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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 Public International Law and Human Rights 2021-22 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Public International Law and Human Rights

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9

2021-22 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2021-22 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when the paper was set, and in this subject three changes matter. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 allows a Judge of the Supreme Court, and not only a former Chief Justice of India, to chair the National Human Rights Commission, and cut the term from five years to three. The Indian Penal Code and the Code of Criminal Procedure were replaced on 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, so sedition is now section 152 with its own saving for criticism of the government, and the provisions on arrest, rape and legal aid carry new numbers. And on 21 March 2024 the Supreme Court recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change under Articles 14 and 21. Where a question turns on a provision since replaced, the answer gives it as it then stood and the present position, and says which is which.

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Contents

The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2021-22 examination, in the order it was set.

MarksPage

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2021-22 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

30 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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MCQ

Multiple choice questions

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1These are known as the general principles of law which are commonly recognised by most of legal system in international law which have binding force of pre-emptory norms. (a) Jus legis (b) Jus Cogens (c) Jus Equitus (d) Jus Opinious

Answer

The answer is (b) Jus Cogens.

Article 53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 defines a peremptory norm of general international law as a norm accepted and recognised by the international community of States as a whole as a norm from which no derogation is permitted and which can be modified only by a subsequent norm of general international law having the same character. A treaty which at the time of its conclusion conflicts with such a norm is void, and by Article 64 an existing treaty conflicting with a new peremptory norm becomes void and terminates.

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2The chairman of NHRC is: (a) Member of Parliament (b) A person who is chief justice of H.C (c) A person who has been the chief justice of supreme court (d) A person who is judge of supreme court of India.

Answer

The answer is (c), a person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, that is, a former Chief Justice of India.

Section 3(2)(a) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, provides that the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson who has been Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court. Of the four options, only (c) states a qualification the section recognises.

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3CEDAW stands For: (a) The convention on the elimination of all forms of domestic atrocities against women. (b) The convention on the elimination of all forms of discretion against women. (c) The convention on the educational domestic advancement of women.

Answer

(d) The convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against women

The answer is (d), the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women.

It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 18 December 1979 and came into force on 3 September 1981. It has 30 articles and is often called the international bill of rights for women. India ratified it on 9 July 1993, with declarations on Articles 5(a), 16(1) and 16(2) and a reservation to Article 29(1).

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4The movement for protection of human rights greater momentum after ____. (a) American war for independence. (b) Second world war (c) Atlantic charter, 1941 (d) The european convention on H.R. 1950

Answer

The answer is (b), the Second World War.

The atrocities of the war, and above all the Holocaust, destroyed the argument that the way a State treated its own nationals was a matter within its domestic jurisdiction alone. The consequences followed immediately: the Charter of the United Nations, 1945, which made the promotion of human rights a purpose of the Organization under Article 1(3) and imposed duties of cooperation under Articles 55 and 56; the Nuremberg and Tokyo trials, which established individual criminal responsibility for crimes against humanity; and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 10 December 1948.

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5The convention on rights of child adopted on: (a) December 20, 1989 (b) November 20, 1989 (c) June 20, 1989 (d) October 20, 1989

Answer

The answer is (b), 20 November 1989.

The Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly by Resolution 44/25 on 20 November 1989 and entered into force on 2 September 1990. It has 54 articles and is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in the world, every State being a party except the United States, which has signed but not ratified. India acceded to it on 11 December 1992.

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6Which section of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 empowers state to establish SHRC: (a) Section 23 (b) Section 21 (c) Section 20 (d) Section 19

Answer

The answer is (b), section 21.

Section 21(1) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides that a State Government may constitute a body to be known as the (name of the State) Human Rights Commission to exercise the powers conferred upon, and to perform the functions assigned to, a State Commission under Chapter V of the Act.

Section 21(2), as amended in 2019, fixes the composition: a Chairperson who has been Chief Justice or a Judge of a High Court; one Member who is or has been a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge with at least seven years as District Judge; and one Member with knowledge of or practical experience in human rights.

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7In 1977, Farmaka Barrage issue was settled between India and Bangladesh by adopting the method of dispute settlement. (a) Mediation (b) Arbitration (c) Judicial settlement (d) Negotiation

Answer

The answer is (d), Negotiation.

The Farakka Barrage dispute over the sharing of the waters of the Ganga was settled by the Agreement on Sharing of the Ganga Waters at Farakka, signed at Dhaka on 5 November 1977, which was reached by direct bilateral negotiation between India and Bangladesh. No third party took part: there was no mediator, no arbitral tribunal and no court.

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8The UDHR, 1948 has: (a) 29 articles (b) 30 articles (c) 31 articles (d) 32 articles

Answer

The answer is (b), 30 articles.

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the General Assembly at Paris on 10 December 1948 by Resolution 217A (III), with 48 votes in favour, none against and 8 abstentions. It consists of a preamble and thirty articles.

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9Which article of the constitution of India deals with equal justice and free legal aid? (a) Art.39-A (b) Art.40 (c) Art.19 (d) Art.20

Answer

The answer is (a), Article 39A.

Article 39A, inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, provides that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.

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10"International Law is defined as Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their relation with each other". Above statement is attributed to: (a) Charles G. Fenwick (b) J.G. Starke (c) J.L. Brierly (d) L.

Answer

Oppenheim

The answer is (d), L. Oppenheim.

The passage is the classical definition from Oppenheim's International Law: A Treatise (1905): "Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilised States in their intercourse with each other."

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11A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the: (a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council (d) Secretary General on the recommendations of the Security Council

Answer

The answer is (c), the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.

Article 5 of the Charter of the United Nations provides that a Member against which preventive or enforcement action has been taken by the Security Council may be suspended from the exercise of the rights and privileges of membership by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council; the exercise of those rights and privileges may be restored by the Security Council alone.

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12Which one of the following is primary source of International Law? (a) Decisions of International Court of Justice. (b) Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly. (c) General Principles of law recognised by Civilised Nations. (d) Decisions of International Court of Arbitration.

Answer

The answer is (c), the general principles of law recognised by civilised nations.

Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice lists what the Court is to apply: (a) international conventions; (b) international custom; (c) the general principles of law recognised by civilised nations; and (d), subject to Article 59, judicial decisions and the teachings of the most highly qualified publicists, as subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law.

Clauses (a), (b) and (c) are the primary or formal sources; clause (d) is expressly subsidiary. Of the four options only (c) appears among the first three.

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13"Recognition operates retroactively not to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government." Has been held by the court in the case of: (a) Civil Air Transport Inc. vs Central Air Transport Corporation. (b) A.M.

Answer

Luther vs Sagar and Co. (c) The Arantzazu Mendi (d) Alton Mayo Vs.

