Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
2024-25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Penal Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration
2024-25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 13 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 examination.
The law in these answers is stated as at August 2026, and four changes date most textbooks on this subject. The Indian Penal Code was repealed on 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced sedition with section 152; section 124A has been in abeyance since 11 May 2022 and the Supreme Court agreed on 8 August 2025 to examine section 152 itself. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was finally omitted from the statute book by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 on 30 November 2023, eight years after Shreya Singhal struck it down, and sections 72 and 72A were decriminalised the same day. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal was abolished by the Finance Act, 2017 on 26 May 2017 and appeals now lie to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal. And section 2(54) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was substituted on 1 September 2022 to enact Shilpa Mittal.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 7 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Form 84738, sat 30 May 2025
attempt any four of seven · 100 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the word "critically" means the examiner wants the architecture and then a judgment on it. Take the Act in the order Parliament built it, because it was built in three layers, in 1967, in 2004 and in 2019, and each layer does something different. Then take the procedure, which is where the real criticism lies, and use the bail cases, because the fight over the Act in the last decade has been almost entirely a fight about bail.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 is a child of a constitutional amendment. The Committee on National Integration and Regionalisation set up by the National Integration Council recommended a power to impose reasonable restrictions on speech and association in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India. The Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act, 1963 added those words to Articles 19(2), 19(3) and 19(4), and the 1967 Act was passed to exercise that new power.
As enacted, the Act was modest. It dealt only with unlawful associations, and it created a small group of offences. It said nothing about terrorism, because terrorism was dealt with by separate temporary statutes: the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987, which lapsed in 1995, and the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002.
The Prevention of Terrorism Act was repealed by the Prevention of Terrorism (Repeal) Ordinance promulgated on 21 September 2004, replaced by the Prevention of Terrorism (Repeal) Act, 2004. On the very same day, 21 September 2004, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2004 inserted Chapters IV, V and VI into this Act. Nothing was abolished. The substance of the repealed statute was moved into a permanent Act, and the political cost of an emergency terrorism law was avoided by putting terrorism inside an ordinary one. That is the first and most important critical observation about the Act.
Section 2(1)(o) defines unlawful activity as any action taken by an individual or association which is intended, or supports any claim, to bring about the cession or secession of a part of the territory of India, or which disclaims, questions, disrupts or is intended to disrupt the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India, or which causes or is intended to cause disaffection against India. The last limb reproduces the language of sedition and is the widest.
Section 3 empowers the Central Government to declare an association unlawful by notification stating the grounds. Section 4 requires the notification to be referred within thirty days to a Tribunal, and it does not take effect until the Tribunal confirms it. Section 5 constitutes the Tribunal, consisting of a person who is or has been a High Court Judge. Section 6 limits the declaration to five years unless cancelled earlier. Sections 7 and 8 allow prohibition of the use of funds and notification of places used by an unlawful association.
Section 10 punishes membership of an unlawful association, taking part in its meetings, contributing to it or receiving from it, with imprisonment up to two years and fine. Section 13 punishes taking part in, committing, advocating, abetting, advising or inciting an unlawful activity, with imprisonment up to seven years and fine. Section 14 makes every offence under the Act cognizable.
Section 15 defines a terrorist act as any act done with intent to threaten or likely to threaten the unity, integrity, security, economic security or sovereignty of India, or with intent to strike terror or likely to strike terror in the people or any section of the people in India or in any foreign country, by explosives, firearms, lethal weapons, poisonous or noxious gases or other hazardous substances, causing or likely to cause death, injury, loss or damage to property, or disruption of essential supplies or services. The words "economic security" and the limb on high quality counterfeit currency were added in 2013.
Section 16 punishes a terrorist act with death or imprisonment for life where it has resulted in death, and otherwise with not less than five years and up to imprisonment for life. Section 17 punishes raising funds, in India or abroad, from a legitimate or an illegitimate source, whether or not the funds were actually used. Section 18 punishes conspiracy, attempt, advocacy, abetment, advice, incitement or facilitation; section 18A organising a terrorist camp; section 18B recruiting. Section 20 punishes membership of a terrorist gang or organisation involved in a terrorist act with imprisonment up to life, and section 21 holding proceeds of terrorism.
Chapter V, sections 24 to 34, provides for forfeiture. Section 24A allows the Designated Authority to order forfeiture of proceeds of terrorism whether or not any person is prosecuted, section 25 gives the investigating officer power to seize with the prior approval of the Director General of Police, and section 33 allows forfeiture of the property of a person convicted.
Chapter VI as originally inserted allowed the Central Government to add an organisation to a Schedule as a terrorist organisation. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 substituted the chapter heading with "Terrorist Organisations and Individuals" with effect from 14 August 2019 and amended section 35 so that the Central Government may add the name of an individual to the Fourth Schedule, on a belief that the individual is involved in terrorism.
The only remedy is section 36, an application to the Central Government for denotification, and section 37, a Review Committee headed by a person who is or has been a High Court Judge. There is no prior hearing, no charge, no trial and no time limit. The 2019 amendment also allowed an officer of the National Investigation Agency of the rank of Inspector to investigate offences under Chapters IV and VI, which section 43 previously reserved to a Deputy Superintendent of Police.
| Question | Ordinary law | UAPA |
|---|---|---|
| Custody pending investigation | 90 or 60 days under section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 | Section 43D(2): extendable to 180 days on a report of the Public Prosecutor |
| Bail | Ordinary discretion | Section 43D(5): no bail if the court, on the case diary or the police report, is of opinion that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accusation is prima facie true |
| Anticipatory bail | Available | Section 43D(4): section 438 of the Code does not apply |
| Presumption | Prosecution proves everything | Section 43E: presumption of an offence under section 15 where arms or fingerprints are recovered |
| Question | Ordinary law | UAPA |
|---|---|---|
| Sanction | Ordinarily none | Section 45: previous sanction, and under section 45(2) only after an independent review of the evidence by an appointed authority |
| Rank of investigator | Officer in charge of a police station | Section 43: Deputy Superintendent or above, or an NIA Inspector after 2019 |
Section 46 makes evidence collected through interception under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 or the Information Technology Act, 2000 admissible notwithstanding the Evidence Act.
NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali, (2019) 5 SCC 1, decided on 2 April 2019, is the case that made section 43D(5) formidable. The respondent, a Srinagar businessman, was accused of routing funds from across the border to separatist leaders. The Delhi High Court granted bail after weighing the material and finding much of it inadmissible or unreliable. The Supreme Court set that aside. It held that at the bail stage the court must take the material in the charge sheet as it is, on its face value, and must not undertake a detailed analysis of admissibility or a weighing of probative value; the exercise is limited to seeing whether, on the totality of the material, the accusation is prima facie true. In practice that reduced the bail hearing to a reading of the prosecution's own document.
Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb, (2021) 3 SCC 713, is the counterweight and is the case a student must be able to state. The respondent was accused of facilitating an attack in which a college professor's hand was severed, and had spent more than five years in custody with the trial nowhere near conclusion. The Kerala High Court granted bail; the National Investigation Agency appealed. The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal and held that section 43D(5) does not per se oust the power of a constitutional court to grant bail where there has been a violation of Part III of the Constitution, and that where trial is unlikely to conclude within a reasonable time, the right to a speedy trial under Article 21 prevails over the statutory embargo. In 2024 the Court added that Watali is confined to its facts and cannot be invoked to keep an undertrial in custody indefinitely.
Arup Bhuyan v. State of Assam, decided on 24 March 2023, reported at 2023 (4) SCALE 739, went the other way and is the most significant recent development. In 2011 a division bench in Arup Bhuyan, following State of Kerala v. Raneef, (2011) 1 SCC 784, and Indra Das v. State of Assam, (2011) 3 SCC 380, had read down section 10(a)(i) of this Act and section 3(5) of the repealed Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, holding that mere membership of a banned organisation is not an offence and that only active membership involving incitement to violence is punishable, relying on United States First Amendment authority.
On a reference, a three judge Bench overruled all three decisions. It held that the earlier Bench should not have read down a statutory provision when the Union of India was not even a party and had not been heard, that reliance on American constitutional doctrine was misplaced because Article 19(4) permits restrictions in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India in terms the First Amendment has no counterpart for, and that mere membership of an association declared unlawful is an offence on the plain words of section 10.
The first and most serious criticism is that the Act punishes on suspicion for years without a trial. Section 43D(2) permits 180 days of custody before a charge sheet, section 43D(5) as read in Watali makes bail almost unobtainable at the outset, and the trials are long. Najeeb supplies a remedy but a constitutional one: the accused must reach a High Court or the Supreme Court and demonstrate that delay has already violated Article 21. That is a remedy for the well represented.
