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Law of Torts, Motor Accident Claims and Consumer Protection Notes | B.A. LL.B. (Five Year Course) Semester 5 | Mumbai University | munotes

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Law of Torts, Motor Accident Claims and Consumer Protection

B.A. LL.B. (FIVE YEAR COURSE) · SEMESTER 5

Strictly as per the revised CBCS syllabus of the University of Mumbai

For students of the University of Mumbai and all its affiliated law colleges

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Law of Torts, Motor Accident Claims and Consumer Protection

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Contents

Module I General Principles of Tort

  1. What a Tort Is 1
  2. The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability 6
  3. The Object of the Law of Torts 12
  4. Law of Tort or Law of Torts 17
  5. Tort in India 21
  6. The Mental Element in Tort 26
  7. Tort Distinguished from Crime 30
  8. Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs 34
  9. Who May Sue 38
  10. Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 43
  11. Who May Not Be Sued 49
  12. Damnum Sine Injuria 54
  13. Injuria Sine Damno 58
  14. Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium 62
  15. Volenti Non Fit Injuria 66
  16. Extinguishment and Discharge of Liability in Tort 71
  17. Limitation in an Action for Tort 75
  18. General Defences I 80
  19. General Defences II 84

Module II Torts against person, property, Freedom &Reputation

  1. Trespass to the Person 89
  2. Battery 93
  3. Assault 96
  4. Mayhem 99
  5. False Imprisonment 102
  6. Trespass to Land 107
  7. Trespass ab Initio 111
  8. Remedies for Trespass to Land 114
  9. Trespass to Goods 118
  10. Detinue 121
  11. Conversion 125
  12. Defamation: What It Is 129
  13. Libel and Slander 133
  14. The Essentials of Defamation 137
  15. Defences to Defamation 140
  16. Defamation in India 145
  17. Torts Affecting Personal Relations 149
  18. Nuisance: What It Is 152
  19. Public Nuisance 155
  20. Private Nuisance 159
  21. Defences and Remedies in Nuisance 163
  22. Negligence: What It Is 167
  23. The Duty of Care 171
  24. Breach of Duty and the Standard of Care 176
  25. Damage, Causation and Remoteness 180
  26. Res Ipsa Loquitur 184
  27. Contributory and Composite Negligence 188
  28. Medical Negligence 192
  29. Nervous Shock 197
  30. Fraud or Deceit 200
  31. Joint Tortfeasors 204
  32. Malicious Prosecution 208
  33. Malicious Abuse of Legal Process 212

Module III Principles of Liability in Torts and Legal Remedies

  1. Vicarious Liability: Basis and Justification 216
  2. Who Is a Servant 220
  3. Course of Employment 224
  4. Liability for an Independent Contractor 228
  5. Other Relations that Attract Vicarious Liability 231
  6. Vicarious Liability of the State 234
  7. Constitutional Tort 238
  8. Strict Liability: The Rule in Rylands v. Fletcher 243
  9. Exceptions to Strict Liability 248
  10. Absolute Liability 252
  11. The Bhopal Gas Disaster 257
  12. The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 261
  13. Judicial Remedies: Damages 266
  14. Kinds of Damages 269
  15. Injunction and Specific Restitution of Property 273
  16. Extra-Judicial Remedies 277

Module IV Concept of Consumer & Consumer Protection Act 2019

  1. Why a Consumer Law, and the Scheme of the Act of 2019 281
  2. Who Is a Consumer 285
  3. Goods and Defect 289
  4. Service and Deficiency 293
  5. Types of Services and Denial of Service 297
  6. Commercial and Professional Services 300
  7. Medical Services under the Act 303
  8. Unfair and Restrictive Trade Practices 307
  9. Misleading Advertisements and the Liability of an Endorser 311
  10. Consumer Rights and the Consumer Protection Councils 315
  11. The Central Consumer Protection Authority 318
  12. The District Commission 322
  13. How a Complaint Is Decided 326
  14. The State Commission 330
  15. The National Commission 333
  16. Mediation under the Act 337
  17. Product Liability 341
  18. Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law 345
  19. Judicial Review of the Consumer Commissions 349
  20. The Motor Vehicles Act 1988: Scheme and Definitions 354
  21. What a Motor Accident Claim Is 358
  22. Claims Tribunals: Constitution and Jurisdiction 362
  23. The Application for Compensation 366
  24. The Award of the Claims Tribunal 371
  25. Computing Just Compensation 376
  26. Appeal, Recovery and Rules 381
  27. Liability without Fault 385
  28. Hit and Run, and the Golden Hour 392
  29. Compulsory Third-Party Insurance 398
  30. The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover 404
  31. The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act I: Licensing 412
  32. The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act II: Conductors and Registration 416
  33. The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act III: Permits and State Undertakings 420
  34. The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act IV: Construction, Traffic and Foreign Vehicles 424
  35. The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act V: Offences and Miscellaneous 429
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Module I

General Principles of Tort

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Chapter One

What a Tort Is

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or of trust, for which the person wronged can sue and be awarded damages fixed by the court.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a tort is a civil wrong arising from the breach of a duty fixed by law itself, owed to persons generally rather than to one person under an agreement, the remedy for which is a common law action for unliquidated damages, and which is not exclusively the breach of a contract, of a trust or of some other merely equitable obligation.

The word, and the two words it is not

Tort comes from the Latin tortum, which means twisted or crooked, through the French tort, meaning a wrong. The idea in the word is conduct that is not straight, and the Latin equivalent used in the old books is delictum, a wrong. The English word "wrong" is the plain translation, and if you read "tort" as "a civil wrong of a particular kind" every sentence in this book will make sense.

Two words have to be separated from it at once, because a student who confuses them will get every distinction question wrong.

A crime is a wrong against the State. The State prosecutes, the proceeding is criminal, and the result is punishment. A tort is a wrong against a private person. That person sues, the proceeding is civil, and the result is compensation. The same act can be both, and chapter [Tort Distinguished from Crime] works that out.

A breach of contract is a failure to do what you promised. The duty came from the agreement, so it is owed only to the other party to it. In tort the duty comes from the law and is owed to everybody. Chapter [Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs] works that out.

The one definition that is law in India

Most books give you three definitions by three English writers and no statute. India has a statute. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 provides that "tort" means a civil wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of a trust.

That definition is binding for the purposes of the Limitation Act, which is the Act that tells a court whether an action in tort is too late. It is not a code of tort law and it does not pretend to be one. But it settles two things: that a tort is a civil wrong, and that it is defined by exclusion, that is, by saying what it is not.

Note the word "exclusively". A single set of facts can be both a breach of contract and a tort, and the definition is careful to leave room for that. A surgeon who operates carelessly breaks the contract of treatment and also commits the tort of negligence. Only a wrong that is nothing but a breach of contract falls outside.

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What a Tort Is

The three classical definitions

The English writers whose definitions MU expects a student to know are Salmond, Winfield and Fraser. Each is trying to answer a slightly different question, which is why they read differently.

Salmond defined a tort as a civil wrong whose remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages, and which is not exclusively the breach of a contract, or the breach of a trust, or the breach of some other merely equitable obligation. Salmond is describing the remedy: what makes a wrong a tort is that the court can be asked for damages it fixes itself.

Winfield defined tortious liability as liability arising from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law, where the duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages. Winfield is describing the duty: where the duty comes from, and to whom it is owed.

Fraser defined a tort as an infringement of a right in rem of a private individual, giving a right of compensation at the suit of the injured party. Fraser is describing the right: a right in rem is a right good against the world at large, as against a right in personam, which is good only against a particular person.

Put together, the three say the same thing from three sides. The duty is imposed by law, the right it protects is available against everybody, and the remedy is damages the court assesses.

The words in those definitions, explained

Unliquidated damages means a sum of money that has not been fixed in advance and that the court works out for itself. If a taxi knocks you down, no document anywhere says what your broken leg is worth; the judge decides. Liquidated damages, by contrast, are a sum already agreed or already ascertainable, which is what a contract or a promissory note produces.

Right in rem means a right available against persons generally: your right not to be assaulted is good against every person in the world. Right in personam means a right available against a definite person only: your right to be paid under a contract is good against the other party to it and nobody else.

A duty primarily fixed by law means a duty you never agreed to and cannot negotiate away in advance. Nobody signs an agreement not to be run over. The law imposes on every driver a duty of care towards every road user, and that duty exists before any relationship between the parties does.

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What a Tort Is

A common law action means a suit in an ordinary civil court asking for damages, as against a remedy that only equity gave, such as an injunction or specific performance. In India the distinction between law and equity was never adopted as a separate court structure, so the phrase matters only as history.

The three essentials of a tort

A wrong is a tort when three things are true together. If any one of them is missing there is no tort, and most examination problems in this subject are solved by working through these three in order.

1. A wrongful act or omission by the defendant. The defendant must have done something the law forbids, or failed to do something the law required. An omission is a tort only where there was a legal duty to act, not merely a moral one. A stranger who watches a child drown without helping breaks no legal duty; a lifeguard employed to watch that pool does.

2. Legal damage to the plaintiff. The act must cause injuria, which means the violation of a legal right, and not merely loss. This is the whole content of the two maxims damnum sine injuria and injuria sine damno, which have chapters of their own, and it is where students most often go wrong: financial loss is not enough, and absence of loss is not fatal.

3. A legal remedy in the form of an action for damages. The law must give this particular plaintiff an action against this particular defendant, and the ordinary remedy must be damages. Where the only remedy the law provides is something else, a criminal prosecution for example, the wrong is not a tort.

A worked example

Ravi runs a small bakery in Dadar. Two things happen to him in the same week.

Monday. A rival named Suresh opens a better bakery across the road and sells at lower prices. Ravi loses half his customers and a great deal of money.

Thursday. Suresh, walking past, deliberately shoves Ravi in the doorway. Ravi is not hurt at all, is not knocked down and loses not one rupee.

Apply the three essentials. On Monday there is loss but no wrongful act: Suresh is entitled to compete, so no legal right of Ravi's was violated. There is damage without injury, and Ravi has no action. On Thursday there is a wrongful act, the application of force to another without lawful justification, which is the tort of battery. A right of Ravi's, the right to bodily integrity, was violated. There is injury without damage, and Ravi does have an action, though what he recovers may be a token sum.

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What a Tort Is

That reversal is the point of the whole subject. The law of torts protects rights, not wallets.

What it does NOT mean

A tort is not simply "any civil wrong". Breach of contract and breach of trust are civil wrongs too, and both are outside. The definition works by exclusion for exactly that reason.

A tort is not confined to the wrongs that already have names. Battery, nuisance and defamation are named torts, but the list is not closed. Chapter [Law of Tort or Law of Torts] takes that argument in full, and the Supreme Court's creation of absolute liability in 1986 is the Indian proof of it.

A tort is not decided by how much the plaintiff lost. Legal damage, not financial damage, is the second essential. A plaintiff who lost nothing may succeed and a plaintiff who lost everything may fail.

"Tortious liability" is not the same as "criminal liability" merely because the conduct was outrageous. Some torts, such as assault and defamation, are also offences, but the two liabilities are decided in different courts by different standards and neither answers the other.

Quick revision

  1. Tortum is Latin for twisted. A tort is a civil wrong.
  2. The statutory definition is section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963: a civil wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of a trust.
  3. Salmond looks at the remedy, Winfield at the duty, Fraser at the right.
  4. Unliquidated damages are fixed by the court, not agreed in advance.
  5. A right in rem is good against the world; a right in personam against one person.
  6. Three essentials: a wrongful act or omission, legal damage, and a remedy by an action for unliquidated damages.
  7. An omission is actionable only where there was a legal duty to act.
  8. The same facts may give an action in tort and in contract, and may also be an offence.

Test yourself

1. Define tort and state its essential elements. A tort is a civil wrong arising from the breach of a duty fixed by law and owed to persons generally, redressible by a common law action for unliquidated damages, and not exclusively the breach of a contract, of a trust or of some other merely equitable obligation. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 defines it for statutory purposes as a civil wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of a trust. Its essentials are three: a wrongful act or omission by the defendant, legal damage to the plaintiff, meaning the violation of a legal right and not merely loss, and a legal remedy in the form of an action for damages.

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What a Tort Is

2. Distinguish between liquidated and unliquidated damages, and say why the difference matters in tort. Liquidated damages are a sum fixed in advance by the parties or ascertainable from their agreement, which is what a contract can provide for. Unliquidated damages are not fixed in advance and are assessed by the court after the wrong. The difference matters because the remedy in tort is by definition unliquidated: the parties to a road accident have no agreement, so nothing has been fixed and the court must value the injury itself. It follows that a claim for a sum already agreed is not a claim in tort.

3. "There can be a tort without any loss of money." Is that correct? Yes. The second essential is legal damage, which means injuria, the violation of a legal right, not financial loss. Where a legal right is violated the law presumes damage and the action lies even if the plaintiff is not out of pocket, which is the maxim injuria sine damno. Conversely a plaintiff who suffers heavy loss without any right of his being violated has no action, which is damnum sine injuria. Both have chapters of their own in Module I.

4. Is every omission a tort? No. An omission gives rise to liability only where the law imposed a duty to act. A moral duty is not enough. A passer-by who does nothing to save a drowning child commits no tort, because the law imposed no duty on him. A lifeguard on duty at that pool, a parent in relation to a young child, or an occupier who has invited people onto his premises are all under legal duties, and their failure to act is an omission the law will notice.

5. Why is the definition of a tort framed by exclusion rather than by description? Because the class is open. New torts are recognised as new kinds of harm appear, so any list of them is out of date as soon as it is written; the Supreme Court's creation of absolute liability in 1986 is a recent example. Defining a tort as a civil wrong that is not exclusively a breach of contract or of trust keeps the class open while separating it from the two neighbouring civil wrongs it is most often confused with. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 uses exactly this technique.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Two

The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

Tortious liability is liability imposed by the law itself, owed to everybody, and enforced by a civil suit in which the court fixes the compensation.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the nature of tortious liability is that it arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law and not by agreement, that the duty is owed to persons generally and not to a determinate person, that the right it protects is a right in rem, and that its remedy is a civil action for unliquidated damages; its scope extends to every interest the law protects, in person, property, reputation and economic relations, and it is not closed.

Why this question is asked at all

A student who can define a tort may still not know what kind of animal it is. Is it a branch of criminal law that happens to pay money? Is it contract without a signature? Is it a general principle of "do no harm"? Each of those is a real misunderstanding, and each produces a wrong answer to a problem question.

The Supreme Court answered the question directly in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, and the answer is worth having in the exact terms the Court used, because they are the terms MU's topic uses.

Facts. Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, decided on 4 May 1994. In 1954 the State of Saurashtra, now part of Gujarat, planned to reclaim land from the sea by building a reclamation bund. The bund was built in such a way that the plaintiff company's salt works were flooded and destroyed. Negligence on the part of the State's officers was found by the High Court and that finding became final. The suit was nevertheless dismissed as barred by limitation, and the appeal turned on which article of the Limitation Act applied to a claim founded on negligence.

Held. The Court held that injury and damage are the two basic ingredients of a tort; that what makes liability tortious is that the duty broken was fixed primarily by the law, while in contract the duty is fixed by the parties themselves; that in tort the duty is owed to persons generally while in contract it is owed to a specific person; and that an action in tort is a claim for pecuniary compensation for the invasion of a legally protected interest. It went on to hold that the law of torts is a developing law whose frontiers are incapable of being strictly barricaded, and that since duty is the primary yardstick of liability, its ambit keeps widening on the touchstone of fairness and the practicality of the situation. On limitation it held that time could run from the wrongful act, or from the damage, or, where a claim had been lodged and the damage ascertained, from the rejection of the claim; the rejection here was never communicated, so the suit was in time and the decree was granted.

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The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

Why it matters here. Every proposition in MU's topic about the nature of tortious liability is in that passage, stated by the Supreme Court of India rather than by an English textbook writer. It is also the authority for the openness of the subject, which is the argument of chapter [Law of Tort or Law of Torts].

The nature of tortious liability, in five propositions

1. The duty is fixed by law, not by agreement. Nobody consents to the duty not to defame, not to trespass or not to drive carelessly. The law attaches these duties to everyone, and it does so whether or not the parties have ever met. This is the difference that decides most problem questions: ask where the duty came from.

2. The duty is owed to persons generally. A driver owes the duty of care to every road user, not to a list of people. That is why a stranger injured on the road can sue although he had no relationship with the driver at all.

3. The right protected is a right in rem. A right in rem is available against the world at large. Your right to bodily safety, to your reputation and to the quiet enjoyment of your land binds everybody. A right in personam, available against one person only, is what a contract creates.

4. Liability is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages. The court fixes the sum. There are other remedies, injunction and specific restitution among them, and chapter [Judicial Remedies: Damages] deals with all of them, but damages is the characteristic remedy and the definitions are built on it.

5. Liability may rest on fault or may not. Most torts require intention or negligence. Some do not: the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher and the Indian rule of absolute liability make a defendant liable although he took every care. In Jay Laxmi Salt Works the Court itself grouped strict liability, absolute liability and fault liability as forms of tortious liability that have grown over time.

Three words for the kind of wrongful conduct

The older writers, and the older question papers, use three Latin-derived words for the form the defendant's conduct takes. They describe the same requirement of a legal duty from three angles.

  • Malfeasance is the doing of an act which is unlawful in itself, and which the person had no right to do at all. A trespass is malfeasance.
  • Misfeasance is the improper doing of an act which the person was otherwise entitled to do. A surgeon entitled to operate who operates carelessly commits misfeasance.
  • Nonfeasance is the omission of an act which the person was under a duty to do. It is actionable only where the law imposed the duty to act, which is why a stranger who watches a child drown commits no tort while a lifeguard does.
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The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

The practical use of the trio is in the law of trespass: chapter [Trespass ab Initio] shows that an authority given by law is destroyed by a subsequent misfeasance but not by a nonfeasance, which is why a man who takes too much wine at an inn is a trespasser from the beginning and one who simply does not pay is not.

The scope of the law of torts

Scope means how far the subject reaches, and it is best answered by listing the interests it protects. A student who can name these five knows the shape of the whole book.

The person. Freedom from physical interference and from the fear of it: battery, assault, mayhem, false imprisonment, and negligence causing injury.

Property. Land and goods: trespass to land, trespass to goods, detinue, conversion and nuisance.

Reputation. Defamation, in its two forms of libel and slander.

Liberty and legal process. False imprisonment, malicious prosecution and the abuse of legal process.

Economic and family interests. Deceit, injurious falsehood, and the wrongs affecting personal relations.

Two further extensions are peculiar to India and both are taught later: the compensation a constitutional court awards for the violation of a fundamental right, which chapter [Constitutional Tort] deals with, and the statutory no-fault schemes under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, which Module IV and chapter [The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991] deal with.

A worked example

Meera parks her scooter outside a shop in Thane. Four things happen in the next ten minutes.

One. A shopkeeper, Anil, shouts an insult at her in front of a crowd, saying she is a thief. That touches her reputation: the tort is defamation, and the interest protected is her standing with other people.

Two. Anil pushes her scooter over. That touches her goods: the tort is trespass to goods, and the interest protected is her possession.

Three. Anil bolts the shop door with her inside for twenty minutes. That touches her liberty: the tort is false imprisonment.

Four. Anil telephones the police falsely accusing her of theft, and she is prosecuted and acquitted. That touches her use of the legal process: the tort is malicious prosecution.

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The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

One incident, four interests, four torts. Notice that the duty in each was fixed by law before Meera ever met Anil, that each duty was owed to anybody in Meera's position, and that in each the court would fix the damages itself. That is the nature of tortious liability, and the four different interests are its scope.

Distinctions that carry marks

Tortious liabilityContractual liabilityCriminal liability
Source of the dutyThe lawThe agreement of the partiesThe law, by statute
Owed toPersons generallyThe other contracting partyThe State
Right involvedRight in remRight in personamA public right
Who proceedsThe person wrongedThe party to the contractThe State
ResultUnliquidated damagesLiquidated or agreed damagesPunishment
Consent of the injuredCannot be given in advance to the duty itselfIs the whole source of the dutyNo defence to most offences

What it does NOT mean

"Tortious liability is fault liability" is not true without qualification. Strict and absolute liability are both tortious, and both dispense with fault. Jay Laxmi Salt Works names all three as forms of liability in tort.

"The scope of tort is fixed" is not true. The Supreme Court said in terms that the frontiers of the subject cannot be strictly barricaded, and it proved the point in 1986 by creating absolute liability where no such rule existed.

