Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
Mar 2024 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
Mar 2024 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 1 November 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the Mar 2024 - ATKT examination.
The law in these answers is stated as at August 2026, and four changes date most textbooks on this subject. The Indian Penal Code was repealed on 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced sedition with section 152; section 124A has been in abeyance since 11 May 2022 and the Supreme Court agreed on 8 August 2025 to examine section 152 itself. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was finally omitted from the statute book by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 on 30 November 2023, eight years after Shreya Singhal struck it down, and sections 72 and 72A were decriminalised the same day. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal was abolished by the Finance Act, 2017 on 26 May 2017 and appeals now lie to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal. And section 2(54) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was substituted on 1 September 2022 to enact Shilpa Mittal.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the Mar 2024 - ATKT examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the Mar 2024 - ATKT examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 7 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer
For full marks, cover: three limbs. Give the salient features as a numbered list of ten, which is quick to write and easy to mark. Then take digital signature in depth, because the examiner has asked for detail and because the technical mechanism is what separates a good answer. Then take the offences grouped by severity rather than by number, and end with the two provisions that are no longer there, which shows currency.
A note on the wording. The paper prints "Discuss III details", which is the setter's slip for "in details". Nothing turns on it.
The Information Technology Act, 2000, Act 21 of 2000, received assent on 9 June 2000 and was brought into force on 17 October 2000. Its preamble traces it to United Nations General Assembly resolution A/RES/51/162 of 30 January 1997 adopting the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce.
One, legal recognition of electronic records and signatures. Section 4 satisfies a requirement of writing by an electronic form accessible for subsequent reference; section 5 satisfies a requirement of signature; section 7 a requirement of retention; and section 10A, inserted in 2008, provides that a contract is not unenforceable merely because it was formed electronically.
Two, electronic governance. Sections 6 to 8 permit filing, issue and payment in electronic form, delivery of services by an authorised service provider under section 6A, and publication in an Electronic Gazette under section 8. Section 9 provides that no person may insist that a department accept an electronic document.
Three, rules for attribution and despatch. Sections 11 to 13 fix when a record is attributed to the originator, when receipt is acknowledged, and the time and place of despatch and receipt, which decides where an electronic contract is made.
Four, secure records and secure signatures. Sections 14 to 16 define a secure electronic record and a secure electronic signature and empower the Central Government to prescribe security procedures.
Five, a regulator. Chapter VI, sections 17 to 34, appoints the Controller of Certifying Authorities, whose functions under section 18 include supervising Certifying Authorities, certifying their public keys, laying down standards and maintaining a public database of their disclosure records, and gives powers of investigation under section 28 and access to computers and data under section 29.
Six, certificates and subscribers. Chapter VII governs the issue, suspension and revocation of electronic signature certificates; Chapter VIII the duties of subscribers, including the duty in section 42 to keep the private key confidential.
Seven, civil liability and adjudication. Section 43 gives compensation for unauthorised access, damage, contamination, disruption or denial of service; section 43A compensation against a body corporate negligent with sensitive personal data; section 46 appoints an adjudicating officer with jurisdiction up to a claim of five crore rupees.
Eight, an appellate structure. Section 48 establishes an Appellate Tribunal, section 57 gives an appeal against an order of the Controller or an adjudicating officer, section 61 bars the civil court's jurisdiction, and section 62 gives a further appeal to the High Court within sixty days.
Nine, offences. Chapter XI, sections 65 to 78, running from tampering with source code to cyber terrorism under section 66F, punishable with imprisonment for life.
Ten, reach and priority. Section 75 applies the Act to conduct outside India involving a computer located in India; section 79 gives an intermediary a conditional exemption from liability; section 81 gives the Act overriding effect; and the First Schedule excludes negotiable instruments other than cheques, powers of attorney, trusts and wills, the first two with carve-outs since 2022 for regulated entities; the entry for contracts for the sale of immovable property was omitted by S.O. 4720(E) of 26 September 2022.
The definition. Section 2(1)(p) defines a digital signature as authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with section 3. The definition is therefore empty until section 3 is read.
The requirement. Section 3(2) provides that the authentication shall be effected by the use of an asymmetric crypto system and hash function which envelop and transform the initial electronic record into another electronic record. The Explanation defines a hash function as an algorithm mapping or translating one sequence of bits into another, generally smaller, set known as the hash result, such that the same record always yields the same hash result, and such that it is computationally infeasible to reconstruct the original record from the hash result and computationally infeasible that two records should produce the same hash result.
Section 3(3) provides that any person may verify the record by use of the public key of the subscriber. Section 3(4) provides that the private key and the public key are unique to the subscriber and constitute a functioning key pair.
How it works in practice. The record is passed through the hash function, producing a short digest which is unique to that record. The signer encrypts the digest with a private key which only he holds. A recipient decrypts the digest with the signer's public key, obtained from the certificate, and independently re-runs the hash function on the record he has received. If the two digests match, two things are proved at once: the record has not been altered, because any alteration would change the hash; and it was signed by the holder of the private key, because only the matching public key could decrypt it. Section 3 therefore delivers authentication and integrity in a single operation, which a scanned image of a handwritten signature cannot do.