The second criticism is definitional. Unlawful activity in section 2(1)(o) includes causing or intending to cause disaffection against India, a phrase taken from the sedition provision and never given the Kedar Nath Singh incitement limit in this statute. Section 15 covers acts "likely to threaten" the economic security of India. Neither phrase has an outer edge that a citizen can locate in advance.
The third criticism is that the 2019 amendment designates individuals as terrorists without process. An organisation at least gets the section 4 Tribunal before a declaration takes effect; an individual gets nothing until after designation, and then only an application to the very Government that designated him.
The fourth is empirical and the one an examiner rewards. The Act's conviction rate is very low relative to the number of arrests, which means the punishment in most cases is the process itself. Arup Bhuyan has now removed the active membership requirement that had, since 2011, offered some protection to a person whose only proved connection was a membership card.
The case for the Act must also be stated fairly. It is the only permanent central law addressing terrorism; the alternative has historically been an emergency statute with worse safeguards and a sunset clause that was allowed to expire and then be revived. Section 4 places a judicial Tribunal between the Government and a ban, section 45(2) requires an independent review of the evidence before sanction, and section 37 provides a review committee headed by a judge. Those are more safeguards than the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act carried.
Conclusion. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 began as a narrow law about associations and became, by the additions of 2004 and 2019, India's permanent anti terrorism statute. Its substantive provisions in sections 15 to 21 are conventional; what distinguishes it is Chapter VII, where 180 day custody, an inverted bail test, presumptions and a sanction requirement combine to make the pre-trial stage the whole of the punishment for most accused.
The Supreme Court has held the two ends of that debate at once: Watali makes the statutory bail test almost unanswerable on the material, Najeeb holds that Article 21 overrides it once delay becomes unconscionable, and Arup Bhuyan in 2023 restored liability for bare membership. A critical examination must conclude that the Act's defect is not its definition of terrorism but its allocation of time, and that the remedy the Court has supplied is constitutional rather than statutory, which is another way of saying that Parliament has not supplied one.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question has two halves joined awkwardly, and you must answer both. The first is criminological: what determines juvenile delinquency. The second is legal: how Indian legislation has responded. Do not write the whole answer as a history of statutes, which is the commonest mistake here. Give roughly half the space to the causal factors, with the theories named and applied, and then show which factor each legislative stage was actually addressing.
Juvenile delinquency is not a legal category in India. The statutes speak of a child in conflict with law, defined by section 2(13) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 as a child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission. Delinquency is the criminological description of the same phenomenon, and it is wider, because it takes in status offences and pre delinquent conduct that no statute punishes.
The distinction matters for this answer, because the determining factors are studied on the wider category while the legislative response addresses only the narrower one. Much of what causes delinquency is therefore outside the reach of the Juvenile Justice Act altogether, and that is the critical point to make at the end.
Individual and developmental factors. The starting point of the modern law is neurological rather than moral. Adolescent brain development, in particular the late maturation of the prefrontal cortex which governs impulse control and the appreciation of consequences, means that a person of sixteen may possess adult reasoning in the abstract and lack adult self regulation under stress or peer pressure. This is the finding that the Supreme Court relied on in Salil Bali v. Union of India, (2013) 7 SCC 705, when it declined to lower the age of juvenility, holding that eighteen had been fixed after understanding the psychology and behavioural patterns of children below that age. Learning disability, untreated mental illness and substance dependence are the other individual factors most consistently found.
Family factors. The single strongest correlate in Indian studies is the disrupted or supervising-absent family. This is not only the broken home. It includes the family where both parents work long hours, the family that has migrated for work and left the child with relatives, the family where violence between the parents is routine, and the family where an adult member is himself criminal. The Juvenile Justice Act recognises this obliquely: several limbs of section 2(14), the definition of a child in need of care and protection, describe exactly the households from which children in conflict with law are drawn, which is why the same Act deals with both categories.
Economic factors. Poverty operates less as a direct cause than through its consequences: school dropout, entry into the labour market at twelve or thirteen, exposure to adult workplaces, and the absence of any supervised leisure. The child who is found begging or living on the street, expressly named in section 2(14)(ii) of the 2015 Act, is at the extreme of this group.
Neighbourhood and association. Two classical theories account for most of what is observed. Shaw and McKay's social disorganisation theory explains why delinquency concentrates in particular localities rather than particular families: where a neighbourhood cannot exercise informal social control, delinquency persists in it across generations of residents. Sutherland's differential association theory explains the mechanism: criminal behaviour is learned in intimate personal groups, and a child becomes delinquent when definitions favourable to violation of law exceed those unfavourable. In Indian cities this is the child recruited by a local gang, and it is precisely the population that section 2(1)(f) of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 describes from the other end.
Strain and control. Merton's strain theory explains delinquency as a response to a gap between culturally prescribed goals and legitimate means of reaching them, which in the Indian context is the aspiration created by mass media set against the reality of an unfinished school education. Hirschi's social control theory turns the question round and asks not why a child offends but why most do not: the answer is attachment, commitment, involvement and belief, and delinquency follows when those bonds weaken. Both are directly useful in an answer because they point to different remedies, one economic and one institutional.
Media, technology and drugs. The contemporary Indian additions to the list are online exposure, which the Information Technology Act reaches only at the extremes through sections 67B and 66E, and narcotic and inhalant abuse, which the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 addresses by section 27 and by the treatment provisions.
| Stage | Instrument | What it was addressing |
|---|---|---|
| 1850 | Apprentices Act | Removing the child from prison by binding him as an apprentice |
| 1897 | Reformatory Schools Act | Institutional separation: a child up to fifteen sentenced to imprisonment could be sent to a reformatory school |
| 1920s | Provincial Children Acts, beginning with Madras in 1920 | Separate courts and separate procedure, but only in the provinces that legislated |
| 1960 | Children Act | A uniform central law for the Union Territories, covering neglected and delinquent children |
| 1986 | Juvenile Justice Act | The first all India law; Juvenile Welfare Boards and Juvenile Courts; but a boy under sixteen and a girl under eighteen |
| Stage | Instrument | What it was addressing |
|---|---|---|
| 2000 | Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act | Uniform age of eighteen for both sexes, to implement the Convention on the Rights of the Child |
| 2015 | Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act | Retains eighteen, but permits a child above sixteen accused of a heinous offence to be tried as an adult after a preliminary assessment under section 15 |
| 2021 | Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act, in force 1 September 2022 | Closes the Shilpa Mittal gap in section 2(54), moves adoption orders to the District Magistrate, tightens Committee eligibility |
Three observations turn this table into an answer.
The direction of travel was one way until 2015. Every stage from 1850 to 2000 moved further from punishment and closer to welfare, and the driving factor identified at each stage was the same one: contamination. The Apprentices Act and the Reformatory Schools Act were about keeping the child out of adult prison; the provincial Children Acts about keeping him out of the adult court; the 1986 and 2000 Acts about keeping him out of the adult record.
The 1986 Act's age rule shows how a legislative approach can itself be a determining factor. By fixing sixteen for boys and eighteen for girls, it delivered a boy of seventeen to the ordinary criminal courts. The 2000 Act corrected that in order to comply with Article 1 of the Convention on the Rights of the Child, which India ratified on 11 December 1992, and which defines a child as every human being below eighteen. Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand, (2005) 3 SCC 551, then settled the transitional question by holding that the relevant date for determining juvenility is the date of the offence, not the date of production before the court.
2015 reversed the direction for one narrow class. The reversal followed a single case, and it was made after the Supreme Court had twice refused to make it judicially, in Salil Bali and in Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Raju, (2014) 8 SCC 390. What Parliament created is not a lowering of the age but a gate: section 15 requires a preliminary assessment of mental and physical capacity, ability to understand consequences and the circumstances of the offence, before a child above sixteen accused of a heinous offence can be sent to the Children's Court under section 18(3).
Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 2 SCC 787, then narrowed the gate. The Court held that an offence with a maximum above seven years but no minimum is not heinous within section 2(33), because minimum cannot be read as maximum, and directed under Article 142 that such offences be treated as serious. Parliament accepted the holding and enacted it as section 2(54)(b) in 2021. The episode is a good illustration of legislative and judicial approaches correcting each other.
The determining factors are overwhelmingly social, and the legislative approach is overwhelmingly adjudicative. That mismatch is the heart of the criticism.
