Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 13 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.
The law in these answers is stated as at August 2026, and four changes date most textbooks on this subject. The Indian Penal Code was repealed on 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced sedition with section 152; section 124A has been in abeyance since 11 May 2022 and the Supreme Court agreed on 8 August 2025 to examine section 152 itself. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was finally omitted from the statute book by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 on 30 November 2023, eight years after Shreya Singhal struck it down, and sections 72 and 72A were decriminalised the same day. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal was abolished by the Finance Act, 2017 on 26 May 2017 and appeals now lie to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal. And section 2(54) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was substituted on 1 September 2022 to enact Shilpa Mittal.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 7 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Form 05230, sat 2 March 2026
attempt any four of seven · 100 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question has three limbs and the examiner has weighted the second and third. A list of the Act's features will earn you a third of the marks. The marks are in showing what section 3 actually requires of a digital signature, how sections 4, 5 and 15 convert that into legal recognition, and which offences in Chapter XI protect the signature. Finish by separating a digital signature from an electronic signature, because section 3A made the Act technology neutral in 2009 and most answers still write as though it had not.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 received assent on 9 June 2000 and was brought into force on 17 October 2000. Its preamble traces it to the United Nations General Assembly resolution A/RES/51/162 of 30 January 1997, which commended the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce to member States. India was among the first countries to legislate on that model.
The problem the Act solves is narrow and practical. Indian law was written for paper. A contract had to be signed, a document had to be filed, a record had to be retained, and every one of those words assumed something you could hold. The Act does not rewrite the law of contract or evidence. It supplies a rule of equivalence: what the older law demands on paper is satisfied electronically if the Act's conditions are met.
Legal recognition of electronic records and signatures. Section 4 provides that where any law requires information to be in writing, that requirement is satisfied if the information is rendered in an electronic form and accessible for subsequent reference. Section 5 does the same for signatures. Section 7 covers retention of records and section 8 the publication of rules and notifications in an Electronic Gazette.
Electronic governance. Sections 6, 6A and 7A allow filing, issue and payment in electronic form and permit the Government to authorise service providers to deliver services. Section 9 is the safeguard: nothing in sections 6, 7 and 8 confers a right to insist that any Ministry or department accept a document in electronic form.
Attribution, acknowledgement and despatch. Sections 11 to 13 fix when an electronic record is attributed to the originator, when receipt is acknowledged, and the time and place of despatch and receipt. These are the rules that decide where an electronic contract is made, and they matter for jurisdiction.
Regulation of Certifying Authorities. Chapter VI, sections 17 to 34, creates the Controller of Certifying Authorities, licenses the authorities who issue certificates, and gives the Controller powers of investigation and of access to computers and data. Chapter VII governs the certificates themselves and Chapter VIII the duties of subscribers, including the duty in section 42 to keep the private key confidential.
Penalties, adjudication and appeal. Chapter IX creates civil liability. Section 43 makes a person who damages a computer or copies data without permission liable to pay compensation, and section 43A makes a body corporate that is negligent with sensitive personal data liable in damages. Section 46 gives an adjudicating officer jurisdiction where the claim does not exceed five crore rupees. Chapter X provides the appeal, and section 62 a further appeal to the High Court within sixty days.
Offences. Chapter XI, sections 65 to 78, creates the criminal offences. Chapter XII, section 79, gives an intermediary a conditional exemption from liability, and section 81 gives the Act overriding effect. Section 75 extends the Act to offences committed outside India where a computer or computer system located in India is involved.
What the Act does not touch. The First Schedule, read with section 1(4), excludes negotiable instruments other than a cheque, powers of attorney, trusts, wills and contracts for the sale or conveyance of immovable property. A will cannot be made electronically in India, and that exclusion has survived every amendment.
Section 2(1)(p) defines a digital signature as authentication of an electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with section 3. The definition is therefore empty until you read section 3, which is where the technical requirement sits.
Section 3(2) requires authentication to be effected by the use of an asymmetric crypto system and hash function which envelop and transform the initial electronic record into another electronic record. Two limbs follow. Section 3(3) says that any person can verify the record using the public key of the subscriber. Section 3(4) says that the private key and the public key are unique to the subscriber and constitute a functioning key pair.
The mechanism, put plainly, is this. The record is passed through a hash function to produce a short digest. The signer encrypts that digest with a private key which only the signer holds. Anyone who has the signer's public key, published in a certificate issued by a licensed Certifying Authority under section 35, can decrypt the digest and re-run the hash. If the two digests match, the record has not been altered and it was signed by the holder of the private key. Section 3 therefore delivers both authentication and integrity in one operation.
Section 15 adds a further tier. A secure electronic signature is one where the signature creation data was, at the time of affixing the signature, under the exclusive control of the signatory and no other person, and was stored and affixed in such exclusive manner as may be prescribed. The Explanation says that in the case of a digital signature the signature creation data means the private key of the subscriber. A secure signature is what the law of evidence attaches a presumption to: section 85B of the old Evidence Act, now section 86 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
The Act as passed in 2000 was tied to one technology. Only public key cryptography counted. The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008, which came into force on 27 October 2009, inserted section 3A and recognised an electronic signature, defined in section 2(1)(ta), as authentication by any technique specified in the Second Schedule. The Central Government may add to that Schedule by notification under section 3A(2), and has done so: the Second Schedule now carries e-authentication using Aadhaar or other e-KYC services, which is how the great majority of Indian documents are signed today.
| Digital signature | Electronic signature | |
|---|---|---|
| Source | Section 3 | Section 3A, inserted in 2009 |
| Technique | Asymmetric crypto system and hash function only | Any technique in the Second Schedule |
| Governing definition | Section 2(1)(p) | Section 2(1)(ta) |
| Certificate | Issued by a licensed Certifying Authority under section 35 | Same, plus the reliability conditions in section 3A(1) |
| Amendment by notification | Not possible without amending section 3 | Second Schedule amendable under section 3A(2) |
| Typical Indian use | Company filings, income tax, tenders | Aadhaar e-sign for everyday documents |
The relationship is one of inclusion, not replacement. Section 2(1)(ta) makes a digital signature one species of electronic signature, so everything the Act says about an electronic signature applies to a digital signature as well.
Section 5 is the operative recognition. Where any law requires information to be authenticated by affixing a signature, that requirement is satisfied if the information is authenticated by an electronic signature affixed in the prescribed manner. Section 10 empowers the Central Government to prescribe the type of signature, the manner of affixing it and the procedure for identifying the signatory.
Recognition also reached older statutes. Section 93 of the IT Act, read with its Third Schedule, substituted section 2(8) of the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891 and inserted section 2A into it with effect from 17 October 2000, so that a printout of a bank entry became a certified copy if accompanied by the two certificates section 2A prescribes. Sections 91 to 94 of the IT Act and its Third and Fourth Schedules were themselves omitted as spent by the 2008 amendment with effect from 27 October 2009, but the amendments they made stand in the amended Acts.
Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, (2014) 10 SCC 473, is the case to cite for how recognition is proved. The appellant sought to prove election propaganda recorded on CDs. The Supreme Court held that an electronic record produced as secondary evidence is inadmissible unless accompanied by the certificate under section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, and that oral evidence cannot cure its absence. The Court expressly overruled the contrary view in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600. The bearing on this question is that legal recognition under section 5 is not self-executing: the Act makes the signature valid, and the law of evidence still decides whether the record carrying it is admissible.
Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1, completed the picture. A three-judge Bench held that the section 65B(4) certificate is a mandatory condition precedent, resolved the conflict created by Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (2018) 2 SCC 801, and held that where a party cannot produce the certificate because the device is in another's control, the court may summon it. The requirement now sits in section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which added a schedule for the certificate itself.
Trimex International FZE Ltd. v. Vedanta Aluminium Ltd., (2010) 3 SCC 1, shows the commercial consequence. The parties negotiated a supply of bauxite entirely by email and no formal contract was ever executed. The Supreme Court held that a concluded contract had come into existence, because unconditional acceptance had been communicated, and that the absence of a signed paper document did not affect it. Legal recognition of the electronic record is what allowed the Court to treat the exchange as the contract.
The signature scheme would be worthless if the key and the certificate were not protected, and Chapter XI supplies that protection.
Section 65 punishes knowing or intentional concealment, destruction or alteration of computer source code required to be kept by law, with imprisonment up to three years or fine up to two lakh rupees or both. Section 66 punishes any act referred to in section 43 done dishonestly or fraudulently, with imprisonment up to three years or fine up to five lakh rupees or both. Reading section 66 with section 43 is the standard route to prosecuting unauthorised access to a signing key.
