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LLM Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration Forensic Science and Scientific Investigation of Crime 2025-26 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Forensic Science and Scientific Investigation of Crime

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

LLM · Group 5 Criminal Law and Criminal Administration

2025-26 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 13 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when each paper was set, and four changes alter answers throughout this folder. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into force on 1 July 2024: section 176(3) of the Sanhita requires a forensic expert to attend the scene of every offence punishable with seven years or more, but only from a date each State notifies within five years. The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 was withdrawn from the Lok Sabha in July 2023, so India has no DNA statute and no body that accredits a forensic laboratory. Kattavellai v. State of Tamil Nadu, 15 July 2025, now requires every sample to reach the laboratory within forty eight hours and a chain of custody register signed by each handler. And Amlesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, 10 June 2025, holds that an accused has no right to demand a narco-analysis test and that its findings can never be the sole basis of a conviction.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  7 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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1.Write Short Notes. (Any Two): i) Forensic Medicine. ii) Portable Bomb Sniffer iii) Lie Detector Test.[25]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the paper gives you a choice of two out of three, so each note you write is worth about twelve and a half marks and must be a proper short essay, not four lines. All three are set out below so that you are covered whichever pair you pick. The mark is lost in the same place every year: candidates describe the technique and stop. For each note, name the statutory provision the technique operates under, give at least one decided case, and say where the technique fails. On the lie detector in particular, the description of the instrument is worth very little and Selvi is worth almost everything.

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i) Forensic medicine: what it is and where it sits

Forensic medicine is the branch of medicine that applies medical knowledge and technique to the questions the administration of justice has to answer. It is convenient to distinguish it from medical jurisprudence, which runs the other way and deals with the legal duties, liabilities and privileges of the medical practitioner: consent, confidentiality, professional negligence and the law of registration. In practice Indian textbooks and Indian courts use the two expressions loosely and often interchangeably, and an examiner will not penalise you for saying so provided you show that you know the distinction exists.

The subject matter is wide. It covers the identification of the living and the dead, including age, sex, stature and race from bones and teeth; the determination of the cause, manner and time of death; the interpretation of injuries, whether mechanical, thermal, chemical or from firearms; asphyxial deaths by hanging, strangulation and drowning; the medico-legal aspects of sexual offences; the medical aspects of poisoning, where the subject overlaps with forensic toxicology; and questions of mental capacity such as fitness to stand trial.

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The central operation of the subject is the medico-legal autopsy, which differs from a clinical autopsy in its purpose. A clinical autopsy asks what disease killed the patient. A medico-legal autopsy asks a legal question: was this death natural, accidental, suicidal or homicidal, what caused it, when did it occur, and does the body carry marks consistent with the prosecution's account of how it was inflicted. It is performed on the requisition of the investigating agency, not at the request of the family, and the family's consent is not required.

The statutory framework the medical witness works under

The trigger is s.194 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. Where the officer in charge of a police station receives information that a person has committed suicide, or has been killed by another, by an animal, by machinery or by an accident, or has died in circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that another person has committed an offence, he must give intimation to the nearest Executive Magistrate empowered to hold inquests, proceed to the body in the presence of two or more respectable inhabitants of the neighbourhood, and draw up a report of the apparent cause of death describing the wounds, fractures, bruises and other marks of injury.

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Section 194(3) then supplies the cases in which the body must go for post-mortem examination: suicide by a woman within seven years of her marriage; the death of such a woman in circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion, or where a relative so requests; any doubt regarding the cause of death; and any other case the police officer thinks expedient. The seven-year marriage cases are singled out because dowry death is the single largest category of Indian medico-legal work.

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For the living, the Sanhita supplies a graded set of powers. Section 51 allows a registered medical practitioner, at the request of a police officer, to examine an arrested person where there are reasonable grounds to believe the examination will afford evidence of the offence, and the Explanation is where the modern content sits: "examination" includes the examination of blood, blood stains, semen, swabs in cases of sexual offences, sputum and sweat, hair samples and finger nail clippings by the use of modern and scientific techniques including DNA profiling. Section 52 governs the examination of a person arrested for rape, and requires the report to describe the material taken for DNA profiling. Section 53 requires every arrested person to be examined. Section 184 governs the examination of the victim of rape, requires her to be sent to the practitioner within twenty-four hours, requires her consent, and requires the report to record specifically that consent was obtained.