Luther

The answer is (a), Civil Air Transport Incorporated v. Central Air Transport Corporation [1953] AC 70, a decision of the Privy Council on appeal from Hong Kong.

The sentence quoted is the Board's statement of the limits of the retroactive effect of recognition. Forty aircraft belonging to a Chinese State airline had been flown to Hong Kong before the communist government took power; the Nationalist government sold them to an American company, and the new government, later recognised de jure by the United Kingdom, claimed them. The Privy Council held that the retroactive effect of the de jure recognition did not invalidate the earlier sale made under the authority of the government then recognised.

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14What are essential tests for the existence of International Custom? (a) Uniform practice of States and longevity of time period. (b) Uniform practice of States and opino juris sine necessitatis. (c) Uniform practice of States, longevity of time period and opino juris sine necessitatis.

Answer

(d) Opino juris sine necessitatis.

The answer as the paper intends it is (c), uniform practice of States, longevity of time period and opinio juris sive necessitatis.

Article 38(1)(b) of the Statute describes custom as "international custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law", and the traditional formulation of the tests is threefold: a practice that is general and uniform, continued over a period of time, and accompanied by opinio juris sive necessitatis, the conviction that the practice is legally obligatory.

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15In which of the following cases, International Court of Justice refused to give advisory opinion at the request of World Health Organization? (a) Legality of the threat of use of nuclear weapons (b) Nicaragua vs USA (c) Competence of Assembly regarding admission to United Nations (d) North Sea Continental Shelf cases

Answer

The answer is (a), the request on the legality of the use of nuclear weapons.

In Legality of the Use by a State of Nuclear Weapons in Armed Conflict, advisory opinion of 8 July 1996, the International Court of Justice declined to give the opinion requested by the World Health Organization. Article 96(2) of the Charter allows a specialised agency to request an advisory opinion only on legal questions arising within the scope of its activities, and the Court held that the question whether the use of nuclear weapons would be a breach of a State's obligations did not arise within the scope of the WHO's activities: the Organization is concerned with the effects on health of the use of such weapons, and it would not be affected by their legality or illegality.

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16In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied the existence of customary rule? (a) North Sea Continental shelf Case (b) The Focus Case (c) The fortune Case (d) Dr Bonham Case

Answer

The answer is (a), the North Sea Continental Shelf cases (Federal Republic of Germany v. Denmark; Federal Republic of Germany v. Netherlands), decided on 20 February 1969.

The Court held that the equidistance principle for delimiting the continental shelf, contained in Article 6 of the Geneva Convention on the Continental Shelf, 1958, did not bind Germany, which was not a party to that Convention, and that it had not become a rule of customary international law. Delimitation was to be effected by agreement in accordance with equitable principles, taking account of all the relevant circumstances, so as to leave each party as much as possible of the natural prolongation of its land territory.

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17International Labour Organization is a ____. (a) Tripartite UN agency. (b) Tripartite ICJ agency. (c) Sole UN agency. (d) Sole ICJ agency.

Answer

The answer is (a), a tripartite United Nations agency.

The International Labour Organization, founded in 1919 by Part XIII of the Treaty of Versailles and the first specialised agency of the United Nations in 1946, is unique in the United Nations system because governments, employers and workers are all represented as of right, in the ratio 2:1:1. Each member State sends four delegates to the International Labour Conference, two from government, one from the employers and one from the workers, and each delegate votes independently of the others.

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18According to which theory, recognition is a necessary condition for statehood and personality? (a) Constitutive theory. (b) Declarative theory. (c) Implied theory. (d) Express theory.

Answer

The answer is (a), the constitutive theory.

The constitutive theory holds that recognition creates the State: an entity becomes a subject of international law, with rights and duties, only when the existing States recognise it, whatever its factual attributes may be. Its exponents are Hegel, Anzilotti, Holland and, in his earlier editions, Oppenheim.

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19Who does the UNCRC apply to? (a) Everyone legally classed as a child by the law that applies to them. (b) Everyone under 18 years. (c) Everyone under 14 years. (d) Everyone under 18 who is a citizen of a country who has signed up to the UNCRC.

Answer

The answer is (b), everyone under 18 years.

Article 1 of the Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1989 provides that for the purposes of the present Convention, a child means every human being below the age of eighteen years unless under the law applicable to the child, majority is attained earlier. Eighteen is therefore the rule, and the earlier attainment of majority under national law is a proviso to it.

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20Headquarter of International Court of Justice is located in: (a) The Hague, Netherlands (b) Geneva, Switzerland (c) Great Britain (d) London, United Kingdom.

Answer

The answer is (a), The Hague, Netherlands.

Article 22(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice provides that the seat of the Court shall be established at The Hague, though this does not prevent it from sitting and exercising its functions elsewhere whenever it considers it desirable. It sits in the Peace Palace, which it shares with the Permanent Court of Arbitration, and it is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York.

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DTQ

Descriptive questions

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1Explain Workers Right, a social Security mandate under Indian Constitution

Answer

For full marks, cover: the constitutional scheme, the fundamental rights available to workers with cases, the directive principles that form the charter of labour, the way the two have been joined through Article 21, the international obligations, and the statutory position after the labour codes.

I. The constitutional scheme

The Constitution protects workers at two levels. Part III contains the enforceable Fundamental Rights; Part IV contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, which Article 37 declares fundamental in the governance of the country but not enforceable by any court. The social security mandate is chiefly in Part IV, and the whole of the modern law consists in the way the courts have made it effective through Part III.

II. Fundamental Rights available to workers

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Articles 14 and 16 support the doctrine of equal pay for equal work, drawn from Article 39(d): Randhir Singh v. Union of India (1982) held that though Article 39(d) is not a fundamental right, it is a constitutional goal capable of enforcement through Articles 14 and 16; State of Punjab v. Jagjit Singh (2017) applied it to temporary and daily wage employees doing the same work as regular employees.

Article 19(1)(c), the right to form associations or unions, which is the constitutional basis of trade unionism. It does not carry a fundamental right to recognition of a union or to strike: All India Bank Employees' Association v. National Industrial Tribunal (1962) and T. K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu (2003).

Article 19(1)(g), the right to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business.

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Article 21, which has been held to include the right to livelihood, Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), and the right to live with human dignity, including just and humane conditions of work and relief against sickness and disablement, Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984), and the right to health of a worker, Consumer Education and Research Centre v. Union of India (1995), which concerned asbestos workers and directed compulsory health insurance and compensation for occupational disease.

Article 23, prohibiting begar and other similar forms of forced labour, and enforceable against private persons as well as the State. People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India (1982), the Asiad workers case, held that payment of less than the minimum wage is forced labour within Article 23, because a person driven by hunger and want does not offer his labour freely.

Article 24, prohibiting the employment of a child below fourteen in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment.