Section 66C is the identity theft provision and is drafted directly at this scheme. It punishes fraudulent or dishonest use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of another person, with imprisonment up to three years and fine up to one lakh rupees. Section 66D punishes cheating by personation using a computer resource on the same scale.
Section 71 punishes misrepresentation or suppression of a material fact made to the Controller or a Certifying Authority to obtain a licence or a certificate. Section 73 punishes publishing an electronic signature certificate false in material particulars, knowing that the Certifying Authority did not issue it, that the subscriber did not accept it, or that it has been revoked or suspended. Section 74 punishes creation, publication or making available of a certificate for any fraudulent or unlawful purpose. All three carry imprisonment up to two years or fine up to one lakh rupees or both.
One provision that every textbook still describes as an offence is no longer one. Section 72, breach of confidentiality and privacy by a person who secured access under a power conferred by the Act, and section 72A, disclosure in breach of a lawful contract, were both decriminalised by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 with effect from 30 November 2023. Imprisonment was removed from each. Section 72 now attracts a penalty which may extend to five lakh rupees and section 72A a penalty which may extend to twenty five lakh rupees, and the marginal heading of section 72A was changed from Punishment to Penalty to make the shift explicit.
Two procedural sections complete the chapter. Section 77B makes every offence punishable with three years imprisonment bailable, and section 78 requires investigation by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector.
The criticism begins with enforcement architecture. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal, established under section 48, went without a Chairperson from 2011 and heard nothing. The Finance Act, 2017 omitted sections 49 to 56 with effect from 26 May 2017 and transferred the jurisdiction to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal. A specialist tribunal for a specialist statute was allowed to die of a vacancy and was then folded into a telecom tribunal.
The second criticism is drafting by overreach. Section 66A punished the sending of offensive messages in language so vague that Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, struck it down as violating Article 19(1)(a), holding that the terms used were open ended and undefined and that the section did not fall within any of the eight subjects in Article 19(2). The Court upheld section 69A, whose blocking power is hedged with reasons and safeguards, and read down section 79. Even after that judgment, prosecutions under section 66A continued for years because the text stayed printed in the Act; it was finally omitted only by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 with effect from 30 November 2023.
The third criticism is that the civil remedy has not kept pace. Section 43A, the only compensation provision for a data breach, is due to be omitted when section 44(2) of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 commences on 13 May 2027, and it will be replaced by a penalty regime that pays the State rather than the individual whose data was lost.
Conclusion. The Information Technology Act, 2000 is an enabling statute before it is a penal one. Its central achievement is the rule of equivalence in sections 4 and 5, and the digital signature under section 3 is the device that makes that equivalence safe, because an asymmetric key pair and a hash function deliver authentication and integrity together in a way a scanned image of a signature never can. Section 3A then freed the scheme from a single technology, which is why an Aadhaar based e-sign is as good in law today as a cryptographic one. The offences in sections 65, 66, 66C, 66D, 71, 73 and 74 exist to protect that chain of trust rather than to police content, and where the Act has failed it has failed on the enforcement side, in an appellate tribunal allowed to lapse and a struck down section left on the statute book for eight years.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the word "critically" and the word "distinguish" are both doing work. A recital of MCOCA's sections answers neither. Build the answer around the five departures from ordinary criminal procedure, which are the confession, the interception regime, witness protection, the bail rule and the property provisions, and show for each one what the Code of Criminal Procedure said and what MCOCA substitutes. Then take a position, because the examiner has asked for criticism, and the constitutional challenges give you the material for it.
By the late 1990s Bombay had a form of criminality the ordinary law could not reach. Extortion, contract killing and land grabbing were carried on by syndicates in which the person who gave the order never touched the weapon, witnesses did not come to court, and each individual act, taken alone, looked like an ordinary offence under the Indian Penal Code. The Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act had lapsed in 1995, and it had been aimed at a different mischief.
The Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 was enacted to meet that. Its object is stated as making special provision for the prevention and control of, and for coping with, criminal activity by organised crime syndicates or gangs. The scheme is not to create a new list of crimes. It is to attach a much heavier consequence, and a much less protective procedure, to conduct which is already criminal, once that conduct is shown to be organised.
Nothing in MCOCA applies until section 2(1) is satisfied, and the three clauses interlock.
Section 2(1)(d), continuing unlawful activity, means an activity prohibited by law which is a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more, undertaken singly or jointly as a member of an organised crime syndicate or on its behalf, in respect of which more than one charge sheet has been filed before a competent court within the preceding ten years, and that court has taken cognizance.
Section 2(1)(e), organised crime, means any continuing unlawful activity by an individual, singly or jointly, either as a member of an organised crime syndicate or on behalf of such syndicate, by the use of violence or threat of violence or intimidation or coercion or other unlawful means, with the objective of gaining pecuniary benefits or gaining undue economic or other advantage for himself or any person, or promoting insurgency.
Section 2(1)(f), organised crime syndicate, means a group of two or more persons who, acting singly or collectively as a syndicate or gang, indulge in activities of organised crime.
The practical importance of section 2(1)(d) cannot be overstated and it is where most MCOCA prosecutions are won or lost. The Act does not apply to a first offender however grave the act. It applies to a person operating within a syndicate whose past has already produced more than one charge sheet in ten years on which cognizance was taken. That is a heavy gate, and it is the gate the defence attacks.
Section 3(1)(i) provides death or imprisonment for life where the organised crime has resulted in the death of any person, with a minimum fine of one lakh rupees. Section 3(1)(ii) provides not less than five years and up to imprisonment for life in any other case, with a minimum fine of five lakh rupees. Section 3(2) applies the same range to conspiracy, attempt, advocacy, abetment and knowing facilitation, and section 3(3) to harbouring a member.
Section 3(4) is the provision that most sharply separates MCOCA from the general law: mere membership of an organised crime syndicate is punishable with not less than five years and up to life. Section 3(5) punishes holding property derived from organised crime with three years to life and a minimum fine of two lakh rupees. Section 4 punishes a person who holds unaccountable movable or immovable property on behalf of a member with three to ten years and a minimum fine of one lakh, and makes that property liable to attachment and forfeiture under section 20.
| Question | Ordinary law | MCOCA |
|---|---|---|
| Is a confession to a police officer evidence? | No. Sections 25 and 26 of the Evidence Act, now section 23(1) and section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, bar it | Yes. Section 18: a confession before an officer not below Superintendent of Police is admissible, and admissible against a co-accused tried in the same case |
| Anticipatory bail | Section 438 of the Code, now section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 | Section 21(3): section 438 does not apply at all |
| Bail on merits | Ordinary discretion, presumption of innocence | Section 21(4): the Public Prosecutor must be heard, and the court must be satisfied there are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and will not offend on bail |
| Question | Ordinary law | MCOCA |
|---|---|---|
| Time to file the charge sheet | 90 or 60 days under section 167 of the Code, now section 187 of the Sanhita | Section 21(2): 15 days reads 30, 60 days reads 90, extendable to 180 on the Public Prosecutor's report |
| Who may investigate and who may prosecute | Any officer in charge of a police station; cognizance on a police report | Section 23: prior approval of an officer not below Deputy Inspector General of Police to record the information, investigation not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, and cognizance only with the previous sanction of an officer not below Additional Director General of Police |
Section 18, the confession. The reversal is fundamental. The bar on police confessions exists because a confession obtained in police custody is unreliable, and MCOCA lifts it. It does not lift it unconditionally. The officer must be of the rank of Superintendent of Police, must warn the maker that he is not bound to confess, must satisfy himself that the confession is voluntary and certify that satisfaction in writing with date and time, must forward the confession forthwith to the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate, and must produce the maker before that Magistrate, who records any complaint of torture and directs medical examination by an officer not lower than an Assistant Civil Surgeon.
Sections 13 to 16, interception. MCOCA is one of very few Indian statutes to build a complete interception code. Section 13 makes an officer of the Home Department not below the rank of Secretary to Government the Competent Authority. Section 14 requires a written application from a police officer not below Superintendent of Police supervising the investigation, setting out the offence, the facilities to be intercepted and the identity of the target. Section 15 creates a Review Committee of the Chief Secretary as Chairman, the Additional Chief Secretary or senior most Principal Secretary in the Home Department, and the Principal Secretary or Secretary and Remembrancer of Legal Affairs, which must consider every order within ten days. If the Committee disapproves, interception stops forthwith, the material is inadmissible in any case and is ordered destroyed. Section 16 makes unauthorised interception by a police officer itself an offence.
Section 19, witness protection. Proceedings may be held in camera; the Special Court may keep the identity and address of a witness secret, hold the proceedings at a place of its choosing, omit names from its orders and records, and prohibit publication. Contravention is punishable with imprisonment up to one year and fine up to one thousand rupees. That penalty is the weak point of the section and has not been revised since 1999.
