mr. B is entitled to an easement of light and air to the windows and openings of his building, acquired by grant or by prescription under section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882 and section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, on twenty years of peaceable and uninterrupted enjoyment as of right, that period ending within two years before the suit.
A permanent prohibitory injunction under section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 restraining Mr. A, his agents and servants from raising the construction any higher, or in any manner obstructing the access of light and air to Mr. B's building.
A mandatory injunction under section 39 of that Act directing Mr. A to demolish or pull down so much of the guest house as obstructs the light and air, if it is already built, since to prevent the breach of the obligation it is necessary to compel the performance of acts the court is capable of enforcing.
A temporary injunction under Order XXXIX Rules 1(c) and 2 to hold matters until the suit is decided, on the three tests: a prima facie case, the balance of convenience, and irreparable injury. This should be applied for on the day the plaint is filed, and if it is asked for ex parte the court must record its reasons under Rule 3 and endeavour to dispose of the application within thirty days under Rule 3A.
Damages, in the alternative or in addition, for the diminution in the value and enjoyment of the property.
Costs.
Against the Municipal Authorities, in the writ petition:
A writ of mandamus directing the Corporation to decide Mr. B's complaint within a fixed time and by a reasoned order, according to law and uninfluenced by the fact that the builder's wife is a Councillor.
A direction to inspect the construction and to act under the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1888: to require the production of the sanctioned plans, and, if the work is unauthorised or is in breach of the sanctioned plan, to issue a stop-work notice and to take action for its removal under the Corporation's building provisions.
An interim direction restraining further construction pending the hearing.
A direction that the complaint be dealt with by an officer other than the one who ignored it, if bias is alleged and made out.
Costs.
Conclusion. Two opponents, two forums, and the answer must split them. Against Mr. A the claim is a private one about an easement of light and air, so it goes to the civil court within whose limits the property lies under section 16, and the reliefs are a declaration of the easement, a permanent injunction, a mandatory injunction to pull down so much as obstructs, a temporary injunction meanwhile and damages. Against the Municipal Authorities the complaint is that a statutory body has abdicated for an extraneous reason, and the remedy for that is a writ of mandamus under Article 226, not a suit. Note that section 80 of the Code does not apply to a corporation; section 527 of the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act requires one month's notice instead.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the four essentials named as a list, then two of them worked out with the provisions; and the machinery by which a suit is instituted under section 26 and Order IV.
The four essentials of a suit are:
If any one of them is absent there is no suit that a court can try: a proceeding without parties is not adversarial, a proceeding without a cause of action discloses nothing to try, a proceeding without a subject-matter is academic, and a proceeding without a relief asks the court for nothing.
Discussed at length: (1) Parties, and (2) Cause of action.
I. Parties
There must be at least two parties, a plaintiff and a defendant, and they must be opposed in interest. A person cannot sue himself, and a court will not try a friendly or collusive proceeding got up to obtain a ruling.
Order I governs the joinder of parties.
Rule 1, who may be joined as plaintiffs. All persons may be joined in one suit as plaintiffs where any right to relief in respect of, or arising out of, the same act or transaction or series of acts or transactions is alleged to exist in them, jointly, severally or in the alternative, and where, if such persons brought separate suits, any common question of law or fact would arise.
Rule 3, who may be joined as defendants. The same two conditions, applied to defendants.
Rule 9, misjoinder and non-joinder. No suit shall be defeated by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, and the court may in every suit deal with the matter in controversy so far as regards the rights and interests of the parties actually before it. The proviso, added in 1976, takes the non-joinder of a necessary party out of that protection.
Rule 10(2), addition and striking out of parties. The court may at any stage, either on application or of its own motion, order that the name of any party improperly joined be struck out, and that any person whose presence is necessary in order to enable the court effectually and completely to adjudicate upon and settle all the questions involved in the suit be added.
Rule 8, representative suits. Where there are numerous persons having the same interest in one suit, one or more of them may, with the permission of the court, sue or be sued, or defend, on behalf of or for the benefit of all, the court giving notice to all persons so interested.
Rule 13 requires an objection on the ground of misjoinder or non-joinder to be taken at the earliest possible opportunity, and in all cases where issues are settled, at or before settlement, or it is deemed waived.
The distinction between a necessary and a proper party is the practical heart of this essential:
| Necessary party | Proper party | |
|---|---|---|
| Test | No effective decree can be passed at all in his absence, and there is a right to relief against him | An effective decree can be passed, but his presence lets the court settle every question completely |
| Effect of non-joinder | The suit is liable to be dismissed | The suit is not defeated; he may be added |
| Example | The lessor in a suit to eject a sub-lessee | A sub-tenant in a suit between landlord and tenant |
The tests come from Udit Narain Singh Malpaharia v. Board of Revenue (AIR 1963 SC 786).
Special rules for particular parties. Order XXXII requires a minor or a person of unsound mind to sue by a next friend and to be defended by a guardian for the suit. Order XXIX governs corporations, Order XXX partners and persons carrying on business in a name other than their own, Order XXXI trustees, executors and administrators, and section 79 with Order XXVII the Government.