III. The Directive Principles: the charter of labour

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Article 38, a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of national life, and the minimisation of inequalities of income, status, facilities and opportunities. Article 39(a), adequate means of livelihood; 39(b) and (c), distribution of material resources to subserve the common good and prevention of concentration of wealth; 39(d), equal pay for equal work; 39(e), that the health and strength of workers is not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity into avocations unsuited to their age or strength.

Article 41 is the social security clause proper: the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.

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Article 42, just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief; Article 43, a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities, and the promotion of cottage industries; Article 43A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976, the participation of workers in the management of undertakings; Article 43B, promotion of cooperative societies; and Article 47, raising the level of nutrition and the standard of living and improvement of public health.

IV. How the two have been joined

The technique is to read the directive into Article 21. Bandhua Mukti Morcha made Article 42 the content of the right to life for bonded labourers in the stone quarries of Faridabad. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Female Workers (Muster Roll) (2000) extended maternity benefit to daily wage muster roll workers who had no statutory entitlement, reading Article 42 with Article 21 and with Article 11(2)(b) of CEDAW. Regional Director, ESI Corporation v. Francis De Costa and the line of cases on the Employees' State Insurance Act interpret social security legislation beneficially for the same reason.

V. The international obligations behind them

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Articles 6 to 9 of the ICESCR, ratified by India on 10 April 1979: the right to work, to just and favourable conditions of work, to form and join trade unions, and to social security, including social insurance. Article 22 and Articles 23 to 25 of the Universal Declaration. ILO Convention No. 102 on Social Security (Minimum Standards), 1952, which India has not ratified, and Conventions Nos. 100 and 111 on equal remuneration and discrimination, which it has. Article 51(c) of the Constitution is the bridge by which the courts use them.

VI. The statutory position today

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The scattered legislation has been consolidated into four labour codes, all brought into force on 21 November 2025: the Code on Wages, 2019, covering minimum wages, payment of wages, bonus and equal remuneration; the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, covering trade unions, standing orders, and lay-off, retrenchment and closure; the Code on Social Security, 2020, which consolidates provident fund, employees' state insurance, gratuity, maternity benefit and employees' compensation and, for the first time, brings unorganised, gig and platform workers within a statutory framework; and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, which subsumes the Factories Act, the Contract Labour Act, the Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act and ten other statutes. An answer written today must say so, because the Acts named in older textbooks no longer stand on their own.

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Conclusion. The Constitution states the social security mandate mainly in Part IV, where it is unenforceable, and the enforceable rights of a worker in Part III are few: equality, association, occupation, freedom from forced and child labour, and life. What has made the mandate real is the judicial reading of Articles 39, 41, 42 and 43 into Article 21, so that a minimum wage, safe conditions, medical care and maternity benefit are today claimed as fundamental rights rather than as policy aspirations. The unfinished part of the mandate is the unorganised sector, which is over ninety per cent of the Indian workforce, and the Code on Social Security, 2020 is the first serious legislative attempt to reach it.

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2Explain Judicial Activism with reference to Human Rights in India

Answer

For full marks, cover: what judicial activism means and its constitutional basis, the procedural innovations, the substantive expansion of Article 21, the use of international law, the new remedies, the criticism of overreach, and a balanced conclusion.

I. What it means and where the power comes from

Judicial activism is the assumption by the courts of an affirmative role in the protection of rights and in the enforcement of constitutional obligations, going beyond the passive adjudication of disputes between parties, by relaxing procedure, by giving expansive meaning to constitutional guarantees and by devising remedies where none existed.

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Its constitutional basis is threefold. Article 32 makes the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights itself a fundamental right, which Dr Ambedkar called the heart and soul of the Constitution; Article 141 makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts; and Article 142 empowers the Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in a cause. Article 226 gives the High Courts a still wider power.

II. The procedural innovations

Public interest litigation. The relaxation of locus standi, so that any public spirited person or organisation may move the Court on behalf of those who cannot come themselves: S. P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), where Justice Bhagwati laid the doctrinal foundation, and People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India (1982).

Epistolary jurisdiction. A letter or postcard treated as a writ petition: Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration (No. 2) (1980), on a prisoner's letter about the torture of a fellow inmate.

Continuing mandamus. The Court retains the case and issues successive directions until compliance: Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad on forests, and the right to food case.

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Fact finding by commissions and amicus curiae, appointed by the Court where the petitioner has no means of proving his case.

III. The substantive expansion of Article 21

Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) is the turning point: the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be right, just and fair, and Articles 14, 19 and 21 must be read together, which introduced substantive fairness in place of the narrow reading in A. K. Gopalan (1950).

On that base the Court has read into Article 21 the rights to livelihood (Olga Tellis, 1985), food (PUCL, from 2001), health (Consumer Education and Research Centre, 1995), education (Unni Krishnan, 1993, which produced Article 21A and the Act of 2009), shelter, a clean environment (Subhash Kumar, 1991), speedy trial (Hussainara Khatoon, 1979), free legal aid (M. H. Hoskot, 1978), privacy (Puttaswamy, 2017) and, most recently, freedom from the adverse effects of climate change (M. K. Ranjitsinh, 21 March 2024).

IV. The use of international law

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Relying on Article 51(c), the Court has held that an international convention consistent with the fundamental rights and not inconsistent with domestic law may be read into them: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), which used CEDAW to lay down binding guidelines on sexual harassment in the absence of legislation; Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999); Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum (1996), which received the precautionary and polluter pays principles; and Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das (2000), which applied the Universal Declaration and Article 21 to a foreign national.

V. New remedies

Compensation in public law for the violation of a fundamental right, a remedy distinct from a suit in tort and immune from the plea of sovereign immunity: Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983), Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985), Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997).

Guidelines with the force of law under Article 141, pending legislation: Vishaka, D. K. Basu, and the guidelines on encounter deaths in PUCL v. State of Maharashtra (2014).

VI. The criticism

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The objections are serious and belong in the answer. Separation of powers: the Court has issued directions on matters of policy and administration which the Constitution assigns to the executive and the legislature. Institutional competence: polycentric questions, such as how a city should manage its solid waste, are not well suited to adversarial adjudication on affidavits. Enforcement: many orders remain unimplemented, and the Court has no machinery to supervise them. Selectivity and elitism: PIL has been criticised for serving urban and middle class concerns, as in the slum demolition and vehicle emission cases, at the cost of the poor whose livelihoods are affected. Judicial legislation: Vishaka filled a legislative vacuum, which is defensible; other guidelines have gone further. And the record is not uniform: ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976), holding that during an emergency no person had locus standi to move for habeas corpus even against an illegal detention, is the low point, and it was formally overruled in Puttaswamy (2017).