Section 20, property. On conviction the Special Court may declare property of the accused forfeited to the State free from encumbrances. During trial it may attach. Where an accused absconds, the Court may publish a proclamation requiring appearance in not less than fifteen and not more than thirty days, notwithstanding section 82 of the Code, and may attach, sections 83 to 85 of the Code, now sections 85 to 88 of the Sanhita, applying to that attachment. A proviso requires the investigating officer to report to the Special Court if the accused is not arrested within three months.
State of Maharashtra v. Bharat Shanti Lal Shah, (2008) 13 SCC 5, is the leading challenge. The accused attacked sections 2(1)(d), (e) and (f), 3, 4, 13 to 16 and 21(5). The Bombay High Court struck down sections 13 to 16 on the ground that interception of communications falls within Entry 31 of the Union List, and struck down the words "or under any other Act" in section 21(5). The Supreme Court allowed the State's appeal on interception.
It held that in pith and substance sections 13 to 16 relate to public order and police, Entries 1 and 2 of the State List, that interception under MCOCA serves the limited purpose of preventing and investigating organised crime on grounds distinct from those in section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, and that any encroachment on the Union field was incidental. On section 21(5) it agreed with the High Court: denying bail to a person merely because he was on bail in an offence under any other Act, however unconnected, was an unreasonable classification and violated Article 14. Note precisely what fell. Section 21(5) survives for a person on bail in an offence under MCOCA itself; it is the extension to any other Act that went.
Zameer Ahmed Latifur Rehman Sheikh v. State of Maharashtra, (2010) 5 SCC 246, dealt with the argument that MCOCA's definition of organised crime, in referring to promoting insurgency, trespassed on terrorism, a central subject, and was repugnant to central legislation. The Supreme Court upheld the State's competence and found no repugnancy, holding that the expression had to be read in the context of the whole definition, which is directed at pecuniary and economic advantage.
Ranjitsing Brahmajeetsing Sharma v. State of Maharashtra, (2005) 5 SCC 294, is the case on bail and it is the one that makes section 21(4) workable. The Court held that the restriction on the power to grant bail must not be pushed too far, that the court is not required to record a positive finding that the accused has not committed the offence, and that the expression reasonable grounds for believing he is not guilty means the court must be satisfied that there is a genuine case against the accused and that the prosecution will be able to produce prima facie evidence. If, on a broad probability, the court thinks the accused may not ultimately be convicted, bail may be granted. Without that reading, section 21(4) would require a mini trial at the bail stage.
Prasad Shrikant Purohit v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 7 SCC 440, is worth adding on the sanction gate. The Supreme Court there examined the requirement of prior approval under section 23(1)(a) and held that it must be an approval applied to the organised crime alleged, on material placed before the approving officer, and not a mechanical endorsement. The gate in section 23 is therefore substantive and its absence vitiates the prosecution.
The case against MCOCA is that each departure, defensible on its own, compounds. A police confession is admissible; anticipatory bail is unavailable; regular bail requires the accused to displace a statutory presumption; custody may run to 180 days; and section 22 raises presumptions against him once arms or fingerprints are proved. An accused who cannot get bail for six months while a confession recorded by a Superintendent of Police sits on the record is under enormous pressure to plead. The safeguards are all internal to the police and executive hierarchy, and the Review Committee under section 15 is composed entirely of serving officials of the same Government whose police sought the interception.
The second criticism is drift. MCOCA was justified by the gang violence of 1990s Bombay. It has since been used in cases far from that, and the ten year, two charge sheet gate has been argued to be satisfied by a string of ordinary offences that no one would call a syndicate. The Supreme Court's insistence in Prasad Shrikant Purohit on a real application of mind at the approval stage is the principal judicial answer to that drift.
The third development is that the case for a State law of this kind has weakened. Section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 now creates a general offence of organised crime for the whole of India, in language closely modelled on MCOCA, with the same two charge sheet and ten year test, and section 112 creates petty organised crime. Where MCOCA once filled a vacuum, it now overlaps a central provision, and a defendant in Maharashtra may face the harsher procedure of the State Act for conduct that would attract only the Sanhita elsewhere.
Conclusion. MCOCA is best understood not as a statute creating new crimes but as a statute suspending the ordinary protections of criminal procedure for a defined class of accused. Sections 2(1)(d), (e) and (f) define that class; sections 18, 21, 22 and 23 supply the suspended procedure; and sections 13 to 16, 19 and 20 supply the investigative and property machinery. The Supreme Court has kept the Act alive by trimming rather than striking, upholding interception in Bharat Shanti Lal Shah and competence in Zameer Ahmed while reading section 21(4) down in Ranjitsing Sharma and insisting on a real approval in Prasad Shrikant Purohit. With section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita now covering the same ground for the whole country, the honest question about MCOCA in 2026 is no longer whether it is constitutional but whether a State needs a harsher parallel code at all.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the phrase public offences in this question means Chapter XV of the Sanhita, headed offences affecting the public health, safety, convenience, decency and morals, sections 270 to 297. Open by explaining what makes an offence public rather than private, then work through the chapter group by group, and give the decency and public health groups the fuller treatment the question asks for. The examiner will look for the changes the Sanhita made, so carry the Indian Penal Code numbering alongside and say where the fine has moved.
The offences in Chapter XV share a structure. The person injured is not an individual but the public, or a section of the public, or persons who may have occasion to use a public right. There is no complainant with a private wrong; the wrong is the loss of a common amenity or a common protection.
Section 270 defines public nuisance in exactly those terms. A person is guilty of a public nuisance who does any act, or is guilty of an illegal omission, which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to the people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which must necessarily cause injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use any public right. The section then adds the rule that decides most litigated cases: a common nuisance is not excused on the ground that it causes some convenience or advantage.
That last clause is the answer to the standard defence. A factory that employs a thousand people, a loudspeaker that serves a congregation, a stall that feeds a street: each may confer a real benefit and each remains a nuisance if it inflicts common injury.
The chapter divides into five recognisable groups.
Public health. Section 271 punishes a negligent act likely to spread infection of a disease dangerous to life; section 272 the same act done malignantly, that is knowingly or with intent. Section 273 punishes disobedience to a quarantine rule. Sections 274 and 275 punish adulteration of food or drink intended for sale and the sale of noxious food or drink. Sections 276, 277 and 278 punish adulteration of drugs, sale of adulterated drugs and sale of a drug as a different drug. Sections 279 and 280 punish fouling the water of a public spring or reservoir and making the atmosphere noxious to health.
Public safety. Sections 281 to 291 cover rash driving on a public way, rash navigation, exhibition of a false light or buoy, conveying persons by water in an unsafe or overloaded vessel, danger or obstruction in a public way, and negligent conduct with respect to poisonous substances, fire, explosives, machinery, buildings and animals.
Convenience. Sections 292 and 293 are the residual and the persistent nuisance provisions.
Decency and morals. Sections 294, 295 and 296 deal with obscenity, and section 297 with keeping a lottery office.
Sections 271 and 272 are the classic pair, and the distinction between them is the mental element. Section 271 requires a negligent act which the accused knew or had reason to believe was likely to spread the infection of a disease dangerous to life. Section 272 requires the act to be done malignantly, and carries the heavier sentence. The COVID-19 prosecutions of 2020 and 2021 were brought under the corresponding sections 269 and 270 of the Indian Penal Code read with section 188, and they exposed how thin the older penalties were.
The adulteration group repays close reading because the Sanhita has moved the money. Section 276 punishes adulteration of any drug or medical preparation in such a manner as to lessen its efficacy, change its operation or make it noxious, intending or knowing it likely that it will be sold or used for a medicinal purpose as if unadulterated. The punishment is imprisonment up to one year, or fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or both. The corresponding section 274 of the Indian Penal Code carried a fine of one thousand rupees, so the Sanhita has multiplied it fivefold. Section 277, sale of adulterated drugs, and section 278, sale of a drug as a different drug, each carry six months or five thousand rupees or both.
The obvious criticism of this group survives the recodification. A one year maximum for adulterating medicine is derisory when set against the harm, which is why prosecutions in practice are brought under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, whose section 27 provides imprisonment which may extend to life where adulterated or spurious drugs cause death or grievous hurt. The Sanhita raised the fine and left the imprisonment where Macaulay put it.
Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Kacheroo Mal, (1976) 1 SCC 412, is the case to cite on how these offences are proved. The respondent was prosecuted for selling adulterated food, and the question was whether the prosecution had to prove that the seller knew of the adulteration. The Supreme Court treated the statutory offence as one where the act of sale of the offending article is the gravamen, and declined to import a general requirement of knowledge into a public health provision, while insisting that the statutory procedure for sampling and analysis be strictly followed. The bearing is that public health offences are proved by the state of the article and the fact of the sale, and the accused's protection lies in the procedural conditions, not in a mental element.
Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand, (1980) 4 SCC 162, is the leading Indian authority on public nuisance and is worth the space. Residents of a Ratlam locality complained of open drains, effluent from a nearby alcohol plant and the absence of sanitation, and the Sub-Divisional Magistrate directed the municipality to construct drains under section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. The municipality resisted on the ground of lack of funds. Krishna Iyer J. held that a statutory body cannot plead financial inability to justify a public nuisance affecting the health of the community, that section 133 is a potent instrument of social justice and not a dead letter, and directed the drains to be built. The conditional order power now sits in section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Murli S. Deora v. Union of India, (2001) 8 SCC 765, applied the same principle to tobacco. The Supreme Court held that smoking in public places amounts to a public nuisance because it inflicts involuntary passive smoking on persons who have no wish to smoke, and prohibited smoking in public places including hospitals, health institutions, educational institutions, libraries, courts, public offices and public transport pending legislation. It is the clearest modern illustration of section 270's rule that common injury is not excused by private convenience, and it led directly to the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003.
Section 294 is the central obscenity provision. Sub-section (1) defines the standard: a book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation, figure or any other object, including display of any content in electronic form, is deemed obscene if it is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest, or if its effect, taken as a whole, tends to deprave and corrupt persons likely to read, see or hear it. The inclusion of electronic content is new to the Sanhita and matters, because the Indian Penal Code left the electronic field entirely to the Information Technology Act.
Sub-section (2) lists the punishable acts: selling, letting to hire, distributing, publicly exhibiting, circulating, making, producing or possessing for those purposes; importing, exporting or conveying; profiting from such a business; advertising; and offering or attempting any of these. First conviction carries up to two years and fine up to five thousand rupees, a second up to five years and fine up to ten thousand rupees.
The Exception to section 294 is what the examiner is looking for whenever a paper asks which subjects and objects are exempted. It has two limbs. The section does not extend to (a) any book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation or figure (i) the publication of which is proved to be justified as being for the public good on the ground that it is in the interest of science, literature, art or learning or other objects of general concern, or (ii) which is kept or used bona fide for religious purposes; and (b) any representation sculptured, engraved, painted or otherwise represented on or in (i) any ancient monument within the meaning of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, or (ii) any temple, or on any car used for the conveyance of idols, or kept or used for any religious purpose.
Limb (b) is why the erotic sculpture at Khajuraho and Konark is outside the section altogether, and it is a categorical exclusion, not a defence to be weighed. Limb (a)(i) is different: it must be proved to be justified, and the burden is on the person claiming it.
Section 295 punishes sale, hire, distribution, exhibition or circulation of an obscene object to a child, with three years and fine up to two thousand on first conviction and seven years and fine up to five thousand on a second. Section 296 punishes obscene acts in a public place and obscene songs, ballads or words in or near a public place, but only where they are to the annoyance of others, with three months or fine up to one thousand or both.
Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1965 SC 881, is where the Indian law began. A Bombay bookseller was convicted for stocking an unexpurgated Lady Chatterley's Lover. The Supreme Court upheld the conviction and the constitutionality of the section, adopting the test from R. v. Hicklin, (1868) LR 3 QB 360: whether the tendency of the matter is to deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences. Hidayatullah J. added that the treatment of sex in a manner offensive to public decency and morality is the vice, and that a work of art is not obscene merely because it deals with sex.
Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal, (2014) 4 SCC 257, discarded that test. A Calcutta magazine had reproduced a German photograph of the tennis player Boris Becker with his fiancée, both partly nude, published to protest against apartheid. The Supreme Court quashed the prosecution and held expressly that the Hicklin test is no longer good law in India, because it judges an isolated passage by its effect on the most susceptible reader. In its place the Court adopted the contemporary community standards test: the question is whether a reasonable person, applying contemporary community standards and taking the work as a whole, would find that it appeals to the prurient interest. The message and the context, the Court held, are decisive.
Chandrakant Kalyandas Kakodkar v. State of Maharashtra, (1969) 2 SCC 687, sits between them and is useful for the standard applied to literature. The author of a Marathi story was prosecuted for obscenity. The Court set the conviction aside, holding that the concept of obscenity changes with time, that the book must be judged as a whole, and that the standard is that of the ordinary person of common sense and prudence and not of a hypersensitive one. It also warned against judging a work by the effect on adolescents alone.
The first weakness is the fine. Most of Chapter XV was drafted in 1860 and the Sanhita has raised the money without raising the imprisonment. A public nuisance under section 292 is punishable with a fine which may extend to one thousand rupees; that is five times the two hundred rupees in section 290 of the Indian Penal Code and is still no deterrent to a commercial polluter.
The second weakness is overlap. Obscenity in electronic form is now covered by section 294 of the Sanhita and by sections 67, 67A and 67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, resolved the earlier version of this conflict. The appellant, an officer of the site that hosted a listing for an obscene video clip, had been discharged under section 67 of the Information Technology Act but was continued under section 292 of the Indian Penal Code. The Supreme Court quashed the residual charge, holding that where the offence relates to an electronic record the Information Technology Act is a special law which, by virtue of section 81, prevails over the general provision in the Penal Code. Since the Sanhita has now written electronic content into section 294(1) itself, that conflict will have to be litigated again.
The third weakness is that the decency provisions are inherently vague and are used against speech. Section 296 punishes an obscene act to the annoyance of others without defining obscene act at all, and it remains one of the most casually invoked provisions in the book.
Conclusion. Chapter XV of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 protects interests that no individual can vindicate for himself: clean water, safe medicine, an unobstructed highway and a public space not made intolerable. Section 270 supplies the organising idea, that common injury is an offence even where it also brings advantage, and Ratlam Municipality and Murli Deora show a court willing to enforce that against a municipality and against a habit. On decency the Sanhita has done one real thing and left one thing undone: it has brought electronic content inside section 294(1), and it has left the Exception, the sentences and the century old vagueness of section 296 exactly as they were. The student should remember that the exemptions in the Exception are the examinable core, and that after Aveek Sarkar the governing test is contemporary community standards applied to the work as a whole, not Hicklin.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the whole answer turns on one provision, section 15, and you must be able to state its four limbs from memory. Build outward from it: what makes an offence heinous, who conducts the assessment, what the Board may decide, what the Children's Court does next, and what can never be ordered. Do not treat this as a question about whether sixteen year olds should be tried as adults; the examiner wants the statutory machinery, with the policy argument as your criticism section.
Until 15 January 2016 the rule in India was absolute. A person below eighteen on the date of the offence was dealt with by the Juvenile Justice Board and by nobody else, whatever the offence. The Delhi gang rape of December 2012 tested that rule in public, because one of the accused was months short of eighteen and, on conviction, was sent to a special home for the statutory maximum of three years.
The rule survived two constitutional challenges. In Salil Bali v. Union of India, (2013) 7 SCC 705, decided on 17 July 2013, the petitioner asked the Supreme Court to read down the definitions in the 2000 Act so that a person between sixteen and eighteen who committed a grave offence could be tried as an adult. The Court refused. It held that the age of eighteen had been fixed after understanding the psychology and behavioural patterns of children below that age, that it accorded with India's obligations under the Convention on the Rights of the Child, and that the remedy for individual failures was better implementation, not a lower age.
In Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Raju, (2014) 8 SCC 390, decided on 28 March 2014, the Court was asked to read the Act so that the Board could assess a juvenile's mental maturity and decline jurisdiction. It again refused, holding that the Act drew a clear age line which the courts could not redraw, and that the argument was for Parliament.
Parliament then acted. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 repealed the 2000 Act and, for the first and only time in Indian law, created a route by which a child may be tried as an adult.
The route only opens for a heinous offence, so the classification is the first thing to get right.
| Class | Section | Test |
|---|---|---|
| Petty offence | 2(45) | maximum punishment up to three years |
| Serious offence | 2(54)(a) | minimum more than three years and not exceeding seven years |
| Serious offence | 2(54)(b) | maximum more than seven years but no minimum, or a minimum of less than seven years |
| Heinous offence | 2(33) | minimum punishment of seven years or more |
Clause (b) of section 2(54) is new and has a history worth two marks. As enacted, the Act defined only three classes, and a large group of offences fell through the gap: those carrying a maximum above seven years but no minimum at all. In Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 2 SCC 787, decided on 9 January 2020, a child above sixteen was alleged to have caused a death by rash driving, an offence then punishable under section 304 Part II of the Indian Penal Code with up to ten years but no minimum.