"A tort must cause physical harm" is not true. Reputation, liberty and economic interests are protected, and in some torts no harm at all need be shown.

"A duty in tort can be excluded by a notice" is not true as a general rule. Consent may be a defence on the facts, which chapter [Volenti Non Fit Injuria] examines, but the duty itself is imposed by the law and is not a term the parties settle.

Quick revision

  1. Nature: the duty is fixed by law, owed to persons generally, protects a right in rem, and is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages.
  2. Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1: injury and damage are the two basic ingredients; the law of torts is a developing law whose frontiers cannot be strictly barricaded; duty is the primary yardstick.
  3. Liability may be fault based, strict or absolute.
  4. Scope: interests in person, property, reputation, liberty and legal process, and economic and family relations.
  5. India adds two extensions: constitutional compensation, and statutory no-fault schemes.
  6. The three-column table of tort, contract and crime is the commonest examination question in Module I.

Test yourself

1. Explain the nature of tortious liability. Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law rather than by agreement. The duty is owed to persons generally and not to a determinate person, so a stranger may sue. The right it protects is a right in rem, available against the world, as against the right in personam that a contract creates. Its characteristic remedy is a civil action for unliquidated damages, that is, damages the court assesses rather than damages the parties have fixed. Liability may rest on intention or negligence, but need not: strict liability under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher and the Indian rule of absolute liability are both tortious. The Supreme Court stated all of this in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1.

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The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

2. What is the scope of the law of torts? Its scope is measured by the interests it protects: the person, through battery, assault, mayhem, false imprisonment and negligence; property in land and goods, through trespass, nuisance, detinue and conversion; reputation, through defamation; liberty and the legal process, through false imprisonment, malicious prosecution and abuse of process; and economic and family relations, through deceit, injurious falsehood and the wrongs affecting personal relations. In India the scope also takes in compensation awarded by constitutional courts for the violation of fundamental rights, and the statutory no-fault schemes under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991.

3. "The law of torts is a developing law." Discuss. The statement is the Supreme Court's own, in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, where the Court held that the frontiers of the subject are incapable of being strictly barricaded and that since duty is the primary yardstick of liability, its ambit keeps widening on the touchstone of fairness and practicality. The proof in India is the creation of absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, where the Court refused to be confined to a rule evolved in the nineteenth century and said that Indian courts no longer need the crutches of a foreign legal order.

4. Distinguish a right in rem from a right in personam with an example from tort. A right in rem is available against persons generally. A right in personam is available against a definite person. Tort protects rights in rem: the right not to be assaulted binds every person in the world, so a stranger who assaults you is liable although you have no relationship with him. Contract creates rights in personam: if a builder promises to build your house, only he is bound, and a stranger who fails to build it commits no wrong. The distinction explains why privity limits an action in contract and does not limit an action in tort.

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The Nature and Scope of Tortious Liability

5. Is fault essential to liability in tort? No. Most torts require a mental element, intention in trespass and deceit, or want of reasonable care in negligence. But the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher imposes liability for the escape of a dangerous thing brought on to land in a non-natural use, whether or not the defendant was at fault, and the rule of absolute liability laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, makes an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity liable even where it took every possible precaution and even where an exception to Rylands v. Fletcher would have applied. Statutory schemes go further still: section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 both give compensation without any proof of wrongful act, neglect or default.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Three

The Object of the Law of Torts

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

The law of torts exists to shift a loss from the person it fell on to the person who ought to bear it, and to make people careful in advance.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the objects of the law of torts are to compensate the person wronged, to deter conduct that causes harm, to vindicate rights that have been infringed although no loss followed, to distribute a loss over those best able to bear it, and to appease a wronged person so that private vengeance is replaced by an action at law.

Why the question is worth asking

Every rule you will learn in this subject is a choice, and the choices only make sense if you know what the law is trying to do. Why is a master liable for his servant's wrong when the master did nothing? Why is a factory liable for an escape of gas although it took every precaution? Why is a person who lost no money still allowed to sue? None of those can be answered from the definition of a tort. All of them can be answered from its objects.

The Supreme Court put the object in one sentence in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, quoting the classical statement that the law of torts exists to prevent people from hurting one another, whether in respect of their property, their persons, their reputations or anything else that is theirs.

The five objects

1. Compensation. The primary object. A person who has been injured is put, so far as money can do it, in the position he would have been in had the wrong not happened. This is the principle of restitutio in integrum, Latin for restoration to the original position, and chapter [Judicial Remedies: Damages] works out how a court applies it.

2. Deterrence. An award of damages is a price attached to careless or wrongful conduct, and the price is meant to make people take care before the event. The Supreme Court made deterrence explicit in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, when it held that the compensation payable by a hazardous enterprise must be related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, precisely so that the award has a deterrent effect.

3. Vindication of rights. Some torts are actionable without proof of any loss. The object there is not to compensate but to declare that a right exists and has been broken. That is why a man who is wrongly turned away from a polling booth, or a legislator who is unlawfully detained for four days and then released, is given a sum of money although he cannot point to a rupee of loss.

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The Object of the Law of Torts

4. Loss distribution. Modern tort law increasingly places a loss where it can be spread rather than where fault lies. Vicarious liability puts the loss on an employer who can insure and price it into his business. Compulsory motor insurance under Chapter XI of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 spreads the cost of road accidents over every vehicle owner in the country. The Environment Relief Fund under the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 does the same for industrial accidents.

5. Appeasement, or the replacement of private vengeance. Historically the action in tort took the place of the blood feud. A person who has been wronged wants something done about it, and the law provides a court instead of a fight. Aggravated and exemplary damages, dealt with in chapter [Kinds of Damages], are the surviving trace of this object.

Where the objects pull against each other

This is the part almost no set of notes carries, and it is what turns a list into an answer.

Compensation pulls against fault. If the object is to compensate the injured, why should it matter whether the defendant was careless? A victim of an unavoidable accident is just as badly hurt as a victim of a careless one. That tension produced the no-fault schemes: section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 gives five lakh rupees for a death without any inquiry into fault at all, and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 does the same for an accident while handling a hazardous substance.

Deterrence pulls against compensation. If the object is to deter, the award should be measured by the defendant's wealth and wickedness. If it is to compensate, it should be measured by the plaintiff's loss and by nothing else. Indian law resolves this in favour of compensation as a rule, and departs from it in the exceptional case of a hazardous enterprise.

Loss distribution pulls against personal responsibility. Where every loss is insured and spread, the careless driver pays nothing himself and the deterrent disappears. That is the standing criticism of compulsory insurance, and it is why the Motor Vehicles Act keeps the insurer's right to recover from the owner in the cases set out in chapter [The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover].

A worked example

A municipal corporation owns an eighty-year-old clock tower on a busy road. It never tests the structure. The tower falls and kills three passers-by.

Ask what each object would do with those facts. Compensation says the families must be paid what the deaths cost them, which is the multiplier calculation in chapter [Computing Just Compensation]. Deterrence says the award must be large enough that this corporation and every other one starts testing its buildings. Vindication adds nothing here, because real loss has been suffered. Loss distribution says the corporation is exactly the right defendant, because it can spread the cost over the ratepayers rather than leave it on three families. Appeasement says the families must have a forum, or they will believe that a public body can kill with impunity.

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The Object of the Law of Torts

Those are the facts of Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750.

Facts. The Clock Tower opposite the Town Hall in Chandni Chowk, Delhi, belonging to the Municipal Corporation, collapsed and killed three people. The structure was eighty years old, the mortar in its top storey had a life of forty to forty-five years, and the Corporation had never examined it for latent defects.

Held. The owner of a structure abutting a highway owes a duty to those using the highway to keep it in a safe condition. A properly maintained structure does not ordinarily collapse, so the maxim res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself, applied and the burden lay on the Corporation to explain the fall. Its failure to test a building long past the life of its materials was negligence, and the decrees for damages were upheld.

Why it matters here. It is the plainest Indian illustration of all five objects working at once, and chapter [Res Ipsa Loquitur] takes the evidential rule further.

Distinctions that carry marks

Object of the law of tortsObject of the criminal law
Primary aimCompensating the person wrongedPunishing the offender
Who benefits from the orderThe plaintiffThe State and the public
MeasureThe plaintiff's lossThe gravity of the offence
Is deterrence present?Yes, but as a secondary objectYes, as a primary object
Can the parties settle?Yes, and most claims are settledOnly for compoundable offences

What it does NOT mean

Compensation does not mean the plaintiff makes a profit. The measure is what he lost, not what the defendant gained, and restitutio in integrum is a ceiling as well as a floor.

Deterrence does not make tort a punishment. Exemplary damages are exceptional. An ordinary award is not a fine, it is not paid to the State, and the defendant's means are usually irrelevant to it.

Vindication does not mean a plaintiff always gets a large sum. A right vindicated without loss is often marked by nominal damages, sometimes a rupee, and the value of the judgment is the declaration, not the money.

Loss distribution does not mean the wrongdoer escapes. An insurer who pays a third party may still recover from the owner where the policy was broken, and an employer who pays for a servant's wrong may in principle claim contribution from the servant.

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The Object of the Law of Torts

Quick revision

  1. Five objects: compensation, deterrence, vindication of rights, loss distribution, and appeasement.
  2. Compensation works by restitutio in integrum: restoration, so far as money can, to the original position.
  3. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: compensation from a hazardous enterprise must be related to its magnitude and capacity so as to deter.
  4. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750: a public body liable for a collapsing structure, the plainest example of the objects at work.
  5. Vindication explains why some torts are actionable without proof of loss.
  6. Loss distribution explains vicarious liability, compulsory motor insurance and the Environment Relief Fund.
  7. The objects conflict, and the no-fault schemes in section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 are where compensation has won over fault.

Test yourself

1. State and explain the objects of the law of torts. There are five. Compensation is the primary object: the injured person is restored, so far as money can do it, to the position he would have occupied but for the wrong, on the principle of restitutio in integrum. Deterrence attaches a price to wrongful conduct so that people take care in advance; the Supreme Court made this explicit in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, by tying the award against a hazardous enterprise to its size. Vindication of rights explains the torts actionable without proof of damage, where the object is to declare that a right exists. Loss distribution explains vicarious liability and the compulsory insurance under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, which spread a loss over those able to bear it. Appeasement is the historical object of replacing private vengeance with an action at law.

2. "The law of torts compensates; it does not punish." Discuss. As a general rule the statement is correct. Damages are measured by the plaintiff's loss and are paid to the plaintiff, not to the State, and the defendant's means are ordinarily irrelevant. There are two qualifications. Exemplary or punitive damages may be awarded in exceptional cases and are avowedly punitive, and in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that compensation from a hazardous enterprise must be related to its magnitude and capacity so that the award deters. Both are departures from the compensatory principle and both are treated as exceptional.

3. How do the objects of the law of torts explain the no-fault schemes in Indian law? The compensatory object is concerned with the injured person's loss, and that loss is the same whether or not anybody was at fault. Where the law accepts that reasoning it drops the requirement of fault altogether. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 makes the owner or insurer liable to pay five lakh rupees for a death and two and a half lakh for grievous hurt, and provides expressly that the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 does the same for an accident while handling a hazardous substance. Both are also examples of loss distribution, because both are backed by compulsory insurance.

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The Object of the Law of Torts

4. Why does the law allow an action where the plaintiff has suffered no loss? Because compensation is not the only object. Where a legal right has been infringed, the object is vindication: a declaration that the right exists and has been broken. If no action lay, a right that nobody could enforce would be no right at all, and the wrongdoer could repeat the infringement at will. The damages awarded may be nominal, and the value of the judgment lies in the finding rather than in the sum. This is the maxim injuria sine damno, which has a chapter of its own.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Four

Law of Tort or Law of Torts

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

The argument is whether the law protects a general principle that all harm done without lawful excuse is a tort, or only a fixed list of named wrongs.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: on Winfield's wider theory there is a law of tort, so that every wrongful interference with another's interests is a tort unless there is lawful justification, and the category is open; on Salmond's narrower theory there is only a law of torts, a closed set of specific wrongs each with its own name and ingredients, and conduct that fits none of them gives no action however unreasonable it may be.

The vocabulary first

Winfield's theory is called the wider theory, the general theory, or the law of tort.

Salmond's theory is called the narrower theory, the specific theory, or the pigeon-hole theory. A pigeon-hole is one of the small open compartments in an old writing desk. The image is that the law provides a set of labelled compartments, battery, nuisance, defamation and the rest, and a plaintiff must be able to put his complaint into one of them.

Winfield's case

Winfield argued that all injuries done to another person are torts unless there is some justification recognised by law. On this view the law of torts is a body of principle, and a court faced with a new kind of harm may hold it actionable without waiting for a legislature or for a precedent exactly in point.

His evidence was historical. Every named tort was once new. Deceit, negligence as an independent tort, nervous shock and the wrong of inducing a breach of contract each began as a case in which a court gave a remedy for a harm not previously recognised. If the list had really been closed at any point in the past, none of them could exist now.

Salmond's case

Salmond argued that there is no general principle of liability at all. The law provides a number of specific torts, and outside them there is no liability however unreasonable the defendant's conduct. He accepted that the courts may create new torts, but insisted that until they do, a plaintiff must bring his case within an existing head.

His evidence was practical. A court asked whether conduct is a tort does not ask "was this unjustified?"; it asks "is this a nuisance, or a trespass, or negligence?" A judgment that names no tort at all is not how the subject is written, and a defendant is entitled to know what wrong he is said to have committed.

The two theories tested against real cases

The honest answer to the examination question is that the difference is smaller than it looks, and this is where marks are won.

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Law of Tort or Law of Torts

The theories agree that courts can create new torts. Salmond says a court may make a new pigeon-hole. Winfield says a court may apply the general principle to a new situation. The result is identical.

They disagree about the starting presumption. On Winfield's view the plaintiff who shows harm and no justification has a case to answer. On Salmond's the plaintiff who cannot name his tort loses at the threshold.

Both must live with damnum sine injuria. No writer says that all harm is actionable. A trader ruined by lawful competition has no action on either theory, because the harm was done without infringing any legal right. Chapter [Damnum Sine Injuria] shows how large that limit is, and it cuts Winfield's principle down a long way.

The Indian answer

India does not have to choose between two English writers, because its own Supreme Court has answered the question twice, once in words and once in action.

In words. In Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, the Court held that the law of torts is a developing law whose frontiers are incapable of being strictly barricaded, and that since duty is the primary yardstick of tortious liability, the ambit of that duty keeps widening on the touchstone of fairness and the practicality of the situation. That is Winfield's position stated by an Indian court.

In action. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a crowded part of Delhi. The Court had to fix the measure of liability of a hazardous enterprise. It set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher and then declined to apply it, holding that a rule evolved in the nineteenth century could not govern a modern industrial economy and that Indian courts need not follow English law. It laid down instead that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, is absolutely liable for harm caused by an accident in that activity, and cannot rely on any of the exceptions to Rylands v. Fletcher; and it held that the compensation must be related to the size of the enterprise so as to deter.

Why it matters here. A court that creates a rule of liability which exists in no earlier case and in no statute is not working out of a closed list. Whatever the theoretical position, Indian practice is that the categories of tort are never closed.

A worked example

In 2015 a company begins selling a device that copies a rival's manufacturing process. The rival sues. Its complaint fits no named tort: it is not defamation, not deceit, not conversion, not nuisance.

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Law of Tort or Law of Torts

On Salmond's theory the court asks which pigeon-hole this belongs to. Finding none, it dismisses the suit and leaves the rival to Parliament.

On Winfield's theory the court asks whether harm has been done without lawful justification. If it holds that it has, it gives a remedy, and by doing so it creates a new tort, which will thereafter be called by a name.

On the Indian approach the court would begin from the duty: is there a duty here, judged on the touchstone of fairness and the practicality of the situation, as Jay Laxmi Salt Works directs? If the answer is yes, the absence of a name is not fatal. That is Winfield's result reached through Salmond's method.

Distinctions that carry marks

Winfield: law of tortSalmond: law of torts
Basic propositionAll harm is a tort unless justifiedOnly specific named wrongs are torts
NicknameWider or general theoryNarrower, specific or pigeon-hole theory
Is the list closed?No, it is a principleYes at any given moment, though it can be extended
Where the plaintiff startsHarm plus absence of justificationNaming the tort
New tortsApplications of the principleNew pigeon-holes made by courts
Main criticismDamnum sine injuria shows much harm is not actionableCannot explain how any tort was ever born

What it does NOT mean

Winfield does not say that all harm is actionable. He says all harm done without lawful justification is. Competition, ordinary use of one's own land and the exercise of a legal right are all justifications, which is why damnum sine injuria is consistent with his theory.

Salmond does not say the law can never grow. He accepts that courts create new pigeon-holes; he denies that there is a general principle waiting to be applied in the meantime.

The debate is not settled by counting torts. Both writers are looking at the same set of cases and disagreeing about what holds them together.

It is not merely academic. It decides what a court does when it meets a harm nobody has litigated before, which is exactly what happened in India in December 1986.

Quick revision

  1. Winfield, the wider theory: all harm unless justified is a tort; there is a law of tort.
  2. Salmond, the pigeon-hole theory: only specific named wrongs are torts; there is a law of torts.
  3. Both accept that courts may create new torts; they differ on the starting presumption.
  4. Winfield's evidence is history: every named tort was once new.
  5. Salmond's evidence is practice: judgments name a tort.
  6. Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1: the law of torts is a developing law whose frontiers cannot be strictly barricaded.
  7. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: the Supreme Court created absolute liability, which existed in no earlier case and in no statute.
  8. Indian practice: the categories of tort are never closed.
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Law of Tort or Law of Torts

Test yourself

1. "Is there a law of tort or a law of torts?" Discuss with reference to the theories of Winfield and Salmond. Winfield's wider theory holds that all injury to another is a tort unless there is a justification recognised by law, so the subject is a body of principle and the categories are open. Salmond's narrower or pigeon-hole theory holds that there is no general principle, only a set of specific wrongs, and a plaintiff who cannot bring his case within one of them fails however unreasonable the defendant's conduct. Winfield's support is historical, that every named tort was once new; Salmond's is practical, that courts decide cases by naming torts. The difference is narrower than it appears, because Salmond concedes that new pigeon-holes may be created and Winfield concedes that harm caused without infringing a legal right is not actionable, which is damnum sine injuria. In India the question is answered by the Supreme Court: Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, holds that the law of torts is a developing law whose frontiers cannot be strictly barricaded, and M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, proves it by creating a rule of absolute liability that existed nowhere before.

2. What is the pigeon-hole theory, and what is the strongest objection to it? The pigeon-hole theory is Salmond's: the law provides a set of labelled compartments, each a named tort with its own ingredients, and a plaintiff must place his complaint in one of them. The strongest objection is that it cannot explain how any pigeon-hole ever came into existence. Deceit, the independent tort of negligence, nervous shock and inducing a breach of contract were each new at some point, and each was recognised by a court in a case where the plaintiff could not name an existing tort. If the theory were literally true the first plaintiff in each of those cases would have had to fail.

3. Does the Indian Supreme Court's creation of absolute liability support Winfield or Salmond? It supports Winfield in substance and Salmond in form. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Court held that the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher could not govern a modern industrial economy, refused to be bound by English law, and laid down that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity is absolutely liable for harm from an accident in it, subject to no exceptions, with compensation measured by the size of the enterprise. In substance that is the general principle at work, because no existing head of liability covered the case. In form it created a new head, which is what Salmond says courts may do. What it cannot be reconciled with is any view that the categories are closed.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Five

Tort in India

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

India has no code of tort law: the subject came here as English common law, is applied only so far as it suits Indian conditions, and has been changed by Indian courts and by Indian statutes.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the law of torts in India is uncodified and is derived from the English common law, which was introduced through the Presidency and Provincial courts and applied under the rule of justice, equity and good conscience; article 372 of the Constitution continues the law in force before its commencement until altered; English decisions are of persuasive and not of binding authority, and are followed only so far as they suit Indian conditions; and Indian courts and Parliament have both departed from English law, most notably by the rule of absolute liability and by the statutory no-fault schemes.

How English law came here

The Presidency towns. The Charters that set up the Mayor's Courts and later the Supreme Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay required them to apply English law. English tort law therefore came in as the ordinary law of those courts.

The mofussil. Outside the Presidency towns, the courts were told to decide according to justice, equity and good conscience where no specific rule applied. That phrase became, in practice, a direction to apply English common law where it seemed reasonable. That is how the rules of trespass, nuisance, defamation and negligence, none of which any Indian legislature had enacted, became the law in an Indian district court.