The 2015 Act does contain preventive machinery: section 43 open shelters, section 44 foster care, section 45 sponsorship, section 46 after care for up to three years, section 106 State Child Protection Societies and District Child Protection Units, and section 107 Child Welfare Police Officers and Special Juvenile Police Units in every district. In practice these are the least funded and least implemented parts of the Act, and the parts nobody litigates. The Integrated Child Protection Scheme, now the Mission Vatsalya, carries most of the burden administratively rather than by statute.
Other statutes carry more of the preventive weight than the Juvenile Justice Act does. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 addresses school dropout, which is the single most consistent predictor. The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016, addresses the child in the workplace. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 addresses the victimisation that frequently precedes offending.
Three judgments did more to shape the Indian response than any amendment between 1986 and 2000, and an answer that omits them treats the subject as though it were purely legislative.
Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 632, decided on 13 August 1986, was a petition about children held in jails across the country, some of them destitute or disabled and detained in the name of safe custody, others accused of offences and simply lodged with adults. The Supreme Court held that children must not be kept in jails at all, and rejected the States' answer that they lacked remand and observation homes, holding that the absence of institutions is no justification for imprisoning a child. Between April and November 1986 the Court issued a series of directions to State Governments, District Judges and prison authorities requiring identification and release of children illegally detained, periodic inspection of jails, the creation of remand and observation homes, and time bound investigation and trial. The Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 was passed in that year; the case supplied the enforcement the statute did not.
Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand, (2005) 3 SCC 551, settled a question that had divided the High Courts and that mattered to every accused caught by the change of statutes. A Constitution Bench held that the relevant date for determining whether a person is a juvenile is the date of commission of the offence, and not the date on which he is produced before the court or the Board. Without that rule an accused could lose the protection of the Act through nothing but delay in the investigation.
Ashwani Kumar Saxena v. State of M.P., (2012) 9 SCC 750, decided on 13 September 2012, governs how age is actually found. The Court held that where the documents prescribed by the statute and the Rules are produced, a Board or a court must act on them and must not embark on a roving inquiry or a hyper technical examination; a medical determination such as an ossification test is permissible only where those documents are shown to be fabricated or manipulated. That order of preference is now written into section 94(2) of the 2015 Act, which puts the school or matriculation certificate first, the birth certificate from a corporation, municipality or panchayat second, and a medical test only in the absence of both, to be completed within fifteen days.
The pattern is worth stating as a finding. On every occasion when the legislative approach left a gap, whether in enforcement, in the reckoning date or in proof of age, the correction came from the Supreme Court first and was written into the statute afterwards, which is exactly what happened again with Shilpa Mittal and section 2(54)(b).
Conclusion. The determining factors of juvenile delinquency in India are, in descending order of evidential strength, family supervision and disruption, school dropout, neighbourhood association, poverty and substance abuse, with adolescent neurological development supplying the reason the law treats a child differently at all. The legislative approach has moved through five stages, from the Apprentices Act, 1850 to the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, and until 2015 every stage moved in the same direction, away from the adult criminal process.
The 2015 Act broke that pattern for one narrow class, and did so under the pressure of a single case rather than of evidence. The deeper criticism is not about that reversal. It is that the whole legislative response is directed at the child who has already offended, while every determining factor the criminology identifies operates years earlier, in a family, a school and a neighbourhood that the Juvenile Justice Act reaches only through its least implemented chapter.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question has two halves and the second half is where most candidates lose marks by writing a paragraph of generalities. Classify the offences first, by victim rather than by section number, so that the list has a shape. Then give the challenges an equal share of the answer and make each one specific: name the section, the rule of evidence or the treaty mechanism that fails, and say why. A challenge stated without the provision it defeats is not an answer.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 does not use the expression cyber crime anywhere. It creates two distinct kinds of liability, and keeping them apart is the first mark.
Chapter IX creates civil wrongs. Section 43 makes a person who, without permission of the owner, accesses a computer, downloads or copies data, introduces a virus, damages, disrupts, denies access, or destroys or diminishes the value of information, liable to pay damages by way of compensation. Section 43A makes a body corporate that is negligent in maintaining reasonable security practices with sensitive personal data liable in compensation. These are adjudicated by an adjudicating officer under section 46, who has jurisdiction where the claim does not exceed five crore rupees.
Chapter XI creates offences. Section 66 is the bridge: any act referred to in section 43, done dishonestly or fraudulently, is an offence punishable with up to three years or fine up to five lakh rupees or both, with the words dishonestly and fraudulently bearing their Penal Code meanings. The same conduct is therefore a civil wrong when done without permission and a crime when done with a dishonest or fraudulent mind.
Against the person. Section 66C punishes identity theft, the fraudulent or dishonest use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of another person, with three years and fine up to one lakh. Section 66D punishes cheating by personation using a computer resource, which is the section under which most online fraud is charged. Section 66E punishes intentional capture, publication or transmission of the image of a private area of a person without consent, in circumstances violating privacy. Section 67 punishes publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form; section 67A material containing a sexually explicit act; section 67B material depicting children, and uniquely reaches the person who collects, seeks, browses or downloads.
Against property. Section 65 punishes knowing or intentional concealment, destruction or alteration of computer source code required to be kept by law, with three years or fine up to two lakh. Section 66 read with section 43 covers hacking, data theft and denial of service. Section 66B punishes dishonestly receiving or retaining a stolen computer resource or communication device.
Against the State and society. Section 66F punishes cyber terrorism, which is an act done with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India by denying access to a computer resource, attempting to penetrate without authorisation, or introducing a contaminant, and thereby causing death or injury, damage to property, or disruption of supplies or services essential to the life of the community, or knowingly penetrating a computer resource to obtain restricted information likely to injure the sovereignty of India. It is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life, the heaviest sentence in the Act. Section 70 protects a declared protected system and punishes unauthorised access to it with up to ten years.
Against the regulatory scheme. Sections 71, 73 and 74 punish misrepresentation to the Controller or a Certifying Authority, publishing a false electronic signature certificate, and creating or publishing a certificate for a fraudulent purpose.
What is no longer here. Section 66A, which punished the sending of offensive messages, was struck down in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, and was finally omitted from the statute book by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 with effect from 30 November 2023. Sections 72 and 72A, breach of confidentiality and disclosure in breach of a lawful contract, were decriminalised by the same Act and now carry only monetary penalties of five lakh and twenty five lakh rupees respectively.
A large part of cyber crime is prosecuted under the general penal law, because the Information Technology Act creates no offence of theft, cheating or forgery as such. Online cheating is charged under section 318 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, cheating by personation under section 319, criminal breach of trust under section 316, extortion, which is what a ransomware demand is, under section 308, stalking including online stalking under section 78, and defamation under section 356. Section 335 of the Sanhita expressly defines making a false document to include a false electronic record, and section 336 makes forgery of it punishable. Section 111 of the Sanhita now lists cyber crimes among the activities that can constitute organised crime.
The practical result is that a serious cyber fraud is charged under both statutes together, and Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, marks the limit of that practice. The appellant, responsible for content on an online marketplace on which an obscene clip was listed, was discharged under section 67 of the Information Technology Act but kept on charge under sections 292 and 294 of the Indian Penal Code. The Supreme Court quashed the Penal Code charges, holding that where the offence relates to an electronic record the Information Technology Act is a special law which, by force of section 81, overrides the general provision, and that a person discharged under the special law cannot be prosecuted under the general one for the same conduct.
Jurisdiction. An offence may be committed by a person in one country, on a server in a second, against a victim in a third. Section 75 answers part of this by applying the Act to an offence committed outside India by any person, irrespective of nationality, where the conduct involves a computer, computer system or computer network located in India. What section 75 cannot do is deliver the accused. Extradition requires a treaty and dual criminality, and mutual legal assistance requests to the country hosting the data routinely take many months, by which time the logs have been overwritten.
Attribution and anonymity. The offences are all drafted against a person, and the internet supplies an address. Virtual private networks, proxy chains, spoofed numbers and mule bank accounts break the link between the conduct and the accused. Section 69 gives a power of interception, monitoring and decryption, and section 69B a power to monitor traffic data for cyber security, but both operate prospectively and require an order; neither retrieves the identity behind conduct that has already occurred.
Evidence. This is the most examinable challenge because it is purely legal. An electronic record produced as secondary evidence is inadmissible without the certificate under section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, now section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, (2014) 10 SCC 473, held the certificate mandatory and overruled the contrary observations in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600.
Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1, confirmed that it is a condition precedent, overruled Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (2018) 2 SCC 801, and held that where the certificate is in the hands of a person who will not give it, the court may summon it. In practice prosecutions collapse because the certificate was taken from the wrong person, or after the device had been altered, and the police officer who seized a laptop without hashing it has destroyed the chain of custody before any lawyer sees the file.