The Supreme Court held that the word minimum in section 2(33) cannot be read as maximum, that such an offence is therefore not heinous, and that until Parliament acted the Court would, under Article 142, direct that the fourth category be treated as a serious offence. The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act, 2021 wrote that holding into section 2(54)(b) with effect from 1 September 2022. The practical consequence is large: an offence with no statutory minimum, however grave, cannot send a child to the Children's Court.
Section 4 requires every State Government to constitute one or more Juvenile Justice Boards for every district. A Board is a Bench of three: a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, who must not be the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate, with at least three years experience, styled the Principal Magistrate, and two social workers, at least one of whom must be a woman.
Section 4(3) sets the qualification for the social worker members, and it becomes important under section 15. A social worker must have been actively involved in health, education or welfare activities pertaining to children for at least seven years, or be a practising professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, sociology or law. A Board therefore may, but need not, contain a psychologist.
Section 15(1) provides that in the case of a heinous offence alleged to have been committed by a child who has completed or is above the age of sixteen years, the Board shall conduct a preliminary assessment with regard to:
The proviso says the Board may take the assistance of experienced psychologists or psycho social workers or other experts. The Explanation is the provision students most often miss: it clarifies that a preliminary assessment is not a trial, but is to assess the capacity of the child to commit and to understand the consequences of the alleged offence. The Board is not deciding guilt and must not conduct the exercise as though it were.
Section 14(3) requires the assessment to be completed within three months from the date of first production of the child before the Board.
Two roads lead out of section 15.
If the Board is satisfied on the preliminary assessment that the matter should be disposed of by the Board, section 15(2) requires it to follow, as far as may be, the procedure for a summons case. It then passes an order under section 18. Section 18(1), as amended in 2021, now expressly covers this situation. The orders open to the Board run from advice or admonition, group counselling and community service, through a fine, to release on probation for up to three years and, at the top, an order under section 18(1)(g) sending the child to a special home for up to three years for reformative services.
If the Board decides that there is a need for trial as an adult, section 18(3) requires it to transfer the trial to the Children's Court having jurisdiction. That is the only order by which a child leaves the juvenile system.
Section 19 then gives the Children's Court its own discretion, and it is not a rubber stamp. On receipt of the preliminary assessment, the Children's Court may decide either that there is a need for trial as an adult, in which case it tries the child under the ordinary procedure but subject to section 21 and with regard to the special needs of the child and a child friendly atmosphere, or that there is no such need, in which case it conducts an inquiry as a Board and passes orders under section 18. The Children's Court thus reviews the Board's conclusion afresh.
Section 19(2) requires the final order to include an individual care plan. Section 19(3) requires that a child found to be in conflict with law be sent to a place of safety until he attains twenty one, and only then transferred to jail, with reformative and educational services during that stay.
Section 20 supplies the second review. When the child attains twenty one and has not completed the term, the Children's Court must have a follow up by the probation officer, the District Child Protection Unit, a social worker or by itself, to evaluate whether the child has undergone reformative change and can be a contributing member of society. It may then either release the child on conditions with a monitoring authority for the remainder of the term, or direct that the remainder be served in jail.
Section 21 is the outer limit and it is absolute: no child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or to life imprisonment without the possibility of release, under this Act, the Penal Code or any other law. Section 24 removes the disqualification attaching to a conviction, except for a child above sixteen tried as an adult for a heinous offence.
Section 101(2) gives an appeal against an order of the Board passed after a preliminary assessment under section 15 to the Court of Sessions, and expressly allows that court, while deciding the appeal, to take the assistance of experienced psychologists and medical specialists other than those whose assistance the Board obtained. That is a deliberate structural check against a single expert opinion deciding a child's future.
Barun Chandra Thakur v. Master Bholu, (2022) 10 SCR 595, decided on 13 July 2022, is the leading case on how section 15 must be conducted. A seven year old boy was found with his throat cut in the washroom of a school in Gurugram, and a sixteen year old student of the same school was alleged to be responsible. The Board conducted a preliminary assessment and ordered that he be tried as an adult; the father of the deceased came to the Supreme Court when that order was set at large in the courts below.
The Supreme Court held three things that matter. First, the word "may" in the proviso to section 15(1) is to be read as mandatory where the Board does not include a practising professional with a degree in child psychology or psychiatry: such a Board must take expert assistance. Second, mental capacity to commit the offence and the ability to understand its consequences are separate enquiries, and an average or above average IQ score establishes the first but says nothing about the second. Third, the Court recorded the absence of guidelines for conducting the assessment and directed the Central Government and the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights to frame them; the NCPCR guidelines followed.
The strongest objection is that section 15 asks a Board to do something no court is equipped to do. Guilt is a question of past fact and the criminal process is built to find it. Capacity to understand consequences is a psychological judgment about a person, made before any evidence has been tested, on the basis of a social investigation report and an expert interview. Barun Chandra Thakur shows how easily it collapses into an IQ score.
The second objection is that the consequence is irreversible in a way the assessment is not. A child transferred under section 18(3) loses the protection of section 24 and carries a conviction; and while section 21 forbids death and life without release, the child can be sentenced to a long term served first in a place of safety and then in jail.
The third objection is one of principle. Article 40 of the Convention on the Rights of the Child and rule 17 of the Beijing Rules commit a State to a separate system for all persons below eighteen, and India's reversal in 2015 was driven by a single case. The counter argument, which an examiner will expect you to state fairly, is that the 2015 Act does not abolish the juvenile system for anyone; it creates a narrow, twice reviewed exception confined to offences carrying a minimum of seven years, committed by a person within two years of majority, subject to an absolute bar on the two heaviest sentences and to a fresh evaluation at twenty one.
Conclusion. The 2015 Act did not lower the age of criminal majority. It kept eighteen and built a gate at sixteen which opens only for a heinous offence as defined in section 2(33), and only after a preliminary assessment under section 15 which is expressly not a trial. The Board decides whether to keep the case or transfer it under section 18(3); the Children's Court decides again under section 19; the Court of Sessions may hear an appeal under section 101(2) with its own experts; section 19(3) keeps the child in a place of safety until twenty one; section 20 requires a reformative evaluation at that point; and section 21 forbids death and life imprisonment without the possibility of release throughout.
Shilpa Mittal narrowed the gate by holding that only a minimum of seven years counts, and Barun Chandra Thakur tightened the assessment by making expert assistance mandatory where the Board lacks a psychologist. The machinery is careful. Whether the judgment it asks a Board to make can be made at all is the question the criticism has never answered.
Answer
For full marks, cover: this is a comparison question and the marks are in the comparison, not in the recital. Set out Chapter VII of the Sanhita section by section, then take the two limbs the examiner names, waging war and sedition, and show for each exactly what has changed and what has not. The single most important point is that the waging war provisions were carried across almost word for word while sedition was not carried across at all but replaced by a differently drafted section 152. Say what turns on that.
Offences against the State occupy sections 147 to 158 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which came into force on 1 July 2024.
Section 147 punishes waging war, attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war against the Government of India, with death or imprisonment for life and fine. Section 148 punishes conspiracy, within or without and beyond India, to commit an offence under section 147, or to overawe the Central or a State Government by criminal force or the show of criminal force, with life or up to ten years and fine. Section 149 punishes collecting men, arms or ammunition, or otherwise preparing to wage war, with life or up to ten years and fine. Section 150 punishes concealing the existence of a design to wage war, with up to ten years and fine.
Section 151 punishes assaulting the President or a Governor with intent to compel or restrain the exercise of a lawful power. Section 152 is the provision that replaces sedition and is dealt with separately below. Sections 153 and 154 punish waging war against, and committing depredation on the territories of, a foreign State at peace with India, and section 155 receiving property so taken. Sections 156, 157 and 158 punish a public servant who allows a State prisoner or prisoner of war to escape, negligently suffers such escape, or aids or harbours such a prisoner.
The comparison here is short because there is almost nothing to compare.
| Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita | Indian Penal Code | Punishment |
|---|---|---|
| 147 | 121 | death or life, and fine |
| 148 | 121A | life or up to 10 years, and fine |
| 149 | 122 | life or up to 10 years, and fine |
| 150 | 123 | up to 10 years, and fine |
| 151 | 124 | up to 7 years, and fine |
The text of section 147 reproduces section 121 and even keeps the illustration, that a person who joins an insurrection against the Government of India commits the offence. Section 148 makes one verbal change, from "within or without India" in section 121A to "within or without and beyond India", which adds nothing legally. The sentences are identical throughout.
The judicial gloss therefore survives intact, and two cases carry it.