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Conclusion. Judicial activism in India was the response of the Court to two facts: a Constitution which promised a great deal in Part IV and made none of it enforceable, and an executive and legislature which for long periods did not deliver it. The Court's answer was to convert directives into rights through Article 21, and to give the remedy to people who had no means of reaching a court. That is a real and largely beneficial transformation, and Vishaka, Hussainara Khatoon and the right to food case are its justification. The proper criticism is not of activism as such but of its limits: a court can declare a right and cannot build a school, and an order that cannot be enforced devalues the authority on which the whole edifice rests.

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3Kinds of Human Right

Answer

For full marks, cover: the basis of classification, the three generations with their content and instruments, the other principal classifications (civil and political against economic and social, individual against collective, absolute against qualified, derogable against non-derogable, negative against positive), and the point that the classifications are analytical and not hierarchical.

I. The three generations

The best known classification is that of Karel Vasak (1977), who borrowed the motto of the French Revolution.

First generation, civil and political rights, "liberty". Rights of the individual against the State, requiring in the main that the State abstain from interference. Life, liberty and security of person; freedom from torture, slavery and arbitrary arrest; fair trial and the presumption of innocence; privacy; freedom of thought, conscience and religion; freedom of expression, assembly and association; the right to property; the right to participate in government and to vote. Instruments: Articles 3 to 21 of the Universal Declaration, the ICCPR, 1966, and in India Part III of the Constitution.

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Second generation, economic, social and cultural rights, "equality". Rights requiring positive action and resources from the State. The right to work, to just and favourable conditions of work and to form trade unions; social security; an adequate standard of living including food, clothing and housing; the highest attainable standard of physical and mental health; education; and participation in cultural life. Instruments: Articles 22 to 27 of the Universal Declaration, the ICESCR, 1966, and in India Part IV.

Third generation, solidarity or collective rights, "fraternity". Rights held by peoples and by mankind rather than by individuals alone, and realisable only by cooperation among States: the right to self-determination; the right to development, proclaimed by General Assembly Resolution 41/128 of 1986; the right to peace; the right to a healthy environment, recognised by the Human Rights Council in Resolution 48/13 of 2021 and by the General Assembly in Resolution 76/300 of 28 July 2022; the right to share in the common heritage of mankind; and the right to humanitarian assistance. The African Charter on Human and Peoples' Rights, 1981 is the only binding treaty that contains them, in Articles 19 to 24.

II. Other classifications

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Individual and collective. Most rights are held by individuals; some, such as self-determination in Article 1 common to both Covenants, the rights of minorities under Article 27 of the ICCPR and the peoples' rights of the African Charter, are held by groups.

Absolute and qualified. A few rights admit of no limitation at all: the prohibitions of torture, slavery and retrospective punishment. Most are qualified, subject to limitations prescribed by law and necessary in a democratic society, as Article 29(2) of the Universal Declaration provides generally and Articles 19(2) to 19(6) of the Constitution provide specifically.

Derogable and non-derogable. Article 4 of the ICCPR permits derogation in time of public emergency threatening the life of the nation, to the extent strictly required, but never from Article 6 (life), Article 7 (torture), Article 8(1) and (2) (slavery), Article 11 (imprisonment for contractual debt), Article 15 (retrospective punishment), Article 16 (recognition as a person) or Article 18 (thought, conscience and religion). In India, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended in any emergency since the 44th Amendment, 1978.

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Negative and positive. Negative rights require the State to abstain; positive rights require it to act and to spend. The distinction is untidy, because civil rights need courts, police and prisons, which cost money, and the Indian courts have made economic rights enforceable through Article 21.

Justiciable and non-justiciable, which is the Indian version of the same distinction: Part III is enforceable under Article 32, Part IV is declared unenforceable by Article 37.

Conclusion. The classifications are analytical devices and not a hierarchy, and the most important single statement on the subject is in the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, 1993: all human rights are universal, indivisible, interdependent and interrelated, and the international community must treat them globally, in a fair and equal manner, on the same footing and with the same emphasis. India's own experience proves the point: the right to food, to health and to education, all second generation rights placed in the unenforceable Part IV in 1950, are today enforced through Article 21, a first generation right, because a person who is starving cannot exercise a single civil or political freedom.

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4Human Rights Court

Answer

For full marks, cover: the statutory provision, the purpose, which court is designated and how, the provisos, the Special Public Prosecutor, the difficulties that have prevented the scheme working, and the wider institutional context.

I. The provision

Section 30 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides that for the purpose of providing speedy trial of offences arising out of violation of human rights, the State Government may, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification, specify for each district a Court of Session to be a Human Rights Court to try the said offences.

There are two provisos. Nothing in the section applies if (a) a Court of Session is already specified as a special court, or (b) a special court is already constituted for such offences under any other law for the time being in force.

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Section 31 requires the State Government, for every Human Rights Court, to specify a Public Prosecutor or to appoint an advocate who has been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years, as a Special Public Prosecutor for the purpose of conducting cases in that Court.

II. What the provision does and does not do

It designates, it does not create. No new court is established; an existing Court of Session in the district is notified to sit as a Human Rights Court. The judge, the staff and the premises are those of the Sessions Court.

Two conditions must both be satisfied: a notification by the State Government and the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court. The requirement of concurrence, rather than mere consultation, protects the independence of the judiciary and gives the High Court a veto over the designation.

Its object is speed, and the section says so. Chapter VI of the Act is designed on the assumption that the National and State Commissions inquire and recommend, while criminal liability is fixed by an ordinary criminal court sitting for that purpose.

III. The difficulties, which are what the question is really about

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The Act does not define "offences arising out of violation of human rights". Section 2(1)(d) defines human rights, but no provision identifies which offences under the penal law are within the jurisdiction of a Human Rights Court. Since almost every serious offence involves the life, liberty, equality or dignity of an individual, the expression is either too wide, in which case the Court becomes an ordinary Sessions Court, or it is undefined, in which case nobody knows what to file there.

The Court has no original jurisdiction over what is not already an offence. It cannot try a violation of a human right which is not a crime under Indian law; and it takes cognisance only in the manner an ordinary Court of Session does, which in most cases means on committal by a Magistrate. Custodial torture is not a distinct offence in India, because the Convention against Torture, 1984 was signed in 1997 and has never been ratified and the Prevention of Torture Bill has repeatedly lapsed, so the very violation these Courts were meant to try has no separate section to be tried under.

The provisos exclude most of the ground. Where a special court already exists, and special courts have been created under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and other statutes, section 30 does not apply.

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Implementation has been poor. Several States have notified Human Rights Courts, but for want of a definition of the offences and of separate infrastructure and Special Public Prosecutors, they function in practice as ordinary Sessions Courts. The National Human Rights Commission has repeatedly reported the failure and has recommended that the Act be amended to define the offences, to provide for exclusive courts and to require the appointment of Special Public Prosecutors.