II. Cause of action
A cause of action is the bundle of essential facts which the plaintiff must prove in order to succeed, that is, every fact which, if traversed, he would have to establish in order to support his right to the judgment of the court. The classic formulation is Brett LJ's in Cooke v. Gill (1873), adopted in India ever since.
Two things it is not: it does not include the evidence by which those facts are proved, and it does not include facts pleaded merely to anticipate a defence.
Order VII Rule 1(e) requires the plaint to state the facts constituting the cause of action and when it arose. The requirement of the date is deliberate, because four different consequences turn on it.
It fixes the place of suing. Section 20(c) allows a suit to be instituted where the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.
It decides whether the plaint survives Order VII Rule 11. By clause (a) the plaint shall be rejected where it does not disclose a cause of action, and on such an application the court reads the plaint alone, assuming its averments to be true.
It fixes the unit for Order II Rule 2. Every suit shall include the whole of the claim which the plaintiff is entitled to make in respect of the cause of action, and a claim or relief omitted, except with the leave of the court, cannot afterwards be sued for. That is the rule against splitting a cause of action, and its illustration in the Order, the landlord who sues for one year's rent out of three, is the standard example.
It starts the limitation clock. The third column of almost every Article in the Schedule to the Limitation Act measures time from the accrual of the cause of action, and Article 113, the residuary Article, gives three years from when the right to sue accrues.
The two remaining essentials, in brief. The subject-matter is the property, money, right or status about which the parties are at variance, and it determines the pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction under sections 15 to 20 and the court fee. The relief must be specifically stated under Order VII Rule 7, either simply or in the alternative, and by Explanation V to section 11 any relief claimed and not expressly granted is deemed to have been refused; so a relief omitted from the plaint is a relief lost.
How a suit is instituted. Section 26(1): every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a plaint or in such other manner as may be prescribed; section 26(2) requires the facts to be proved by affidavit. Order IV Rule 1 requires the plaint to be presented in duplicate and to comply with Orders VI and VII, and Rule 2 requires particulars of every suit to be entered in a register of civil suits.
Conclusion. A suit needs four things and the absence of any one of them leaves nothing a court can try: parties opposed in interest, a cause of action, a subject-matter and a relief claimed. Of the four, the cause of action does the most work, because it fixes the place of suing under section 20, decides whether the plaint survives Order VII Rule 11, defines the unit for Order II Rule 2, and starts the limitation clock, which is why Order VII Rule 1(e) demands the date as well as the facts.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition of each with the Udit Narain Singh tests, a comparison table, and then the effect on the suit, which is the second half of the question: Order I Rule 9 with its proviso, Rule 10(2), Rule 13 and section 99.
I. The two definitions
A necessary party is a person in whose absence no effective decree can be passed at all by the court, and against whom the plaintiff claims a right to relief in respect of the matter in controversy.
A proper party is a person whose presence is not indispensable to the passing of an effective decree, but whose presence enables the court completely and effectually to adjudicate upon and settle all the questions involved in the suit.
Both tests were stated in these terms in Udit Narain Singh Malpaharia v. Board of Revenue, Bihar (AIR 1963 SC 786).
The two conditions for a necessary party, as usually stated, are cumulative:
II. The comparison
| Necessary party | Proper party | |
|---|---|---|
| Test | No effective decree can be passed at all in his absence | An effective decree can be passed; his presence lets the court settle all questions completely |
| Right to relief against him | Yes, there must be one | Not necessary |
| Effect of non-joinder | The suit is liable to be dismissed as against the relief that cannot be granted; the proviso to Order I Rule 9 does not protect it | The suit is not defeated; he may be added at any stage |
| Necessary party | Proper party | |
|---|---|---|
| Can the court add him? | Yes, under Order I Rule 10(2), and it will ordinarily do so rather than dismiss | Yes, under Order I Rule 10(2) |
| Example | The lessor in a suit by a lessee to eject a sub-lessee; a coparcener left out of a partition suit; the State in a suit challenging its order | A sub-tenant in a suit between landlord and tenant; a subsequent purchaser in a suit for specific performance |
III. The effect on the suit
Order I Rule 9 is the governing provision: no suit shall be defeated by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, and the court may in every suit deal with the matter in controversy so far as regards the rights and interests of the parties actually before it. The proviso, added by the Amendment Act of 1976, reads: nothing in this rule shall apply to non-joinder of a necessary party.
That proviso is the whole answer to the second half of the question.
Effect of non-joinder of a proper party. None that is fatal. It is an irregularity. The court may add him under Order I Rule 10(2), at any stage, on application or of its own motion, and the suit proceeds. If he is never added, the decree binds the parties before the court and does not bind him.
Effect of non-joinder of a necessary party. The suit is liable to be dismissed, because no effective decree can be passed. In practice a court will not dismiss without first giving the plaintiff an opportunity to implead him under Rule 10(2), and will dismiss only if the plaintiff refuses, or if by then the claim against the necessary party has become barred by limitation, which is the situation in which the objection is usually fatal. Note section 21 of the Limitation Act: where a new defendant is added, the suit is deemed, as regards him, to have been instituted on the date he was made a party, so limitation runs against the impleadment and not against the original plaint.