State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600, arose out of the attack on Parliament on 13 December 2001. The Supreme Court held that waging war is not to be understood in a technical military sense: what matters is the intention and purpose of the assembly and of the act. An attack on the seat of the legislature by armed men with the object of overawing the Government is waging war within section 121, whatever the number of participants and whatever the prospect of success. The Court convicted Mohd. Afzal under section 121 while acquitting S.A.R. Geelani for want of evidence, which is the part of the judgment that shows the Court applying, not merely reciting, the standard.
Mohd. Ajmal Amir Kasab v. State of Maharashtra, (2012) 9 SCC 1, arose out of the Bombay attacks of 26 November 2008. The Supreme Court upheld the conviction under section 121 and held that the object of the attack was not simply mass murder but to destabilise the Government of India and to strike at its authority, and that the ten men who came from Karachi were waging war though they were not an army. The Court also held that the accused's rights under Article 22 and the fair trial guarantee had not been infringed by the late provision of counsel because he had been offered a lawyer and refused. The case is the fullest modern statement of the offence.
Read together the two cases fix the boundary that examiners test. Waging war is distinguished from rioting not by the number of people or the quantity of arms but by the object: a mob that attacks a police station over a local grievance riots, while ten men who attack a city to force the hand of the Government wage war. That is why Kasab was convicted under section 121 and why the number of attackers was held to be irrelevant.
Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was inserted in 1870 and punished a person who by words, signs or visible representation brought or attempted to bring into hatred or contempt, or excited or attempted to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India, with imprisonment for life, or up to three years, and fine. Three explanations defined disaffection to include disloyalty and all feelings of enmity, and exempted comment disapproving of measures or of administrative action without exciting disaffection.
Its history in India is a history of narrowing. In Queen Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, ILR (1897) 22 Bom 112, Strachey J. directed the jury that disaffection meant absence of affection and that no proof of consequent disorder was needed, which is the reading that made the section an instrument of colonial control. The Federal Court took the opposite view in Niharendu Dutt Majumdar v. King Emperor, AIR 1942 FC 22, holding that public disorder or the reasonable anticipation of it is the gist of the offence. The Privy Council then restored the wider reading in King Emperor v. Sadashiv Narayan Bhalerao, AIR 1947 PC 82.
Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar, AIR 1962 SC 955, resolved the conflict for independent India and is the case the whole modern law rests on. A member of the Forward Communist Party in Bihar had made a speech attacking the Congress Government in violent terms. A Constitution Bench upheld the constitutionality of section 124A but only by reading it down: the section is confined to acts involving an intention or tendency to create disorder, or disturbance of law and order, or incitement to violence. Strongly worded criticism of the Government, however disloyal in sentiment, is not sedition unless it incites violence or public disorder. The Court preferred the Niharendu Dutt reading and disapproved the Privy Council's.
Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, (1995) 3 SCC 214, applied that limit to facts. Two men raised pro Khalistan slogans in a Chandigarh street shortly after the assassination of Indira Gandhi. The Supreme Court set aside their conviction, holding that raising a slogan twice, which evoked no response from anybody and caused no disturbance, could not be sedition, and that the casual raising of slogans by a couple of individuals cannot be said to excite disaffection.
Vinod Dua v. Union of India, (2021) SCC OnLine SC 414, quashed a first information report against a journalist for a broadcast criticising the Government's handling of the pandemic, holding that every journalist is entitled to the protection of Kedar Nath Singh and that the section cannot be used against criticism unaccompanied by incitement.
Despite that line, prosecutions continued. On 11 May 2022, in S.G. Vombatkere v. Union of India, a three judge Bench directed that all pending trials, appeals and proceedings under section 124A be kept in abeyance and that no fresh first information report be registered under it, an order without real precedent in Indian constitutional practice. In September 2023 the challenge was referred to a larger Bench.
| Section 124A, Indian Penal Code | Section 152, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita | |
|---|---|---|
| Name | Sedition, in the marginal note | Act endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India |
| Protected object | The Government established by law | The sovereignty, unity and integrity of India |
| Prohibited effect | Hatred, contempt or disaffection | Exciting secession, armed rebellion, subversive activities, or encouraging feelings of separatist activities, or endangering sovereignty or unity and integrity |
| Mental element | Not stated in terms; supplied by Kedar Nath Singh | Purposely or knowingly, on the face of the section |
| Means | Words, signs, visible representation | Words, signs, visible representation, electronic communication, or use of financial means |
| Section 124A, Indian Penal Code | Section 152, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita | |
|---|---|---|
| Punishment | Life, or up to three years, and fine | Life, or up to seven years, and fine |
| Saving | Explanations 2 and 3 | Explanation: comments disapproving Government measures with a view to their alteration by lawful means |
Three of those differences are genuine improvements. The object of protection has moved from the Government of the day to the State itself, which was the central criticism of section 124A. The mental element is written into the section rather than read into it. And the saving explanation survives in a tighter form.
Two are not improvements. The maximum term for the lesser limb has more than doubled, from three years to seven, which changes the offence from one triable as a lesser matter to one squarely in the serious range. And the operative words are wider than section 124A's, not narrower: "subversive activities" and "encourages feelings of separatist activities" are undefined, and the second in particular criminalises the encouragement of a feeling. Nothing in the section requires incitement to violence or a proximate tendency to disorder, which is precisely the limit Kedar Nath Singh had to import into section 124A to save it.
That is why the constitutional question has simply moved. On 8 August 2025 a Bench led by the Chief Justice agreed to examine the validity of section 152 as part of the same challenge, and the matter stands referred for constitutional decision. In May 2026, in Kamran v. State of Madhya Pradesh, the Court modified the 2022 freeze so that a pending trial or appeal may proceed where the accused does not object, typically to obtain an acquittal. Sections 121 to 124 of the Penal Code, meanwhile, continue to govern every offence committed before 1 July 2024, by force of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 and the saving in section 358 of the Sanhita.
Conclusion. On offences against the State the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is two statutes at once. On waging war it is a transcription: sections 147 to 151 reproduce sections 121 to 124 of the Indian Penal Code in text and in sentence, so Navjot Sandhu and Kasab remain the law and nothing an examiner can ask about waging war has changed. On sedition it is a rewriting: section 152 abandons the word, moves the protected interest from the Government to the sovereignty and integrity of India, writes in the mental element, and raises the lesser maximum from three years to seven, while using language wider than the section it replaces and without the incitement limit Kedar Nath Singh had to supply. The honest answer to whether sedition has been abolished is that the offence has been renamed and re-aimed, and that until the Constitution Bench rules on section 152 the question the Court has been asked since 2021 is still open.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the examiner has named two offences, so structure the answer around sections 67 and 67A and then add section 67B, which is the third member of the group and the one the recent case law is about. The marks are in three places: the graded scheme, obscene material then sexually explicit act then children; the proviso that exempts material of literary, artistic or scientific merit; and the relationship between these sections and the general obscenity law, which Sharat Babu Digumarti settled.
The Indian Penal Code punished the sale, distribution and public exhibition of obscene objects. Those verbs assume a physical article changing hands in a place. A file uploaded to a server in one country, hosted in another and downloaded in a third fits none of them comfortably, and the person who profits from it may never touch the material at all.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 therefore created parallel offences built on two different verbs, publishes and transmits, and added causes to be published or transmitted, which is what catches the person who procures the act without performing it. The 2008 amendment, in force from 27 October 2009, split the original single section into the graded scheme now in force.
Section 67 punishes whoever publishes or transmits or causes to be published or transmitted in the electronic form any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest, or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons who are likely, having regard to all relevant circumstances, to read, see or hear the matter contained or embodied in it.
The punishment is graded by conviction. On a first conviction, imprisonment of either description up to three years and fine up to five lakh rupees. On a second or subsequent conviction, imprisonment up to five years and fine up to ten lakh rupees.
Three drafting points earn marks. First, the definition of obscenity is lifted almost verbatim from section 292 of the Indian Penal Code, so the whole body of case law on what is obscene applies unchanged. Second, the fine is very large by Penal Code standards, five lakh against two thousand rupees, which shows Parliament pricing the offence to commercial distribution rather than to a bookseller. Third, and most importantly, the section punishes publication and transmission only. It does not punish possession, viewing or downloading for oneself.
Section 67A punishes whoever publishes or transmits or causes to be published or transmitted in the electronic form any material which contains sexually explicit act or conduct. On first conviction, imprisonment up to five years and fine up to ten lakh rupees; on a second or subsequent conviction, imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to ten lakh rupees.