IV. The wider institutional context

The Act creates a three-tier structure: the National Human Rights Commission (Chapter II), the State Human Rights Commissions (Chapter V) and the Human Rights Courts (Chapter VI). The Commissions inquire and recommend and possess civil court powers under section 13, but they cannot punish; the Human Rights Court is the criminal counterpart. Under section 18, the Commission may recommend the initiation of prosecution where an inquiry discloses a violation, and it is that prosecution which is intended to be tried by the Human Rights Court.

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Internationally the expression means something quite different, and the contrast is instructive: the European Court of Human Rights at Strasbourg, the Inter-American Court of Human Rights at San Jose and the African Court on Human and Peoples' Rights at Arusha are treaty courts to which an individual may complain against a State. Asia has no such court, so the Indian Human Rights Court is not a counterpart of them but a domestic criminal court sitting under a special name.

Conclusion. The Human Rights Court under section 30 is the weakest limb of a statute whose other limbs work reasonably well. The idea is sound, that a violation of human rights which is also an offence should be tried quickly by a designated court with a dedicated prosecutor. The execution has failed for three identifiable reasons: the Act never defines the offences to be tried, no separate court or infrastructure is created, and the provisos exclude the cases for which special courts already exist. Until the Act is amended to define the jurisdiction, and until custodial torture is made a distinct offence, these Courts will remain Sessions Courts with a second name.

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5Discuss various theories as to the relationship between International Law and Muncipal law and explain the practices follwed by the United states, Britain and Indian for adopting international law into their own legal systems.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the four theories with their exponents and criticisms, then the practice of each of the three States separately, treating treaties and custom apart in each case, and a comparative conclusion.

PART ONE: THE THEORIES

I. Monism

International law and municipal law are two branches of a single legal system. A rule of international law is therefore part of the law of the land without transformation, and may be applied directly by national courts. Kelsen derived the unity from a single grundnorm and treated international law as the superior order, so that in a conflict it prevails; Lauterpacht founded monism on the individual as the ultimate subject of both systems; Wright and Duguit are to the same effect.

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Criticism. It does not describe what States actually do. Most constitutions require some domestic act before a treaty can be enforced by a court, and no national court will refuse to apply its own statute merely because it conflicts with international law.

II. Dualism

The two are separate and independent systems, differing in three respects, as Triepel and Anzilotti state them: in source, international law arising from the common will of States and municipal law from the will of a single State; in subjects, international law governing States and municipal law governing individuals; and in substance, the one regulating external and the other internal relations. A rule of international law therefore enters domestic law only when the legislature transforms it.

Criticism. It exaggerates the separation. Individuals are now subjects of international law under the human rights treaties and international criminal law; and a State cannot plead its municipal law as a defence to a breach, which Article 27 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 puts beyond argument.

III. The specific adoption and transformation theories

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Refinements of dualism. The transformation theory holds that a rule must be transformed by a legislative act before it can operate domestically, the transformation being what gives it validity in the municipal sphere. The specific adoption theory holds that international law is applied by municipal courts only when specifically adopted by legislation or by judicial decision.

Criticism. Neither explains the practice of most common law countries on customary international law, which is applied without any act of adoption.

IV. The delegation and harmonisation theories

The delegation theory holds that the constitutional rules of international law delegate to each State the power to determine, by its own constitution, when and how international law shall become operative within it, so there is no transformation but only a continuation of a single process. The harmonisation theory, associated with Fitzmaurice and Rousseau, denies that there is any real conflict: the two systems operate in different fields and are supreme each in its own, and where they appear to clash the question is only which obligation the State must answer for and where. This is the view most modern writers take.

PART TWO: THE PRACTICE OF THE THREE STATES

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I. The United States

Treaties. Article VI, clause 2 of the Constitution, the Supremacy Clause, provides that the Constitution, the laws of the United States made in pursuance of it, and all treaties made under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land, binding the judges in every State. Treaties are made by the President with the advice and consent of two thirds of the Senate (Article II, section 2).

The self-executing distinction, drawn by Marshall C.J. in Foster v. Neilson (1829), is the essential qualification: a self-executing treaty operates of itself as law, while a non-self-executing treaty addresses the political branches and requires implementing legislation before a court can enforce it. Medellin v. Texas (2008) applied it to hold that a judgment of the International Court of Justice in the Avena case was not directly enforceable in American courts.

A later Act of Congress prevails over an earlier treaty and a later treaty over an earlier Act, on the ordinary rule of lex posterior, but no treaty can override the Constitution: Reid v. Covert (1957). Alongside treaties, the President makes executive agreements without Senate consent, which are the great majority of American international agreements.

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Custom. The United States is monist as to custom. The Paquete Habana (1900) states the rule: international law is part of our law, and must be ascertained and administered by the courts of justice of appropriate jurisdiction as often as questions of right depending upon it are duly presented for their determination.

II. Britain

Treaties: strictly dualist. The conclusion of a treaty is an exercise of the royal prerogative, but a treaty has no effect in English law until Parliament gives it effect by statute, because otherwise the Crown could alter the law without Parliament. That is why the European Convention on Human Rights, ratified in 1951, was not enforceable in English courts until the Human Rights Act, 1998, and why membership of the European Communities required the European Communities Act, 1972. The Parlement Belge (1879) and Attorney-General for Canada v. Attorney-General for Ontario (1937) state the principle; since 2010 the Constitutional Reform and Governance Act requires most treaties to be laid before Parliament for twenty-one sitting days before ratification.

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Custom: monist, subject to two limits. Blackstone's doctrine of incorporation was that the law of nations is adopted in its full extent by the common law and held to be part of the law of the land. West Rand Central Gold Mining Company v. The King [1905] 2 K.B. 391 qualified it: a rule of international law is part of English law only so far as it has been recognised and acted upon by our courts, or is of such a nature and has been so widely and generally accepted that it can hardly be supposed that any civilised State would repudiate it. Trendtex Trading Corporation v. Central Bank of Nigeria [1977] Q.B. 529 confirmed incorporation and held that English law moves with changes in customary international law, so that the restrictive doctrine of sovereign immunity replaced the absolute doctrine without legislation. The two limits are that custom yields to a statute, and that it yields to a binding precedent, subject to the Trendtex qualification.

III. India

India follows the British model: dualist for treaties, monist for custom.

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Treaties. The power to enter into treaties is an executive power under Article 73, exercisable without parliamentary approval, and the subject appears in entry 14 of the Union List, "entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries and implementing of treaties, agreements and conventions with foreign countries". Article 253 empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country, notwithstanding the distribution of legislative powers, so that Parliament may legislate even on a State List subject for that purpose. Article 51(c) directs the State to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.