After the Constitution. Article 372(1) of the Constitution provides that all the law in force in the territory of India immediately before its commencement shall continue in force until altered, repealed or amended by a competent legislature or other competent authority. The uncodified law of torts is law in force within that article, and that is its formal foundation today.

Why it was never codified

Every neighbouring subject was codified in the nineteenth century: contract in 1872, trusts in 1882, transfer of property in 1882, the penal law in 1860. Torts was not, and the reason is that a code needs a settled body of rules to codify. The English law of torts was still growing when the Indian codes were written, and the draftsmen preferred to leave it to the courts.

The consequence is the one you are living with. There is no Indian Torts Act to open. The rules are in decisions, and a large number of the leading decisions are English, because that is where the rules were made.

But India is not bound by English law

This is the paragraph that separates a good answer from an average one, and the authority for it is a judgment of five judges.

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Tort in India

Facts. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, decided on 20 December 1986. Oleum gas escaped from a unit of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a densely populated part of Delhi. Applications for compensation were made in a public interest petition already pending about the same plant, and the Court had to decide the measure of liability of an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry when an accident in it kills or injures people.

Held. The Court set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, including its requirement of a non-natural use of land and its exceptions, and then declined to apply it. It held that a rule evolved in the nineteenth century, before the industrial developments in question, could not guide a modern economy; that law must grow to meet new situations; and, in terms, that Indian courts cannot allow their judicial thinking to be constricted by the law as it prevails in England or in any other foreign country, because India no longer needs the crutches of a foreign legal order. It laid down that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected by an accident in that activity, and cannot rely on any exception available under Rylands v. Fletcher; and that compensation must be related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so as to deter.

Why it matters here. It is the clearest statement that English tort law is persuasive and not binding, and it is the proof that Indian courts will make their own rule where English law does not fit Indian conditions. Chapter [Absolute Liability] works the rule itself out in full.

The second proof. In Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, the Court described the law of torts as a developing law whose frontiers cannot be strictly barricaded, and worked out the elements of tortious liability in its own terms rather than by citing an English text as authority.

Where Indian statute has taken over

The textbook line that "the law of torts in India is uncodified" is true of the general law and misleading about the practical law. Four statutes on this syllabus impose tortious or quasi-tortious liability by legislation, and between them they cover most of the claims actually made in India.

The Fatal Accidents Act 1855 gave the family of a person killed by a wrongful act an action that the common law refused them. Chapter [Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855] works it out.

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Tort in India

The Motor Vehicles Act 1988 replaces the common law action for a road accident with a claim before a Claims Tribunal, and section 164 gives compensation of five lakh rupees for a death and two and a half lakh for grievous hurt without the claimant having to plead or prove any wrongful act, neglect or default. Chapters [What a Motor Accident Claim Is] and [Liability without Fault] work it out.

The Consumer Protection Act 2019 gives a purchaser of goods or services a remedy for defect and deficiency before a Commission instead of a suit for damages, and section 2 defines the terms on which it operates. Module IV works it out.

The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 makes the owner of a hazardous substance liable under section 3 to give relief for death or injury caused by an accident, again with no inquiry into fault. Chapter [The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991] works it out.

And one further Indian development is entirely judge-made: the award of compensation by a constitutional court for the violation of a fundamental right, which chapter [Constitutional Tort] deals with, and which has no English equivalent at all.

A worked example

A tanker belonging to a chemical company overturns in a Mumbai suburb in 2026 and toxic liquid injures forty people. Where does the injured person's lawyer look?

Not in a Torts Act, because there is none.

In the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 first, because the injury arose out of the use of a motor vehicle: a claim lies before the Claims Tribunal under section 166, with the no-fault entitlement under section 164 available immediately.

In the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 next, because the injury was caused by an accident while handling a hazardous substance: section 3 gives relief without proof of fault, and the owner is required to be insured.

In the common law of negligence and in the rule of absolute liability for anything beyond the statutory figures, because M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, allows a claim against the enterprise measured by its capacity.

In article 32 or 226 if a public authority's failure caused the escape, because compensation for the infringement of the right to life is available in a writ petition.

Five sources, one accident, no code. That is what "tort in India" means in practice.

Distinctions that carry marks

EnglandIndia
SourceCommon law, judge-madeThe same common law, received through justice, equity and good conscience, continued by article 372
Status of English decisionsBinding within the hierarchyPersuasive only
CodificationNoneNone of the general law, but four statutes cover the commonest claims
Liability for hazardous activityStrict, with exceptions, under Rylands v. FletcherAbsolute, with no exceptions, under M.C. Mehta
Constitutional compensationNo equivalentAvailable under articles 32 and 226
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Tort in India

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean English cases are binding in India. They are persuasive. A High Court that follows an English decision does so because it agrees with it, and the Supreme Court has refused to follow English law when it did not fit.

It does not mean India has no law of torts. It means there is no Torts Act. The law exists in decisions and in the four statutes above, and it is enforced daily.

It does not mean the rule of justice, equity and good conscience is a licence to decide by instinct. It has always been understood as a direction to apply a reasoned rule, and in practice the reasoned rule was usually the English one.

It does not mean codification would be an improvement. The uncodified subject is what allowed the Supreme Court to create absolute liability in a fortnight in 1986. A code would have required an amending Act.

Quick revision

  1. The law of torts in India is uncodified and was received from English common law.
  2. Presidency towns: English law by Charter. Mofussil: justice, equity and good conscience.
  3. Article 372 of the Constitution continues the pre-Constitution law until altered.
  4. English decisions are persuasive, not binding, and are applied only so far as they suit Indian conditions.
  5. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: absolute liability created; India does not need the crutches of a foreign legal order.
  6. Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1: a developing law whose frontiers cannot be barricaded.
  7. Statutory inroads: the Fatal Accidents Act 1855, the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (section 164), the Consumer Protection Act 2019 and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 (section 3).
  8. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 is the only statutory definition of "tort" in Indian law.
  9. Constitutional compensation under articles 32 and 226 is an Indian development with no English parallel.

Test yourself

1. Write a note on the law of torts in India. The law of torts in India is uncodified. It came in as English common law, applied by the Presidency courts under their Charters and by the courts outside them under the rule of justice, equity and good conscience, and it is continued today by article 372 of the Constitution, which keeps in force the law in force before the Constitution until it is altered. English decisions are persuasive only, and are followed so far as they suit Indian conditions. Indian courts have departed from them: in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court refused to apply the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher and created a rule of absolute liability instead, saying that India no longer needs the crutches of a foreign legal order. Parliament has also intervened for the commonest claims: the Fatal Accidents Act 1855, the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, whose section 164 gives compensation without proof of fault, the Consumer Protection Act 2019 and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, whose section 3 does the same for hazardous substances. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 supplies the only statutory definition of a tort.

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Tort in India

2. Explain the rule of justice, equity and good conscience and its role in the reception of tort law in India. Outside the Presidency towns the courts were directed to decide, where no specific rule of law applied, according to justice, equity and good conscience. Since the judges were trained in English law and no Indian statute covered the field, the rule operated in practice as authority to apply the English common law of torts wherever it appeared reasonable. That is how trespass, nuisance, defamation and negligence became Indian law without any Indian legislature enacting them. The rule was never a licence to decide by instinct: it required a reasoned rule, and it always allowed a court to refuse an English rule that did not suit Indian conditions, which is the seed of the modern position that English decisions are persuasive only.

3. Are English decisions binding on Indian courts in matters of tort? No. They are of persuasive authority. Indian courts follow them where the reasoning is sound and the rule suits Indian conditions, and they decline to follow them where it does not. The clearest example is M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, in which a Bench of five judges set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, held that a rule evolved in the nineteenth century could not govern a modern industrial economy, said that Indian judicial thinking cannot be constricted by the law as it prevails in England, and laid down a rule of absolute liability which English law does not recognise.

4. "India has no law of torts because it has no Torts Act." Comment. The premise is right and the conclusion is wrong. There is no code of tort law in India, and there is unlikely to be one. But the law exists, first in the common law received here and continued by article 372, second in the decisions of Indian courts which have developed it independently, and third in statutes that impose tortious liability directly: the Fatal Accidents Act 1855, the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, the Consumer Protection Act 2019 and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991. In terms of the number of claims actually brought in India, the statutory law of torts is far larger than the common law part, because almost every road accident and almost every consumer complaint is a statutory claim.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Six

The Mental Element in Tort

Syllabus topic 1.1, "Tort: Definition, Nature, Scope and object of Tort, Tort in India."

In one line

Some torts need a guilty state of mind, some need only carelessness, and some need neither.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the mental element in tort varies with the tort: intention is required for the trespasses and for deceit, negligence in the sense of want of reasonable care is required for the tort of negligence, malice in fact is required for malicious prosecution and defeats certain defences in defamation and nuisance, and a group of liabilities, strict, absolute and statutory, requires no mental element at all.

The five words, defined

Intention means that the defendant meant to bring about the consequence, or knew it was substantially certain to follow from what he did. A man who throws a stone at a window intends to break it.

Motive means the reason why the defendant acted: the object he hoped to achieve. A man may break a window to burgle a house, to protest, or to rescue a child.

Malice in law means a wrongful act done intentionally, without just cause or excuse. It carries no suggestion of spite. It is simply the legal way of saying that the act was deliberate and unjustified.

Malice in fact, also called express malice or actual malice, means spite or ill will: a bad motive.

Negligence in this context means failure to take the care that a reasonable person would take. It is a state of conduct rather than a state of mind, which is why the tort of negligence is judged objectively.

The rule about motive, and its exceptions

The general rule is that motive is irrelevant in tort. A lawful act does not become unlawful because it was done from a bad motive, and an unlawful act does not become lawful because it was done from a good one. If a landowner is entitled to drain water from his own land, he may do so although his purpose is to spite his neighbour.

The reason is practical. Rights would become unusable if every exercise of them could be reopened by an inquiry into the owner's feelings, and courts are poorly placed to conduct that inquiry.

There are four settled exceptions, and every one of them is a chapter of its own later in the book.

1. Malicious prosecution. Malice is an ingredient of the tort itself: the plaintiff must prove that the prosecution was set in motion maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause. Chapter [Malicious Prosecution] works it out.

2. Defamation on an occasion of qualified privilege. The privilege is lost if the plaintiff proves malice in fact. Chapter [Defences to Defamation] works it out.

3. Nuisance. Where the defendant's use of his land is otherwise reasonable, a malicious purpose may make it unreasonable and therefore actionable. Chapter [Private Nuisance] works it out.

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The Mental Element in Tort

4. Conspiracy and the economic torts. A combination to injure is actionable where the predominant purpose is to injure rather than to advance the defendants' own interests.

Where no mental element is needed at all

This is the group that surprises students, and in India it is the group that decides most real cases.

Strict liability. Under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher a person who brings a dangerous thing on to his land in a non-natural use is liable for the damage its escape causes, whether or not he was at fault. It is no defence that the escape happened without his wilful act, default or neglect, or even that he did not know the thing was there.

Absolute liability. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable for harm resulting from an accident in that activity, and that it is no answer that it took all reasonable care and that the harm occurred without any negligence on its part.

Statutory no-fault liability. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 provides that in a claim under it the claimant shall not be required to plead or establish that the death or grievous hurt was due to any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 does the same for an accident while handling a hazardous substance.

Vicarious liability. A master is liable for a servant's tort committed in the course of employment although the master neither intended nor was careless about anything. The mental element that matters is the servant's, not the master's.

A worked example

Ganesh owns a plot next to Farida's house. He digs a well on his own land purely because he wants to cut off the underground water that feeds Farida's well, and he says so openly.

Is his motive bad? Yes, and it is proved out of his own mouth.

Is he liable? No, if the law gives a landowner an unqualified right to draw water percolating under his own land. Motive is irrelevant to the exercise of a right, and a lawful act does not become unlawful because it is done from spite. Farida's loss is real, but it is damnum sine injuria.

Change one fact. Suppose instead that Ganesh, from the same spite, begins burning rubber tyres on his land so that smoke pours into Farida's windows. Now his use of his own land is a nuisance, and his malicious purpose is admissible to show that the use was unreasonable. He is liable, and the same bad motive that was irrelevant in the first case is decisive in the second.

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The Mental Element in Tort

That contrast is the answer to the standard question "is motive relevant in tort?" The answer is: not as a rule, and always in the four exceptions.

Distinctions that carry marks

Malice in lawMalice in fact
MeaningA wrongful act done intentionally without just cause or excuseSpite, ill will, a bad motive
Also calledImplied maliceExpress or actual malice
ProofInferred from the act itselfMust be proved as a fact
Where it mattersPresumed in defamation, which is why the statement is actionable without proving spiteMalicious prosecution; defeats qualified privilege; may make a use of land unreasonable
IntentionMotive
Question it answersWhat did the defendant mean to do?Why did he do it?
Relevance in tortEssential to trespass, deceit and the intentional tortsGenerally irrelevant, with four exceptions
ExampleMeaning the stone to hit the windowWanting to frighten the owner

What it does NOT mean

"Malice" does not always mean spite. In its legal sense it usually means no more than a deliberate act without lawful excuse. A student who reads "malice" as spite in every sentence will misread the law of defamation completely.

An honest belief is not always a defence. In deceit it is, because a false statement made honestly is not fraudulent; in negligence it is not, because the test is what a reasonable person would have done, not what this defendant believed.

No-fault liability is not liability without limits. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 fixes the amount payable and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 fixes the relief; the claimant who wants more must prove fault in the ordinary way.

The mental element is not the same as the burden of proof. Res ipsa loquitur shifts the burden in negligence without changing what has to be proved, and chapter [Res Ipsa Loquitur] keeps the two ideas apart.

Quick revision

  1. Intention is what the defendant meant to do; motive is why he did it.
  2. Malice in law is a deliberate act without just cause or excuse; malice in fact is spite.
  3. General rule: motive is irrelevant. A lawful act does not become unlawful by a bad motive.
  4. Four exceptions: malicious prosecution, qualified privilege in defamation, nuisance, and conspiracy.
  5. Negligence is judged objectively, by the standard of the reasonable person.
  6. No mental element at all is needed for strict liability, absolute liability, statutory no-fault liability, and vicarious liability.
  7. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: no answer that all reasonable care was taken.
  8. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988: the claimant need not plead or establish wrongful act, neglect or default.
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The Mental Element in Tort

Test yourself

1. "Motive is irrelevant in the law of torts." Discuss. The proposition is the general rule. A lawful act does not become unlawful because it was done from a bad motive, and an unlawful act does not become lawful because the motive was good; if it were otherwise, the exercise of every right could be reopened by an inquiry into the owner's feelings. There are four established exceptions. In malicious prosecution malice is an ingredient the plaintiff must prove. In defamation, proof of malice in fact destroys a defence of qualified privilege. In nuisance, a malicious purpose may make an otherwise reasonable use of land unreasonable. And in conspiracy and the economic torts, a combination whose predominant purpose is to injure is actionable. So motive is irrelevant to whether a right exists and may be decisive in whether its exercise was reasonable.

2. Distinguish malice in law from malice in fact. Malice in law means a wrongful act done intentionally and without just cause or excuse. It says nothing about the defendant's feelings and is inferred from the act itself, which is why a defamatory statement is actionable without proof that the maker felt any ill will. Malice in fact, also called express or actual malice, means spite or ill will, that is, a bad motive, and it must be proved as a fact. The distinction decides cases: in defamation malice in law is presumed and malice in fact has to be proved, and only the second defeats qualified privilege.

3. Is fault an essential element of tortious liability in India? No. It is essential to most torts, but not to all. Strict liability under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher makes a defendant liable for the escape of a dangerous thing brought on to land in a non-natural use, irrespective of fault. Absolute liability, laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, goes further and rejects even the exceptions to that rule, holding that it is no answer that the enterprise took all reasonable care. Statutory schemes dispense with fault expressly: section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 says the claimant need not plead or establish wrongful act, neglect or default, and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 gives relief on proof of the accident alone. Vicarious liability makes a master answerable for a servant's fault without any fault of his own.

4. What is the difference between intention and negligence as mental elements? Intention means that the defendant meant the consequence or knew it was substantially certain to follow. Negligence means that he did not take the care a reasonable person would have taken, and it is judged objectively: the question is not what this defendant thought but what a reasonable person in his position would have done. The practical consequence is that a defendant who acted with an honest but unreasonable belief is not liable in deceit, where honesty is a complete answer, but is liable in negligence, where honesty is not.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Seven

Tort Distinguished from Crime

Syllabus topic 1.2, "Distinction from Crime, Breach of Contract etc., who may sue, who may not be sued."

In one line

A crime is a wrong against the whole community, prosecuted by the State and punished; a tort is a wrong against one person, sued on by that person and compensated.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a tort is a private wrong, the proceeding is a civil suit brought by the person wronged in his own name, the object is compensation, the standard of proof is the balance of probabilities and the parties may compromise; a crime is a public wrong, the proceeding is a prosecution brought in the name of the State, the object is punishment, the standard of proof is beyond reasonable doubt and the offence may be compromised only if it is compoundable.

Why the law divides wrongs this way

The same act can hurt one person and threaten everybody. When Ravi is beaten in the street, Ravi suffers a private loss and the public loses its confidence that the streets are safe. The law answers both, but not in the same proceeding, because the two answers pull in different directions: compensation asks how much Ravi lost, punishment asks how bad the beating was.

Keeping them separate lets each do its own work. Ravi can settle his claim for money without the State losing its power to prosecute, and the State can prosecute without Ravi being obliged to fund the case.

The distinctions in full

TortCrime
Nature of the wrongAgainst a private individualAgainst the community at large
Who proceedsThe person wronged, in his own nameThe State, in the name of the State
Name of the proceedingA civil suit or claimA prosecution
CourtCivil court, or a statutory forum such as a Claims Tribunal or a Consumer CommissionCriminal court
ObjectCompensation for the plaintiffPunishment of the offender
Result of successA decree or an award for damagesConviction and sentence
Standard of proofPreponderance of probabilitiesBeyond reasonable doubt
Mental elementRequired for some torts, not for othersOrdinarily an essential ingredient
CompromiseFree; most claims are settledOnly if the offence is compoundable
Who benefits from the orderThe plaintiffThe State and the public
Law appliedLargely uncodified in IndiaCodified in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 and other statutes

The wrongs that are both

This is where the marks are, because a student who can name the overlapping wrongs and give the current section numbers has answered the question that MU actually sets.

Assault and battery are torts and are also offences: section 131 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 punishes assault or criminal force otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation.

False imprisonment is a tort, and wrongful confinement is an offence under section 127 of the Sanhita.

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Tort Distinguished from Crime

Defamation is a tort and an offence: section 356 of the Sanhita defines defamation, sets out its ten exceptions, and punishes it.

Trespass to land is a tort, and criminal trespass, which requires an intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy, is an offence under the Sanhita.

Public nuisance is an offence under section 270 of the Sanhita, and it is a tort only for the person who can show special damage beyond that suffered by the public generally. Chapter [Public Nuisance] works that limit out.

Cheating is an offence, and the corresponding civil wrong is the tort of deceit, which chapter [Fraud or Deceit] deals with.

A worked example

Sanjay writes on a public social media page that Meena, a chartered accountant, steals from her clients. The statement is false, and hundreds of people read it. Meena loses two clients.

The tort. Meena may sue Sanjay for defamation in a civil court. She must prove that the statement was defamatory, that it referred to her and that it was published. She need not prove that Sanjay felt any ill will, because malice in law is presumed. If she succeeds she gets damages measured by the harm to her reputation, and she may also get an injunction. The standard of proof is the balance of probabilities.

The crime. The State, or Meena by way of a complaint, may set the criminal law in motion under section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. There the prosecution must prove the ingredients of the offence beyond reasonable doubt, and must meet the ten exceptions in that section, which include the imputation of truth made for the public good. If it succeeds Sanjay is punished; Meena gets nothing out of the sentence itself.

Both may run together. The civil suit and the prosecution are independent. An acquittal in the criminal case does not bar the civil suit, because the standards of proof are different. A settlement of the civil suit does not by itself end the prosecution unless the offence is compoundable.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a tort is a "small" wrong and a crime a "big" one. Seriousness is not the test. Negligently killing forty people by an industrial escape is a tort, and stealing a bicycle is a crime.

It does not mean the same facts cannot produce both. They frequently do, and the two proceedings run independently.

It does not mean a criminal court can never order compensation. It can, and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 provides for it. But that power belongs to the criminal law and does not turn the prosecution into a civil suit.