Capacity. Section 78 requires investigation by an officer not below the rank of Inspector, and section 79A allows the Central Government to notify an Examiner of Electronic Evidence, but the number of accredited forensic laboratories is small and their backlogs long. The result is that the ordinary victim of an online fraud gets a first information report and nothing else.
Reporting and under counting. Most cyber crime is never reported, because the loss is small relative to the effort and because the victim is often embarrassed. The National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal and the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre exist to reduce that friction, and CERT-In under section 70B receives incident reports from bodies corporate, but the reported figure remains a fraction of the real one, which makes evidence based policy very difficult.
Intermediary liability and the cost of over removal. Section 79 exempts an intermediary from liability for third party content subject to due diligence and expeditious removal on actual knowledge. Shreya Singhal read down section 79(3)(b) so that actual knowledge means a court order or a Government notification, precisely because an intermediary asked to judge lawfulness for itself will remove lawful speech to be safe. The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 have re-imposed a compliance burden with short takedown timelines, and the tension Shreya Singhal identified has returned.
New conduct the Act was not drafted for. Synthetic media, cryptocurrency laundering and automated fraud at scale were not contemplated in 2000 or in 2008. A deepfake is prosecuted today by assembling section 66C, section 66D, section 67 and sections 319 and 356 of the Sanhita, none of which was written for it. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 will replace the only compensation provision for a data breach, section 43A, when its section 44(2) commences on 13 May 2027, and the substitute is a penalty payable to the State rather than compensation to the person whose data was lost.
Conclusion. Cyber crime under the Information Technology Act, 2000 is a two tier scheme: section 43 makes unauthorised interference a civil wrong sounding in compensation, and section 66 converts the same conduct into an offence when it is done dishonestly or fraudulently, with specific offences in sections 65, 66B to 66F, 67 to 67C, 70 and 71 to 74 above it and section 66F reaching imprisonment for life. What the Act does not cover, cheating, forgery, extortion and defamation online, is supplied by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, and Sharat Babu Digumarti fixes the boundary in favour of the special law. The challenges are not principally definitional. They are jurisdiction across borders that section 75 cannot cure, attribution against deliberate anonymity, and an evidentiary rule in section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam which, after Anvar and Arjun Panditrao, is unforgiving of the investigative practice that Indian police stations actually have.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the word "briefly" governs the treatment of each feature, not the length of the answer, which must still be a full twenty five mark script. Organise by feature and make each one a numbered heading, because that is what the question asks for and it is the easiest structure to mark. Get the three definitions exactly right, because everything else in the Act depends on them, and do not forget the two features that are easiest to omit, the interception code in sections 13 to 16 and the annual report in section 27.
The Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 is a State law, Maharashtra Act XXX of 1999. It was enacted because the existing legal framework, meaning the Indian Penal Code and the Code of Criminal Procedure, was found inadequate to curb or control the menace of organised crime, and because the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act had lapsed in 1995 and had in any event been aimed at a different problem. The mischief is the syndicate: an enterprise in which the person who profits is insulated from the act, the witnesses are intimidated, and each individual offence looks ordinary when charged alone.
Its constitutionality was settled in Zameer Ahmed Latifur Rehman Sheikh v. State of Maharashtra, (2010) 5 SCC 246, where the Supreme Court held that in pith and substance the Act relates to public order and police, Entries 1 and 2 of the State List, and that the reference to promoting insurgency in the definition of organised crime did not make it a law on terrorism nor render it repugnant to any central law. The Act was subsequently extended to Delhi.
Nothing in the Act operates until section 2(1) is satisfied.
Continuing unlawful activity, section 2(1)(d), is an activity prohibited by law which is a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more, undertaken singly or jointly as a member of an organised crime syndicate or on its behalf, in respect of which more than one charge sheet has been filed before a competent court within the preceding ten years, and that court has taken cognizance.
Organised crime, section 2(1)(e), is any continuing unlawful activity by an individual, singly or jointly, as a member of or on behalf of an organised crime syndicate, by use of violence, threat of violence, intimidation, coercion or other unlawful means, with the objective of gaining pecuniary benefits or undue economic or other advantage for himself or any person, or promoting insurgency.
Organised crime syndicate, section 2(1)(f), is a group of two or more persons acting singly or collectively as a syndicate or gang indulging in organised crime.
The gate in section 2(1)(d) is the Act's most distinctive feature and the one it is worth spending a sentence explaining. MCOCA does not apply to a first offender, whatever he has done. It applies to a person operating within a syndicate whose recorded past already shows more than one charge sheet within ten years on which cognizance was taken. The Act punishes a career, not an incident.
Section 3(1)(i) prescribes death or imprisonment for life, with a minimum fine of one lakh rupees, where the organised crime has resulted in the death of any person. Section 3(1)(ii) prescribes not less than five years and up to imprisonment for life, with a minimum fine of five lakh rupees, in every other case. The same range applies by section 3(2) to conspiring, attempting, advocating, abetting or knowingly facilitating, and by section 3(3) to harbouring or concealing a member.
Section 3(4) punishes mere membership of an organised crime syndicate with not less than five years and up to life. Section 3(5) punishes holding property derived from an organised crime with three years to life and a minimum fine of two lakh. Section 4 punishes possession of unaccountable property held on behalf of a member with three to ten years, a minimum fine of one lakh, and attachment and forfeiture under section 20. The minimum fines are a deliberate design choice: the Act attacks the economics of the syndicate and not only its personnel.
Sections 5 to 12 create the forum. The State Government may constitute one or more Special Courts by notification. A Special Court is presided over by a judge appointed by the State Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, and section 5(4) requires that the person be, immediately before appointment, a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge. Section 6 makes every offence under the Act triable only by the Special Court; section 7 lets it try connected offences at the same trial; section 8 requires a Public Prosecutor of at least ten years standing at the Bar; section 9 lets it take cognizance without committal, on a complaint or a police report; section 10 gives its trials precedence; and section 12 provides an appeal to the High Court.
Sections 13 to 16 are the feature most often left out of an answer and they are unusual in Indian law. Section 13 makes an officer of the Home Department not below the rank of Secretary to Government the Competent Authority. Section 14 requires a written application from a police officer not below Superintendent of Police supervising the investigation, stating the offence, the identity of the officer and the head of department authorising the application, and a particular description of the nature and location of the facilities from which the communication is to be intercepted.
Section 15 constitutes a Review Committee of the Chief Secretary as Chairman, the Additional Chief Secretary or senior most Principal Secretary in the Home Department, and the Principal Secretary or Secretary and Remembrancer of Legal Affairs. Every order of the Competent Authority must be placed before it and considered within ten days. If the Committee disapproves, interception already begun must stop forthwith, and the intercepted material is not admissible in any case and must be destroyed. Section 16 makes unauthorised interception by a police officer an offence. Section 27 requires an annual report of interceptions to be laid before the State Legislature.
State of Maharashtra v. Bharat Shanti Lal Shah, (2008) 13 SCC 5, decided the challenge to these sections. The Bombay High Court had struck them down on the ground that interception of communications belongs to Entry 31 of the Union List. The Supreme Court reversed, holding that in pith and substance they relate to the prevention and investigation of organised crime, that the grounds on which interception may be authorised are distinct from those in section 5(2) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and that any encroachment on the Union field is incidental. The same judgment upheld the Bombay High Court's excision of the words "or under any other Act" from section 21(5) as an unreasonable classification offending Article 14.
Section 17 allows the Special Court to take into account, as having probative value, that the accused was previously bound over under section 107 or section 110 of the Code, was detained under a preventive detention law, or was previously prosecuted in the Special Court. Section 17(2) raises a presumption that unexplained property was acquired by illegal activity, and section 17(3) that a kidnapping was for ransom.
Section 18 is the single most controversial feature. A confession recorded by a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police, in writing or on a mechanical device, is admissible in the trial of the maker and also of a co-accused, abettor or conspirator charged and tried in the same case. The safeguards are procedural: a warning that the maker is not bound to confess, a certificate of the officer's personal satisfaction of voluntariness with date and time, forwarding of the confession forthwith to the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate, production of the maker before that Magistrate, and a direction for medical examination by an officer not lower than an Assistant Civil Surgeon if torture is alleged.
Section 22 raises presumptions against the accused where unlawful arms or material are recovered from his possession, or where his fingerprints are found at the site, and where financial assistance is proved to have been given to a person accused of organised crime.