The consequence is that a treaty is not enforceable by an Indian court until implemented by legislation, if it affects the rights of citizens or requires a modification of existing law. Jolly George Varghese v. Bank of Cochin (1980) is the clearest statement: the positive commitment of the States parties ignites legislative action at home, but does not automatically make the Covenant an enforceable part of the corpus juris of India. Maganbhai Ishwarbhai Patel v. Union of India (1970) held that a treaty which does not affect rights or require a change in the law may be implemented by executive action alone.

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Statutes made under Article 253 include the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, made to implement the decisions of the Stockholm Conference, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and the Anti-Hijacking and Chemical Weapons legislation.

Custom. Customary international law that is not inconsistent with municipal law is treated as incorporated into Indian law and applied by the courts. Gramophone Company of India v. Birendra Bahadur Pandey (1984): the doctrine of incorporation is recognised, and the comity of nations requires that the rules of international law be accommodated in municipal law even without express legislative sanction, provided they do not run into conflict with Acts of Parliament. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996) applied it to the precautionary and polluter pays principles.

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A third and distinctively Indian route: construction. Even where a convention is unimplemented, the courts use it to interpret the fundamental rights, relying on Article 51(c): Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) read CEDAW into Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 and issued binding guidelines; Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999); Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das (2000) used the Universal Declaration. The rule as stated in Vishaka is that in the absence of contrary domestic law, an international convention consistent with the fundamental rights and in harmony with their spirit must be read into them to enlarge their meaning and content.

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Conclusion. No State is purely monist or purely dualist, and the three practices illustrate the point exactly. All three are monist as to customary international law, which their courts apply without any act of adoption, subject to the supremacy of statute. They differ on treaties: Britain and India require implementing legislation, because in both the treaty-making power belongs to the executive and it would otherwise be able to change the law without the legislature; the United States makes treaties part of the supreme law of the land but has narrowed the effect through the self-executing distinction. The harmonisation theory therefore describes the practice best: the theories are useful for explaining why a court reaches its result, and the actual position in every State is determined not by jurisprudence but by its own constitution.

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6Write short note: Exclusive Economic Zone.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition and breadth, the rights and jurisdiction of the coastal State, what other States retain, the duties that go with the rights, delimitation, the position of land-locked States, and India's legislation.

Definition and breadth. The exclusive economic zone is the area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, subject to the specific legal regime of Part V of UNCLOS 1982, Articles 55 to 75, which shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured (Article 57). Since the territorial sea may be twelve miles, the zone in practice covers the 188 miles beyond it.

The rights of the coastal State, Article 56. It has:

Sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural resources, whether living or non-living, of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil, and with regard to other activities for the economic exploitation and exploration of the zone, such as the production of energy from the water, currents and winds;

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Jurisdiction with regard to the establishment and use of artificial islands, installations and structures, marine scientific research, and the protection and preservation of the marine environment;

and other rights and duties provided for in the Convention.

What it is not. The zone is not territory and not territorial sea: the coastal State has sovereign rights for specified purposes, not sovereignty, and it has no general legislative competence there.

What other States retain, Article 58. All States, coastal and land-locked, enjoy in the zone the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to those freedoms, subject to the obligation to have due regard to the rights and duties of the coastal State.

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The duties that go with the rights. Article 61 requires the coastal State to determine the allowable catch and to ensure through proper conservation and management measures that the living resources are not endangered by over-exploitation. Article 62 requires it to promote the objective of optimum utilisation and, where it does not have the capacity to harvest the entire allowable catch, to give other States access to the surplus, with Articles 69 and 70 preferring land-locked and geographically disadvantaged States of the same subregion or region.

Residual rights, Article 59. Where the Convention does not attribute a right or jurisdiction within the zone to either the coastal State or other States, and a conflict arises, it is to be resolved on the basis of equity and in the light of all the relevant circumstances, taking account of the respective importance of the interests to the parties and to the international community as a whole.

Delimitation, Article 74. Between States with opposite or adjacent coasts, delimitation is to be effected by agreement on the basis of international law as referred to in Article 38 of the Statute, in order to achieve an equitable solution.

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India. India ratified UNCLOS on 29 June 1995. Its zone was declared even earlier, by section 7 of the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, which fixed it at 200 nautical miles. India's maritime boundary with Bangladesh in the Bay of Bengal, including the zone, was settled by an Annex VII arbitral award of 7 July 2014, which India accepted and implemented.

Conclusion. The exclusive economic zone is the central compromise of the Convention. Coastal States, especially the newly independent and developing States, obtained exclusive rights over the fisheries and the hydrocarbons off their own coasts, which is what they had been claiming unilaterally since the Truman Proclamation of 1945 and the Latin American declarations of the 1950s; and the maritime powers obtained, in exchange, the express preservation of navigation, overflight and cable laying throughout the zone. Neither side could have had the whole, and the zone is the line on which they agreed.

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7K, a foreign sovereign, assuming a false name enters tinto a contract of marriage in England with a woman Q. Later K makes a breach of contract. In a suit by entitles immunity. Discuss the legal questions and decide.

Answer

The problem is Mighell v. Sultan of Johore [1894] 1 Q.B. 149, Court of Appeal.

Facts. The Sultan of Johore, an independent sovereign, resided in England for some years under the assumed name of Albert Baker, and in that character promised to marry the plaintiff, Miss Mighell. He broke the promise. She sued him for breach of promise of marriage, and only after the action began did he disclose his identity and claim immunity from the jurisdiction.

The legal questions.

(1) Is a foreign sovereign immune from the jurisdiction of the English courts in respect of a private transaction?

(2) Does he lose the immunity by concealing his identity and contracting under an assumed name, that is, is he estopped, or has he waived immunity by contracting in a private character?

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The decision. The Court of Appeal held that the Sultan was entitled to immunity and that the action must be dismissed. Three propositions were laid down.

A foreign sovereign cannot be impleaded in the courts of another State without his consent, on the principle par in parem non habet imperium, an equal has no authority over an equal, and out of respect for the independence and dignity of every sovereign State.

The status of the defendant is determined conclusively by a statement from the executive, and the court will not inquire into it for itself; on a certificate of the Colonial Office that the Sultan was an independent sovereign, the court was bound.

Immunity is not lost by the concealment of identity or by the private character of the transaction. Waiver must be made at the time when the court is asked to exercise jurisdiction, by submission to the jurisdiction; an undertaking or conduct before the suit, however deliberate, is not a submission. Lord Esher M.R. said that the sovereign might elect to waive his privilege in the action, but until he did the court had no jurisdiction, and the fact that he had contracted in an assumed name made no difference.

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Decide. On the authority of Mighell, K succeeds in his claim of immunity and Q's suit fails, unless K submits to the jurisdiction, which he is entitled but not obliged to do.