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Tort Distinguished from Crime

It does not mean an acquittal decides the civil claim. The standards of proof differ, so a defendant acquitted beyond reasonable doubt may still be held liable on the balance of probabilities.

Quick revision

  1. Tort: private wrong, civil suit by the injured person, compensation, balance of probabilities, freely compromised.
  2. Crime: public wrong, prosecution by the State, punishment, beyond reasonable doubt, compromise only if compoundable.
  3. The penal law in force since 1 July 2024 is the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, not the Indian Penal Code 1860.
  4. Defamation is section 356 of the Sanhita; public nuisance is section 270; wrongful confinement is section 127; assault or criminal force is section 131.
  5. Overlapping wrongs: assault, battery, false imprisonment, defamation, trespass, public nuisance and deceit.
  6. Public nuisance is a tort only for a person who proves special damage.
  7. The two proceedings are independent, and an acquittal does not bar a civil claim.

Test yourself

1. Distinguish between a tort and a crime. A tort is a wrong against a private individual; a crime is a wrong against the community. In tort the injured person sues in his own name in a civil court and the object is compensation; in crime the State prosecutes in its own name in a criminal court and the object is punishment. The standard of proof in tort is the preponderance of probabilities, in crime proof beyond reasonable doubt. A tortious claim may be compromised freely, while an offence may be compounded only if the law makes it compoundable. A mental element is essential to most offences but not to every tort, since strict, absolute and statutory no-fault liabilities dispense with it. In India the criminal law is codified, principally in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, while the general law of torts is not.

2. Name the wrongs that are both a tort and an offence, with the provisions in force. Assault and the use of criminal force are torts and are punished by section 131 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. False imprisonment is a tort and wrongful confinement is an offence under section 127. Defamation is a tort and an offence under section 356, which also contains the ten exceptions. Trespass to land is a tort, and criminal trespass, which requires an intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy, is an offence. Public nuisance is an offence under section 270 and is a tort only at the suit of a person who proves special damage. Cheating is an offence and its civil counterpart is the tort of deceit.

3. Does an acquittal in a criminal case bar a civil action in tort on the same facts? No. The two proceedings are independent, they are brought by different persons for different objects, and above all they apply different standards of proof. A prosecution fails unless the case is proved beyond reasonable doubt; a civil claim succeeds on the preponderance of probabilities. So a defendant acquitted of causing hurt may still be held liable in battery on the same evidence. The converse is also true: a finding in a civil suit does not establish guilt.

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Tort Distinguished from Crime

4. Why is public nuisance treated differently from other overlapping wrongs? Because the harm is spread over the public rather than concentrated on one person. As an offence it is punished under section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 at the instance of the State, which is the natural plaintiff for a wrong to everybody. As a tort it is actionable only by a person who can show damage particular to himself and different in kind from what the public generally suffers. Without that limit every member of the public could sue for the same obstruction, and the courts would be flooded with identical claims.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Eight

Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs

Syllabus topic 1.2, "Distinction from Crime, Breach of Contract etc., who may sue, who may not be sued."

In one line

In contract you sue because the defendant broke a promise he made to you; in tort you sue because he broke a duty the law imposed on him towards everybody.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: in a breach of contract the duty is fixed by the parties themselves and is owed to a determinate person, the right is a right in personam, the damages are liquidated or are assessed on the contractual measure under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, and privity limits who may sue; in a tort the duty is fixed by the law, is owed to persons generally, the right is a right in rem, the damages are unliquidated, and no privity is required.

Why the distinction decides real cases

Two things turn on it, and both come up in practice.

Who can sue. A contract binds the parties to it. A passenger injured by a defective bus can sue the operator in contract because he bought a ticket; his friend, who was given a free lift, cannot. Both can sue in tort, because the duty of care is owed to everybody on the road.

How much is recovered, and by when. The measure of damages in contract is set by section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, which allows compensation for loss naturally arising in the usual course of things from the breach or which the parties knew was likely to result, and expressly excludes remote and indirect loss. The measure in tort is not the same, and the period of limitation is usually different too.

The distinction in full

TortBreach of contract
Source of the dutyThe lawThe agreement of the parties
Owed toPersons generallyThe other party to the contract
Nature of the rightRight in remRight in personam
ConsentThe duty is imposed without consentThe duty exists only because both consented
PrivityNot requiredRequired
DamagesUnliquidated, fixed by the courtLiquidated, or assessed under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872
RemotenessJudged by the rules examined in chapter [Damage, Causation and Remoteness]Judged by section 73: loss naturally arising or in the parties' contemplation
MotiveGenerally irrelevant, with four exceptionsIrrelevant
LimitationOrdinarily short: the tort articles of the Limitation Act 1963Ordinarily three years from the breach

Where the same facts give both

A single set of facts often supports an action in contract and an action in tort, and the plaintiff may generally choose. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 anticipates this by defining a tort as a civil wrong that is not exclusively a breach of contract.

The surgeon. A patient who pays a surgeon has a contract, and the surgeon also owes the ordinary duty of care that every professional owes. Careless surgery is both a breach of contract and the tort of negligence. In India there is now a third route: the patient may go to a Consumer Commission, because section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 makes him a consumer of a service and gives him a remedy for deficiency in it.

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Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs

The carrier. A passenger with a ticket may sue on the contract of carriage or in negligence. A passenger without one, or a pedestrian, has only the tort.

The builder. A buyer of a flat may sue on the agreement to sell, and, if the building collapses on a passer-by, that passer-by sues only in tort.

Which to choose is a practical question: the tort claim escapes privity and may give a wider measure of damages; the contract claim may be easier to prove because the term is written down.

The other two wrongs the syllabus mentions

Breach of trust. A trust arises where property is held by one person for the benefit of another. The obligation is equitable and it is owed to the beneficiary alone. The remedy is an account and restoration of the trust property, and the amount is ascertained rather than assessed at large, which is why Salmond's definition puts breach of trust outside tort along with breach of contract.

Quasi-contract. A quasi-contract is an obligation imposed by law where there is no agreement at all, so that a person who has received a benefit at another's expense must restore it. Sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 contain the Indian examples: necessaries supplied to a person incapable of contracting, payment by an interested person, benefit of a non-gratuitous act, finder of goods, and money paid by mistake or under coercion. It resembles tort in that the law imposes the obligation, and differs from it in that the claim is for a definite sum representing the benefit received, not for damages the court assesses.

A worked example

Ashok books a taxi through an app. The driver, Bipin, drives carelessly and collides with a wall. Ashok is injured, so is Chandra who was standing on the footpath, and so is Deepa who had accepted a free ride from Ashok.

Ashok has a contract of carriage. He may sue for breach of it, and the measure will be governed by section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872. He may instead sue in negligence, and he may also complain to a Consumer Commission, because section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 makes a person who hires a service for consideration a consumer and gives him a remedy for deficiency.

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Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs

Chandra has no contract with anybody. She sues in negligence, and privity is no obstacle because the duty of care is owed to every road user.

Deepa paid nothing and has no contract either. She too sues in negligence. The fact that she travelled free does not reduce the duty owed to her, though it may be relevant to a plea of consent, which chapter [Volenti Non Fit Injuria] deals with.

And Bipin's employer may be liable for all three without having done anything himself, on the principles in chapter [Vicarious Liability: Basis and Justification].

One accident, three plaintiffs, and the source of the duty decides who may sue on what.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a plaintiff must choose one and abandon the other. He may plead both in the alternative. What he cannot do is recover the same loss twice.

It does not mean a contract can never create a tortious duty. The relationship created by a contract is often what brings the parties into proximity, and the duty of care then arises independently of the contract's terms.

It does not mean an exemption clause is worthless in tort. A term may operate as consent, and consent is a defence in tort, but the clause has to be proved and its scope is construed strictly.

It does not mean quasi-contract is a kind of contract. There is no agreement in it at all; the name is historical.

Quick revision

  1. Contract: duty fixed by the parties, owed to a determinate person, right in personam, privity required.
  2. Tort: duty fixed by law, owed to persons generally, right in rem, no privity.
  3. Damages in contract are assessed under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, which excludes remote and indirect loss.
  4. Damages in tort are unliquidated and are fixed by the court.
  5. Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 says a tort is a civil wrong not exclusively a breach of contract, which is what allows the same facts to give both.
  6. Breach of trust is an equitable obligation owed to the beneficiary; the remedy is restoration, not damages at large.
  7. Quasi-contract, sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, is an obligation imposed by law to restore a benefit; the claim is for a definite sum.
  8. A consumer may now have a third route under the Consumer Protection Act 2019.

Test yourself

1. Distinguish a tort from a breach of contract. In a breach of contract the duty broken was created by the parties' own agreement, is owed only to the other party, and corresponds to a right in personam; privity is therefore essential and a stranger to the contract cannot sue. In a tort the duty is imposed by the law, is owed to persons generally, and corresponds to a right in rem; no privity is needed and a stranger may sue. Damages in contract are liquidated or are assessed under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, which allows loss naturally arising in the usual course of things or in the parties' contemplation and excludes remote and indirect loss; damages in tort are unliquidated and are assessed by the court. The same facts may give both, because section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963 defines a tort as a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract.

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Tort Distinguished from Breach of Contract and Other Wrongs

2. Can the same act be both a tort and a breach of contract? Illustrate. Yes. A surgeon who operates carelessly on a paying patient breaks the contract of treatment and also commits the tort of negligence; a carrier who injures a ticketed passenger breaks the contract of carriage and commits negligence. The plaintiff may sue on either, or plead both in the alternative, but cannot recover the same loss twice. The choice matters: the contractual measure under section 73 excludes remote loss, and the tortious claim escapes privity, so a companion travelling free or a pedestrian can sue only in tort. In India a consumer may also complain to a Consumer Commission, since section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 gives a remedy for deficiency in a service hired for consideration.

3. Write a short note on quasi-contract and its relation to tort. A quasi-contract is an obligation imposed by law where there is no agreement, so that a person who receives a benefit at another's expense must restore it. The Indian examples are in sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act 1872: necessaries supplied to a person incapable of contracting, payment by a person interested in a payment, benefit of a non-gratuitous act, the liability of a finder of goods, and money paid by mistake or under coercion. It resembles a tort in that the law and not the parties creates the obligation. It differs in that the claim is restitutionary and is for a definite sum representing the benefit received, whereas a claim in tort is for unliquidated damages representing the plaintiff's loss.

4. Why is privity important in contract and irrelevant in tort? Because the two duties have different sources. A contractual duty exists only because the parties agreed to it, so only a person who was party to that agreement can complain of its breach; that is what privity means. A tortious duty is imposed by the law on everybody in a given position, so the class of people who may complain is defined by who was foreseeably affected, not by who signed anything. The practical consequence appears in every road accident: the ticketed passenger may choose between contract and tort, while the pedestrian has only tort, and both recover.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Nine

Who May Sue

Syllabus topic 1.2, "Distinction from Crime, Breach of Contract etc., who may sue, who may not be sued."

In one line

Anybody whose legal right has been infringed may sue, and the exceptions concern people who need somebody to sue for them or who are barred by their status.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the general rule is that any person whose legal right has been violated may bring an action in tort; the law makes special provision for a minor, an unborn child, a person of unsound mind, a married woman, a corporation, an insolvent, a convict, an alien enemy, a foreign State and the State itself, and in India a foreign national may also enforce the right to life under article 21.

The general rule

A plaintiff must show that a legal right vested in him has been infringed. He need not show loss, because some torts are actionable without it, and he need not show a relationship with the defendant, because the duty in tort is owed to persons generally.

Two consequences follow. A person who suffers loss without any right of his being infringed cannot sue, which is damnum sine injuria. And a person whose right is infringed may sue even though somebody else suffered the real loss, which is why the owner of goods, and not the person using them, is the proper plaintiff in conversion.

The special plaintiffs

A minor. A minor may sue for a tort committed against him, but the suit is brought through a next friend, that is, an adult who conducts the litigation on his behalf. His age does not reduce the duty owed to him, and in negligence it may raise it, because what is reasonable care towards a child is more than what is reasonable towards an adult.

An unborn child. A child injured in the womb may sue after birth for injuries caused before it, and a child born after its father's death is within the class for whom a claim under the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 may be brought.

A person of unsound mind. He may sue through a next friend in the same way as a minor.

A married woman. She may sue in her own name for a tort committed against her. The old English rule that required her husband to be joined never applied in India, and the position now is that a wife may sue and be sued independently.

A corporation. A company may sue for torts affecting its property, its business and its reputation. It may sue in defamation, because a false statement can injure the trading reputation of a company as it can a person's, but it cannot sue for wrongs that can only be committed against a natural person, such as assault or false imprisonment.

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Who May Sue

An insolvent. On insolvency the right to sue for wrongs to property passes to the official assignee or receiver, because it is part of the estate available to creditors. A right of action for a purely personal wrong, such as defamation or assault, remains with the insolvent himself.

A convict. A person undergoing a sentence does not lose the right to sue. On the contrary, the Supreme Court has held that a prisoner retains the fundamental right to life, and compensation has been awarded for custodial violence and unlawful detention.

An alien enemy. A subject of a State at war with India, or a person voluntarily residing in or carrying on business in enemy territory, cannot sue in an Indian court during the war without permission from the Central Government. His right is suspended and not destroyed, and he may sue after the war ends.

A foreign State. A foreign sovereign State may sue in an Indian court, subject to the conditions in section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, which requires the consent of the Central Government.

A foreign national. This is an Indian development and it is worth a paragraph of its own.

The foreign national, and the case that decided it

Facts. Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, decided on 28 January 2000. Hanuffa Khatoon, a national of Bangladesh, was gang-raped by railway employees in a room of the Rail Yatri Niwas at Howrah station. A practising advocate, Chandrima Das, moved the High Court under article 226 claiming compensation for the victim, and the High Court awarded Rs. 10 lakhs against the Railways. The Railways argued that the wrong was that of individual employees, that the remedy lay in private law, that the petitioner was a stranger to the victim, and that the victim was a foreign national.

Held. The appeal was dismissed. The Court held that the right to life under article 21 is available to every person and not only to a citizen, so a foreign national may enforce it; that the employees were performing functions of a commercial character on behalf of the Union, which made the Union liable; that a practising advocate could bring the petition in the public interest; and that compensation in public law is an appropriate remedy for the violation of a fundamental right.

Why it matters here. It settles that nationality does not decide who may sue in India for a violation of the right to life, and it is the leading case on the width of the class of plaintiffs.

Where somebody sues on another's behalf

The next friend. A minor or a person of unsound mind sues through a next friend, who is not himself the plaintiff.

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Who May Sue

The legal representative. On death the action, where it survives, is brought by the executor, administrator or representative of the deceased. Chapter [Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855] works this out, and Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, holds that a legal representative who is not a dependant may still receive a statutory no-fault amount, because it forms part of the estate.

The State as parens patriae. Parens patriae is Latin for parent of the country, and it describes the power of the State to act for those who cannot act for themselves.

Facts. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480, decided on 22 December 1989 by five judges. After the escape of methyl isocyanate gas at Bhopal, Parliament passed the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985, giving the Union Government the exclusive right to represent the victims in all claims arising out of the disaster, in India and abroad. Its validity was challenged.

Held. The Act was upheld on the doctrine of parens patriae: the State is under an obligation to protect the rights of citizens who are unable to protect themselves, and the victims, poor and disorganised in the face of a multinational corporation, were such a class. The Court read into the Act a requirement of notice and hearing to the victims where a settlement is proposed, and held that the State was obliged to see that the victims were compensated even if the company could not pay.

Why it matters here. It is the largest Indian example of somebody other than the injured person suing for them, and chapter [The Bhopal Gas Disaster] takes the story further.

A representative complaint. Under section 35 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019, one or more consumers having the same interest may complain on behalf of all of them, with the permission of the Commission, which is the consumer law's version of the same idea.

A worked example

A school bus overturns because of the driver's negligence. Among those hurt are Reena, aged nine; her mother, who was accompanying the class; a German exchange student; and the bus company's rival, whose contract to supply the school was cancelled because of the accident.

Reena may sue, through a next friend. Her age does not reduce the duty owed to her.

Her mother may sue in her own name.

The German student may sue in the ordinary courts, and if a public authority is responsible may also claim compensation under article 226, because Chandrima Das holds that article 21 protects every person and not only a citizen.

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Who May Sue

The rival may not sue. His loss is real but no legal right of his has been infringed; it is damnum sine injuria.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a person who suffers most is always the plaintiff. The right infringed decides, not the loss suffered.

It does not mean a minor's claim is weaker. It is brought differently, through a next friend, and it is worth as much.

It does not mean a corporation can sue for anything. It can sue for injury to property, business and trading reputation, not for wrongs which by their nature can be done only to a human being.

It does not mean an alien enemy loses his rights forever. His right to sue is suspended during the war, not extinguished.

Quick revision

  1. General rule: any person whose legal right is infringed may sue; loss and privity are not required.
  2. Minor and person of unsound mind: sue through a next friend.
  3. Unborn child: may sue after birth for prenatal injury.
  4. Married woman: sues in her own name.
  5. Corporation: property, business and trading reputation only.
  6. Insolvent: rights of action relating to property pass to the assignee; personal wrongs remain with him.
  7. Alien enemy: right suspended during war; a foreign State sues subject to section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.
  8. Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988: article 21 protects every person, so a foreign national may claim.
  9. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480: the State may sue as parens patriae for victims unable to protect themselves.
  10. Section 35 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 allows a representative complaint by consumers having the same interest.

Test yourself

1. Who may sue in tort? Discuss the position of the special classes of plaintiffs. The general rule is that any person whose legal right has been infringed may sue, whether or not he has suffered loss and whether or not he has any relationship with the defendant. Special provision exists for several classes. A minor and a person of unsound mind sue through a next friend. A child injured in the womb may sue after birth. A married woman sues in her own name. A corporation may sue for wrongs to its property, business and trading reputation, but not for wrongs that can only be committed against a natural person. On insolvency, rights of action relating to property pass to the assignee while personal claims stay with the insolvent. A convict retains his right to sue and, in India, his right to compensation for custodial violence. An alien enemy cannot sue during the war without the permission of the Central Government, and a foreign State sues subject to section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908. A foreign national may sue and may also enforce article 21, as Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, holds.

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2. Can a person who has suffered no loss sue in tort? Yes, where a legal right of his has been infringed and the tort is actionable without proof of damage. The maxim is injuria sine damno: the law presumes damage where a right is violated, and the plaintiff succeeds, though the damages may be nominal. Conversely, a person who has suffered heavy loss but can point to no right of his that was infringed cannot sue at all, which is damnum sine injuria. So the test is the infringement of a right, not the presence of loss.

3. Explain the doctrine of parens patriae with an Indian case. Parens patriae means parent of the country, and it describes the power and obligation of the State to protect the rights of those who cannot protect themselves. In Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480, a Bench of five judges upheld the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985, which gave the Union Government the exclusive right to represent the victims of the gas leak in all claims in India and abroad. The Court held that the victims were poor and disorganised and faced a multinational corporation, so that the State was the proper representative, but it read into the Act a requirement that victims be given notice and an opportunity to be heard where a settlement was proposed, and held that the State was bound to ensure that they were compensated even if the company could not pay.

4. Can a foreign national claim compensation in India for a tort committed by public servants? Yes. In Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, a Bangladeshi woman was gang-raped by railway employees at Howrah station, and compensation of Rs. 10 lakhs awarded by the High Court against the Railways was upheld. The Supreme Court held that the right to life guaranteed by article 21 is available to every person and not only to citizens, that the employees were performing functions of a commercial character on behalf of the Union so that the Union was liable, that a practising advocate could bring the petition in the public interest, and that compensation in public law is an appropriate remedy for the violation of a fundamental right.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ten

Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855

Syllabus topic 1.2, "Distinction from Crime, Breach of Contract etc., who may sue, who may not be sued."

In one line

At common law a death gave the family no action at all, and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 is the statute that gave them one.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the maxim actio personalis moritur cum persona means that a personal action dies with the person, so that at common law neither the estate of a person killed nor his family could sue the wrongdoer; the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 altered this in India by giving the wife, husband, parent and child of a person whose death was caused by a wrongful act, neglect or default an action for the loss resulting to them from the death, to be brought by the executor, administrator or representative of the deceased, and by allowing a claim for pecuniary loss to the estate to be added to it.

The maxim, and why it was intolerable

Actio personalis moritur cum persona is Latin for "a personal action dies with the person". It worked in both directions. If the injured person died, his claim died with him. If the wrongdoer died, the claim against him died too.

Applied to a death caused by a wrong, the rule produced an absurdity that Victorian judges themselves noticed: it was cheaper to kill a man than to injure him, because an injured plaintiff could sue for years of loss while a dead one could not sue at all, and his widow had no claim of her own because the wrong had been done to him.