Effect of misjoinder of parties. Also an irregularity. The court may strike out the name of a party improperly joined under Order I Rule 10(2). Misjoinder becomes serious only when it is combined with a misjoinder of causes of action, producing what is called multifariousness, where the court may require the plaintiff to elect and to confine the suit.
When the objection must be taken. Order I Rule 13: all objections on the ground of non-joinder or misjoinder of parties shall be taken at the earliest possible opportunity, and in all cases where issues are settled, at or before such settlement, unless the ground of objection has subsequently arisen, and any such objection not so taken shall be deemed to have been waived.
In appeal. Section 99: no decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded, in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action, or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the court. The proviso again excepts the non-joinder of a necessary party, so that alone can be raised in appeal notwithstanding section 99.
Conclusion. A necessary party is one without whom no effective decree can be passed and against whom relief is claimed; a proper party is one whose presence merely lets the court settle everything completely. That difference decides the consequence. Order I Rule 9 says no suit shall be defeated for misjoinder or non-joinder, and its 1976 proviso takes the non-joinder of a necessary party out of that protection, so that alone is fatal. Everything else is curable under Rule 10(2), and by Rule 13 an objection not taken at or before the settlement of issues is waived.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition in section 2(12), taken apart clause by clause; the three components; who is liable and to whom; Order XX Rule 12 as the machinery; how the figure is arrived at; and Article 109 on limitation.
I. The definition
Section 2(12) provides that "mesne profits" of property means those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received therefrom, together with interest on such profits, but shall not include profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession.
The definition has four limbs, and each does work:
"The person in wrongful possession". Liability attaches to wrongful possession, and only to it. A tenant holding over after his tenancy is determined, a trespasser, a mortgagee in possession after redemption, and a purchaser under a sale that is set aside, are all in wrongful possession. A person in lawful possession, however profitable, owes no mesne profits.
"Actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received". The measure is not what the wrongdoer chose to earn but what the property was capable of yielding to a person of ordinary diligence. A trespasser who leaves land fallow is not thereby excused; he is charged with what a diligent occupier would have got from it.
"Together with interest on such profits". Interest is part of the mesne profits themselves, not something added afterwards, and it runs on each year's profits from the date they accrued.
"But shall not include profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession". A wrongdoer who has improved the property, by building on it, irrigating it or bringing it into better cultivation, is not charged with the additional yield attributable to his own improvement. To charge him would be to make the true owner richer at his expense.
II. Who is liable, and to whom
The person in wrongful possession is liable, and he is liable to the person entitled to possession. Where there are several trespassers, the liability is joint and several, and the decree-holder may recover the whole from any of them, leaving them to contribution among themselves.
A mortgagee in possession after the mortgage is satisfied, a co-owner who excludes the others from enjoyment, and a tenant holding over are the three commonest defendants in practice.
III. How mesne profits are quantified: Order XX Rule 12
Order XX Rule 12(1) provides that where a suit is for the recovery of possession of immovable property and for rent or mesne profits, the court may pass a decree:
(a) for the possession of the property;
(b) for the rent or mesne profits which have accrued on the property during a period prior to the institution of the suit, or directing an inquiry as to such rent or mesne profits;
(c) directing an inquiry as to rent or mesne profits from the institution of the suit until (i) the delivery of possession to the decree-holder, (ii) the relinquishment of possession by the judgment-debtor with notice to the decree-holder through the court, or (iii) the expiration of three years from the date of the decree, whichever event first occurs.
Sub-rule (2): where an inquiry is directed, a final decree shall be passed in accordance with the result of the inquiry.
So the mechanism is a preliminary decree for possession plus a direction for an inquiry, followed by a final decree. The decree for possession does not have to wait for the accounts.
Rule 12A applies the same rule to a decree for specific performance of a contract for the sale or lease of immovable property.
The three-year cap in clause (c)(iii) is the most examinable single fact in the rule: mesne profits after the decree run only up to three years from the date of the decree, or until possession is delivered or relinquished, whichever is earlier. Beyond that the decree-holder must take out execution rather than let the profits accumulate.
IV. Arriving at the figure
The court, or the commissioner to whom the inquiry is referred, works from the annual yield of the property, and the usual materials are:
the rent actually realised by the person in possession, proved by his receipts, accounts and returns;
the prevailing rent of comparable premises in the same locality, proved by leases, agreements and, where available, the rateable value in the municipal assessment;
for agricultural land, the produce, valued at prevailing market rates, less the cost of cultivation;
for a business premises, the letting value rather than the profits of the business carried on in it, since the profits of a trade are the trader's and not the property's;
minus the outgoings properly attributable to the property, such as municipal taxes, land revenue, rent payable to a superior holder and the cost of necessary repairs;
minus any part of the yield attributable to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession, excluded by section 2(12) itself;
plus interest on each year's profits, at such rate as the court thinks reasonable, commonly six per cent per annum.
