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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 BNSS and CrPC Solved Question Papers with Answers 2017 to 2026 - Mumbai University | munotes

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2 Then compare, answer by answer Look at structure and coverage before wording. Marks are lost by missing a part of the question, not by writing it badly.
3 Watch what repeats across sittings A question that comes back two years running is worth learning in full, not just recognising.

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About this subject

This is one paper examined on two codes, and the eleven papers solved here come from both. Mumbai University set it on the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 until 2024. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Code on 1 July 2024, and since December 2024 the paper has been set on the Sanhita. The Code's paper has not stopped: it is still set for students repeating it and for the older scheme of the LL.B. three-year course, most recently in April 2026. So eight papers here were set on the Code, from December 2017 to April 2025. Two were set on the Sanhita, in December 2024 and December 2025, at 60 marks in two hours, for B.L.S. fifth-year students of the older 60:40 scheme. The April 2026 paper is a Code paper by its printed header, and it is answered here on the Sanhita. Every paper is marked with its code. The 75-mark Sanhita papers set for the LL.B. three-year course are on the question paper page, and they are not among the papers solved here.

The three newest papers here, December 2024, December 2025 and April 2026, all set an FIR problem in the situational section, and it is essentially the same problem each time. Jiten is turned away at Dadar police station because the offence happened in Nashik. Suryakant wants to register at Kamalnagar when the offence was in Zebranagar. A is told his stolen mobile phone is a minor issue. All three are answered the same way. Registration is mandatory where the information discloses a cognizable offence, which is Lalita Kumari. The words irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, in Section 173(1) of the Sanhita, are what make the Zero FIR a right rather than a courtesy. The remedies on refusal are the Superintendent of Police under Section 173(4), the Magistrate under Section 175(3) on an application supported by an affidavit, and a private complaint under Section 223. Prepare that one answer properly and you have six marks in the bag in any sitting of this paper.

The most reliable problem among the Code papers is a man arrested for rape. It is set in four of the eight with only the name changed: Mr. Rana in December 2017 and again in June 2018, A in December 2019, and Mr. X in December 2022. It comes back in April 2026, with Mr. X again. It always asks whether he can be released on bail, and when; four times it also asks the nature of the offence, and three times whether he can compound it. One prepared answer covers all five. The offence is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable and triable only by the Court of Session. A Magistrate cannot release him where reasonable grounds appear, under Section 437(1) of the Code, now Section 480(1) of the Sanhita, so the application belongs to the Court of Session or the High Court, under Section 439, now Section 483. Bail becomes his as of right on the ninety-first day if no chargesheet is filed. And a compromise has no place in such a case, which is Shimbhu.

Other problems come round the same way, across both codes. Mr. Bhagat, convicted of murder and sentenced to death, is asked about his appeal and about confirmation in December 2017 and again in June 2018, and the Sanhita paper of December 2024 sets the same problem for Mayur. Raju and Dev, who commit a dacoity at P. K. Jewellers, are asked about discharge and a tender of pardon in December 2017 and June 2018. A man tried for attempt to murder under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code and acquitted is asked where the appeal lies and whether the victim may prefer one: Ram and Shyam in December 2019, and Ramesh and Rajesh in December 2022 and again, almost word for word, in April 2026. The limitation problem is set in December 2022 for an offence punishable with two years, in April 2025 for six months, and in the Sanhita paper of December 2024 for two years again. The periods did not change when Section 468 of the Code became Section 514 of the Sanhita.

The two-mark section is more finite than it looks. In the eight Code papers, a hundred of the two hundred and two questions are two-mark definitions or objective questions, and they keep returning to the same handful. Who is a Public Prosecutor is asked five times, who is a probation officer seven, what is meant by charge six, define inquiry five, how is an arrest made or when may a police officer arrest without a warrant five, and when may a search warrant be issued four. In the three papers since December 2024, fifteen of the thirty two-mark questions are definitions straight out of Section 2(1) of the Sanhita, and a sixteenth is the definition of juvenile in Section 2(35) of the Juvenile Justice Act. Section 2(1) runs from clause (a) to clause (z) in one alphabetical list, and it now defines things the old Code never did, including bail, bail bond, bond and audio-video electronic means. Reading it carefully is the best return on an hour anywhere in this subject.

In the three papers since December 2024, arrest is the largest topic by a distance. Five questions, worth forty-four marks, ask about the procedure of arrest, arrest without a warrant, the arrest of women and of a proclaimed offender, or the rights of an arrested person, and three of them are the twelve-mark long answer. All of it comes out of a short run of the Sanhita, Sections 35, 43 and 46 to 58, with Articles 20(3), 21 and 22 of the Constitution and four judgments worth knowing by name: Joginder Kumar, D. K. Basu, Arnesh Kumar and Prem Shankar Shukla.

The paper is never only the code. The Sanhita papers name two more statutes in their header, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012. Across the three papers since December 2024, twelve of the sixty-six questions come from those child statutes, always in their own slots: a short note, a situational problem and one of the long answers. The Code papers name the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 instead, and in the eight Code papers the child law and the probation law together carry about a third of every paper. All but the online paper of May 2022 also name the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, which was repealed on 15 January 2016, before the oldest paper here was set; the answers are on the Act of 2015 as amended in 2021. The Probation Act is short, nineteen sections, and Sections 3, 4, 6, 12 and 14 answer almost everything asked of it.

Three papers will look wrong when you open them. April 2025 was sat nine months after the Code was repealed and still asks for bail and the framing of charges under the Code; it is answered on the Code the questions name. April 2026 still carries the old printed header, Paper Subject Code 075712, Criminal Procedure Code, Juvenile Justice Act 2000 and Probation of Offenders Act. It asks what remedies are available under CrPC and sets an offence under Section 307 IPC, and it is answered on the Sanhita, with the provision each question cites named beside it. Its Section 2 also asks for short notes on any four of four, at 3 marks each, where the Sanhita papers ask for any two of four at 6. And May 2022 was an online examination of twenty multiple choice questions and ten descriptive ones, with no marks and no duration printed on it.

These are model answers prepared by munotes. They are a study aid and not official University answer keys, which the University of Mumbai does not publish.

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