The preamble to the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 says exactly this. It recites that no action is maintainable against a person who by his wrongful act, neglect or default has caused the death of another, and that it is often right and expedient that the wrongdoer should be answerable in damages for the injury so caused.

The Act, section by section

Section 1. Short title and extent. The Act is called the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 and extends to the whole of India. This section was inserted in 1951; the original section 1 became section 1A.

Section 1A. The action for the family. Where the death of a person is caused by a wrongful act, neglect or default, and the act, neglect or default is such as would, if death had not ensued, have entitled the party injured to maintain an action and recover damages, the person who would have been liable is liable to an action notwithstanding the death, and although the death was caused in circumstances amounting in law to felony or other crime.

Every such action is for the benefit of the wife, husband, parent and child of the deceased, and is to be brought by and in the name of the executor, administrator or representative of the deceased. The court may give such damages as it thinks proportioned to the loss resulting from the death to the parties for whose benefit the action is brought, and the amount recovered, after deducting costs, is divided among them in the shares the court directs.

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Section 2. One suit only, and the claim for the estate. Not more than one action shall be brought for and in respect of the same subject matter of complaint. The proviso allows the executor, administrator or representative to add a claim for any pecuniary loss to the estate of the deceased occasioned by the wrongful act, and what is recovered on that claim forms part of the assets of the estate.

Section 3. Pleading. The plaint must give full particulars of the persons for whose benefit the action is brought and of the nature of the claim.

Section 4. Interpretation. "Person" applies to bodies politic and corporate. "Parent" includes father and mother and grandfather and grandmother. "Child" includes son and daughter, grandson and granddaughter, stepson and stepdaughter.

Read section 4 carefully: it is where the marks are, because "parent" and "child" go two generations and include step-relations. A grandmother dependent on a grandson is within the Act.

The two claims the Act allows, and how they differ

The section 1A claimThe proviso to section 2 claim
Whose loss?The family's loss caused by the deathThe estate's loss caused by the wrong
Who benefits?Wife, husband, parent, childThe estate, and so the heirs generally
MeasureWhat the death cost the dependantsLoss of expectation of life, medical expenses, funeral expenses, loss to the estate
Brought byThe executor, administrator or representativeThe same person
Number of suitsOne suit only, for both

The limitation the Act once carried, and why it is gone

The original section 2 required every such action to be brought within twelve calendar months of the death. Those words were omitted in 1871, and the footnote to the Act records that limitation is now governed by the Limitation Act 1963. That is a small point with a large consequence: a student who quotes a twelve month period from an old book is quoting a rule repealed a hundred and fifty years ago.

What the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 does to the maxim

For a death caused by a motor accident the practical claim is not under the Act of 1855 at all: it is a claim before a Claims Tribunal under section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, and chapters [The Application for Compensation] and [Computing Just Compensation] work it out.

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Two things there matter here.

Who may claim is wider. In Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, decided on 11 May 1987, the brothers of a boy killed by a Corporation bus applied to the Tribunal. The Corporation argued that only the wife, husband, parent and child named in the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 could claim and that the Tribunal provisions were merely procedural.

Held. The petition was maintainable. The brother of a person who dies in a motor accident may claim if he is a legal representative of the deceased; every legal representative who suffers by the death should have a remedy; and it is for the Tribunal to determine what compensation appears to it to be just and to specify the persons to whom it is payable. The Court also held that the no-fault provision then in force departed from the common law rule that negligence must be proved.

Why it matters here. It is the case that separates the narrow class in section 1A from the wider class of legal representatives under the Motor Vehicles Act.

And a legal representative need not be a dependant. In Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, decided on 30 March 2007, a married daughter claimed the statutory no-fault amount for her father's death and it was objected that she was not dependent on him.

Held. A person who is a legal representative but not a dependant may still be a beneficiary. The no-fault liability is a statutory liability for a fixed, crystallised sum which forms part of the estate of the deceased, and the legal representative who inherits the estate is entitled to receive it. The expression "legal representative" is not defined in the Act and is to be given a wide meaning.

And the injured person's own claim now survives. Section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, inserted by the amendment of 2019 and in force from 1 April 2022, provides that the right of a person to claim compensation for injury in an accident shall, upon the death of the person injured, survive to his legal representatives, irrespective of whether the cause of death is related to the injury or not. That is a direct statutory reversal of actio personalis moritur cum persona for motor accident claims.

A worked example

Vasant, aged forty, is knocked down and killed by a lorry driven negligently. He leaves a widow, a son of six, a dependent mother, and a brother who lived with him. He had been in hospital for a week before he died, and the family spent Rs. 2,00,000 on his treatment.

Under the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 the action is brought by his executor, administrator or representative, for the benefit of the widow, the son and the mother, who are within the class of wife, child and parent in section 1A read with section 4. The brother is not within that class. The measure is what the death cost each of them. The hospital expenses are claimed under the proviso to section 2 as a pecuniary loss to the estate, and one suit covers both claims.

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Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855

Under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, which is the route actually used, the application goes to the Claims Tribunal under section 166. The brother may apply too, if he is a legal representative, on the authority of Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai. The family may take the fixed amount under section 164 without proving fault at all, and the Tribunal awards what is just under section 168.

What it does NOT mean

The Act does not create a new tort. It gives a new plaintiff for an existing wrong. If the deceased could not have sued had he lived, nobody can sue after his death; section 1A says so in terms.

It does not give damages for grief. The measure is the pecuniary loss resulting from the death. The conventional sums awarded for loss of consortium and for loss of estate are worked out in chapter [Computing Just Compensation].

It does not allow several suits. Section 2 permits one action only for the same subject matter.

Its twelve month limitation is not the law. Those words were omitted in 1871 and limitation is governed by the Limitation Act 1963.

Quick revision

  1. Actio personalis moritur cum persona: a personal action dies with the person, in both directions.
  2. The Fatal Accidents Act 1855 was passed because it was cheaper to kill than to injure.
  3. Section 1A: an action lies for the benefit of the wife, husband, parent and child, brought by the executor, administrator or representative.
  4. Section 4: "parent" includes grandparents, "child" includes grandchildren and stepchildren.
  5. Section 2: one suit only, plus a claim for pecuniary loss to the estate.
  6. Section 3: the plaint must give particulars of the beneficiaries and the claim.
  7. The twelve month limitation in the original section 2 was omitted in 1871.
  8. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690: a brother who is a legal representative may claim under the Motor Vehicles Act.
  9. Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643: a legal representative who is not a dependant may still take the statutory no-fault amount, as part of the estate.
  10. Section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, in force from 1 April 2022: the injured person's claim survives to his legal representatives whatever the cause of death.
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Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855

Test yourself

1. Explain the maxim actio personalis moritur cum persona and the changes made to it in India. The maxim means that a personal action dies with the person: at common law the death of either party extinguished the claim. Applied to a death caused by a wrong it meant that neither the estate nor the family of the deceased had any action, which made it cheaper to kill a man than to injure him. The Fatal Accidents Act 1855 altered this by giving the wife, husband, parent and child an action for the loss resulting to them from the death, brought by the executor, administrator or representative, and by allowing a claim for pecuniary loss to the estate to be added. For motor accidents the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 goes further: a claim may be made by any legal representative, and section 166(5), in force from 1 April 2022, provides that the injured person's own right to claim survives to his legal representatives irrespective of whether the cause of death was related to the injury.

2. Who may claim under the Fatal Accidents Act 1855, and who brings the action? The action is for the benefit of the wife, husband, parent and child of the deceased. Section 4 extends "parent" to grandfather and grandmother and "child" to grandson, granddaughter, stepson and stepdaughter, so the class covers three generations and step-relations. The action itself is brought by and in the name of the executor, administrator or representative of the deceased, not by the beneficiaries in their own names, and the amount recovered, after deducting costs, is divided among them in the shares the court directs. Only one action may be brought for the same subject matter, and a claim for pecuniary loss to the estate may be added to it under the proviso to section 2.

3. Distinguish the claim under section 1A from the claim under the proviso to section 2. The section 1A claim is for the loss the death causes to the dependants named in that section, and what is recovered is divided among them as the court directs. The claim under the proviso to section 2 is for pecuniary loss caused to the estate of the deceased by the wrongful act, such as medical and funeral expenses, and what is recovered forms part of the assets of the estate and passes to the heirs generally. The first compensates the family for what they lost by the death; the second restores to the estate what the wrong took from it. Both are made in one suit, because section 2 permits only one action.

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Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855

4. A man dies in a road accident leaving a married sister who was not dependent on him. Can she claim? Not under section 1A of the Fatal Accidents Act 1855, because a sister is not within the class of wife, husband, parent and child even as extended by section 4. She may claim under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 if she is a legal representative of the deceased. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, holds that a sibling who is a legal representative may maintain a claim petition, and Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, holds that a legal representative who is not a dependant may still receive the statutory no-fault amount, because it is a crystallised sum forming part of the estate which she inherits. What she cannot recover is a dependency she never had.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Eleven

Who May Not Be Sued

Syllabus topic 1.2, "Distinction from Crime, Breach of Contract etc., who may sue, who may not be sued."

In one line

Some defendants cannot be sued at all, some cannot be sued without permission, and some can be sued only for certain acts.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: an action in tort does not lie against a foreign sovereign or a diplomatic agent except with consent, against the President or a Governor for acts done in the exercise of the powers and duties of the office, or against a judge for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty; the State is liable for the torts of its servants to the extent settled by article 300 of the Constitution; a minor is liable for his own torts but a parent is not liable merely as a parent; and a corporation is liable for torts committed within the scope of its objects and by its servants in the course of employment.

Foreign sovereigns and diplomatic agents

A foreign State, its ruler, and its diplomatic representatives cannot be sued in Indian courts without consent. For a foreign State the requirement is statutory: section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 requires the consent of the Central Government before a foreign State may be sued. For diplomatic agents the immunity comes from the international law of diplomatic relations, which India has given effect to by statute.

The reason is not that they can do no wrong. It is that the courts of one State do not sit in judgment on another, and a diplomat must be able to do his work without being answerable in the courts of the country he is posted to.

The President and the Governors

Article 361 of the Constitution provides that the President and the Governor of a State are not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office, or for any act done or purporting to be done in that exercise and performance. No criminal proceedings may be instituted against them during their term of office, and no civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against them personally may be instituted during the term without two months' notice.

The protection is of the office and of the period. It does not protect the State itself from liability for the acts of its servants, and it does not last beyond the term for acts outside the office.

Judges

Judicial immunity exists so that a judge decides according to law and not according to fear of being sued by the loser. It is not a personal privilege.

The Act that used to be cited is gone. The Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850 protected a judicial officer for acts done in the discharge of judicial duty. It was repealed by the Repealing and Amending Act 2023, Act 37 of 2023, which received assent on 17 December 2023 and whose First Schedule lists it in its first row.

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Who May Not Be Sued

What protects a judge now. The Judges (Protection) Act 1985, Act 59 of 1985, is the statute in force. Section 2 defines "Judge" to mean not only a person officially designated as a Judge but also every person empowered by law to give a definitive judgment in a legal proceeding, or a judgment which if not appealed would be definitive, or which if confirmed by another authority would be definitive, and every member of a body empowered to give such a judgment. Section 3(1) provides that, notwithstanding anything in any other law, no court shall entertain or continue any civil or criminal proceeding against a person who is or was a Judge for any act, thing or word committed, done or spoken by him when, or in the course of, acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official or judicial duty or function. Section 3(2) preserves the power of the Central Government, a State Government, the Supreme Court or a High Court to take action against a Judge under any law.

The definition in section 2 is wide enough to cover a Magistrate, a member of a tribunal and, on its terms, a member of a body that decides. So the practical answer to "can a judge be sued in tort?" in 2026 is: no, for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty, by force of section 3 of the Act of 1985.

The State

The State is not immune in India in the way the Crown once was in England, and article 300(1) of the Constitution is the provision that settles how far it is liable. The topic belongs to chapter [Vicarious Liability of the State], and two cases fix the outline.

Facts. State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933, decided on 2 February 1962. A Government jeep being driven from a repair shop to the Collector's residence was driven rashly and negligently by a State employee and knocked down a pedestrian, who died in hospital. His widow and daughter sued the State.

Held. The State was liable. The liability of the State for a tort committed by its servant within the scope of his employment is the same as that of any other employer. Article 300(1), by using the words "in like cases", refers back through the Government of India Acts to the position before the Constitution, so that the State's liability is that of the East India Company.

Facts. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, decided on 29 September 1964. Police at Meerut arrested a partner of a bullion firm on suspicion and seized gold and silver from him, which were kept in the police malkhana. The head constable in charge misappropriated the gold and absconded to Pakistan. The firm sued the State for its value.

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Who May Not Be Sued

Held. The claim failed. The powers to arrest, to search and to seize are conferred by statute on specified officers and can properly be characterised as sovereign powers, so although the negligence was that of State employees in the course of their employment, no claim lay against the State. The Court approved the P. and O. Steam Navigation case, distinguished Vidhyawati, and suggested that Parliament legislate on the subject.

Why they matter here. Together they set the sovereign and non-sovereign division, which chapter [Vicarious Liability of the State] then follows to N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205, where the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State.

Minors, parents and corporations

A minor is liable for his own torts. Infancy is not a defence, because tortious liability does not depend on the capacity to contract. Two qualifications matter. Where the tort requires a particular mental state, a very young child may be incapable of it. And where the claim is in substance a claim on a contract that the minor could not make, it cannot be dressed up as a tort.

A parent is not liable merely because the wrongdoer is his child. He is liable where the child was acting as his servant or agent, or where the parent's own negligence, in giving a young child a dangerous thing for example, caused the harm.

A corporation may be sued for torts committed by its servants in the course of their employment, and for torts committed by its directing organs. It cannot be sued for a wrong which by its nature cannot be committed by an artificial person, and an act wholly outside its objects raises a question of whether it was the company's act at all.

A worked example

A District Magistrate signs a detention order which is later held illegal. The detenu wants to sue.

The Magistrate, acting judicially, is protected by section 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act 1985 for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty. Where the function was executive rather than judicial, that Act does not protect him and the ordinary law applies.

The State may be liable. On Kasturi Lal the exercise of a statutory power of that kind was called sovereign; on N. Nagendra Rao the sovereign or non-sovereign division no longer decides the question in a welfare State.

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The Constitution provides the surest route: a petition under article 32 or 226 for compensation for the violation of article 21, which chapter [Constitutional Tort] deals with, and to which sovereign immunity is no answer, as Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, holds.

The Governor, if the order was made in his name, is not answerable under article 361, but that does not immunise the State.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean these defendants can do no wrong. The immunities are about the forum and the office, not about the morality of the act.

It does not mean a judge cannot be dealt with. Section 3(2) of the Judges (Protection) Act 1985 expressly preserves the power of the Government, the Supreme Court and the High Courts to act against a judge under any law.

It does not mean the State is immune. In India the State can be sued in tort. What was in doubt was the extent, and N. Nagendra Rao narrowed the doubt sharply.

It does not mean a minor escapes. A minor is liable for his own torts; only the transaction that is really a contract is outside.

Quick revision

  1. Foreign States: section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 requires the consent of the Central Government.
  2. Diplomatic agents: immune under the international law of diplomatic relations as given effect by statute.
  3. President and Governors: article 361; not answerable for the exercise of the powers and duties of office; two months' notice for civil proceedings during the term.
  4. Judges: the Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850 was repealed by the Repealing and Amending Act 2023, in force 17 December 2023.
  5. The Judges (Protection) Act 1985, section 3: no court shall entertain any civil or criminal proceeding against a person who is or was a Judge for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty; section 2 defines "Judge" widely; section 3(2) preserves disciplinary powers.
  6. The State: article 300(1); State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933, liable; Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, not liable for an exercise of sovereign power.
  7. Minors are liable for their own torts; parents are not liable merely as parents.
  8. Corporations are liable for torts of their servants in the course of employment.

Test yourself

1. Who cannot be sued in tort? Explain with the provisions in force. A foreign State cannot be sued without the consent of the Central Government under section 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, and diplomatic agents are immune under the international law of diplomatic relations as given effect in India. The President and the Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office under article 361 of the Constitution, and no civil proceeding claiming relief against them personally may be instituted during their term without two months' notice. A judge cannot be sued for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty: the protection now comes from section 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act 1985, since the Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850 was repealed by the Repealing and Amending Act 2023 with effect from 17 December 2023. The State may be sued, to the extent settled by article 300(1) and the cases on it. A minor is liable for his own torts, and a parent is not liable merely as a parent.

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Who May Not Be Sued

2. What is the present statutory protection of judges in India? The Judges (Protection) Act 1985. Section 2 defines a Judge to include not only a person officially designated as such but every person empowered by law to give a definitive judgment in a legal proceeding, or one which would be definitive if not appealed or if confirmed by another authority, and every member of a body empowered to give such a judgment. Section 3(1) provides that no court shall entertain or continue any civil or criminal proceeding against a person who is or was a Judge for any act, thing or word committed, done or spoken when acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official or judicial duty. Section 3(2) preserves the power of the Central Government, a State Government, the Supreme Court or a High Court to take action against a Judge under any law. The older Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850, which most textbooks still cite, stands repealed by the Repealing and Amending Act 2023.

3. Is a minor liable for his torts? Is his father? A minor is liable for his own torts, because liability in tort does not depend on capacity to contract. Two qualifications apply: where the tort requires a particular state of mind a very young child may be incapable of forming it, and a claim that is in substance on a contract the minor could not make cannot be reframed as a tort. The father is not liable merely because he is the father. He becomes liable where the child was acting as his servant or agent, or where his own negligence caused the harm, for example by entrusting a dangerous thing to a child too young to handle it.

4. Explain the extent of the State's liability in tort with reference to article 300. Article 300(1) provides that the Government of India and of a State may sue and be sued in like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have done. In State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933, the Supreme Court held that the words "in like cases" refer back through the Government of India Acts to the liability of the East India Company, and that within the scope of employment the State is liable like any other employer; the State was held liable for a pedestrian killed by a Government jeep. In Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, the Court held that the powers to arrest, search and seize are sovereign powers and that no claim lay against the State for gold misappropriated from a police malkhana. That division was narrowed in N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205, where the Court held that sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State.

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Chapter Twelve

Damnum Sine Injuria

Syllabus topic 1.3, "Damnum Sine Injuria, Injuria Sine Damnum"

In one line

Damnum sine injuria means loss without the violation of any legal right, and it gives no action however large the loss is.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: damnum sine injuria means damage without legal injury; the maxim expresses the rule that harm alone gives no cause of action, and that a plaintiff must show the infringement of a legal right, so that loss caused by the lawful exercise of a right, by competition, or by an act the law permits is not actionable at all.

The two Latin words

Damnum means damage, harm or loss in the ordinary sense: money lost, custom lost, feelings hurt, opportunities missed.

Injuria does not mean injury in the ordinary sense. It means the violation of a legal right. This is the single most important vocabulary point in Module I, because the two maxims are unintelligible until it is grasped.

So damnum sine injuria is loss without the violation of a right, and injuria sine damno, the subject of the next chapter, is the violation of a right without loss.

Why the law is like this

If every loss gave an action, ordinary life would stop. Opening a shop takes custom from the shop next door. Applying for a job takes it from another candidate. Building on your own land takes light and view from your neighbour. Each is a loss and none is a wrong, because the person who caused it was doing something he was entitled to do.

The law therefore asks a different question from "did the plaintiff suffer?" It asks "was any right of the plaintiff infringed?" Where the answer is no, the loss lies where it falls. This is also the strongest practical limit on Winfield's theory, examined in chapter [Law of Tort or Law of Torts], because it shows how much harm the law leaves unremedied.

The leading case

Facts. The Gloucester Grammar School case, (1410) YB 11 Hen IV, fo. 47, pl. 21, 23, as set out by the Karnataka High Court in H.R. Krishnamurthy v. State of Karnataka, decided on 13 April 2018. The defendant, a schoolmaster, set up a rival school next door to the plaintiff's school. Boys left the plaintiff's school for the defendant's, and the plaintiff's fees fell sharply.

Held. No action could be maintained, either for an injunction or for damages. Competition is no ground of action whatever damage it may cause, provided nobody's legal right is infringed.

Why it matters here. It is the oldest and plainest statement of the rule, and it fixes the point that the size of the loss is irrelevant. The plaintiff's income fell by half and he still had no case.