But state the modern law, because it has moved. Two developments qualify the answer.

The absolute doctrine has been replaced by the restrictive doctrine. A State is immune in respect of acts of a sovereign or public character (acta jure imperii) but not in respect of acts of a private or commercial character (acta jure gestionis). The Philippine Admiral (1977) and Trendtex Trading Corporation v. Central Bank of Nigeria [1977] Q.B. 529 adopted it in England; the State Immunity Act, 1978 enacted it, and the United Nations Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and Their Property, 2004, not yet in force, codifies it.

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The restriction does not, however, change the result for K personally. The restrictive doctrine applies to the immunity of the State; the personal immunity of a serving Head of State, ratione personae, remains absolute for the duration of the office and covers private acts, as section 20 of the State Immunity Act, 1978 provides by applying the Diplomatic Privileges Act to a sovereign, and as the House of Lords accepted in R. v. Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex parte Pinochet (No. 3) (1999), which distinguished immunity ratione personae, absolute while in office, from immunity ratione materiae, which continues after office only for official acts and does not extend to torture.

Conclusion. K is entitled to immunity and Q's action must be dismissed. On the law as it stood in Mighell, that follows from the absolute doctrine and from the rule that a false name does not create an estoppel against sovereign immunity, because waiver can only be made by submission at the time the court is asked to act. On the law as it stands today, the result is the same but the reasoning is narrower: a promise of marriage is not a commercial transaction, so no exception applies; and even if it were, the personal immunity of a serving Head of State is absolute while he holds office. Q's practical remedy is to invite K to submit, or to sue in the courts of his own State.

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8Write short note: Jus Cogens.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition in Article 53, the consequences in Articles 53, 64 and 71, the accepted examples, how a norm becomes peremptory, the relation to obligations erga omnes, and the criticisms.

Definition. Jus cogens, or a peremptory norm of general international law, is defined by Article 53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 as a norm accepted and recognised by the international community of States as a whole as a norm from which no derogation is permitted and which can be modified only by a subsequent norm of general international law having the same character.

Consequences.

Article 53: a treaty is void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with a peremptory norm.

Article 64: if a new peremptory norm emerges, any existing treaty in conflict with it becomes void and terminates.

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Article 71: where a treaty is void under Article 53, the parties must eliminate as far as possible the consequences of any act performed in reliance on the conflicting provision and bring their mutual relations into conformity with the norm; where it terminates under Article 64, the termination releases the parties from any obligation further to perform, without affecting rights created before termination, except that those rights may thereafter be maintained only to the extent that their maintenance does not itself conflict with the norm.

Article 66(a) gives any party to a dispute concerning Articles 53 or 64 the right to submit it to the International Court of Justice unless the parties agree to arbitration, which is the only compulsory jurisdiction in the whole Convention.

Examples. The Convention deliberately gives none, so as not to freeze the category. Those universally accepted, and listed in the International Law Commission's conclusions on peremptory norms (2022), are the prohibitions of aggression and the use of force, genocide, crimes against humanity, slavery and the slave trade, torture, apartheid and racial discrimination, the basic rules of international humanitarian law, piracy, and the right of self-determination.

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How a norm becomes peremptory. Two stages. It must first be a norm of general international law, usually customary; and it must then be accepted and recognised as peremptory by the international community of States as a whole, which does not mean unanimity but a very large and representative majority including all essential components.

Relation to obligations erga omnes. The two overlap but answer different questions. Jus cogens concerns the hierarchy of norms and the invalidity of what conflicts with them. Obligations erga omnes, recognised in Barcelona Traction (1970), concern standing: they are owed to the international community as a whole, so every State has a legal interest in their protection and may invoke the breach, as Article 48 of the Articles on State Responsibility, 2001 provides. Every peremptory norm generates obligations erga omnes; the converse is not necessarily true.

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Judicial recognition. Nicaragua v. United States (1986) treated the prohibition of the use of force as peremptory; Prosecutor v. Furundzija (ICTY, 1998) held the prohibition of torture to be jus cogens; Armed Activities on the Territory of the Congo (New Application: 2002) (2006) held the prohibition of genocide to be peremptory but confirmed that a peremptory norm does not by itself confer jurisdiction on the Court; Jurisdictional Immunities of the State (Germany v. Italy) (2012) held that a conflict with a peremptory norm does not displace the procedural rule of State immunity.

Conclusion. Jus cogens is the point at which international law ceased to be a purely consensual system. Every other rule can be excluded by agreement between the States concerned; a peremptory norm cannot, and a treaty that offends it is void whatever the parties intended. Its practical importance is less in the invalidation of treaties, of which there is no clear instance, than in the two places where the concept now does real work: the duty not to recognise a situation created by a serious breach of a peremptory norm under Article 41 of the Articles on State Responsibility, and the argument, still contested after Germany v. Italy, that peremptory norms should override procedural bars such as immunity and limitation.

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9Write Short note: Optional clause.

Answer

For full marks, cover: what the clause is and where it is found, its text and the three heads of jurisdiction, reciprocity, reservations and their effect, the automatic reservation problem, the number of declarations, and India's position.

What it is. The optional clause is Article 36(2) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, under which States may declare that they recognise the jurisdiction of the Court as compulsory ipso facto and without special agreement, in relation to any other State accepting the same obligation, in all legal disputes concerning:

(a) the interpretation of a treaty; (b) any question of international law; (c) the existence of any fact which, if established, would constitute a breach of an international obligation; and (d) the nature or extent of the reparation to be made for the breach of an international obligation.

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It is called optional because acceptance is voluntary; it is called compulsory jurisdiction because, once two States have both accepted, either may bring the other before the Court without any further agreement. It originated in the Statute of the Permanent Court of International Justice in 1920, as a compromise between those who wanted genuinely compulsory jurisdiction and those who insisted on consent.

Reciprocity. The obligation is undertaken only in relation to any other State accepting the same obligation, and Article 36(3) permits declarations on condition of reciprocity. The practical consequence is that jurisdiction extends only so far as the two declarations coincide: a respondent may invoke a reservation contained in the applicant's declaration, even though it has made no such reservation itself. That is the rule applied in the Norwegian Loans case (1957) and in Interhandel (1959).

Reservations. Article 36(3) expressly allows a declaration to be made for a certain time, and States have in practice attached extensive reservations ratione materiae, ratione personae and ratione temporis. The commonest are the exclusion of disputes within domestic jurisdiction, of disputes with particular classes of State, of disputes arising out of hostilities, and of disputes for which the parties have agreed on another method of settlement.