Section 19 permits proceedings in camera and authorises the Special Court, on the application of a witness or the Public Prosecutor or on its own motion, to keep the identity and address of a witness secret, to sit at a place of its own choosing, to omit names and addresses from its orders and records, and to prohibit publication of the proceedings. Contravention is punishable with imprisonment up to one year and fine up to one thousand rupees.
Section 20(1) allows the Special Court, on conviction, to declare specified movable or immovable property of the accused forfeited to the State free from all encumbrances. Section 20(2) allows attachment during the trial, with forfeiture on conviction. Section 20(3) deals with the absconder: on a report from the investigating officer with the approval of the supervisory officer, the Special Court may publish a proclamation requiring appearance in not less than fifteen and not more than thirty days, notwithstanding section 82 of the Code, and may attach his property, with restoration if he appears within six months and proves he did not abscond.
Section 21 makes every offence cognizable; substitutes thirty days and ninety days for fifteen and sixty in section 167 of the Code, extendable to one hundred and eighty days on the Public Prosecutor's report; excludes anticipatory bail under section 438 altogether; and imposes twin conditions on regular bail, that the Public Prosecutor be heard and that the court be satisfied there are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and is not likely to commit any offence on bail.
Ranjitsing Brahmajeetsing Sharma v. State of Maharashtra, (2005) 5 SCC 294, made section 21(4) workable. The Supreme Court held that the restriction must not be pushed too far, that the court need not record a positive finding that the accused has not committed the offence, and that if on a broad probability the court is of the view that the accused may not ultimately be convicted, bail may be granted. Without that construction section 21(4) would require a trial before the trial.
Section 23 completes the scheme with three gates: no information about an offence of organised crime may be recorded without the prior approval of an officer not below Deputy Inspector General of Police; no investigation may be carried out by an officer below Deputy Superintendent of Police; and no Special Court may take cognizance without the previous sanction of an officer not below Additional Director General of Police. Prasad Shrikant Purohit v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 7 SCC 440, held that the prior approval under section 23(1)(a) must reflect an application of mind to the material and to the organised crime alleged, and is not a formality.
The features are coherent as a design: a narrow gate, heavy punishment, a dedicated forum, an investigative power the ordinary police do not have, and a procedure that keeps the accused in custody while it is used. The criticism is that the safeguards are almost entirely internal to the executive. The Competent Authority is a Secretary, the Review Committee is three serving officials of the same Government, and the approvals under section 23 are given by police officers. The one external check, the Special Court, is engaged only after the investigation is complete. Section 27, requiring an annual report of interceptions to the State Legislature, is the only feature that exposes the Act's use to anyone outside the executive at all.
Conclusion. The salient features of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 are its three interlocking definitions in section 2(1), which confine it to a syndicate with a documented ten year record; punishments in sections 3 and 4 running to death and to life, with statutory minimum fines aimed at the economics of the syndicate; a Special Court under sections 5 to 12 presided over by a Sessions Judge appointed with the concurrence of the Chief Justice; a self contained interception code in sections 13 to 16 with a Review Committee and an annual report to the legislature; an admissible police confession under section 18; witness protection under section 19; forfeiture and attachment under section 20; and a modified procedure under sections 21 and 23.
Taken together they make the Act a machine for dismantling an enterprise rather than for punishing an act, and the judgments in Bharat Shanti Lal Shah, Zameer Ahmed, Ranjitsing Sharma and Prasad Shrikant Purohit have left the machine standing while tightening every gate on the way in.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the question names objectives first, and the objectives are the part candidates skip. They are recoverable from the long title, the preamble and the Statement of Objects and Reasons, and there are five of them. Set those out, then show for each objective which chapter of the Act delivers it. Written that way the answer has an argument; written as a chapter list it is a table of contents.
Three sources state them, and an examiner expects you to have read all three.
The preamble recites that the General Assembly of the United Nations, by resolution A/RES/51/162 of 30 January 1997, adopted the Model Law on Electronic Commerce prepared by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law and recommended that all States give favourable consideration to it when enacting or revising their laws. India was among the earliest to act on that recommendation.
The long title states the objectives compactly: to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication, commonly referred to as electronic commerce, which involve the use of alternatives to paper based methods of communication and storage of information; to facilitate electronic filing of documents with Government agencies; and further to amend the Indian Penal Code, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The Act received assent on 9 June 2000 and was brought into force on 17 October 2000.
Objective 1: to give legal recognition to electronic records and electronic signatures. This is the Act's central purpose and everything else is machinery for it. Indian law was written for paper: a requirement of writing, of a signature, of retention, of an original. Section 4 provides that where any law requires information to be in writing, in typewritten or printed form, that requirement is satisfied if the information is rendered or made available in an electronic form and is accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference. Section 5 does the same for signatures. Section 7 satisfies a requirement of retention. Section 10A, inserted in 2008, provides that a contract is not unenforceable merely because it was formed by electronic means.
Trimex International FZE Ltd. v. Vedanta Aluminium Ltd., (2010) 3 SCC 1, shows the objective working. The parties negotiated a supply of bauxite entirely by electronic mail and never executed a formal contract. The Supreme Court held that a concluded contract had come into existence once unconditional acceptance was communicated, and that the intention to record it later in a formal document did not prevent it from binding. Legal recognition of the electronic record is what allowed the exchange to be treated as the contract.
Objective 2: to facilitate electronic governance. Sections 6 to 9 form Chapter III. Section 6 permits the filing of forms and applications, the issue of licences and permits, and the receipt and payment of money, in electronic form where the appropriate Government prescribes it. Section 6A, inserted in 2008, permits the Government to authorise a service provider to deliver services and to collect a charge. Section 7A provides for audit of documents maintained electronically. Section 8 provides for publication of rules, regulations and notifications in an Electronic Gazette. Section 9 is the necessary limit: nothing in sections 6, 7 and 8 confers a right on any person to insist that a Ministry or department accept a document in electronic form.
Objective 3: to create a reliable infrastructure of trust. A signature is worthless unless a relying party can verify it, and verification requires a trusted third party. Chapter VI, sections 17 to 34, appoints a Controller of Certifying Authorities and gives the Controller the functions in section 18: supervising the activities of Certifying Authorities, certifying their public keys, laying down standards, specifying qualifications of employees, and maintaining a database of the disclosure record of every Certifying Authority accessible to the public. Sections 21 to 26 provide for licensing, renewal, suspension and revocation; sections 28 and 29 give powers to investigate contraventions and to access computers and data. Chapter VII governs the certificates and Chapter VIII the duties of subscribers, including the duty in section 42 to keep the private key confidential.
Objective 4: to provide remedies and penalties. Chapter IX creates a civil regime: section 43, compensation for unauthorised access, downloading, contamination, damage, disruption or denial of access; section 43A, compensation against a body corporate negligent with sensitive personal data; section 44, penalty for failure to furnish information or returns; section 45, a residuary penalty. Section 46 appoints an adjudicating officer not below the rank of a Director to the Government of India or an equivalent State officer, with jurisdiction where the claim for damage does not exceed five crore rupees, larger claims going to the competent court. Section 47 lists the factors to be weighed: the amount of gain, the amount of loss, and the repetitive nature of the default.
Chapter XI creates the criminal regime, sections 65 to 78, running from tampering with source code to cyber terrorism under section 66F, which carries imprisonment for life.
Objective 5: to amend the related laws. Sections 91 to 94 amended the Indian Penal Code, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, through four Schedules. Those sections and the Third and Fourth Schedules were omitted as spent by the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 with effect from 27 October 2009, but the amendments they made stand in the amended Acts. The best known are the insertion of sections 65A and 65B into the Evidence Act, now sections 62 and 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, and the substitution of section 2(8) and insertion of section 2A in the Bankers' Books Evidence Act.
Territorial reach. Section 1(2) extends the Act to the whole of India, and section 75 extends it to an offence or contravention committed outside India by any person, irrespective of nationality, where the conduct involves a computer, computer system or computer network located in India.
Exclusions. The First Schedule, read with section 1(4), lists what the Act does not apply to: a negotiable instrument other than a cheque and certain instruments issued in favour of or endorsed by a regulated entity, a power of attorney, a trust, a will including any testamentary disposition, and a contract for the sale or conveyance of immovable property. A will still cannot be made electronically in India.
Technology neutrality. As passed, the Act recognised only the digital signature under section 3, tied to an asymmetric crypto system and hash function. The 2008 amendment inserted section 3A, which recognises an electronic signature by any technique specified in the Second Schedule, and section 3A(2) allows the Central Government to add to that Schedule by notification. The Second Schedule today carries e-authentication using Aadhaar or other e-KYC services.