The difference from section 67 is one of test, not merely of degree, and it is regularly missed. Section 67 asks a question about effect: does the material tend to deprave and corrupt, does it appeal to the prurient interest. Section 67A asks a question about content: does the material contain a sexually explicit act. The prosecution under section 67A does not have to prove that anyone was or would be depraved. That is why section 67A is the section actually charged in most pornography cases and why the higher sentence attaches to it.
Section 67B is the widest of the three because it abandons the publish-or-transmit limitation. It punishes whoever:
(a) publishes or transmits or causes to be published or transmitted material in any electronic form which depicts children engaged in a sexually explicit act or conduct; (b) creates text or digital images, collects, seeks, browses, downloads, advertises, promotes, exchanges or distributes material in any electronic form depicting children in an obscene or indecent or sexually explicit manner; (c) cultivates, entices or induces children to an online relationship with one or more children for a sexually explicit act, or in a manner that may offend a reasonable adult; (d) facilitates abusing children online; or (e) records in any electronic form his own abuse, or that of others, pertaining to a sexually explicit act with children.
The punishment is five years and ten lakh rupees on first conviction, seven years and ten lakh on a second. Clause (b) is the crucial one: the verbs collects, seeks, browses and downloads reach the consumer, not merely the distributor, which sections 67 and 67A do not.
Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish, [2024] INSC 716, decided on 23 September 2024, is now the leading authority. A Cyber Tipline report identified the respondent as a regular consumer of child sexual abuse material, and videos were found stored on his mobile telephone. The Madras High Court quashed the proceedings, reasoning that mere storage or viewing without an intention to transmit was outside both section 67B of the Information Technology Act and section 15 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012. The Supreme Court set that aside and restored the prosecution.
It held that section 15 of the POCSO Act creates distinct offences of storage and possession with different mental elements, that the statutory presumption of a culpable mental state under section 30 of that Act applies even at the stage of a quashing petition, and that a person who views such material and neither deletes nor reports it commits an offence. The Court further recommended that the expression "child pornography" be replaced throughout by child sexual exploitative and abuse material, because the older phrase understates what the material records. For the purposes of this question, the case is authority for the proposition that clause (b) of section 67B criminalises the demand side and not only the supply side.
The proviso to section 67B applies to sections 67, 67A and 67B together, and it is the electronic counterpart of the Exception to section 294 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. None of the three sections extends to any book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation or figure in electronic form (i) the publication of which is proved to be justified as being for the public good on the ground that it is in the interest of science, literature, art or learning or other objects of general concern, or (ii) which is kept or used bona fide for religious purposes.
Two things follow. The exemption is not automatic; the person claiming it must prove the justification. And the exemption is drafted for works, not for conduct, so it can never protect the recording of an actual act with a child under section 67B(e).
Section 66E punishes intentional capture, publication or transmission of the image of a private area of any person without consent, in circumstances violating privacy, with up to three years or fine up to two lakh rupees or both. It covers the voyeuristic photograph, which is not necessarily obscene and may not depict any act.
Section 69A empowers the Central Government to direct the blocking of public access to information. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, upheld section 69A while striking down section 66A, precisely because section 69A is confined to the grounds in Article 19(2), requires reasons to be recorded in writing, and is subject to the safeguards in the Blocking Rules of 2009. That contrast is the examinable point: a content power survives if it is narrow, reasoned and reviewable.
Section 79 exempts an intermediary from liability for third party content, subject to due diligence and to expeditious removal on actual knowledge. Shreya Singhal read down section 79(3)(b) to mean that actual knowledge arises only on a court order or a Government notification, so that an intermediary is not required to judge lawfulness for itself. The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 now prescribe the due diligence, including a thirty six hour takedown on a court or Government order and a twenty four hour timeline for material of a sexual nature.
Section 77A allows compounding of offences under the Act, but not where the punishment provided is imprisonment for life or for a term exceeding three years. Sections 67A and 67B are therefore not compoundable. Section 78 requires investigation by an officer not below the rank of Inspector. Section 75 extends the Act to conduct outside India involving a computer located in India, which is what makes a foreign hosted site prosecutable here.
Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, decided on 14 December 2016, settled a conflict that had run for a decade. An obscene video clip filmed by a schoolboy was listed for sale on an online marketplace. The manager responsible for the site's content was charged under sections 292 and 294 of the Indian Penal Code and section 67 of the Information Technology Act. He was discharged under section 67 but the Penal Code charges were kept alive, and the Delhi High Court declined to quash them.
The Supreme Court quashed them. It held that where the offence relates to an electronic record, the Information Technology Act is a special law dealing with that subject; that section 81 gives the Act overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent in any other law; and that a person discharged under the special provision cannot be prosecuted for the same conduct under the general one. Obscenity pertaining to an electronic record falls within the scheme of the Information Technology Act, and the general provision must yield.
The practical consequence for a student is a clean rule: electronic material goes to sections 67, 67A and 67B; physical material goes to sections 294 to 296 of the Sanhita. One qualification must now be added. Section 294(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 expressly includes "display of any content in electronic form" within the definition of obscene matter, which reopens the overlap Digumarti closed. The better view is that Digumarti still governs, because it turned on section 81 of the Information Technology Act and on the generalia specialibus non derogant principle, neither of which the Sanhita has touched, but the point is undecided.
The scheme is criticised on three grounds. It imports a Victorian test of obscenity into section 67 while Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal, (2014) 4 SCC 257, has replaced Hicklin with contemporary community standards for the general law, so the same photograph may be judged by two standards depending on the medium. It creates a very large gap between section 67 and section 67A on a distinction, explicit act as against prurient effect, that no statutory definition supports. And enforcement falls almost entirely on intermediaries through the 2021 Rules rather than on publishers, which shifts a censorship function to private companies with strong incentives to over-remove.
Conclusion. The Information Technology Act deals with obscenity through a graded trio. Section 67 punishes publication or transmission of material judged by its tendency to deprave and corrupt; section 67A punishes publication or transmission of material containing a sexually explicit act, judged by content and not by effect; and section 67B reaches children and, uniquely, reaches the person who merely collects, seeks, browses or downloads, which Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish confirmed in 2024. The proviso exempts work of genuine scientific, literary, artistic or religious value only where the justification is proved. Sharat Babu Digumarti fixes the boundary with the general law by holding that the Information Technology Act, being special and carrying section 81, prevails over the Penal Code for anything in electronic form, and the only live doubt is what the Sanhita's new reference to electronic content in section 294(1) does to that rule.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the paper prints three notes and asks for two, so all three are set out below and you should write the two you know best. A twelve and a half mark note is not a paragraph. Each of these should run to about a page and a half, with the sections, at least one worked case for (a) and (c), and the statutory list for (b).
Chapter XVI of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sections 298 to 302, reproduces Chapter XV of the Indian Penal Code, sections 295 to 298, with the numbering shifted by three and one substantive addition. The chapter does not protect any religion. It protects public tranquillity and the religious feelings of citizens against deliberate outrage, which is why every section in it requires an intention or a knowledge directed at those feelings.
Section 298 punishes destroying, damaging or defiling any place of worship or any object held sacred by any class of persons, with the intention of insulting the religion of any class, or with the knowledge that any class is likely to consider it an insult. Punishment is up to two years or fine or both. The object need not be consecrated in any formal sense; what matters is that a class of persons holds it sacred.
Section 299 is the most litigated provision in the chapter. It punishes whoever, with deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of any class of citizens of India, by words spoken or written, by signs, by visible representations, or through electronic means, insults or attempts to insult the religion or the religious beliefs of that class. Punishment is up to three years or fine or both. The words "or through electronic means" are the Sanhita's addition to section 295A of the Penal Code and were plainly written for social media.
Section 300 punishes voluntarily causing disturbance to any assembly lawfully engaged in the performance of religious worship or religious ceremonies, with up to one year or fine or both. Section 301 punishes trespass in a place of worship or sepulchre, indignity to a human corpse, or disturbance of persons assembled for funeral ceremonies, where done with intent to wound feelings or insult religion or with knowledge of that likelihood, with up to one year or fine or both. Section 302 punishes uttering a word, making a sound, making a gesture or placing an object in the sight or hearing of a person with the deliberate intention of wounding that person's religious feelings, again up to one year or fine or both. Sections 298 to 301 protect a class; section 302 protects an individual.
Ramji Lal Modi v. State of U.P., AIR 1957 SC 620, upheld section 295A against Article 19(1)(a). The editor of a magazine was prosecuted for an article said to insult a religion. A Constitution Bench held that the section does not penalise every act of insult to religion but only the aggravated form committed with deliberate and malicious intention, and that so confined it is a reasonable restriction in the interests of public order under Article 19(2). The narrowing construction is what saved it.