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The automatic or self-judging reservation. The Connally reservation, made by the United States in 1946, excluded disputes concerning matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of the United States as determined by the United States. It was much criticised as inconsistent with Article 36(6), which provides that a dispute as to whether the Court has jurisdiction is settled by the decision of the Court, and Judge Lauterpacht in Norwegian Loans and Interhandel considered such a reservation invalid and, because it was an essential condition of the declaration, capable of invalidating the declaration altogether. The Court has never had to decide the point.

Withdrawal and modification are governed by the terms of the declaration; the Nicaragua case (1984) held that a declaration terminable on notice cannot be modified with immediate effect to defeat an application about to be filed, good faith requiring a reasonable period.

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How much jurisdiction it actually creates. Only about seventy-four States of the one hundred and ninety-three have declarations in force, and of the permanent members of the Security Council only the United Kingdom has one; the United States withdrew its declaration in 1985 after the Nicaragua judgment, and France in 1974 after the Nuclear Tests cases. The optional clause is therefore a modest source of jurisdiction compared with compromissory clauses in treaties, which are today the commonest basis on which cases reach the Court.

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India's position. India has made declarations since 1940 and its current declaration, of 27 September 2019, accepts compulsory jurisdiction subject to a long list of reservations, including disputes with the government of any State which is or has been a member of the Commonwealth, disputes relating to or connected with hostilities, armed conflicts, individual or collective actions taken in self-defence, disputes relating to matters within the domestic jurisdiction of India, and disputes concerning the maritime boundaries and the exclusive economic zone. The Commonwealth reservation is why the Court held it had no jurisdiction in the Aerial Incident of 10 August 1999 (Pakistan v. India) (2000); and it is why Jadhav (India v. Pakistan) (2019) had to be brought instead under the compromissory clause in the Optional Protocol to the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, on which India succeeded.

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Conclusion. The optional clause is the nearest thing international law has to compulsory adjudication, and its history is a demonstration of how far that is from being very near. Because acceptance is voluntary, because reciprocity lets a respondent borrow the applicant's reservations, and because States have attached reservations wide enough to exclude everything they care about, the clause produces jurisdiction chiefly in disputes the parties were content to litigate anyway. That is not a criticism of the drafting but a statement of the character of the system: the Court's authority rests on consent, and Article 36(2) is a way of giving consent in advance rather than an escape from the requirement of it.

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10"The United Nations is primarily an organisation for maintaining peace and security." Discuss.

Answer

For full marks, cover: what the statement claims and the case for it from the Charter, the machinery of Chapters VI and VII with its record, then the case against it, that the Organization's purposes and its actual work extend far beyond peace and security, and a reasoned conclusion.

I. The case for the statement

The Charter puts peace first, textually and structurally. The Preamble begins with the determination "to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war". Article 1(1) states the first purpose as to maintain international peace and security, and to that end to take effective collective measures for the prevention and removal of threats to the peace and for the suppression of acts of aggression. Article 2(3) requires the peaceful settlement of disputes and Article 2(4) prohibits the threat or use of force.

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The institutional design confirms it. Article 24(1) confers on the Security Council primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security, and Members agree that in carrying out its duties the Council acts on their behalf. Article 25 obliges Members to accept and carry out its decisions, and Article 103 gives Charter obligations priority over any other international agreement. No other organ has powers of that kind: the General Assembly may only recommend, and Article 12 originally restrained it from making recommendations on a dispute while the Council was seised of it.

The powers are real. Chapter VI allows the Council to call on parties to settle disputes, to investigate under Article 34 and to recommend procedures or terms under Articles 36 and 37. Chapter VII allows it, after determining under Article 39 the existence of a threat to the peace, breach of the peace or act of aggression, to order provisional measures (40), measures not involving the use of armed force (41), including economic sanctions and the establishment of criminal tribunals, and action by air, sea or land forces (42). Article 51 preserves the inherent right of individual or collective self-defence until the Council has acted.

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The record supports it in part. There has been no third world war. The Council authorised force in Korea (1950) and against Iraq (1990); it has imposed sanctions many times; it created the tribunals for the former Yugoslavia (1993) and Rwanda (1994) and referred Darfur and Libya to the International Criminal Court; and peacekeeping, which appears nowhere in the Charter and is often called "Chapter Six and a Half", has grown into the Organization's most visible activity, with India among the largest contributors of troops since 1950.

II. The case against the statement

Article 1 states four purposes, not one. Besides peace and security, they are the development of friendly relations among nations based on the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples; the achievement of international cooperation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural or humanitarian character and in promoting and encouraging respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms for all; and to be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of these ends.

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Whole chapters are devoted to the other purposes. Chapter IX, Articles 55 and 56, on international economic and social cooperation, by which Members pledge themselves to joint and separate action for higher standards of living, full employment, solutions of international economic, social and health problems, and universal respect for and observance of human rights. Chapter X on the Economic and Social Council. Chapters XI to XIII on non-self-governing territories and trusteeship, under which decolonisation was carried through: from 51 members in 1945 to 193 today, an achievement at least as large as anything done under Chapter VII.

The bulk of the system's work is not about war. The specialised agencies and programmes, the ILO, WHO, UNESCO, FAO, UNICEF, UNHCR, UNDP and UN Women, employ most of the staff and spend most of the money. The human rights machinery, from the Universal Declaration of 1948 to the nine core treaties, the Human Rights Council of 2006 and the Universal Periodic Review, is a body of work that did not exist before the Organization. The Sustainable Development Goals of 2015 are its current central programme.

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The peace and security machinery has failed repeatedly, and for a structural reason. The veto under Article 27(3) paralysed the Council throughout the Cold War and does so again now; the Council did not prevent Vietnam, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, Afghanistan or Iraq in 2003, and it failed catastrophically in Rwanda (1994) and Srebrenica (1995). The Military Staff Committee under Article 47 has never functioned and no agreements under Article 43 placing forces at the Council's disposal have ever been concluded, so the Charter's original enforcement scheme has never once been used as designed. The General Assembly has had to work round the paralysis through Uniting for Peace, Resolution 377(V) of 1950, and since Resolution 76/262 of 26 April 2022 it debates automatically within ten working days of any veto.

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Conclusion. The statement is half right, and the half it gets right is a statement about priority rather than about proportion. Peace and security is the first purpose of the Charter, it is the only field in which the Organization can take binding decisions, and it is the reason the Organization was founded in 1945. But it is not the whole, and it is not even the larger part of what the Organization does: the Charter itself names four purposes, devotes entire chapters to economic and social cooperation, human rights and decolonisation, and the practice of eighty years has expanded those far beyond what was foreseen. The better formulation is the one the Organization now uses itself: peace, development and human rights are its three pillars, and they are interdependent, because there is no development without security, no security without development, and neither without respect for human rights.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2021-22 Public International Law and Human Rights paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 30 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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