Overriding effect. Section 81 gives the Act effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent in any other law. Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, applied it to hold that where obscenity is in electronic form the Act, being the special law, prevails over section 292 of the Indian Penal Code.
Intermediary safe harbour. Section 79 exempts an intermediary from liability for third party content, subject to due diligence and expeditious removal on actual knowledge. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, read section 79(3)(b) down to require a court order or a Government notification before the obligation arises, holding that an intermediary cannot be made the judge of what is lawful.
The recognition objective has been met completely. Electronic contracts, electronic filings, e-signatures and electronic evidence are ordinary in Indian practice, and no one now argues that an electronic record is a nullity.
The governance objective has been met, though largely by administrative schemes rather than by Chapter III itself, and section 9 remains an important reservation: a citizen cannot compel a department to accept an electronic document.
The trust objective is the weakest. The appellate machinery collapsed: the Cyber Appellate Tribunal established under section 48 was without a Chairperson from 2011, and sections 49 to 56 were omitted by the Finance Act, 2017 with effect from 26 May 2017, the jurisdiction passing to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal. Adjudicating officers under section 46 are appointed but very little used.
The penal objective has been met unevenly. Shreya Singhal struck down section 66A in 2015 for vagueness and overbreadth, yet the text remained in the printed Act and prosecutions continued until it was formally omitted by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 with effect from 30 November 2023. The same Act decriminalised sections 72 and 72A, converting them into monetary penalties.
The data protection question has moved out of this Act. Section 43A, the only compensation provision for a data breach, stands omitted by section 44(2) of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which will commence on 13 May 2027.
An answer that stops at the sections misses where the Act now operates. Section 87 empowers the Central Government to make rules, section 89 empowers the Controller to make regulations, and section 90 empowers a State Government to make rules. In practice the delegated legislation has become more important than several chapters of the parent Act.
The Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011, made under section 87 read with section 43A, defined sensitive personal data to include passwords, financial information, health records and biometrics, and required a privacy policy, consent, and the security standard IS/ISO/IEC 27001 or an approved code of practice. They were, until the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the whole of Indian data protection law, and they were made under a rule making power attached to a compensation provision.
The Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking for Access of Information by Public) Rules, 2009, made under section 69A(2), prescribe the committee, the reasons and the review that Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1, relied on when it upheld section 69A while striking down section 66A. The Court's reasoning was that the blocking power is confined to the grounds in Article 19(2), requires reasons in writing and is subject to those safeguards, which is a direct illustration of delegated legislation saving a parent provision.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 now prescribe the due diligence which section 79(2)(c) makes a condition of the safe harbour: a grievance officer, monthly compliance reports for significant social media intermediaries, a Chief Compliance Officer and a Resident Grievance Officer, removal within thirty six hours of a court order or Government notification, and twenty four hours for material of a sexual nature. The CERT-In directions of 28 April 2022, issued under section 70B(6), require reporting of specified cyber incidents within six hours and the retention of logs for one hundred and eighty days.
The evaluation point is that Parliament wrote a short, principled statute in 2000 and the substance has migrated into rules made by the executive under sections 87 and 70B. That is efficient, because the technology changes faster than a statute can, and it is a genuine constitutional weakness, because a takedown timeline and a data retention obligation of real consequence to speech and privacy are now imposed by delegated legislation which no House has voted on.
Conclusion. The Information Technology Act, 2000 was passed with five objectives: to give legal recognition to electronic records and signatures, to facilitate electronic governance, to build an infrastructure of certifying authorities capable of supporting that recognition, to supply civil and criminal remedies for misuse, and to amend the four related statutes. Chapters III to V, VI to VIII, IX and XI deliver them in that order, and the First and Second Schedules mark the outer limits, one listing what is excluded and the other keeping the Act technology neutral. Measured against its own objectives the Act has succeeded in the first two, struggled in the third because the appellate tribunal was allowed to lapse and was then folded into a telecom tribunal, and has been repeatedly corrected by the courts in the fourth, most visibly in Shreya Singhal, whose consequence took Parliament eight years to write into the statute book.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the verb is "evaluate", so a section by section description will not carry the paper. Set the provisions against a standard and measure them. The standard has three parts: the constitutional test under Article 19(2), the requirement that a criminal provision be certain enough for a citizen to know what is forbidden, and the practical question whether the provisions actually protect the people they were written for. Give the last third of the answer to reform, because an evaluation with no conclusion about what should change is only a description.
Chapter XVI of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sections 298 to 302, carries forward Chapter XV of the Indian Penal Code, sections 295 to 298, with the numbers shifted by three.
| BNS | IPC | Conduct | Maximum |
|---|---|---|---|
| 298 | 295 | Destroying, damaging or defiling a place of worship or an object held sacred, intending to insult a religion or knowing it likely to be so taken | 2 years, or fine, or both |
| 299 | 295A | Deliberate and malicious insult to religion or religious beliefs, by words, signs, visible representations or through electronic means | 3 years, or fine, or both |
| 300 | 296 | Voluntarily disturbing a religious assembly lawfully engaged in worship or ceremonies | 1 year, or fine, or both |
| BNS | IPC | Conduct | Maximum |
|---|---|---|---|
| 301 | 297 | Trespass in a place of worship or sepulchre, indignity to a corpse, disturbing funeral ceremonies | 1 year, or fine, or both |
| 302 | 298 | Uttering a word, making a sound or gesture, or placing an object, with deliberate intent to wound the religious feelings of a person | 1 year, or fine, or both |
Section 196 of the Sanhita, replacing section 153A of the Indian Penal Code, must be read with them, because promoting enmity between groups on grounds of religion is prosecuted alongside section 299 in almost every real case. Section 197, replacing section 153B, punishes imputations prejudicial to national integration, and section 299 read with section 98 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 supplies the forfeiture power for a publication.
Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion; Article 19(1)(a) guarantees speech; and Article 19(2) permits reasonable restrictions in the interests of, among other things, public order. The chapter must justify itself under that head, and only that head.
Ramji Lal Modi v. State of U.P., AIR 1957 SC 620, is where it was tested. The editor and publisher of a monthly was prosecuted under section 295A for an article said to insult a religion, and he argued that the section restricted speech beyond what Article 19(2) allowed. A Constitution Bench upheld the section, but the reasoning is narrower than the result. The Court held that section 295A does not penalise every act of insult to religion; it penalises only the aggravated form of insult committed with a deliberate and malicious intention of outraging religious feelings, and insults of that calibre have a tendency to disrupt public order. The section survives because of the words deliberate and malicious, not in spite of them.
Superintendent, Central Prison, Fatehgarh v. Ram Manohar Lohia, AIR 1960 SC 633, supplies the limit that makes the first case coherent. The Court struck down a restriction because the connection between the speech and public order was remote, and laid down that the restriction must have a proximate connection with public order and not a far fetched, hypothetical or too remote one. Applied to Chapter XVI, this means a prosecution must show something more than that a group says it is offended.
Mahendra Singh Dhoni v. Yerraguntla Shyamsundar, (2017) 7 SCC 760, shows the standard being enforced. A business magazine had carried the cricketer on its cover depicted as a deity, and a complaint under section 295A followed. The Supreme Court quashed the proceedings, holding that section 295A does not stigmatise every act of insult and that the deliberate and malicious element must appear on the allegation itself. It is the most useful modern authority because it is a case where the section was applied to stop a prosecution rather than to sustain one.
Amish Devgan v. Union of India, (2021) 1 SCC 1, decided on 7 December 2020, is the fullest recent treatment. A television anchor faced multiple first information reports under sections 153A, 295A and 505 of the Indian Penal Code for remarks about a Sufi saint made during a broadcast. The Supreme Court refused to quash the proceedings but consolidated the first information reports and, in doing so, wrote the most detailed Indian analysis of hate speech to date. It held that Article 19(1)(a) must be balanced against the right to dignity under Article 21, which includes participatory equality; that the offence turns on the content, the intent, the context and the harm; that the speaker's position and reach are relevant because the same words carry different force from a person with influence; and that protected political or academic discourse, even if inaccurate or offensive, is distinguished from hate speech by the presence of incitement and a proximate link to violence or disorder.
First, certainty. Section 299 is the least certain provision in the chapter, and the difficulty is structural. The actus reus is an insult to a religion or religious belief. Nothing defines insult, nothing defines religion, and the harm is a state of feeling in an indeterminate class of persons. The section is saved from vagueness only by its mental element, which is why Ramji Lal Modi insisted on it and why Dhoni quashed a prosecution that did not plead it. Sections 298, 300, 301 and 302 are far more certain, because each describes a physical act with an identifiable victim or occasion.