A commission is the usual route where the inquiry is at all complex. Under section 75(b) and Order XXVI Rule 9 the court may issue a commission for local investigation expressly for ascertaining the amount of any mesne profits or damages or annual net profits, and by Rule 10(2) the commissioner's report and the evidence he takes are evidence in the suit and form part of the record. Where accounts have to be gone into, a commission to examine or adjust accounts lies under section 75(c) and Rules 11 and 12.
V. Limitation
Article 109 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 governs a suit for mesne profits: the period is three years, running from when the profits are received. So a plaintiff who waits recovers only the last three years' profits before suit, and this is why mesne profits are claimed in the possession suit itself rather than separately.
Conclusion. Mesne profits are compensation for wrongful possession, measured not by what the wrongdoer chose to earn but by what a person of ordinary diligence would have got, with interest included and the yield of his own improvements excluded. Quantification is a real exercise and not a formula: the court works from rent actually realised, the letting value of comparable premises or the produce less the cost of cultivation, deducts the outgoings, and usually sends the enquiry to a commissioner under Order XXVI Rule 9. Order XX Rule 12 caps post-decree profits at three years from the decree.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the two definitions, a comparison table, the different consequences, misjoinder of causes of action and multifariousness, and the four provisions: Order I Rules 9, 10(2) and 13, and section 99.
I. The two definitions
Non-joinder is the failure to join as a party to the suit a person who ought to have been joined, whether as plaintiff or as defendant.
Misjoinder is the joining as a party of a person who ought not to have been joined, that is, a person against whom, or by whom, no relief arises out of the same act or transaction and about whom no common question arises.
II. The comparison
| Non-joinder | Misjoinder | |
|---|---|---|
| Meaning | A person who ought to have been joined has been left out | A person who ought not to have been joined has been added |
| Kinds | Of a necessary party, or of a proper party | Of parties; and, separately, of causes of action |
| Non-joinder | Misjoinder | |
|---|---|---|
| Effect where the party is proper | An irregularity; the suit is not defeated, and he may be added | An irregularity; his name may be struck out |
| Effect where the party is necessary | Fatal: the suit is liable to be dismissed, and the proviso to Order I Rule 9 withholds protection | Does not arise; a necessary party cannot be a misjoinder |
| Cure | Order I Rule 10(2), add the party at any stage, on application or suo motu | Order I Rule 10(2), strike out the party at any stage |
| When the objection must be taken | Order I Rule 13, at the earliest possible opportunity and, where issues are settled, at or before settlement; otherwise waived | The same |
| In appeal | Section 99 protects the decree, except for non-joinder of a necessary party | Section 99 protects the decree |
III. The governing provision
Order I Rule 9: no suit shall be defeated by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, and the court may in every suit deal with the matter in controversy so far as regards the rights and interests of the parties actually before it. The proviso, added by the Amendment Act of 1976: nothing in this rule shall apply to non-joinder of a necessary party.
Read the rule and the proviso together and the whole difference emerges: misjoinder is never fatal; non-joinder is fatal only where the party omitted is a necessary party.
IV. Misjoinder of causes of action, and multifariousness
The word "misjoinder" is used in a second sense, and a complete answer distinguishes it.
Order II Rule 3 allows a plaintiff to unite in the same suit several causes of action against the same defendant, or against the same defendants jointly. Order II Rule 6 allows the court, where it appears that the causes of action cannot be conveniently tried together, to order separate trials.
Where several plaintiffs join several causes of action against several defendants, and the requirements of Order I Rules 1 and 3 are not met, the suit is said to be multifarious, that is, it suffers from a misjoinder of parties and of causes of action together. That is the one form of misjoinder that can be serious, because it makes the trial unmanageable, and the court will require the plaintiff to elect which cause of action he will proceed with and will confine the suit to it.
V. The consequences in practice
Non-joinder of a necessary party. The court will ordinarily give the plaintiff an opportunity to implead him under Order I Rule 10(2) before dismissing, and dismissal follows only where the plaintiff refuses, or where the claim against that person has by then become time-barred. Note section 21 of the Limitation Act: where a new defendant is added, the suit is deemed, as regards him, to have been instituted when he was made a party, so a late impleadment may be barred even though the original plaint was in time. That is why non-joinder of a necessary party is most often fatal for a limitation reason rather than for a procedural one.
Misjoinder of parties. The name is struck out under Order I Rule 10(2), usually with costs, and the suit goes on.
Waiver. Both objections are deemed waived under Order I Rule 13 if not taken at the earliest possible opportunity and, where issues are settled, at or before settlement. The reason is that both are objections of form: a party who takes his chance on the merits and raises the point only when he is losing has no complaint.