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The Indian case

Facts. Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13, decided on 12 February 1976. The plaintiffs sued in the City Civil Court at Ahmedabad for a permanent injunction restraining the exhibition of the film Jai Santoshi Maa, complaining that it hurt the religious feelings of a section of Hindus, and applied for a temporary injunction. The trial judge refused it, holding that no civil right of the plaintiffs was involved.

Held. The appeal was dismissed. The High Court held that hurt to religious feelings has never been recognised by the courts as a civil actionable wrong; that mere annoyance to feelings, without pecuniary or tangible loss, is not a ground for an injunction; and that a plaintiff must show a substantial injury which the court can recognise. No legal right having been infringed, the case was one of damnum sine injuria.

Why it matters here. It shows the maxim working on facts an Indian student will recognise, and it shows that even a strongly felt harm is not legal injury.

The situations in which the maxim applies

Lawful competition. A trader who loses custom to a rival has no action. This is the Gloucester Grammar School rule, and it is the reason competition law, not tort, regulates markets.

The exercise of a legal right on one's own property. A landowner who builds, drains or digs on his own land may cause serious loss to a neighbour without liability, unless what he does amounts to a nuisance or infringes an easement.

Acts done under statutory authority. Where the legislature authorises an act, loss caused by doing it carefully is not actionable. Chapter [General Defences II] takes this further.

Loss caused by an act the law permits for the public good. A lawful strike, a lawful procession, or the publication of a true statement may each cause heavy loss without giving an action.

Hurt to feelings, religious or otherwise. Ushaben is the Indian authority.

A worked example

Farida runs the only bus service between two villages. Three things happen.

One. The State Transport Undertaking starts a rival service under a permit lawfully granted. Farida's takings halve. This is damnum sine injuria: she has a licence to run buses, not a right that others shall not.

Two. A rival operator spreads a false story that Farida's brakes fail. Her takings halve again. This is not damnum sine injuria: her reputation is a protected interest and the false statement infringes it, so an action lies in defamation, and possibly in injurious falsehood.

Three. The State builds a new road so that the village is served directly and nobody needs Farida's bus at all. Her business closes. This is damnum sine injuria again, and on a large scale: the loss is total and no right of hers has been touched.

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The way to answer any problem on this maxim is to ignore the size of the loss entirely and ask one question: which legal right of the plaintiff was infringed? If you cannot name it, the answer is damnum sine injuria.

Distinctions that carry marks

Damnum sine injuriaInjuria sine damno
MeaningLoss without violation of a legal rightViolation of a legal right without loss
Is there loss?Yes, sometimes very largeNo, or none that can be proved
Is a right infringed?NoYes
Is the wrong actionable?NoYes
DamagesNone, because there is no actionOften nominal, sometimes substantial
Leading caseGloucester Grammar School case (1410)Ashby v. White (1703)
Indian illustrationUshaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean the plaintiff suffered nothing. He may have lost everything. The maxim is about rights, not about amounts.

It does not mean the defendant behaved well. He may have acted from spite. Motive is generally irrelevant, as chapter [The Mental Element in Tort] explains, so a lawful act done from a bad motive is still lawful.

It does not mean the loss can never be recovered under some other law. A competitor's conduct may be an offence, or may attract a statutory regulator, or may breach a contract. The maxim says only that the law of torts gives nothing.

It does not mean feelings are never protected. Defamation protects reputation and nuisance protects the comfortable enjoyment of land. What Ushaben decides is that hurt to religious feelings, standing alone, is not a legal injury.

Quick revision

  1. Damnum is loss; injuria is the violation of a legal right.
  2. Damnum sine injuria is loss without legal injury and gives no action, however large the loss.
  3. Gloucester Grammar School case, (1410) YB 11 Hen IV, fo. 47, pl. 21, 23: a rival school; competition is no ground of action.
  4. Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13: hurt to religious feelings is not a civil actionable wrong.
  5. Situations: lawful competition, use of one's own property, statutory authority, lawful acts for the public good, hurt feelings.
  6. The test in a problem: name the legal right infringed. If you cannot, the maxim applies.
  7. It is the practical limit on any general principle that all harm is actionable.

Test yourself

1. Explain the maxim damnum sine injuria with decided cases. Damnum means loss and injuria means the violation of a legal right, so the maxim describes loss unaccompanied by any infringement of a right. Such loss gives no cause of action, however large it may be, because the law of torts protects rights rather than wallets. In the Gloucester Grammar School case, (1410) YB 11 Hen IV, fo. 47, pl. 21, 23, a schoolmaster set up a rival school next door, the plaintiff's pupils left and his fees fell sharply, and it was held that no action lay either for damages or for an injunction, because competition is no ground of action whatever damage it causes provided no legal right is infringed. In Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13, an injunction to restrain the exhibition of a film said to hurt religious feelings was refused, the High Court holding that hurt to religious feelings is not a civil actionable wrong and that mere annoyance to feelings without tangible loss cannot found an injunction.

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2. "The extent of the loss is irrelevant to liability in tort." Do you agree? Yes, so far as the existence of liability is concerned, and this maxim is the proof. A trader ruined by lawful competition recovers nothing, while a man wrongly turned away from a polling booth, who loses nothing at all, recovers. Liability depends on whether a legal right was infringed, not on how much was lost. The extent of the loss becomes relevant only once liability is established, when it governs the amount of damages, and even then some torts are actionable without proof of damage at all.

3. Distinguish damnum sine injuria from injuria sine damno. Damnum sine injuria is loss without the violation of a legal right, and gives no action; the Gloucester Grammar School case and Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13, are the illustrations. Injuria sine damno is the violation of a legal right without loss, and does give an action, because in torts actionable per se the law presumes damage; Ashby v. White, decided in 1703, and Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, are the illustrations. In the first there is harm but no wrong; in the second there is a wrong but no harm. The damages in the second are frequently nominal, though in Bhim Singh the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000.

4. A new supermarket opens opposite an old grocery shop and the shop closes within a year. Advise the shopkeeper. He has no remedy in tort. His loss is real and complete, but no legal right of his has been infringed: he has a right to trade, not a right that others shall not trade near him. The case is governed by the Gloucester Grammar School rule that competition is no ground of action whatever damage it may cause. The position would change if the supermarket had done something unlawful, for example spreading false statements about his goods, which would be defamation or injurious falsehood, or committing a nuisance that interfered with the enjoyment of his premises. Absent something of that kind, the case is damnum sine injuria.

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Chapter Thirteen

Injuria Sine Damno

Syllabus topic 1.3, "Damnum Sine Injuria, Injuria Sine Damnum"

In one line

Injuria sine damno means the violation of a legal right without any loss, and it does give an action.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: injuria sine damno means legal injury without damage; where a legal right has been violated the law presumes damage, so the wrong is actionable without proof of any loss, and the plaintiff succeeds even though he is not out of pocket; the damages may be nominal, but where the violation is serious an Indian court may award a substantial sum.

The torts that are actionable per se

Actionable per se is Latin for actionable in itself, and it describes a tort in which the plaintiff need not prove damage at all. The main ones are:

Trespass to land, so that a person who walks across another's field without permission is liable although he damages nothing.

Trespass to the person, that is battery, assault and false imprisonment, so that an unlawful detention is actionable even if the person detained was comfortable throughout.

Trespass to goods, so that a person who moves another's goods is liable although they are unharmed.

Libel, and those four kinds of slander which are actionable without proof of special damage.

In each of these the law presumes damage because the right protected is one whose violation is a harm in itself. Chapters [Trespass to Land], [Trespass to the Person], [Trespass to Goods] and [Libel and Slander] work each of them out.

The classical case

Facts. Ashby v. White, decided in 1703, as described by the Supreme Court of India in Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787. A qualified elector was wrongfully prevented from voting by the returning officer. The candidate he wished to vote for was elected in any event, so the refusal cost him nothing.

Held. The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium was applied in his favour and the claim for damages was decreed. The Supreme Court of India describes the decision as an award of damages to an elector wrongfully prevented from voting.

Why it matters here. It fixes the rule that the violation of a right is itself the injury. It also shows why the rule is necessary: if the elector had no remedy, the returning officer could turn away as many electors as he liked, provided he was careful to choose those whose candidate would win anyway.

The Indian case

Facts. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, decided on 22 November 1985. Bhim Singh, a sitting member of the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly, was arrested at three in the morning on 10 September 1985 while travelling to attend a session of the Assembly. He was held from the tenth to the fourteenth. He was not produced before the Executive Magistrate on the eleventh or before the Sub Judge on the thirteenth, although remand orders were obtained from both at their residences after office hours, and he was released on bail on the sixteenth. His wife moved a habeas corpus petition.

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Held. The Court held that he had not been produced before either judicial officer, that the police had acted deliberately and mala fide, and that there was a gross violation of his rights under articles 21 and 22(2). Since he was already free no order of release was needed, but the Court held that it had jurisdiction to compensate a victim of such an invasion by awarding monetary compensation, following Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, and directed the State to pay him Rs. 50,000.

Why it matters here. It is the modern Indian illustration of the maxim, and it makes two points a student should take. First, the wrong lay in the violation of the right, and the fact that he was at liberty again by the time of the judgment did not defeat it. Second, the damages were not nominal at all: Rs. 50,000 in 1985 was a substantial sum, which shows that "no damage" does not mean "no money".

When are the damages nominal and when substantial?

This is the part students get wrong, because the textbook sentence "damages are nominal" is only half true.

Nominal damages are a token sum awarded to mark the violation of a right where no real loss followed and the violation was not aggravated. A rupee, or a hundred rupees, serves the purpose.

Substantial damages are awarded where the violation itself is serious, even if there is no financial loss. The liberty of a citizen detained for four days by a deliberate abuse of power is not marked by a token, and Bhim Singh proves it.

Contemptuous damages are the opposite case: a derisory sum awarded where the plaintiff's right was technically violated but the court thinks the suit should never have been brought. Chapter [Kinds of Damages] separates all three.

A worked example

Arun, a shareholder, is refused entry to a company's annual general meeting by a security guard acting on the company's instructions, although he holds a valid entry card. The resolutions passed at the meeting would have been passed anyway; his single vote could not have changed anything.

Has he lost anything? No, not in money and not in outcome.

Has a right of his been infringed? Yes, his right as a shareholder to attend and vote.

Does he have an action? Yes. This is injuria sine damno and the reasoning of Ashby v. White applies exactly: it is no answer to say that the vote would have made no difference, because on that argument a company could exclude every shareholder whose vote would not change a result.

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Injuria Sine Damno

What will he get? Probably nominal damages, and a declaration. If the exclusion was deliberate and humiliating, a court may award more, as in Bhim Singh.

Distinctions that carry marks

Injuria sine damnoDamnum sine injuria
Legal right violatedYesNo
Loss sufferedNone, or none provedYes, often heavy
ActionableYesNo
BasisThe law presumes damage from the violationThere is no wrong to compensate
Typical damagesNominal, sometimes substantialNone
Classical caseAshby v. White (1703)Gloucester Grammar School case (1410)
Indian caseBhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean every tort is actionable without proof of damage. Negligence and nuisance both require damage. The maxim applies to the torts that are actionable per se.

It does not mean the damages will be small. Bhim Singh is the answer to that.

It does not mean the plaintiff can invent a right. He must identify a legal right, which is why the maxim and its opposite are always taught together.

It does not mean a constitutional claim is the same as a tort claim. Compensation under articles 32 and 226 is a public law remedy, distinct from the private law action, as chapter [Constitutional Tort] explains.

Quick revision

  1. Injuria sine damno: violation of a legal right without loss; actionable, because the law presumes damage.
  2. Torts actionable per se: trespass to land, to the person and to goods, libel, and the four kinds of slander actionable without special damage.
  3. Ashby v. White (1703): an elector wrongfully prevented from voting recovered damages although his candidate won.
  4. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494: Rs. 50,000 for four days of unlawful detention, articles 21 and 22(2) violated.
  5. Damages may be nominal, substantial or contemptuous, depending on the gravity of the violation and the conduct of the parties.
  6. The maxim is the mirror of damnum sine injuria, and every problem on either is solved by asking which legal right was infringed.

Test yourself

1. Explain injuria sine damno with decided cases. The maxim means the violation of a legal right without any accompanying loss. Where a right is infringed the law presumes damage, so the action lies without proof of loss, and the torts that are actionable per se, trespass to land, to the person and to goods, and libel, all depend on it. In Ashby v. White, decided in 1703, a qualified elector was wrongfully prevented from voting; the candidate he supported was elected anyway, so he lost nothing, and the court nevertheless decreed damages, applying ubi jus ibi remedium. In Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, a member of the Legislative Assembly was arrested and kept in custody for four days without being produced before a magistrate; by the time the case was decided he was free, and the Supreme Court still awarded Rs. 50,000, holding that the invasion of his rights under articles 21 and 22(2) could not be wished away by his release.

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2. "Where a legal right is violated the law presumes damage." Explain. The proposition is the working content of injuria sine damno. Certain rights are so basic that their violation is treated as harm in itself, and no separate proof of loss is required: the right to possession of land, to bodily integrity and liberty, to possession of goods, and to reputation in the case of libel. If proof of loss were required, these rights would be unenforceable in exactly the cases where enforcement matters most, since a trespasser who damages nothing and a detaining officer who feeds his prisoner well would both be immune. The presumption also explains why the damages are often nominal: the object of the action is vindication rather than compensation.

3. Are the damages in a case of injuria sine damno always nominal? No. They are nominal where the violation is technical and the plaintiff has suffered nothing beyond the infringement itself, and a token sum is enough to mark the right. They are substantial where the violation is itself serious, and the leading Indian example is Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, where Rs. 50,000 was awarded for four days of deliberate and mala fide detention. A court may also award contemptuous damages, a derisory sum, where the right was technically infringed but the suit should not have been brought.

4. Distinguish the two maxims with an example of each. Injuria sine damno is the violation of a legal right without loss and is actionable: an elector wrongly turned away in Ashby v. White, or a legislator unlawfully detained in Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494. Damnum sine injuria is loss without the violation of a legal right and is not actionable: a schoolmaster whose pupils leave for a lawful rival school in the Gloucester Grammar School case, or plaintiffs whose religious feelings are hurt by a film in Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13. In the first there is a wrong without harm; in the second, harm without a wrong. The single question that separates them is whether a legal right of the plaintiff was infringed.

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Chapter Fourteen

Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium

Syllabus topic 1.4, "Volenti non-fit Injuria, Ubi jus ibi remedium"

In one line

Where the law gives a right it gives a remedy to enforce it, so a right that no court will protect is not a right at all.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: ubi jus ibi remedium means that where there is a right there is a remedy; the maxim asserts that a legal right necessarily carries with it a means of enforcement, that a new remedy may be fashioned where the existing ones are inadequate, and that the absence of a precedent is not a reason to leave a violated right unremedied; its limits are that the right must be a legal right and not a moral one, and that the maxim does not create rights, it only enforces them.

The words

Jus means a legal right or authority, not merely an interest. Remedium means the means by which a right is enforced or a wrong redressed.

The maxim is therefore not "every harm has a remedy". It is "every legal right has a remedy", and the difference is the whole of chapter [Damnum Sine Injuria].

What the maxim actually does

It supports the torts actionable without damage. If a legal right exists, its violation must be actionable, otherwise the right is unenforceable. Ashby v. White, decided in 1703, is the case in which the maxim and injuria sine damno meet: an elector wrongfully prevented from voting recovered damages although his candidate was elected anyway.

It licenses a court to fashion a remedy. Where an existing form of action does not fit, the maxim is the reason a court may still give relief rather than send the plaintiff away.

It is the seed of the constitutional remedy in India. The most important modern use of the maxim is not in a tort suit at all.

The Indian development

Facts. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, decided on 1 August 1983. Rudul Sah was acquitted by the Court of Sessions at Muzaffarpur on 3 June 1968 and was kept in jail until 16 October 1982, more than fourteen years after his acquittal. He filed a habeas corpus petition under article 32 asking for release and also for compensation.

Held. By the time the petition was heard he had been released, so the prayer for release did not survive. The Court held that its power under article 32 is not confined to issuing a writ of release, and that it may award compensation where the right to liberty has been grossly violated, because otherwise the right would be reduced to a paper guarantee. It directed the State of Bihar to pay Rs. 30,000 in addition to a sum already paid, described the award as a palliative, and left him free to sue for damages in the ordinary way.

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Why it matters here. It is ubi jus ibi remedium applied to a constitutional right: the right in article 21 existed, the existing remedy of release was useless to a man already free, so the Court made a remedy fit the right.

Facts. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, decided on 5 November 1993. Allottees complained to the consumer forums that statutory development authorities had delayed possession of houses, failed to complete flats and built defectively. The authorities argued that a statutory body performing a statutory function was outside the Consumer Protection Act.

Held. Housing construction by a statutory authority or a private builder is a service under the Act, and a complaint was maintainable. A Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully and not lightly; and where the compensation comes out of public funds the department must recover it from the officers responsible, apportioned among them. In one appeal the Court directed the Lucknow Development Authority to fix responsibility within six months and to recover the Rs. 10,000 awarded from the officers' salary.

Why it matters here. It is the judgment in which the Supreme Court invokes ubi jus ibi remedium by name, tracing it through Ashby v. White, and it shows the maxim being used to give a remedy against a public body in a forum designed for consumers.

And the constitutional line continues. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, holds that a claim in public law for compensation for the contravention of a fundamental right is a remedy available under articles 32 and 226, distinct from and in addition to the private law remedy in tort, and that sovereign immunity does not apply to it. Chapter [Constitutional Tort] takes that line in full.

The limits of the maxim

An answer that only praises the maxim is a weak answer. The limits are as examinable as the principle.

It applies to legal rights only. A moral or a social claim is outside it. A person who is treated ungratefully has no remedy, because he has no right.

It does not create rights. It presupposes a right and supplies enforcement. It cannot be used to argue that because a harm ought to be remedied a right must exist.

It yields where the law itself provides otherwise. Where a statute gives a right and prescribes a particular remedy, that remedy is ordinarily the only one, and where the law bars a claim by limitation the maxim does not revive it.

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It does not touch damnum sine injuria. Where no right is infringed there is nothing for the maxim to work on, however great the loss.

A worked example

Seema is refused a caste certificate to which she is entitled under a statutory scheme, and the refusal is deliberate. There is no provision in the scheme for compensation, and the only remedy named is an appeal to a departmental authority, which takes two years and eventually orders the certificate to be issued. By then she has lost her place in a college.

Is there a right? Yes, a statutory right to the certificate.

Is the named remedy adequate? It got her the certificate, and it did nothing about the loss of the college place.

Does the maxim help? It is the argument for a further remedy: a writ petition under article 226 in which compensation may be claimed for the arbitrary exercise of power, on the reasoning of Rudul Sah and Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, where the Supreme Court held that a public authority whose functionary causes harassment may be made to compensate and to recover the amount from the officer responsible.

Where does it stop? If Seema had no right to the certificate at all, the maxim gives her nothing, however badly she was treated. The maxim enforces rights; it does not invent them.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean every wrong has a remedy in tort. Some wrongs are remedied by a criminal prosecution, some by a statutory forum, some by a writ.

It does not mean a court may ignore limitation or jurisdiction. The maxim operates within the law, not against it.

It does not mean the remedy must be damages. Injunction, restitution, a declaration or a direction may be the appropriate remedy.

It does not answer the question whether a right exists. That is the prior question and the maxim is silent on it.

Quick revision

  1. Ubi jus ibi remedium: where there is a right there is a remedy. Jus is a legal right; remedium is the means of enforcing it.
  2. It supports the torts actionable without proof of damage, and it is the companion of injuria sine damno.
  3. Ashby v. White (1703): damages to an elector wrongfully prevented from voting.
  4. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086: compensation under article 32 for fourteen years of illegal detention, because release alone was no remedy.
  5. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: the maxim invoked by name; compensation against a public authority, recoverable from the erring officers.
  6. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960: public law compensation is distinct from the private law action and is not met by sovereign immunity.
  7. Limits: legal rights only; it creates no rights; it yields to a statutory scheme and to limitation; it has nothing to work on in damnum sine injuria.
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Test yourself

1. Explain the maxim ubi jus ibi remedium and its application in India. The maxim means that where the law confers a right it also provides the means of enforcing it, since a right no court will protect is not a right at all. Jus means a legal right and remedium the means of redress, so the maxim is confined to legal rights and does not extend to moral claims. Its classical application is Ashby v. White, decided in 1703, where an elector wrongly prevented from voting recovered damages although the result was unaffected. Its most important Indian application is constitutional: in Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that its power under article 32 is not confined to ordering release and awarded compensation for fourteen years of illegal detention, saying that otherwise the right would be a paper guarantee. In Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, the Court invoked the maxim by name in holding that a consumer forum may compensate a citizen harassed by a public authority, and that the amount must be recovered from the officers responsible.