Superintendent, Central Prison, Fatehgarh v. Ram Manohar Lohia, AIR 1960 SC 633, is the necessary companion and is where students go wrong. There the Court struck down a provision on the ground that the connection between the speech and public order was too remote, holding that the restriction must have a proximate and not a far fetched or fanciful connection with public order. Read together, the two cases mean that section 299 is valid only because it requires deliberate and malicious intention, and that a prosecution which cannot show that intention fails at the threshold.
Mahendra Singh Dhoni v. Yerraguntla Shyamsundar, (2017) 7 SCC 760, applied the test. The cricketer had appeared on the cover of a business magazine depicted as a deity, and a complaint under section 295A followed. The Supreme Court quashed the proceedings, holding that section 295A does not stigmatise every act of insult and that the deliberate and malicious element must be present on the face of the allegation. It is the most useful modern authority because it shows the section being applied to defeat, rather than to sustain, a prosecution.
The criticism of this chapter is that it invites the heckler's veto. Because the offence is complete on outrage to feelings, any sufficiently organised group can generate a complaint, and the cost of the prosecution falls on the speaker long before any court reaches the question of deliberate and malicious intention. The Sanhita has not addressed that, and by adding electronic means to section 299 it has widened the field on which the problem arises.
Chapter VII of the 2015 Act, read with the definitions in section 2, creates a graded set of institutions. The classification matters because sending a child to the wrong one is a ground of appeal, and because the Act deliberately separates the child in conflict with law from the child in need of care and protection.
| Institution | Section | Who is kept there |
|---|---|---|
| Observation home | 47 | A child in conflict with law, during the pendency of the inquiry |
| Special home | 48 | A child in conflict with law found, on inquiry, to have committed an offence, on an order under section 18(1)(g) |
| Place of safety | 49 and 2(46) | A child above sixteen alleged or found to have committed a heinous offence, during inquiry and during rehabilitation after a finding of guilt; and a child under section 19(3) until he attains twenty one |
| Institution | Section | Who is kept there |
|---|---|---|
| Children's Home | 50 | A child in need of care and protection, placed by the Child Welfare Committee, for care, treatment, education, training, development and rehabilitation |
| Open shelter | 43 | A short stay, community based facility for children in urgent need, run as a drop in centre |
| Fit facility | 51 | A facility run by a Government or voluntary organisation, recognised by the Board or Committee to take a child for a specific purpose and a specific period |
| Institution | Section | Who is kept there |
|---|---|---|
| Fit person | 52 | An individual, verified by the Board or Committee, willing to receive and look after a child for a specific purpose and period |
| Specialised Adoption Agency | 65 | An orphaned, abandoned or surrendered child placed for adoption |
| After care | 46 | A person who has left a child care institution on attaining eighteen, supported to reintegrate, for up to three years |
Four distinctions are worth stating expressly, because they are what an examiner is testing.
Observation home against special home. An observation home is for the period of the inquiry and carries no finding. A special home follows a finding under section 18 and the maximum stay is three years. Sending a child to a special home before the inquiry is complete is illegal.
Place of safety against both. Section 2(46) defines it as any place or institution not being a police lockup or a jail, established separately or attached to an observation home or special home, to receive and take care of children alleged or found to be in conflict with law, by an order of the Board or the Children's Court. Section 49 requires every State to set up at least one. It is the institution created by the 2015 Act for the sixteen to eighteen group, and section 19(3) requires a child tried as an adult to be kept there until twenty one before any transfer to jail.
Children's Home against all of them. A Children's Home receives the child in need of care and protection under section 2(14), the child who has been abandoned, is found begging or living on the street, or whose guardian is unfit. No offence is alleged. Placement is by the Child Welfare Committee under section 30, not by the Board.
After care is not a home at all. Section 46 provides support to a person leaving an institution on attaining eighteen, financial or otherwise, to facilitate reintegration, for a period of up to three years. It is the successor to section 44 of the 2000 Act, which provided only for the State Government to make rules for after care organisations.
Every one of these institutions must be registered under section 41, whether or not it receives Government aid, and section 41(1) makes registration compulsory for every child care institution within six months of the Act's commencement. That obligation, and the mandatory inspection committees under section 54, were Parliament's response to the recurring scandals in unregistered homes.
Obscenity sits in Chapter XV of the Sanhita, sections 294 to 296, within the group of offences affecting public decency and morals.
Section 294(1) supplies the definition. A book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation, figure or any other object, including display of any content in electronic form, is deemed obscene if it is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest, or if its effect, or where it comprises two or more distinct items the effect of any one of them, is, taken as a whole, such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons who are likely, having regard to all relevant circumstances, to read, see or hear the matter. The words "taken as a whole" are important: they forbid the prosecution from isolating a passage.
Section 294(2) punishes selling, letting to hire, distributing, publicly exhibiting or otherwise circulating; making, producing or possessing for those purposes; importing, exporting or conveying; taking part in or receiving profits from such a business; advertising; and offering or attempting any of these. First conviction, up to two years and fine up to five thousand rupees; second or subsequent, up to five years and fine up to ten thousand rupees.
The Exception exempts (a) any book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation or figure (i) the publication of which is proved to be justified as being for the public good on the ground that it is in the interest of science, literature, art or learning or other objects of general concern, or (ii) which is kept or used bona fide for religious purposes; and (b) any representation sculptured, engraved, painted or otherwise represented on or in (i) an ancient monument within the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, or (ii) any temple, or any car used for the conveyance of idols, or kept or used for a religious purpose.
Section 295 punishes sale, hire, distribution, exhibition or circulation of such an object to a child, more severely: three years and fine up to two thousand rupees on a first conviction, seven years and fine up to five thousand on a second. Section 296 punishes a person who, to the annoyance of others, does an obscene act in a public place, or sings, recites or utters an obscene song, ballad or words in or near a public place, with up to three months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both. Annoyance to others is an ingredient and must be proved.
A related provision often required in the same answer is section 79, word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman, which carries up to three years and fine and is a different offence with a different victim.
Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1965 SC 881, is the foundation. A partner in a Bombay bookshop was convicted for possessing for sale an unexpurgated copy of Lady Chatterley's Lover. The Supreme Court upheld both the conviction and the constitutionality of section 292, and adopted the test from R. v. Hicklin, (1868) LR 3 QB 360, asking whether the tendency of the matter was to deprave and corrupt those whose minds were open to such immoral influences. Hidayatullah J. added the qualification that has outlived the test itself: sex and obscenity are not synonymous, and a work of art is not obscene merely because it treats of sex.
Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal, (2014) 4 SCC 257, discarded Hicklin. A Calcutta weekly had reprinted a photograph of the tennis player Boris Becker with his fiancée, both partly nude, first published in a German magazine as a statement against apartheid. The Supreme Court quashed the prosecution and held that Hicklin is no longer the law in India because it judges an isolated passage by its effect on the most susceptible reader, and adopted the contemporary community standards test: whether the work, taken as a whole and in the context of its message, would appeal to the prurient interest of a reasonable person applying the standards of the present day community. The photograph carried an anti racism message, and that message was decisive.
Samaresh Bose v. Amal Mitra, (1985) 4 SCC 289, adds the method. The author and publisher of a Bengali novel were convicted of obscenity by the Calcutta courts. The Supreme Court set the convictions aside and held that the judge must first place himself in the position of the author to grasp the theme and the manner of treatment, then in the position of the reader of every age group into whose hands the book is likely to fall, and only then apply his own judgment. Vulgarity, the Court held, is not obscenity: vulgarity arouses disgust and revulsion, obscenity has the tendency to deprave and corrupt.
The Sanhita's contribution to this area is small but real. It brings electronic content inside the definition in section 294(1), it raises the fines, and it leaves the Exception, the language of section 296 and the sentences untouched. It does not codify Aveek Sarkar, so the governing test remains judicial and a court applying section 294 must still be told that Hicklin is dead.
Conclusion. Each of the three notes turns on a provision the recodification touched, and naming that change is what separates a full note from a summary. In (a) it is the insertion of "or through electronic means" into section 299, which extends a 1927 provision to social media while leaving the deliberate and malicious threshold of Ramji Lal Modi intact. In (b) it is the place of safety in sections 49 and 2(46), an institution the 2000 Act did not have, created to hold the sixteen to eighteen group and expressly forbidden from being a police lockup or jail. In (c) it is the inclusion of electronic content in the definition in section 294(1), which reopens the boundary with sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act that Sharat Babu Digumarti had closed. On a paper that permits a choice of two, (a) and (c) are the safer pair because both carry decided cases the examiner will expect by name.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 Penal Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for LLM Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration, with a model answer to each of its 7 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
13 August 2026.
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