Second, proportionality of punishment. The sentences are low, and that is not a criticism. Two years for defiling a place of worship and three years for a deliberate and malicious insult are proportionate to offences that protect feeling and tranquillity rather than person or property. The Sanhita did not raise them, which suggests Parliament agreed.
Third, who actually uses the chapter. This is where the evaluation bites, and the answer is unflattering. The chapter was written to protect minorities and vulnerable congregations from targeted insult. In practice, section 299 and its predecessor have become the standard instrument for suppressing books, films, cartoons, stand up comedy and social media posts. The mechanism is what is sometimes called the heckler's veto: because the offence is complete on outrage to feelings, an organised complaint at any police station in India can produce a cognizable case, and the cost of that process falls on the speaker long before a court reaches the deliberate and malicious threshold. Amish Devgan recognised the abuse when it consolidated multiple first information reports across States arising from one broadcast, and the very need for that direction demonstrates the problem.
Baragur Ramachandrappa v. State of Karnataka, (2007) 5 SCC 11, decided on 2 May 2007, shows the same tendency in the forfeiture power. The Karnataka Government forfeited every copy of the Kannada novel Dharmakaarana under section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, on the ground that it offended the Veerashaiva community, and the author's application under section 96 failed in the High Court. The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal, holding that although forfeiture of a book is a serious encroachment on a citizen's right, where it is called for in the public interest that interest must have pre-eminence over the individual interest. Those powers are now sections 98 and 99 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. The case is the strongest available counter to any claim that Indian courts uniformly protect the author.
Fourth, what the chapter does not cover. Chapter XVI protects religious feeling but does not create any offence of hate speech as such. That gap is filled awkwardly by section 196 of the Sanhita, promoting enmity, which is drafted around groups rather than around incitement. In Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. Union of India, (2014) 11 SCC 477, the Supreme Court declined to lay down guidelines against hate speech by elected representatives, holding that the remedy lay in enforcing the existing law, and referred the question of a fresh definition to the Law Commission of India. The Law Commission's Report No. 267 of March 2017 recommended inserting two new provisions, one on incitement to hatred and one on causing fear, alarm or provocation of violence in certain cases. Neither recommendation was enacted, and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita did not take the opportunity to enact them. That omission is the sharpest available criticism of the recodification on this subject.
It changed two things and refused to change a third.
It renumbered the chapter, which is a nuisance for practitioners and nothing more. It inserted "or through electronic means" into section 299, which is a real and defensible modernisation, since the great majority of complaints now arise from online content and the earlier section had to be stretched to reach it.
What it refused to do is reform. It did not define insult. It did not import the incitement requirement that Ramji Lal Modi and Ram Manohar Lohia between them require, so that the limit remains judicial and has to be argued afresh in every magistrate's court. It did not adopt the Law Commission's proposals. And it did not create any filter against a multiplicity of first information reports for the same publication in different States, which is the mechanism by which the provisions are actually abused.
Four changes would meet the criticisms without abandoning the protection.
Write the incitement requirement into section 299 itself, so that the offence is committed only where the insult is intended or likely to incite violence or public disorder. That codifies Ramji Lal Modi and Ram Manohar Lohia rather than leaving them to be argued.
Move the existing sanction requirement forward. Section 217(1)(a) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, replacing section 196 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, already bars a court from taking cognizance of an offence under section 299 of the Sanhita without the previous sanction of the Central or the State Government, and section 217(4) permits a preliminary investigation before sanction is accorded. The defect is that the bar operates on cognizance and not on registration, so the investigation, the arrest and the cost have all been incurred before any officer of Government has to take responsibility. Extending the requirement to the registration of a first information report under section 299 would put the safeguard where the damage is done.
Provide statutorily for the consolidation of multiple first information reports arising from one publication, which is what the Supreme Court had to do by order in Amish Devgan.
Enact a distinct offence of incitement to hatred on the Law Commission's model, so that section 299 is not asked to do work it was never drafted for.
Conclusion. Evaluated against the constitutional standard, sections 298 to 302 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita are defensible but only in the narrow form the Supreme Court has given them: Ramji Lal Modi saves section 299 by confining it to deliberate and malicious insult, Ram Manohar Lohia requires a proximate rather than a remote connection with public order, Dhoni enforces that requirement, and Amish Devgan supplies the content, intent, context and harm framework.
Evaluated against practice, the chapter fails, because the threshold that saves it is applied at the end of a process whose cost is the punishment, and Baragur Ramachandrappa shows a court preferring the public interest to the author even after full argument. The Sanhita's only substantive contribution is the addition of electronic means to section 299, which widens the field on which the abuse occurs; it left the Law Commission's 2017 recommendations unenacted and the definition of insult exactly where Macaulay's successors left it in 1927.
Answer
For full marks, cover: four notes are printed and two must be written, so all four are set out here. Each is worth twelve and a half marks, which is a page and a half in the answer book. For (a) and (d) the marks are in the section numbers and the machinery; for (b) the marks are in composition, powers and procedure kept apart; for (c) the marks are in the definition, the Exception and the change of test from Hicklin to community standards.
Section 20 of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 is headed forfeiture and attachment of property, and it is the Act's answer to the fact that a syndicate survives the imprisonment of its members if its money is untouched. It works in three distinct situations and a good note keeps them apart.
On conviction, section 20(1). Where a person has been convicted of any offence punishable under the Act, the Special Court may, in addition to any punishment, by order in writing declare that any property, movable or immovable or both, belonging to the accused and specified in the order, shall stand forfeited to the State Government free from all encumbrances. Two points deserve emphasis. The order is discretionary and must specify the property. And forfeiture free from encumbrances means a mortgagee or a charge holder loses his security, which is a serious consequence for a third party who is not before the court.
During trial, section 20(2). Where a person is accused of an offence under the Act, it is open to the Special Court trying him to order that all or any of his properties be attached during the period of the trial, and where the trial ends in conviction the attached property stands forfeited to the State Government free from all encumbrances. This is a pre-conviction restraint, and it exists because a syndicate can dispose of assets long before a verdict.
Against an absconder, section 20(3). This is the most detailed limb. On a report in writing by the investigating police officer, made with the approval of the supervisory officer referred to in section 14(1), where the Special Court has reason to believe that a person who has committed an offence under the Act has absconded or is concealing himself, the Court may, notwithstanding section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and time not less than fifteen days and not more than thirty days from publication. A proviso requires the investigating officer, if he fails to arrest the absconder within three months of registering the offence, to report to the Special Court on the expiry of that period so that the proclamation may issue.
Clause (b) allows the Special Court, at any time after issuing the proclamation, to order attachment of any property of the proclaimed person, and applies sections 83 to 85 of the Code, now sections 85 to 88 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, as if the attachment were made under that Code. Clause (c) is the restoration provision: if within six months of the attachment the person appears voluntarily or is apprehended and proves to the Court's satisfaction that he did not abscond or conceal himself to avoid apprehension and had no notice of the proclamation enabling him to attend, the property, or if sold the net proceeds and the residue, must be delivered to him after satisfying the costs of the attachment.
Section 4 is the related provision and must be mentioned. A person who, on behalf of a member of an organised crime syndicate, is or has at any time been in possession of movable or immovable property which he cannot satisfactorily account for is punishable with three to ten years and a minimum fine of one lakh rupees, and such property is also liable to attachment and forfeiture as provided by section 20. Section 3(5) separately punishes holding property derived from an organised crime with three years to life and a minimum fine of two lakh. Section 17(2) supplies the evidential support: where it is proved that a person involved in organised crime, or a person on his behalf, is or has been in possession of property he cannot satisfactorily account for, the Special Court shall presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the property was acquired or derived from his illegal activities.
The evaluation is short. The scheme is effective because it reverses the burden and reaches property held by nominees, and it is criticised because forfeiture free from encumbrances defeats third parties without a hearing, and because attachment during trial can destroy a business before any finding of guilt.
The Act in force is the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, which commenced on 15 January 2016.
Constitution, section 4. Notwithstanding anything in the Code of Criminal Procedure, the State Government shall constitute for every district one or more Juvenile Justice Boards to exercise the powers and discharge the functions relating to children in conflict with law. The obligation is mandatory and district wise.
Composition, section 4(2). A Board is a Bench of three: a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, not being the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or the Chief Judicial Magistrate, with at least three years experience, who is the Principal Magistrate; and two social workers selected in the prescribed manner, of whom at least one shall be a woman. Every such Bench has the powers conferred by the Code on a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
Qualification of the social worker members, section 4(3). A social worker must have been actively involved in health, education or welfare activities pertaining to children for at least seven years, or be a practising professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, sociology or law. Section 4(4) disqualifies a person with a past record of violation of human rights or child rights, or a conviction involving moral turpitude. Section 4(5) requires induction training within sixty days of appointment.