Conclusion. Non-joinder is leaving out someone who should have been joined; misjoinder is bringing in someone who should not. Order I Rule 9 forgives both, and its proviso forgives all but one: the non-joinder of a necessary party, which is fatal because no effective decree can be passed without him. Everything else is cured under Rule 10(2) by adding or striking out a name, and by Rule 13 an objection not taken at or before the settlement of issues is deemed waived. Section 99 carries the same policy into the appellate stage.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and the three essentials; Order XIX and section 139; where the Code requires an affidavit; the rule that an affidavit is not evidence within section 3 of the Evidence Act unless the Code or a statute makes it so; and the consequence of a false affidavit.
I. What an affidavit is
An affidavit is a written statement of facts, made voluntarily by a person, sworn or affirmed before a person authorised to administer an oath, and signed by the deponent. The word is not defined in the Code.
Three essentials:
Section 139, oath on affidavit by whom to be administered. In the case of any affidavit under the Code, (a) any court or magistrate, (aa) any notary appointed under the Notaries Act, 1952, or (b) any officer or other person whom a High Court may appoint in this behalf, or (c) any officer appointed by any other court which the State Government has generally or specially empowered in this behalf, may administer the oath to the deponent.
Order XIX, affidavits.
Rule 1, power to order any point to be proved by affidavit. Any court may at any time for sufficient reason order that any particular fact or facts may be proved by affidavit, or that the affidavit of any witness may be read at the hearing, on such conditions as the court thinks reasonable; but the proviso is important: where it appears to the court that either party bona fide desires the production of a witness for cross-examination, and that such witness can be produced, an order shall not be made authorising the evidence of such witness to be given by affidavit.
Rule 2, power to order attendance of deponent for cross-examination. Upon any application evidence may be given by affidavit, but the court may, at the instance of either party, order the attendance for cross-examination of the deponent; and such attendance shall be in court, unless the deponent is exempted from personal appearance or the court otherwise directs.
Rule 3, matters to which affidavits shall be confined. Affidavits shall be confined to such facts as the deponent is able of his own knowledge to prove, except on interlocutory applications, on which statements of his belief may be admitted, provided that the grounds thereof are stated. Sub-rule (2) provides that the costs of every affidavit which unnecessarily sets forth matters of hearsay or argumentative matter, or copies of or extracts from documents, shall, unless the court otherwise directs, be paid by the party filing it.
II. Where the Code requires an affidavit
The list is worth giving, because it is the answer to the second half of the question.
Section 26(2): in every plaint, facts shall be proved by affidavit.
Order VI Rule 15(4): the person verifying a pleading shall also furnish an affidavit in support of his pleadings.
Order XXXII Rule 3(4): an application for the appointment of a guardian for the suit shall be supported by an affidavit verifying the minority.
Order XXXIII Rule 2: the application to sue as an indigent person shall be signed and verified in the manner prescribed for the signing and verification of pleadings, with a schedule of property.
Order XXXVIII Rules 1 and 5: arrest and attachment before judgment are ordered where the court is satisfied by affidavit or otherwise.
Order XXXIX Rules 1, 2 and 3: an injunction is granted where the matter is proved by affidavit or otherwise, and an ex parte injunction requires the applicant to file an affidavit of delivery of the papers.
Order XXI Rule 46A: a garnishee notice issues on an application made on affidavit.
Order XLI Rule 3A: an appeal presented after limitation must be accompanied by an application supported by affidavit.
Order XLVII Rule 4(2): a review on the ground of discovery of new evidence shall not be granted without strict proof of the allegation.
Order V Rule 19: where the serving officer's return is not verified by affidavit, the court must examine him on oath or hold an inquiry.
III. Its importance in the functioning of the court
It makes interlocutory justice possible. A court hearing an application for an injunction, an attachment, a receiver, a stay or a garnishee order cannot record oral evidence on each of them; if it did, no suit would ever reach trial. The affidavit lets the court act on sworn material at speed, and Order XIX Rule 3 deliberately relaxes the personal-knowledge rule for interlocutory applications so that belief may be stated, provided the grounds are given.
It fixes responsibility on the deponent. A statement on affidavit is made on oath, and a false statement in it is punishable as an offence: section 191 of the Indian Penal Code, now section 227 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, giving false evidence, and section 199 IPC, now section 235 BNS, a false statement made in a declaration receivable as evidence.
It supports the pleadings. Since 2002, both the plaint (section 26(2)) and the verification of any pleading (Order VI Rule 15(4)) must be supported by affidavit, so that a party who pleads a fact stakes his oath on it from the outset.
It saves the time of witnesses and of the court. Under Order XIX Rule 1 a fact may be ordered to be proved by affidavit, and under Order XVIII Rule 4(1), as substituted in 2002, the examination-in-chief of a witness shall be on affidavit, with copies supplied to the opposite party. That single change has removed the largest part of the time formerly spent on recording chief examination.
It is checked by cross-examination. The Code does not let an affidavit stand unchallenged: by Order XIX Rule 2 the court may order the deponent's attendance for cross-examination, and by the proviso to Rule 1 it will not allow evidence by affidavit where a party bona fide wants the witness produced and he can be produced.