2. What are the limitations of the maxim? Four. It applies only to legal rights, so a moral or social grievance is outside it. It does not create rights; it presupposes them and supplies enforcement, so it cannot be used to argue backwards from a harm to a right. It yields to the law itself: where a statute confers a right and prescribes a remedy, that remedy is ordinarily exclusive, and the maxim does not defeat a bar of limitation or a want of jurisdiction. And it has nothing to operate on where no right has been infringed, which is damnum sine injuria, so that a trader ruined by lawful competition gets nothing from it.

3. How does the maxim relate to injuria sine damno? They are two sides of the same proposition. Injuria sine damno says that the violation of a legal right is actionable without proof of loss, because the law presumes damage. Ubi jus ibi remedium explains why that must be so: if proof of loss were required, a right whose violation caused no measurable loss would be unenforceable, and an unenforceable right is not a right. Ashby v. White is the case in which both appear together, and the Supreme Court of India described that decision, in Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, as an application of ubi jus ibi remedium in favour of the elector.

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Chapter Fifteen

Volenti Non Fit Injuria

Syllabus topic 1.4, "Volenti non-fit Injuria, Ubi jus ibi remedium"

In one line

A person who freely agrees to run a risk cannot afterwards complain of the harm that risk causes.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: volenti non fit injuria means that no injury is done to one who consents; where the plaintiff, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, freely and voluntarily agreed to undergo it, he cannot sue for the harm that follows, and the defence is a complete one, but knowledge alone is not consent, the consent must be free and not obtained by fraud or coercion or under legal or economic compulsion, and it is no defence to an act which is itself unlawful, to a rescuer, or where a statute imposes the duty.

The two ingredients

Knowledge of the risk. The plaintiff must have known that the risk existed and understood its nature and extent. A person who does not know what he is agreeing to has not agreed.

Free and voluntary assumption of it. He must have accepted the risk of his own will. The Latin tag for the difference is scienti non fit injuria, sed volenti, which is the answer to the commonest error: knowledge is not the same as consent.

Both are required. A workman who knows the machine is dangerous, and works it because he will be dismissed if he does not, has knowledge without free consent, and the defence fails.

How the consent may be given

Expressly, as where a patient signs a consent form before an operation, or a spectator buys a ticket bearing a condition.

By implication from conduct, as where a player takes the field in a game of cricket and accepts the risks ordinarily incidental to it, or a spectator sits in a stand and accepts the risk of a ball being struck into it.

Implied consent extends only to the ordinary risks of the activity, not to negligence beyond them. A boxer consents to being hit in the ring, not to being hit after the bell.

The limits of the defence

This is where marks are won, because a bare statement of the maxim is worth little.

1. Consent must be free. Consent obtained by fraud, or by coercion, or given under compulsion, is not consent. The employment cases are the standard illustration: a workman does not consent to a danger merely because he continues in a job in which he cannot avoid it.

2. Knowledge is not consent. A person who knows of a danger and has no practical choice but to face it has not accepted the risk.

3. The defence does not apply to a rescuer. A person who is injured while attempting to save life or property endangered by the defendant's negligence has not freely accepted the risk: he acted under the compulsion of a moral or legal duty. This is the rescue rule, and it applies to police officers, doctors and ordinary bystanders alike.

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4. It is no defence to an unlawful act. Consent cannot make lawful what the law forbids.

5. It does not defeat a statutory duty. Where a statute imposes a duty for the protection of a class of persons, a member of that class cannot contract out of it. Sections 146 and 147 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 make third-party insurance compulsory precisely so that the protection cannot be given away, and chapter [Compulsory Third-Party Insurance] works that out.

6. Negligence beyond the risk consented to. A patient who consents to an operation does not consent to it being performed carelessly, and Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, makes the point in terms for a hotel guest.

The case that shows the last limit

Facts. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, decided on 3 January 1997. A German co-pilot staying as a guest at a five star hotel in New Delhi dived from the hotel's three metre spring board into its swimming pool, struck his head on the bottom because the pool was too shallow for that board, and was paralysed. He suffered for thirteen years and died before the suit was decided.

Held. A five star hotel charging a high price owes a correspondingly high degree of care as to the safety of its structure and services. The pool did not meet even the minimum, let alone the preferred, standards of safety, and the spring board should have been removed by 1970 when the standards were revised. The Court held in terms that a general notice that guests use the facilities at their own risk cannot soften the duty, since one who extends an invitation cannot then say that the invitee accepted the risk. The suit was decreed for Rs. 50 lakhs with interest.

Why it matters here. It is the answer to the argument that a notice or a disclaimer amounts to consent. A person who is invited to use a facility consents to its ordinary risks, not to a hidden defect the occupier knows about and does not fix.

A worked example

Girish attends a motor race. He buys a ticket which says on its back that spectators attend at their own risk. Three things happen.

One. A car spins off the track and injures him at a point where cars ordinarily leave the track in that kind of race. The defence succeeds. He knew the risk, and by taking his place he freely accepted the ordinary risks of watching motor racing.

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Two. A car spins off because the organisers had not repaired a barrier they knew was broken. The defence is much weaker. He accepted the ordinary risks of the sport, not a risk created by the organisers' own negligence and hidden from him, which is the reasoning in Klaus Mittelbachert.

Three. Girish runs on to the track to pull an injured driver from a burning car and is himself burned. The defence fails altogether. A rescuer does not freely accept the risk; he responds to a danger the defendant created.

And the ticket? A notice can prove knowledge. It does not by itself prove free consent, and it cannot exclude a duty imposed by statute.

Distinctions that carry marks

Volenti non fit injuriaContributory negligence
What the plaintiff didAgreed to run the riskFailed to take care for his own safety
Effect if establishedA complete defenceReduces the damages in proportion to fault
State of mind neededKnowledge and free consentNeither is required
Who proves itThe defendantThe defendant
Knowledge (scienti)Consent (volenti)
What it showsThe plaintiff knew of the dangerThe plaintiff accepted the risk of it
Enough for the defence?NoYes

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a warning notice is a complete answer. Klaus Mittelbachert holds that a general disclaimer cannot soften the duty owed to an invitee.

It does not mean an employee consents to unsafe work. Continuing in employment under economic compulsion is not free consent.

It does not apply to a rescuer. The rescue rule is settled and it is the exception examiners ask about most.

It does not survive a statutory duty. Compulsory third-party insurance under sections 146 and 147 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 exists so that the protection cannot be waived.

Quick revision

  1. Volenti non fit injuria: no injury is done to one who consents; it is a complete defence.
  2. Two ingredients: knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, and free and voluntary acceptance of it.
  3. Scienti non fit injuria, sed volenti: knowledge is not consent.
  4. Consent may be express or implied from conduct, and extends only to the ordinary risks of the activity.
  5. Limits: consent must be free; no defence to an unlawful act; no defence against a rescuer; no defence to a statutory duty; no defence to negligence beyond the risk accepted.
  6. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201: a general notice that guests use facilities at their own risk does not soften the duty; Rs. 50 lakhs decreed.
  7. Sections 146 and 147 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 make third-party cover compulsory so that it cannot be given away.
  8. Distinguish from contributory negligence: a complete defence against a reduction in damages.
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Test yourself

1. Explain volenti non fit injuria and its limitations. The maxim means that no injury is done to one who consents, so a plaintiff who with full knowledge of a risk freely and voluntarily agreed to run it cannot sue for the harm it causes. Two ingredients are required: knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, and free acceptance of it, since scienti non fit injuria, sed volenti means that knowledge alone is not consent. The consent may be express or implied from conduct, but extends only to the risks ordinarily incidental to the activity. The limits are five. Consent obtained by fraud or given under compulsion, including the economic compulsion of employment, is not free. Consent is no answer to an act that is itself unlawful. A rescuer who is injured saving life or property endangered by the defendant does not consent. A statutory duty cannot be contracted out of, which is why sections 146 and 147 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 make third-party insurance compulsory. And consent does not cover negligence beyond the accepted risk, as Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, holds.

2. Distinguish volenti non fit injuria from contributory negligence. Volenti non fit injuria asserts that the plaintiff agreed to run the risk, and if it is established it is a complete defence: the claim fails altogether. Contributory negligence asserts that the plaintiff failed to take reasonable care of his own safety, and where it is established the damages are reduced in proportion to his share of the fault rather than refused. The states of mind differ: volenti requires both knowledge and free consent, while contributory negligence requires neither, since a plaintiff who never adverted to the danger at all may still have been careless. Both must be pleaded and proved by the defendant.

3. Is a notice saying "enter at your own risk" a complete defence? No. Such a notice may prove that the plaintiff knew of a risk, but knowledge is not consent, and a notice cannot by itself establish that the plaintiff freely accepted a danger created by the defendant's own negligence. In Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, the Delhi High Court held in terms that a general caution notice cannot soften the higher degree of care owed by a five star hotel to its guests, since one who extends an invitation cannot then say the invitee accepted the risk. A notice also cannot exclude a duty imposed by statute for the protection of a class of persons.

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4. Does volenti non fit injuria apply to a rescuer? No. A person who is injured while trying to save life or property endangered by the defendant's negligence has not freely accepted the risk; he acts under the compulsion of a moral or legal duty created by the defendant's own wrongdoing. The rule applies to a professional rescuer such as a police officer or fireman and to an ordinary bystander alike. To hold otherwise would be to make the law discourage rescue, and it would allow a wrongdoer to profit from the fact that somebody tried to undo the danger he created.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Sixteen

Extinguishment and Discharge of Liability in Tort

Syllabus topic 1.5, "Extinguishment of Liability in Tort"; and the second half of 1.6, "General Defenses and Discharge of Torts"

In one line

A tort is discharged when a liability that once existed comes to an end, as against a defence, which is a reason why it never arose.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: liability in tort is extinguished or discharged by the death of a party so far as the action does not survive, by waiver, by accord and satisfaction, by release, by acquiescence, by a judgment recovered, and by the expiry of the period of limitation; a general defence, by contrast, denies that liability ever arose, and the two must not be confused because the burden and the timing of each are different.

Defence against discharge

A defence answers the question "was the defendant ever liable?" Volenti non fit injuria, inevitable accident and statutory authority all say that no wrong was committed at all.

A discharge concedes that liability arose and says that it has since come to an end. Accord and satisfaction, release and limitation all assume a wrong and then extinguish the remedy for it.

The practical difference: a defence is proved from the facts of the incident, a discharge from what happened afterwards.

The seven modes

1. Death of a party. At common law the maxim actio personalis moritur cum persona, a personal action dies with the person, ended the claim on the death of either side. Chapter [Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855] works out how far that is now altered: sections 1A and 2 of the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 give the family and the estate an action where a death is caused by a wrongful act, and section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, in force from 1 April 2022, makes the injured person's own claim survive to his legal representatives whatever the cause of his death. Outside these, a purely personal claim such as defamation still dies with the party.

2. Waiver. Where the same facts give two inconsistent remedies, a plaintiff who elects one may be taken to have abandoned the other. The classic example is a plaintiff whose goods have been wrongfully taken and sold: he may sue in tort for conversion, or he may treat the sale as made on his behalf and sue for the price. He may not do both, and choosing one waives the other.

3. Accord and satisfaction. Accord is the agreement by which the injured person accepts something in place of his right of action. Satisfaction is the actual performance of that agreement. The two together discharge the liability. An accord without satisfaction does not, so a promise to pay that is never kept leaves the original claim alive.

4. Release. A release is a giving up of the right of action by the person entitled to it, without any consideration passing. In English law it required a document under seal; in India a release supported by nothing may still be effective if it amounts to a completed relinquishment, but a release obtained by fraud, coercion or undue influence is no release at all.

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Extinguishment and Discharge of Liability in Tort

5. Acquiescence. Where the person injured stands by, with knowledge of his rights, and allows the other party to act on the assumption that no claim will be made, he may be precluded from suing later. Mere delay short of the limitation period is not acquiescence; there must be conduct from which assent can be inferred.

6. Judgment recovered. Once a court has given judgment on a claim, the same claim cannot be brought again. The Latin tag is transit in rem judicatam, the cause of action passes into the thing adjudged. Two consequences follow: a plaintiff must claim all his damages in one action, and a single wrongful act cannot be split into several suits. Where a single act violates two distinct rights, for example an assault that both injures and defames, separate actions may lie.

7. Limitation. The expiry of the period prescribed by the Limitation Act 1963 bars the suit. Section 3 requires a court to dismiss a suit filed after the period even where limitation is not set up as a defence. Chapter [Limitation in an Action for Tort] works out the periods.

The one mode that extinguishes the RIGHT and not merely the remedy

The rule everywhere else is that limitation bars the remedy and leaves the right alive. Section 27 of the Limitation Act 1963 is the exception, and it is the reason MU's topic is called "extinguishment": at the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of any property, the person's right to that property is itself extinguished.

So a trespasser who is left in adverse possession of land beyond the period does not merely become immune from a suit; the owner's title goes. That is extinguishment in the strict sense, and it is worth knowing that it applies to possession of property and not to a claim for damages.

A worked example

Latha's car is damaged when Naveen reverses into it in 2023. Consider five different endings.

Ending one. Naveen offers Rs. 40,000 and Latha accepts it and is paid. That is accord and satisfaction, and the liability is discharged. If he had promised the money and never paid, there would be accord without satisfaction and Latha could sue on the original claim.

Ending two. Latha writes to Naveen saying she will not pursue the matter. That is a release, and unless it was obtained by fraud or coercion the claim is gone.

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Extinguishment and Discharge of Liability in Tort

Ending three. Naveen sells the wreck of Latha's car and keeps the money. Latha sues him for the price rather than for the damage. She has waived the tort and elected the other remedy.

Ending four. Latha sues for the cost of repairs, wins, and then discovers she also had a claim for loss of use during the repairs. She cannot bring a second suit: the cause of action has passed into the judgment.

Ending five. Latha does nothing until 2029. Her suit is barred by limitation, and section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963 obliges the court to dismiss it even if Naveen never raises the point.

Distinctions that carry marks

DefenceDischarge
What it assertsLiability never aroseLiability arose and has ended
When the facts occurAt the time of the actAfter the act
ExamplesVolenti, inevitable accident, act of God, statutory authorityAccord and satisfaction, release, waiver, judgment, limitation
Effect on the wrongThere was no wrongThere was a wrong, now unenforceable
Accord and satisfactionRelease
ConsiderationSomething is given and accepted in place of the claimNothing need pass
What dischargesThe satisfaction, not the accord aloneThe act of relinquishment
If not performedThe original claim revivesNot applicable

What it does NOT mean

Limitation does not usually destroy the right. It bars the remedy. Section 27 of the Limitation Act 1963 is the exception, and it concerns suits for possession of property.

Delay is not acquiescence. Acquiescence needs knowledge of the right and conduct from which assent can be inferred.

An unpaid promise is not satisfaction. Accord without satisfaction leaves the claim alive.

Death does not discharge everything. The Fatal Accidents Act 1855 and section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 have cut the old maxim down a long way.

Quick revision

  1. A defence denies that liability arose; a discharge ends a liability that did.
  2. Seven modes: death of a party, waiver, accord and satisfaction, release, acquiescence, judgment recovered, limitation.
  3. Actio personalis moritur cum persona is cut down by sections 1A and 2 of the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 and by section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988.
  4. Accord is the agreement, satisfaction is its performance; accord alone discharges nothing.
  5. Waiver is an election between inconsistent remedies.
  6. Transit in rem judicatam: a plaintiff must claim all his damages in one suit.
  7. Section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963 obliges a court to dismiss a time-barred suit even if the defence is not pleaded.
  8. Section 27 of that Act extinguishes the right itself where the suit is for possession of property.
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Extinguishment and Discharge of Liability in Tort

Test yourself

1. How is liability in tort extinguished or discharged? By seven modes. The death of a party, so far as the action does not survive, though the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 and, for motor accidents, section 166(5) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 have cut this down. Waiver, where a plaintiff having two inconsistent remedies elects one and abandons the other. Accord and satisfaction, where he agrees to accept something in place of his right of action and that agreement is performed; accord without satisfaction discharges nothing. Release, a voluntary relinquishment of the right of action, which is ineffective if obtained by fraud or coercion. Acquiescence, where with knowledge of his rights he stands by and allows the other party to act on the footing that no claim will be made. Judgment recovered, since the cause of action passes into the judgment and cannot be sued on again. And limitation, since section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963 obliges a court to dismiss a suit brought after the prescribed period.

2. Distinguish a general defence from a discharge of tort. A general defence denies that liability ever arose: volenti non fit injuria, inevitable accident, act of God and statutory authority all say that what the defendant did was not a wrong at all, and the facts that establish them belong to the incident itself. A discharge admits that liability arose and asserts that it has since come to an end, and the facts that establish it are later than the wrong: a payment accepted, a release given, a judgment obtained, a period allowed to expire. The distinction decides how the case is pleaded and proved, and it also decides the order in which a court takes the questions, since a discharge is irrelevant unless liability is first established.

3. Explain accord and satisfaction with an illustration. Accord is the agreement by which the person wronged accepts something in substitution for his right of action; satisfaction is the actual performance of that agreement. Both are needed. If a car owner whose vehicle has been damaged agrees to take Rs. 40,000 in full settlement and the money is paid, the liability is discharged and no suit lies. If the agreement is made but the money is never paid, there is accord without satisfaction, the discharge fails and the original claim survives, so the owner may sue on the tort. A satisfaction accepted from one of several joint tortfeasors ordinarily discharges the others as well, because the plaintiff is entitled to one satisfaction only.

4. Does limitation destroy the right or only the remedy? As a rule it bars the remedy and leaves the right intact, so a time-barred debt may still be paid voluntarily and a time-barred claim may be set up as a defence in some circumstances. Section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963 gives the bar teeth by requiring a court to dismiss a suit filed after the prescribed period even where limitation is not pleaded. The exception is section 27, which provides that at the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of property, the right to the property is itself extinguished. That is why the syllabus calls this topic extinguishment: for possession, the right and not merely the remedy is lost.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Seventeen

Limitation in an Action for Tort

Syllabus topic 1.5, "Extinguishment of Liability in Tort"

In one line

A claim in tort must be brought within the period the Limitation Act 1963 fixes for that particular wrong, and most of those periods are one year.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963 requires a court to dismiss a suit instituted after the prescribed period even where limitation is not set up as a defence; the periods for the various torts are in Part VII of the Schedule, articles 72 to 91, and are one, two or three years according to the wrong; time ordinarily runs from the act or omission, section 22 gives a fresh period at every moment of a continuing tort, section 23 postpones the start where the wrong is not actionable without special damage, and section 27 extinguishes the right itself where the suit is for possession of property.

Why limitation exists

Three reasons, and an examiner likes to see them.

Evidence decays. Witnesses die and memories fail, and a claim tried twenty years late is not tried fairly.

A defendant is entitled to certainty. A person cannot arrange his affairs if a claim may be made against him at any time forever.

The diligent are preferred. The maxim is vigilantibus, non dormientibus, jura subveniunt, the law helps those who are vigilant and not those who sleep on their rights.

The rule that catches students out

Section 3 provides that every suit instituted after the prescribed period shall be dismissed although limitation has not been set up as a defence. Limitation is therefore not merely a plea for the defendant to take; it is a duty on the court. A defendant who forgets to plead it does not thereby lose it.

Section 4 saves a plaintiff whose period expires on a day the court is closed: the suit may be instituted on the day the court reopens. Section 5 allows an appeal or an application, not a suit, to be admitted after the period where the applicant satisfies the court that he had sufficient cause for not preferring it in time.

The tort articles, as they stand in the Schedule

Part VII of the Schedule is headed "Suits relating to tort", and these are its articles.