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How the doctor's evidence is received

The medical witness gives evidence as an expert under s.39(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which makes relevant the opinion of a person specially skilled in science on a point of science the Court has to form an opinion upon. Where the doctor is a Government scientific expert of the class listed in s.329(4) BNSS, the report may be used as evidence without the author being called, and under the second proviso to s.330 BNSS no expert is to be called at all unless his report is disputed by a party. Section 336 covers the common practical problem of the surgeon who has since been transferred, retired or died, and allows the successor in the post to depose.

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The weight of that evidence is settled by Solanki Chimanbhai Ukabhai v. State of Gujarat, (1983) 2 SCC 174. The accused was convicted on the evidence of eyewitnesses, and the defence argued that the injuries described by the doctor were inconsistent with the manner of assault the witnesses described. The Supreme Court held that ordinarily the value of medical evidence is only corroborative: it proves that the injuries could have been caused in the manner alleged, and nothing more. The defence may legitimately use it the other way, to prove that the injuries could not possibly have been caused as alleged and so discredit the eyewitnesses. But unless the medical evidence rules out all possibility whatsoever of the injuries occurring as the eyewitnesses describe, their testimony cannot be thrown out for inconsistency with it.

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That case bears directly on the examination question because it fixes the ceiling of the discipline. Forensic medicine tells the court what is possible and what is impossible; it does not tell the court what happened. The same limit runs through Ramesh Chandra Agrawal v. Regency Hospital Ltd., (2009) 9 SCC 709, where the Supreme Court set out the conditions of admissibility of expert evidence generally: the first and foremost requirement is necessity, that the matter be outside the knowledge and experience of the lay person, and the further requirements are a recognised field of expertise, reliable principles, and a properly qualified expert. Opinion evidence, the Court said, is advisory in nature and the court is not bound by it.

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Where forensic medicine is weak

The estimates the discipline produces carry margins that are wider than the confident language of a post-mortem report suggests. Time since death derived from rigor mortis, post-mortem lividity, cooling and stomach contents is affected by ambient temperature, body mass, clothing, the last meal and the manner of death, and an honest range is often measured in hours rather than minutes. Age from ossification is an approximation and becomes unreliable above about twenty-five years. The autopsy surgeon in India almost never visits the scene, so the reconstruction is done from the body alone, without the context that would discipline it. And the volume of medico-legal work carried by district hospitals means that the examination is frequently conducted by a general duty medical officer with no specialist training in the subject.

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ii) Portable bomb sniffer

A portable bomb sniffer is a hand-held or trolley-mounted instrument that detects the vapour or the surface trace of an explosive. The dominant technology is ion mobility spectrometry. A swab is taken from a suspect surface, or air is drawn into the instrument; the sample is vaporised and ionised; the ions are released into a drift tube and driven along it by an electric field against a counter-flowing drift gas; and the time each ion species takes to traverse the tube identifies the compound. The instrument gives an answer in seconds, which is why it is deployed at airports, at court and legislature entrances, and at the perimeter of a protected person's movement.

What it detects matters legally as much as scientifically. The nitro-group military and commercial explosives, RDX, PETN, TNT, HMX and the nitrate esters, ionise readily and are detected well. Ammonium nitrate, the base of most improvised Indian devices, is detectable but is also present in fertiliser, so an alert on it means much less. The peroxide explosives TATP and HMTD, which can be made from retail chemicals, are the difficult class because they contain no nitrogen and require the instrument to be configured for them.

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The important point for a law paper is that a sniffer alert is a screening result and not proof of anything. It generates the reasonable suspicion that justifies a search and the seizure of exhibits, and those exhibits then go to the explosives division of a Central Forensic Science Laboratory for confirmatory analysis by gas chromatography with mass spectrometry or by high performance liquid chromatography. It is the confirmatory laboratory result, spoken to by a witness who can be cross-examined, that reaches the court. The Chief Controller of Explosives is a Government scientific expert named in s.329(4)(b) BNSS, so that report has the benefit of the section.

BNSS s.176(3) is now the provision that matters most at a blast scene. On information of an offence punishable with seven years or more, the officer in charge of the police station must, from such date as the State Government notifies within five years, cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and cause videography of the process. A post-blast scene is the paradigm case for the sub-section, because the evidence is microscopic residue that degrades and is destroyed by the rescue operation itself.

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The limits are real. Nitrogenous fertilisers, some pharmaceuticals and nitroglycerine heart medication produce false alerts. Trace contamination transfers readily from hand to hand and from surface to surface, so a positive swab on a suspect's clothing is consistent with innocent contact as well as with handling a device.