IV. The limit: an affidavit is not "evidence" as such
This is the proposition to state expressly, because it is the point most often examined. "Evidence" as defined in section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now section 2(1)(e) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, means statements made before the court by witnesses and documents produced for its inspection. An affidavit is neither. It becomes usable as evidence only where the Code or another statute makes it so, which is what Order XIX Rules 1 and 2 and Order XVIII Rule 4 do.
The consequence: an affidavit cannot be used to prove a fact at the trial of a suit unless the court has so ordered under Order XIX Rule 1, or unless it is the chief examination filed under Order XVIII Rule 4. At the interlocutory stage it is the ordinary and expected material.
Conclusion. An affidavit is a sworn written statement of facts, and its importance is that it makes interlocutory justice possible: no court could hear injunctions, attachments and receivers if each needed oral evidence. Order XIX lets the court order a fact to be proved by affidavit and, just as important, order the deponent to be cross-examined. The proposition to state is the limit: an affidavit is not evidence within the Evidence Act unless a statute makes it so, which is what Order XIX and Order XVIII Rule 4 do, and Rule 3 confines it to facts of the deponent's own knowledge except on interlocutory applications.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the time limits in Order VIII Rule 1 and SCG Contracts; the rules of specific denial in Rules 3, 4 and 5; new facts and grounds of defence under Rule 2; documents under Rule 1A; set-off and counterclaim; verification and the affidavit; and the consequence of failing to file, Rule 10.
Order VIII governs the written statement, and the precautions are best set out in the order in which a drafter meets them.
I. Time. This is the first and the most unforgiving precaution.
Order VIII Rule 1: the defendant shall, within thirty days from the date of service of summons on him, present a written statement of his defence. The proviso: where he fails to do so, he shall be allowed to file it on such other day, as may be specified by the court, for reasons to be recorded in writing and on payment of such costs as the court deems fit, but which shall not be later than ninety days from the date of service of summons.
In a commercial suit the position is stricter still. For suits governed by the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, the substituted Order VIII Rule 1 provides that on the expiry of one hundred and twenty days from the date of service the defendant shall forfeit the right to file the written statement and the court shall not allow it to be taken on record. In SCG Contracts (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. K.S. Chamankar Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. (2019) 12 SCC 210 the Supreme Court held that this is mandatory and that the court has no power to extend it, not even under section 151.
II. Specific denial: the heart of the drafting
Rule 3, denial to be specific. It shall not be sufficient for a defendant in his written statement to deny generally the grounds alleged by the plaintiff, but the defendant must deal specifically with each allegation of fact of which he does not admit the truth, except damages.
Rule 4, evasive denial. Where a defendant denies an allegation of fact, he must not do so evasively, but answer the point of substance. Thus if it is alleged that he received a certain sum of money, it shall not be sufficient to deny that he received that particular amount, but he must deny that he received that sum or any part thereof, or else set out how much he received. And if an allegation is made with diverse circumstances, it shall not be sufficient to deny it along with those circumstances.
Rule 5, specific denial. Every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, or stated to be not admitted in the pleading of the defendant, shall be taken to be admitted, except as against a person under disability. The proviso preserves the court's discretion to require any fact so admitted to be proved otherwise than by such admission. Sub-rule (2): where the defendant has not filed a pleading, it shall be lawful for the court to pronounce judgment on the basis of the facts contained in the plaint, except as against a person under disability, but the court may in its discretion require any such fact to be proved.
So the first precaution in drafting is arithmetical: go through the plaint paragraph by paragraph and deal with every single averment. An averment not dealt with is an averment admitted, and the case may be lost on the pleading before any evidence is led.
III. New facts and grounds of defence
Rule 2, new facts must be specially pleaded. The defendant must raise by his pleading all matters which show the suit not to be maintainable, or that the transaction is either void or voidable in point of law, and all such grounds of defence as, if not raised, would be likely to take the opposite party by surprise, or would raise issues of fact not arising out of the plaint, as for instance fraud, limitation, release, payment, performance, or facts showing illegality.
That list is the checklist to run before filing: is the suit barred by limitation? by res judicata under section 11? by Order II Rule 2? by section 10? for want of a section 80 notice? for want of jurisdiction, pecuniary or territorial? Has the claim been paid, released, discharged or performed? Is the contract void or voidable? Every one of these must be pleaded or it is lost.
Order VI Rule 4 applies to the written statement as to the plaint: where fraud, misrepresentation, breach of trust, wilful default or undue influence is pleaded, particulars must be given. A bare allegation of fraud is no pleading.
IV. Documents
Rule 1A(1): where the defendant bases his defence upon a document, or relies on a document in his possession or power as evidence in support of his defence, he shall enter it in a list and produce it in court when the written statement is presented, and shall deliver it and a copy with the written statement.
Rule 1A(2): where a document is not in his possession or power, he shall, wherever possible, state in whose possession or power it is.
Rule 1A(3): a document which ought to be produced and is not so produced shall not, without the leave of the court, be received in evidence on his behalf at the hearing of the suit.
Rule 1A(4) saves three cases from that bar: a document produced for the cross-examination of the plaintiff's witnesses, one handed to a witness merely to refresh his memory, and one produced in reply to the plaintiff's case.