The certificate chain. The public key is meaningless unless a stranger can trust that it belongs to the person named. That is the function of Chapter VI and Chapter VII: the Controller licenses Certifying Authorities under section 21, and a licensed Certifying Authority issues an Electronic Signature Certificate under section 35 after satisfying itself of the applicant's identity and of his possession of the private key corresponding to the public key to be listed. Sections 36 to 39 govern the representations made on issue, and the suspension, revocation and notice of revocation of a certificate. Section 42 places the correlative duty on the subscriber to keep the private key confidential and to inform the Certifying Authority without delay if it is compromised.
The secure signature. Section 15 provides that an electronic signature is a secure electronic signature if the signature creation data, at the time of affixing the signature, was under the exclusive control of the signatory and of no other person, and was stored and affixed in such exclusive manner as may be prescribed. The Explanation provides that in the case of a digital signature the signature creation data means the private key of the subscriber. A secure signature is what attracts the evidentiary presumption, formerly section 85B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and now section 86 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Technology neutrality. As passed, the Act recognised only the digital signature. The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008, in force from 27 October 2009, inserted section 3A, which recognises an electronic signature, defined by section 2(1)(ta), effected by any technique which is considered reliable and is specified in the Second Schedule, and section 3A(2) permits the Central Government to add to that Schedule by notification. A digital signature is therefore one species of electronic signature, and the Second Schedule today carries e-authentication using Aadhaar or other e-KYC services.
Legal recognition in the courts. Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, (2014) 10 SCC 473, is the reminder that recognition of the signature does not answer the separate question of admissibility of the record. The Supreme Court held that an electronic record produced as secondary evidence is inadmissible without the certificate then required by section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, that oral evidence cannot cure its absence, and it overruled the contrary observations in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1, confirmed that the certificate is a mandatory condition precedent, overruled Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (2018) 2 SCC 801, and held that a court may summon the certificate where the device is in the control of a person who will not produce it. The requirement now sits in section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Imprisonment for life. Section 66F, cyber terrorism, committed by denying access, penetrating without authorisation or introducing a contaminant with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India and thereby causing death, injury, damage or disruption of essential services; or by knowingly obtaining access to information restricted for reasons of the security of the State or foreign relations, with reason to believe it may injure those interests.
Up to ten years. Section 70, securing or attempting to secure access to a protected system notified because it affects Critical Information Infrastructure.
Up to five or seven years. Section 67, publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form, three years and five lakh rupees on a first conviction and five years and ten lakh on a second. Section 67A, material containing a sexually explicit act, five years and ten lakh, seven years on a second. Section 67B, material depicting children, five years and ten lakh, seven years on a second, and uniquely reaching the person who collects, seeks, browses or downloads.
Up to three years. Section 65, tampering with computer source code required by law to be kept, three years or fine up to two lakh. Section 66, any act referred to in section 43 done dishonestly or fraudulently, three years or fine up to five lakh. Section 66B, dishonestly receiving a stolen computer resource. Section 66C, identity theft by fraudulent use of the electronic signature, password or other unique identification feature of another, three years and fine up to one lakh. Section 66D, cheating by personation using a computer resource. Section 66E, capturing, publishing or transmitting the image of a private area without consent.
Up to two years. Section 71, misrepresentation to the Controller or a Certifying Authority; section 73, publishing an electronic signature certificate false in material particulars; section 74, creating or publishing such a certificate for a fraudulent purpose. These three protect the signature scheme described above and are the reason the two limbs of this question belong together.
Procedure. Section 77B makes offences punishable with three years imprisonment bailable; section 78 requires investigation by an officer not below Inspector; section 77A permits compounding except where the punishment is life or exceeds three years; section 84B and 84C punish abetment and attempt.
What is no longer there. Section 66A, which punished sending offensive messages, was struck down in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, as violating Article 19(1)(a) because its terms were open ended and did not fall within any of the eight subjects in Article 19(2), and was finally omitted by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 with effect from 30 November 2023. The same Act decriminalised sections 72 and 72A, converting breach of confidentiality and disclosure in breach of a lawful contract into penalties of five lakh and twenty five lakh rupees.
Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, fixes the relationship with the general law: where the offence relates to an electronic record the Act is a special law and, by force of section 81, prevails over the Penal Code, so a person discharged under section 67 cannot be prosecuted under section 292 for the same conduct.
Conclusion. The salient features of the Act are legal recognition of electronic records and signatures, electronic governance, rules of attribution, a secure records regime, a Controller and licensed Certifying Authorities, civil compensation with an adjudicating officer up to five crore rupees, an appellate structure, a chapter of offences reaching imprisonment for life, extra-territorial reach under section 75 and an overriding effect under section 81.
The digital signature under section 3 is the device on which the first feature rests, delivering authentication and integrity together through an asymmetric key pair and a hash function, supported by the certificate chain in Chapters VI and VII and widened into a technology neutral electronic signature by section 3A in 2009. The offences in Chapter XI exist to protect that chain and the systems it runs on, and two of them, section 66A and the imprisonment limbs of sections 72 and 72A, have been removed from the statute book since this paper was set.
The rest of the answers
You have read the question paper and its first answer in full. Buy the solved papers once and you can read every answer of every solved paper in this semester.
Notes + Solved papers: ₹798 Already bought it? Sign in
Or solved papers only: ₹499
Or notes only: ₹499
The question paper itself stays free, and so does the syllabus.
Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.