And detection by dog, which is the other portable method, has a poor legal standing in India: in Abdul Rajak Murtaja Dafedar v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1970 SC 283, where the accused was convicted of derailing a train and killing ten passengers partly on his identification by a police tracker dog, a three-judge Bench expressly declined to express any concluded opinion or lay down any general rule on the admissibility or weight of tracker-dog evidence, deciding the case on the other material. The practical position that has followed is that dog evidence may be admissible but ordinarily carries little weight and cannot stand alone, because the animal cannot be cross-examined and the court is in truth being asked to accept the handler's account of what the animal did.

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iii) Lie detector test

The polygraph records several physiological correlates of arousal at once: respiration through pneumograph tubes across the chest and abdomen, cardiovascular activity through a blood pressure cuff, and electrodermal activity, the galvanic skin response, through electrodes on the fingers. Questions are put in structured formats, of which the best known are the relevant and irrelevant technique, the control or comparison question test, and the guilty knowledge or concealed information test, the last of which asks about details only the offender would know rather than asking directly whether the subject is lying.

The premise, and the flaw, should be stated plainly because the marks are there. The instrument measures arousal. It does not measure deception. There is no physiological signature unique to lying. An innocent subject who is frightened of the machine, of the police, or of the consequences of an inconclusive result produces the pattern the examiner reads as deception, and a practised or unemotional subject produces the pattern read as truth. The guilty knowledge test is scientifically the most defensible of the formats because it does not depend on that inference at all, but it is usable only where the investigation has held back a detail that has not leaked.

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The Indian law on the lie detector

Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263 is the whole of the law and must be set out properly. Appeals and petitions had accumulated in which investigating agencies had subjected suspects and witnesses to polygraph examination, narco-analysis and the brain electrical activation profile without consent, and High Courts had divided on whether that was lawful. The Supreme Court held that compulsory administration of any of the three techniques violates Article 20(3), the guarantee that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, and also violates the substantive due process required by Article 21, because it is an intrusion into mental privacy and personal liberty.

The Court then drew the line that examiners test on. Even where the subject consents, the results of the test are not admissible in evidence, because the subject does not exercise conscious control over the responses the instrument records, so what is produced is not a voluntary statement at all.

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What may be admitted is any information or material subsequently discovered with the help of a voluntarily administered test, and that comes in under s.27 of the Evidence Act, now the proviso to s.23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023: where a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered may be proved. The Court further directed that the National Human Rights Commission's Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test) on an Accused, 2000 be strictly followed, and extended those safeguards to narco-analysis and to the brain electrical activation profile.

Amlesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, 2025 INSC 810, decided on 10 June 2025 by Karol and Varale JJ, is the current statement and was handed down ten months before this paper was sat. The Patna High Court had, on 9 November 2023, permitted narco-analysis of all the accused during investigation in a dowry matter. The Supreme Court set that order aside, holding that no individual may be forcibly subjected to such a test, that an accused has no indefeasible right to demand one either but may apply to the court which must weigh the totality of the circumstances, and that the findings of such a test cannot form the sole basis of conviction.

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It is worth closing the note by marking the boundary the polygraph sits on. Compelled fingerprints, palm prints, footprints and specimen handwriting are lawful, because in State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad, AIR 1961 SC 1808, an eleven-judge Bench held that "to be a witness" in Article 20(3) means furnishing evidence by personal testimony, and that giving a specimen impression or handwriting is a mechanical act supplying material for comparison which does not by itself incriminate. That reasoning is why s.349 BNSS can compel specimen signatures, finger impressions, handwriting and voice samples on a Magistrate's order, and why the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 can compel measurements. The polygraph falls on the other side of the line because it reaches for the content of the mind.

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Conclusion. All three techniques are useful and none of them is proof. Forensic medicine tells the court what was possible and, more powerfully, what was impossible, and under Solanki Chimanbhai it displaces eyewitness testimony only when it excludes the eyewitness account altogether. The portable bomb sniffer is a screening instrument whose legal work is to generate the suspicion that justifies a search, with the confirmatory laboratory analysis carrying the evidential weight. The lie detector produces nothing admissible at all: after Selvi, and now Amlesh Kumar, the test cannot be compelled, its results are inadmissible even on consent, and the only thing that survives into the trial is a discovery made in consequence of it under the proviso to s.23(2) of the Sakshya Adhiniyam.

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