V. Set-off and counterclaim
Rule 6, legal set-off. Where in a suit for the recovery of money the defendant claims to set off an ascertained sum of money legally recoverable by him from the plaintiff, not exceeding the pecuniary limits of the jurisdiction of the court, and both parties fill the same character as in the plaintiff's suit, he may, at the first hearing and not afterwards unless permitted by the court, present a written statement containing the particulars of the debt sought to be set off. Rule 6(2): the written statement shall have the same effect as a plaint in a cross-suit.
Rules 6A to 6G, counterclaim. The defendant may set up any right or claim in respect of a cause of action accruing to him before or after the filing of the suit but before he has delivered his defence or before the time limited for delivering it has expired, provided it does not exceed the pecuniary limits of the court. By Rule 6A(2) it has the effect of a cross-suit; by Rule 6B the defendant must state specifically that he raises the claim by way of counterclaim; and by Rule 6D, if the plaintiff's suit is stayed, discontinued or dismissed, the counterclaim may nevertheless be proceeded with.
The precaution here is to decide, before drafting, whether the cross-demand should be a set-off or a counterclaim. A set-off is a defence and falls with the suit; a counterclaim survives it. A set-off must be for an ascertained sum; a counterclaim need not. Court fee is payable on a counterclaim as on a plaint, and that must be budgeted for.
VI. Form and verification
Order VI Rule 14: every pleading shall be signed by the party and by his pleader.
Order VI Rule 15: every pleading shall be verified at the foot by the party or by some other person acquainted with the facts, who shall specify, with reference to the numbered paragraphs, what he verifies of his own knowledge and what upon information received and believed to be true; the verification shall be signed and dated. Sub-rule (4), inserted in 2002, requires the person verifying to furnish an affidavit in support of his pleadings.
Order VI Rule 2: the written statement shall contain a statement in a concise form of the material facts, and not the evidence, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively, with dates, sums and numbers expressed in figures as well as in words.
Order VIII Rule 9 provides that no pleading subsequent to the written statement of a defendant other than by way of defence to a set-off or counterclaim shall be presented except by the leave of the court, so a replication or rejoinder needs leave.
VII. The consequence of getting it wrong
Rule 10: where any party from whom a written statement is required fails to present it within the time permitted or fixed by the court, the court shall pronounce judgment against him, or make such order in relation to the suit as it thinks fit, and on the pronouncement of such judgment a decree shall be drawn up.
Read with Rule 5(2), the position is that a defendant who does not file, or who files a written statement that fails to deal with the plaint, may find the suit decided on the plaint alone.
Conclusion. A written statement is drafted against a clock and against a rule. The clock is thirty days from service, ninety at the outside, and in a commercial suit a mandatory hundred and twenty after which the right is forfeited. The rule is Order VIII Rule 5: every allegation not specifically denied is taken to be admitted, so the drafter must go through the plaint paragraph by paragraph. And every bar he wants, limitation, res judicata, Order II Rule 2, want of notice, must be pleaded under Rule 2 or it is lost.
Answer
Section 148 provides that where any period is fixed or granted by the court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by this Code, the court may, in its discretion, from time to time, enlarge such period, not exceeding thirty days in total, even though the period originally fixed or granted may have expired.
The three conditions in the section:
The words "even though the period originally fixed or granted may have expired" are important: the court may extend a period that has already run out, so an application is not defeated merely because it is made late.
The thirty-day cap was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1999 with effect from 1 July 2002. Before that, section 148 carried no outer limit and courts extended time freely; older textbooks and older judgments are misleading on this.
Conclusion. Section 148 lets a court enlarge a period it fixed or granted, and it may do so even after that period has expired, but since 2002 by not more than thirty days in total. It cannot touch a period fixed by statute, and it cannot be used to get round a provision the Code makes mandatory, which is why it will not save a commercial defendant past the hundred and twenty days for his written statement. Section 149 is its more generous companion: no cap at all, and its effect is retrospective, so making good the court fee validates the filing from the beginning.
Answer
A caveat is a caution or warning lodged with a court by a person who apprehends that an application is going to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding in which he is likely to be affected, asking the court not to grant any order on that application without first giving him notice. The word means "let him beware". The provision is section 148A, inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976.
Section 148A in its five sub-sections:
(1) Right to lodge a caveat. Where an application is expected to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted, or about to be instituted, in a Court, any person claiming a right to appear before the Court on the hearing of such application may lodge a caveat in respect thereof.
(2) Notice by the caveator. Where a caveat has been lodged under sub-section (1), the person by whom the caveat has been lodged shall serve a notice of the caveat by registered post, acknowledgement due, on the person by whom the application has been or is expected to be made under sub-section (1). Since the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, in force from 20 December 2025, the words are "speed post with registration and proof of delivery".
(3) Duty of the court. Where, after a caveat has been lodged under sub-section (1), any application is filed in any suit or proceeding, the Court shall serve a notice of the application on the caveator.