Powers and functions, section 8. The Board has exclusive power to deal with all proceedings relating to a child in conflict with law. Its functions include ensuring the child's legal aid and the presence of an interpreter or translator, directing the Probation Officer or a social worker to prepare the social investigation report, adjudicating and disposing of cases, conducting inquiries, ordering the release of a child, and, importantly, inspecting adult jails to ensure that no child is lodged in one and taking immediate measures for transfer where a child is found. Section 8(3)(k) requires periodic inspection of residential facilities.
Procedure. Section 10 requires a child apprehended by the police to be placed under the charge of the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the designated Child Welfare Police Officer and produced before the Board within twenty four hours, and expressly forbids a police lockup or a jail. Section 12 makes bail the rule: a person apparently a child, accused of a bailable or a non bailable offence, shall be released on bail with or without surety, and may be refused only on three grounds, that release is likely to bring him into association with a known criminal, expose him to moral, physical or psychological danger, or defeat the ends of justice; if refused, the child goes to an observation home or a place of safety, never to prison. Section 14 requires the inquiry to be completed within four months, extendable by two, and requires a preliminary assessment under section 15 to be completed within three months.
The two roads out. For a petty or serious offence, or a heinous offence by a child below sixteen, the Board disposes of the matter under section 18, whose orders run from admonition and counselling to a maximum of three years in a special home under section 18(1)(g). For a heinous offence by a child who has completed sixteen, section 15 requires a preliminary assessment of mental and physical capacity, ability to understand the consequences, and the circumstances of the offence; the Explanation says it is not a trial. On that assessment the Board may either dispose of the matter itself or, under section 18(3), transfer the trial to the Children's Court.
Barun Chandra Thakur v. Master Bholu, (2022) 10 SCR 595, decided on 13 July 2022, held that where the Board does not include a practising professional with a degree in child psychology or psychiatry, the words "may take the assistance of experienced psychologists" in the proviso to section 15(1) are to be read as mandatory, and that mental capacity to commit an offence and ability to understand its consequences are separate enquiries which an IQ score alone cannot answer. Section 101(2) gives an appeal against an order passed after a preliminary assessment to the Court of Sessions, which may take the assistance of experts other than those the Board used.
Obscenity in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 sits in Chapter XV, offences affecting public health, safety, convenience, decency and morals, in sections 294 to 296.
Section 294(1) deems obscene a book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation, figure or any other object, including display of any content in electronic form, if it is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest, or if its effect, or where it comprises two or more distinct items the effect of any one of them, is, taken as a whole, such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons likely, having regard to all relevant circumstances, to read, see or hear it. Section 294(2) punishes selling, hiring, distributing, publicly exhibiting or circulating, making, producing or possessing for those purposes, importing, exporting or conveying, profiting from such a business, advertising, and offering or attempting any of these, with up to two years and fine up to five thousand rupees on a first conviction and up to five years and fine up to ten thousand on a second.
The Exception removes two classes. Limb (a) exempts any book, pamphlet, paper, writing, drawing, painting, representation or figure (i) whose publication is proved to be justified as being for the public good on the ground that it is in the interest of science, literature, art or learning or other objects of general concern, or (ii) which is kept or used bona fide for religious purposes. Limb (b) exempts any representation sculptured, engraved, painted or otherwise represented on or in (i) an ancient monument within the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, or (ii) any temple, or any car used for the conveyance of idols, or kept or used for a religious purpose. Limb (b) is a categorical exclusion; limb (a)(i) has to be proved by the person claiming it.
Section 295 punishes sale, hire, distribution, exhibition or circulation of such an object to a child, more severely, and section 296 punishes an obscene act in a public place or an obscene song, ballad or words in or near a public place, but only where done to the annoyance of others.
The governing test has changed twice. Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1965 SC 881, upheld the conviction of a Bombay bookseller for stocking an unexpurgated Lady Chatterley's Lover and adopted the test in R. v. Hicklin, (1868) LR 3 QB 360, whether the tendency of the matter is to deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such influences, while cautioning that sex and obscenity are not synonymous.
Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal, (2014) 4 SCC 257, quashed a prosecution over a photograph of the tennis player Boris Becker with his fiancée published as a protest against apartheid, and held expressly that Hicklin is no longer good law in India, replacing it with the contemporary community standards test applied to the work as a whole and in the light of its message. Samaresh Bose v. Amal Mitra, (1985) 4 SCC 289, supplies the method: the judge must first place himself in the position of the author, then of the likely reader, and only then apply his own judgment, and must remember that vulgarity, which arouses disgust, is not obscenity, which tends to deprave.
The Sanhita's only substantive change is the inclusion of electronic content in section 294(1). That reopens a boundary Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi), (2017) 2 SCC 18, had closed by holding that for electronic records the Information Technology Act, being special and carrying section 81, prevails over the Penal Code.
Offences affecting public health occupy the opening group of Chapter XV of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sections 271 to 280, and they are grouped by the interest each protects.
Spread of infection. Section 271 punishes a negligent act which the accused knows or has reason to believe is likely to spread the infection of a disease dangerous to life. Section 272 punishes the same act done malignantly, that is knowingly or intentionally, and carries the heavier sentence. Section 273 punishes knowing disobedience to a quarantine rule made by the Government. These are the sections used in an epidemic, ordinarily with the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 and the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Food and drink. Section 274 punishes adulteration of any article of food or drink so as to make it noxious, intending or knowing it likely that it will be sold as food or drink. Section 275 punishes selling or offering for sale any article of food or drink which has been rendered noxious or is in a state unfit for food or drink, knowing or having reason to believe it to be so.
Drugs. Section 276 punishes adulteration of a drug or medical preparation in a manner that lessens its efficacy, changes its operation or makes it noxious, with up to one year or fine up to five thousand rupees or both. Section 277 punishes the sale of an adulterated drug, and section 278 the sale of a drug as a different drug or preparation, each with up to six months or fine up to five thousand rupees or both. The fines are five times those in sections 274 to 276 of the Indian Penal Code; the imprisonment is unchanged.
Water and air. Section 279 punishes voluntarily corrupting or fouling the water of a public spring or reservoir so as to render it less fit for its ordinary use. Section 280 punishes voluntarily making the atmosphere in any place noxious to the health of persons dwelling, carrying on business or passing along a public way.
The residual provisions. Section 270 defines public nuisance, and expressly provides that a common nuisance is not excused on the ground that it causes some convenience or advantage. Section 292 punishes a public nuisance not otherwise provided for, with a fine up to one thousand rupees, and section 293 punishes continuing a nuisance after an injunction by a public servant, with simple imprisonment up to six months or fine up to five thousand rupees or both. The preventive power is in section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which replaces section 133 of the Code and allows a Magistrate to make a conditional order for removal of a nuisance.
Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand, (1980) 4 SCC 162, is the case to cite. Residents complained of open drains, industrial effluent and the absence of sanitation, and the Magistrate ordered the municipality to build drains. The municipality pleaded lack of funds. Krishna Iyer J. rejected the plea, holding that a statutory body cannot plead financial inability against a public nuisance affecting public health, and that section 133 is a potent instrument of social justice. Murli S. Deora v. Union of India, (2001) 8 SCC 765, applied the same reasoning to tobacco, holding that smoking in a public place is a public nuisance because it inflicts involuntary passive smoking on others, and prohibiting it in specified public places pending legislation.
The standing criticism of this group is that the punishments were fixed in 1860 for a rural society and have never been raised. A one year maximum for adulterating medicine is the clearest example, which is why real prosecutions go under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and food adulteration under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, rather than under this chapter.
Conclusion. The four notes divide neatly between machinery and standard. In (a) and (b) the marks lie in getting the machinery exact: section 20 of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act works differently on conviction, during trial and against an absconder, and the Juvenile Justice Board is defined by a three member Bench, a mandatory district-wise constitution, bail as the rule under section 12, and the section 15 gate for a child above sixteen. In (c) and (d) the marks lie in the standard: obscenity is now judged by contemporary community standards after Aveek Sarkar and not by Hicklin, and the public health offences are governed by section 270's rule that a common nuisance is not excused by the convenience it also brings, enforced in Ratlam Municipality against a municipality that pleaded poverty.
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This volume prints the 2024-25 Penal Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for LLM Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration, with a model answer to each of its 7 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
13 August 2026.
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