(4) Duty of the applicant. Where a notice of any caveat has been served on the applicant, he shall forthwith furnish the caveator, at the caveator's expense, with a copy of the application made by him and also with copies of any paper or document which has been, or may be, filed by him in support of the application.
(5) Life of the caveat. Where a caveat has been lodged under sub-section (1), such caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged unless the application referred to in sub-section (1) has been made before the expiry of the said period.
Conclusion. A caveat is preventive and anticipatory, and it buys notice and the papers, nothing more. Any person claiming a right to appear may lodge one whether or not he is a party; the court shall then serve notice of the application on him and the applicant shall furnish him copies at his own expense. It lapses after ninety days, with no renewal, which is why in practice caveats are lodged in succession where the risk continues. An order made in the face of a subsisting caveat is not void, but it is regularly recalled.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the proposition and why it follows from section 3; four consequences that prove it; the two statutory exceptions, section 27 and section 25; and section 25(3) of the Contract Act with section 29(1) of the Limitation Act, which are the strongest proof of the rule.
I. The proposition
Section 3(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that, subject to sections 4 to 24, every suit instituted, appeal preferred, and application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence.
Read the words: the section directs the dismissal of the proceeding. It does not say that the debt is discharged, that the obligation is at an end, or that the title has passed. What the expiry of the period destroys is the remedy, that is, the ability to obtain the assistance of a court. The right itself survives.
The Limitation Act is therefore called a statute of repose, of peace and of limitation, and it is procedural in character.
II. Four consequences, which are the proof of the rule
1. A time-barred debt may be recovered without suit. A creditor who lawfully holds a pledge, or who has a lien, may realise his security although a suit on the debt is barred; and where the debtor voluntarily pays a time-barred debt, he cannot recover the payment back, because he has paid what he owed.
2. A time-barred debt is good consideration for a fresh promise. Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that an agreement made without consideration is valid if it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorised in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits. The illustration in the Act is exact: A owes B Rs. 1,000 but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt. This is a contract.
This is the strongest proof of the whole proposition. If the right had been destroyed there would be nothing left to be consideration; the promise is enforceable precisely because the debt still exists. Section 29(1) of the Limitation Act expressly preserves the position: nothing in this Act shall affect section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
3. A time-barred claim may be used defensively. Limitation bars a suit, appeal or application; it does not bar a plea. A defendant may set up in defence a right that he could no longer enforce by suit, and an equitable set-off arising out of the same transaction has been allowed even where a suit upon it would be barred.
4. The rule is procedural, so the law in force on the date of the suit governs, subject to transitional provisions, and a change in the period does not revive a claim already barred.
III. The exceptions
There are two, and both are in the Act itself.
Exception 1: section 27, extinguishment of right to property.
At the determination of the period hereby limited to any person for instituting a suit for possession of any property, his right to such property shall be extinguished.
Here the Act does destroy the right. It is the foundation of adverse possession: under Article 65, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be brought within twelve years from the date the defendant's possession becomes adverse; under Article 112, the period is thirty years where the plaintiff is the Central or a State Government. When that period runs out, the owner does not merely lose his remedy; his title is extinguished, and a corresponding title vests in the person in adverse possession.
The consequence was worked out in Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit Kaur (2019) 8 SCC 729, where a three judge Bench held that a person who has perfected title by adverse possession may use it as a sword as well as a shield, and may sue for a declaration of title and for possession if he is dispossessed after perfecting it. That is only possible because section 27 gives him a right, not merely a defence.
Exception 2: section 25, acquisition of easements by prescription.
Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement and as of right, without interruption, for twenty years, and where any way, watercourse, use of water or other easement has been peaceably and openly enjoyed by a person claiming title thereto as an easement and as of right without interruption for twenty years, the right shall be absolute and indefeasible. Where the property belongs to the Government, the period is thirty years.
Sub-section (2) requires each such period of twenty years to be one ending within two years next before the institution of the suit in which the claim is contested.
Here the Act does something even more remarkable than section 27: it creates a right where none existed, out of long enjoyment.
IV. A note on what is not an exception
Sections 18 and 19 are not exceptions. An acknowledgment in writing, or a part payment, made before the prescribed period expires, gives a fresh period; it does not revive a dead right, and it does not operate at all once the period has run. What operates after expiry is section 25(3) of the Contract Act, and that is a new contract, not a revival of the old remedy.
Section 5 is not an exception either. Condonation of delay is a discretion to admit an appeal or application late on sufficient cause; it does not touch the right at all, and it is not available for a suit.
Conclusion. The general rule holds: limitation destroys the remedy and leaves the right alive, and the clearest proof of it is section 25(3) of the Contract Act, under which a written signed promise to pay a time-barred debt is enforceable because there is still a debt to be consideration. There are exactly two exceptions, and both are in the Act itself: section 27, which extinguishes the owner's right at the end of the period for a suit for possession and so founds adverse possession, and section 25, which creates an easement out of twenty years' enjoyment. Sections 18, 19 and 5 are not exceptions and should not be offered as such.
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11 August 2026.
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