ArticleSuitPeriodTime runs from
72Compensation for an act done or omitted in pursuance of an enactmentOne yearWhen the act or omission takes place
73Compensation for false imprisonmentOne yearWhen the imprisonment ends
74Compensation for malicious prosecutionOne yearWhen the plaintiff is acquitted or the prosecution otherwise terminated
75Compensation for libelOne yearWhen the libel is published
76Compensation for slanderOne yearWhen the words are spoken, or, if not actionable in themselves, when the special damage results
77Compensation for loss of service by seduction of the plaintiff's servant or daughterOne yearWhen the loss occurs
78Compensation for inducing a person to break a contract with the plaintiffOne yearThe date of the breach
79Compensation for an illegal, irregular or excessive distressOne yearThe date of the distress
80Compensation for wrongful seizure of movable property under legal processOne yearThe date of the seizure
81By representatives under the Legal Representatives' Suits Act 1855One yearThe date of the death of the person wronged
82By representatives under the Fatal Accidents Act 1855Two yearsThe date of the death of the person killed
83Under the Legal Representatives' Suits Act 1855 against a representativeTwo yearsWhen the wrong is done
84Against one who perverts property he may use for specific purposesTwo yearsWhen the perversion first becomes known to the person injured
85Compensation for obstructing a way or a water-courseThree yearsThe date of the obstruction
86Compensation for diverting a water-courseThree yearsThe date of the diversion
87Compensation for trespass upon immovable propertyThree yearsThe date of the trespass
88Compensation for infringing copyright or any other exclusive privilegeThree yearsThe date of the infringement
89To restrain wasteThree yearsWhen the waste begins
90Compensation for injury caused by an injunction wrongfully obtainedThree yearsWhen the injunction ceases
91Compensation for wrongfully taking, detaining or injuring specific movable propertyThree yearsWhen the person entitled first learns in whose possession it is, or when the property is taken or injured
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Read the pattern rather than memorising the table. The personal torts get one year: false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, libel, slander. Wrongs to property get three years. Claims through a dead person get two.

The three sections that move the starting point

Section 22, continuing torts. In the case of a continuing tort a fresh period of limitation begins at every moment during which the tort continues. A continuing trespass or a continuing nuisance therefore never becomes wholly time barred while it lasts, though damages will be confined to the period within limitation.

Section 23, wrongs not actionable without special damage. Where an act gives no cause of action unless some specific injury results, the period is computed from the time the injury results, not from the act. This matters for slander that is not actionable in itself and for negligence where the damage appears late.

Section 17, fraud or mistake. Where the suit is based on the defendant's fraud, or the right of action is concealed by fraud, or relief is claimed from the consequences of a mistake, the period does not begin until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud or mistake or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.

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The two special statutory periods

A motor accident claim: six months. Section 166(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, inserted by the amendment of 2019 and brought into force on 1 April 2022, provides that no application for compensation shall be entertained unless it is made within six months of the occurrence of the accident. The history matters and is examinable: the Act originally allowed six months with power to condone delay, that limitation was removed altogether in 1994, and for twenty-eight years a claim could be filed at any time. The six month limit is back, and chapter [The Application for Compensation] works out what it means in practice.

A consumer complaint: two years. Section 69(1) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 provides that no Commission shall admit a complaint unless it is filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action arose. Section 69(2) allows a complaint to be entertained after that period if the complainant satisfies the Commission that he had sufficient cause for not filing in time, provided the Commission records its reasons for condoning the delay.

The rule that goes further than barring the suit

Section 27 provides that at the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of any property, the right to that property is extinguished. Everywhere else limitation bars the remedy; here it destroys the right. This is why MU's topic is called extinguishment of liability, and the point is worth a sentence in any answer on the subject.

A worked example

Prakash is arrested without warrant on 1 March 2024 and released on 10 March 2024. On 12 March 2024 a newspaper prints that he is a smuggler. He is prosecuted on the newspaper's information and is acquitted on 5 December 2025. A neighbour has been dumping rubble on his land since January 2024 and continues to do so.

False imprisonment. Article 73: one year from the end of the imprisonment, so from 10 March 2024, expiring 10 March 2025.

Libel. Article 75: one year from publication, so from 12 March 2024.

Malicious prosecution. Article 74: one year from the acquittal, so from 5 December 2025, expiring 5 December 2026. Note that this claim could not even have been brought earlier, because a favourable termination is an ingredient of the tort.

Trespass to land. Article 87 gives three years from the date of the trespass, but section 22 makes this a continuing tort, so a fresh period runs every day the rubble stays.

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Limitation in an Action for Tort

And if he had been injured by a lorry on 1 March 2024, section 166(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 would require his claim petition within six months, that is by 1 September 2024.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a court may ignore limitation because the claim is just. Section 3 makes dismissal mandatory.

It does not mean section 5 can extend the period for a suit. Section 5 applies to appeals and applications, not to suits.

It does not mean time always runs from the wrongful act. Articles 73, 74 and 76, and sections 17, 22 and 23, all move the starting point.

It does not mean the twelve month rule under the Fatal Accidents Act survives. Those words were omitted in 1871; article 82 gives two years from the date of death.

Quick revision

  1. Section 3: a suit filed after the prescribed period must be dismissed even if limitation is not pleaded.
  2. Sections 4 and 5: reopening after a court holiday; sufficient cause for appeals and applications, not for suits.
  3. One year: false imprisonment (73), malicious prosecution (74), libel (75), slander (76), inducing breach (78), seizure and distress (79 and 80).
  4. Two years: claims by representatives, including the Fatal Accidents Act claim (82).
  5. Three years: obstruction and diversion of a watercourse (85 and 86), trespass to immovable property (87), infringement of copyright (88), waste (89), wrongful injunction (90), movable property (91).
  6. Section 22: a fresh period at every moment of a continuing tort.
  7. Section 23: time runs from the injury where the wrong is not actionable without special damage.
  8. Section 17: fraud or mistake postpones the start until discovery.
  9. Section 166(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988: six months, in force from 1 April 2022.
  10. Section 69 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019: two years, with delay condonable for sufficient cause recorded in writing.
  11. Section 27: the right to property, not merely the remedy, is extinguished.

Test yourself

1. State the periods of limitation for actions in tort under the Limitation Act 1963. The periods are in Part VII of the Schedule. Articles 72 to 81 prescribe one year: for an act done in pursuance of an enactment, for false imprisonment running from the end of the imprisonment, for malicious prosecution running from the acquittal or other termination, for libel from publication, for slander from the speaking of the words or, where they are not actionable in themselves, from the resulting special damage, for loss of service by seduction, for inducing a breach of contract, for illegal distress and for wrongful seizure under legal process. Articles 82 to 84 prescribe two years, including the claim by representatives under the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 from the date of the death. Articles 85 to 91 prescribe three years, covering obstruction and diversion of a watercourse, trespass to immovable property, infringement of copyright, waste, injury by a wrongful injunction and wrongs to movable property.

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2. From what point does time run in an action for malicious prosecution, and why? From the date on which the plaintiff is acquitted or the prosecution is otherwise terminated in his favour, under article 74. The reason is that a favourable termination of the prosecution is an ingredient of the tort itself, so no cause of action exists until it happens. Running time from the launching of the prosecution would bar many claims before they arose. The same logic explains article 73, which runs from the end of the imprisonment rather than from the arrest.

3. What is the effect of section 3 of the Limitation Act 1963? It makes limitation a matter for the court and not merely a plea for the defendant. Every suit instituted, appeal preferred and application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence. A defendant who forgets to plead the point therefore does not lose it, and a court which notices that a suit is out of time must dismiss it even if both sides are content to proceed. Section 4 relieves a plaintiff whose period ends on a day the court is closed, and section 5 permits an appeal or application, but not a suit, to be admitted late for sufficient cause.

4. What are the special limitation periods for a motor accident claim and a consumer complaint? For a motor accident claim, section 166(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 provides that no application for compensation shall be entertained unless it is made within six months of the occurrence of the accident. That sub-section was inserted by the amendment of 2019 and came into force on 1 April 2022; between 1994 and that date there was no period of limitation at all, so a claim could be filed at any time. For a consumer complaint, section 69(1) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 requires the complaint to be filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action arose, and section 69(2) allows a Commission to entertain it later if the complainant shows sufficient cause and the Commission records its reasons for condoning the delay.

5. Distinguish barring the remedy from extinguishing the right. The general rule of the Limitation Act 1963 is that the expiry of the period bars the remedy and leaves the right alive, which is why a time-barred debt may be paid voluntarily and why the right may still support a defence. Section 27 is the exception: at the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of any property, the right to that property is extinguished. So an owner who allows the period for recovering possession to run out loses his title, not merely his suit, which is the sense in which liability is truly extinguished rather than merely unenforceable.

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Chapter Eighteen

General Defences I

Syllabus topic 1.6, "General Defenses and Discharge of Torts"

In one line

A general defence is a reason why the defendant is not liable even though the plaintiff has proved everything his tort requires.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the general defences available in an action for tort are volenti non fit injuria, the plaintiff being himself the wrongdoer, inevitable accident, act of God, private defence, necessity, mistake, statutory authority, judicial and quasi-judicial acts, and parental and quasi-parental authority; each is pleaded and proved by the defendant, and each denies liability rather than merely reducing damages.

What makes a defence "general"

A specific defence belongs to one tort: truth is a defence to defamation and to nothing else; prescription is a defence to nuisance and to nothing else.

A general defence may be raised in an action for any tort, subject to its own conditions. That is why they are taught together in Module I rather than under each wrong.

The burden of pleading and proving a general defence lies on the defendant. The plaintiff proves his tort; the defendant then answers it.

1. Volenti non fit injuria

Taught in full in chapter [Volenti Non Fit Injuria]. In summary: knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, plus free and voluntary acceptance of it, is a complete defence; knowledge alone is not; and the defence does not run against a rescuer, against an unlawful act, or against a statutory duty.

2. The plaintiff is himself the wrongdoer

The old maxim is ex turpi causa non oritur actio, no action arises from a base cause. A plaintiff cannot found a claim on his own illegal act.

The rule is narrower than it looks and a student who states it broadly is wrong. The question is not whether the plaintiff was doing something unlawful when he was hurt, but whether his claim requires him to rely on his own illegality. A trespasser who is shot by the occupier recovers, because his trespass does not license the shooting; a burglar injured by a defective staircase may fail, because the only reason he was on the stairs was the burglary.

So the working test is connection, not coincidence. The unlawful act must be so bound up with the claim that the court cannot give relief without appearing to reward it.

3. Inevitable accident

An inevitable accident is one which could not have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill by the defendant. It is not an accident that nobody could conceivably have avoided; it is one that this defendant, taking reasonable care, could not have prevented.

The defence is really a denial of negligence, and its practical importance has shrunk for two reasons. Where liability depends on fault, the plaintiff must prove fault anyway, so the defence adds little. And where liability is strict or absolute, inevitability is no answer at all: the whole point of the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher is that the defendant is liable although he was careful, and M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, removed even the exceptions for hazardous enterprises.

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4. Act of God

An act of God, or vis major, is an operation of natural forces so unexpected that no human foresight or skill could reasonably be expected to anticipate it. Two elements are required: the event must be due to natural causes without human intervention, and it must be so extraordinary that it could not reasonably have been foreseen and guarded against.

Facts. Ramalinga Nadar v. Narayana Reddiar, AIR 1971 Ker 197, decided on 10 December 1970. The plaintiff booked eighteen bags of green gram with a lorry service for carriage from Kottar to Quilon. On the way the lorry was waylaid by a procession taken out as part of a food agitation and the mob robbed the goods. There was no negligence on the carrier's part and he could not have prevented the loss.

Held. The carrier was liable. A common carrier is not a mere bailee but an insurer of the goods, answerable for their loss even without negligence, the only exceptions being act of God and the King's enemies. The destructive acts of an unruly mob are not an act of God: the expression is confined to inevitable accidents occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man, and it would be incongruous to apply it to an accident originating wholly or partly in human agency.

Why it matters here. It fixes the boundary of the defence precisely where students blur it. Riots, mobs, wars and sabotage are not acts of God however unforeseeable they are, because a human being caused them. Storm, flood, earthquake, lightning and extraordinary rainfall are the material of the defence.

And even a natural event is not an act of God if it was foreseeable. Ordinary monsoon rain in Mumbai is not an act of God; a cloudburst without precedent may be.

A worked example

A wall of Rekha's godown collapses in a storm and damages Suresh's shop next door.

Ask first what the storm was. If it was rainfall of an intensity never before recorded in that district, the defence of act of God is open, because the cause was purely natural and no reasonable foresight would have provided against it.

Ask next what the wall was. If the wall was already cracked and Rekha knew it, the storm is not the cause the law looks at: a wall that would have stood had it been maintained falls because it was not maintained, and the defence fails. This is where Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, bites, because a structure eighty years old, never tested, that falls is evidence of negligence in itself.

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Change the cause. If the wall was pulled down by a mob during a riot, there is no act of God at all, on the reasoning of Ramalinga Nadar: the cause was human. Rekha may still say the collapse was an inevitable accident so far as she is concerned, and whether that succeeds depends on whether ordinary care on her part could have prevented it.

Distinctions that carry marks

Inevitable accidentAct of God
CauseMay be human or naturalNatural forces only, without human agency
TestCould not be avoided by ordinary care, caution and skillSo extraordinary that no reasonable foresight could provide against it
Available against strict liability?NoYes, it is one of the recognised exceptions to Rylands v. Fletcher
Available against absolute liability?NoNo

What it does NOT mean

Act of God does not mean any disaster. A riot, a war or an act of sabotage is not an act of God, because a human being caused it, as Ramalinga Nadar holds.

Inevitable accident does not mean unavoidable by anybody. It means unavoidable by this defendant exercising ordinary care.

Neither defence answers absolute liability. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, holds that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity cannot rely on any of the exceptions available under Rylands v. Fletcher.

"The plaintiff was doing something illegal" is not by itself a defence. The illegality must be so connected with the claim that relief cannot be given without relying on it.

Quick revision

  1. A general defence may be raised in any tort; the defendant pleads and proves it.
  2. Volenti non fit injuria: knowledge plus free consent; complete defence; not against a rescuer or a statutory duty.
  3. Ex turpi causa non oritur actio: the plaintiff's own illegality defeats him only where the claim depends on it.
  4. Inevitable accident: not avoidable by ordinary care, caution and skill; it is really a denial of negligence and is no answer to strict or absolute liability.
  5. Act of God: natural forces alone, and so extraordinary that no reasonable foresight could provide against it.
  6. Ramalinga Nadar v. Narayana Reddiar, AIR 1971 Ker 197: a mob is not an act of God; a common carrier is an insurer of the goods.
  7. Act of God is an exception to strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher but not to absolute liability under M.C. Mehta.
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Test yourself

1. What are the general defences in tort? They are ten: volenti non fit injuria, the plaintiff being himself a wrongdoer, inevitable accident, act of God, private defence, necessity, mistake, statutory authority, judicial and quasi-judicial acts, and parental or quasi-parental authority. Each may be raised in an action for any tort, unlike a specific defence such as truth in defamation or prescription in nuisance, which belongs to a single wrong. The burden of pleading and proving a general defence lies on the defendant, and each of them denies liability altogether rather than merely reducing the damages, which is what distinguishes them from contributory negligence.

2. Explain the defence of act of God with a decided case. An act of God, or vis major, is an operation of natural forces so unexpected that no human foresight or skill could reasonably be expected to anticipate it. Two things are required: the cause must be natural and unconnected with human agency, and the event must be so extraordinary that it could not reasonably have been foreseen and provided against. In Ramalinga Nadar v. Narayana Reddiar, AIR 1971 Ker 197, goods entrusted to a lorry service were robbed by an unruly mob during a food agitation, and the carrier pleaded that the loss was beyond his control. The Kerala High Court held him liable, since a common carrier is an insurer of the goods and only act of God and the King's enemies excuse him, and held that the acts of a mob are not an act of God because the expression covers only inevitable accidents caused by the elementary forces of nature without the agency of man.

3. Distinguish inevitable accident from act of God. Both assert that the harm could not have been prevented, but they differ in cause and in strictness. An inevitable accident may have a human or a natural cause, and the test is whether the defendant, using ordinary care, caution and skill, could have avoided it; it is in substance a denial of negligence. An act of God must be caused by natural forces alone without human intervention, and must be so extraordinary that no reasonable foresight could have provided against it. The practical difference appears in strict liability: act of God is one of the recognised exceptions to the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, while inevitable accident is no answer to it at all, and neither answers absolute liability under M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086.

4. "A plaintiff who was breaking the law when he was injured cannot recover." Comment. The statement is too wide. The maxim ex turpi causa non oritur actio prevents a plaintiff from founding a claim on his own illegal act, but the test is whether the claim depends on the illegality, not whether the plaintiff happened to be acting unlawfully at the time. A trespasser who is deliberately shot by an occupier recovers, because his trespass gives no licence to shoot him; a burglar injured by a defective staircase inside the house he has broken into may fail, because his presence there rests entirely on the burglary. The court asks whether relief can be given without appearing to reward the illegality.

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Chapter Nineteen

General Defences II

Syllabus topic 1.6, "General Defenses and Discharge of Torts"

In one line

These are the defences that justify the act: the defendant did it in self-defence, out of necessity, under a mistake, under statutory authority, in a judicial capacity, or in the exercise of parental authority.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: private defence permits reasonable and proportionate force to protect person or property; necessity permits an act done to prevent a greater harm; mistake is generally no defence but excuses in the few torts requiring a particular state of mind; statutory authority is a complete answer to what the legislature has authorised, including its necessary consequences, if the act is done without negligence; a judge is protected for acts done in the discharge of judicial duty; and a parent or a person standing in the place of a parent may do what is reasonably necessary for the child.

1. Private defence

Every person may use reasonable force to defend his own body, the body of another, and property in his possession, against an unlawful attack. The right is one the law of torts shares with the criminal law: sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 declare that nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence and set out the extent of that right, and the same standards are used to test the defence in a civil action.

The force must be necessary. If the attack can be avoided without force, force is not necessary.

The force must be proportionate. A person may repel a slap with a push, not with a knife, and the law measures the response against the threat and not against the outcome.

It protects property as well as the person. But the value of property never justifies force calculated to cause death.

It may be used for another person. A stranger may intervene to defend somebody being attacked.

2. Necessity

An act which would otherwise be a tort is excused where it was done to prevent a greater harm. The classical examples are pulling down a house to stop a fire spreading, throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, and a surgeon operating on an unconscious patient to save life.

Three conditions matter. The harm threatened must be greater than the harm done. The defendant must act reasonably in the circumstances as they appeared to him. And necessity is no defence where the defendant himself created the emergency.

Necessity is not the same as private defence. Private defence is directed against a wrongdoer; necessity is usually directed against an innocent person or his property, which is why the law confines it narrowly.

The maxim the examiner asks for here is salus populi suprema lex, the welfare of the people is the supreme law. It is the principle on which necessity rests: an interference with one person's rights is justified where it was the only way to avert a greater harm to the public or to others. A second maxim, necessitas inducit privilegium quoad jura privata, necessity confers a privilege as against private rights, says the same thing of private necessity.

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3. Mistake

The general rule is that mistake is no defence in tort, whether the mistake is of fact or of law. A person who takes another's umbrella honestly believing it to be his own has still committed a trespass to goods, and a person who enters the wrong plot honestly believing it to be his own has still trespassed.

The exceptions are the torts in which a particular state of mind is an ingredient.

Malicious prosecution requires the absence of reasonable and probable cause, so a prosecution launched on an honest and reasonable mistake fails at that element.

Deceit requires a false statement made knowingly, or without belief in its truth, or recklessly; an honest belief in the truth of the statement is therefore a complete answer.

Qualified privilege in defamation is not lost by an honest mistake, because what destroys it is malice in fact.

4. Statutory authority

Where the legislature authorises an act, the doing of that act is not a tort, and the person injured has such compensation as the statute provides and no more. The authority extends to the necessary consequences of what is authorised.

Absolute and conditional authority. Where a statute authorises a thing to be done absolutely, no action lies even for the inevitable harm it causes. Where it authorises a thing conditionally, that is, only if it can be done without causing harm, the person doing it must so conduct himself as to avoid the harm.

Negligence is not authorised. A statute that permits a railway to run trains does not permit it to run them carelessly, and the defence fails where the harm was caused not by the authorised act but by the negligent way it was done.

And a statutory power is not always a statutory duty. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, decided on 17 January 1997, is the Indian authority.

Facts. A pedestrian was killed when a roadside tree maintained by the Municipal Corporation fell on him. The trial court and the High Court held the Corporation liable, reasoning that its statutory power to plant and maintain roadside trees carried a corresponding absolute duty to keep them safe, so the claimants need not prove why the tree fell.

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General Defences II

Held. The appeal was allowed and the decrees were set aside. A duty of care must be established before liability in negligence can arise, and a duty is not fastened on a public authority merely because it has a statutory power. The fall of the tree was not reasonably foreseeable by the Corporation, the damage was too remote, and no common law duty of the kind alleged arose. Because the claimants were poor and the money had probably been spent, the Court directed that the Rs. 45,000 already paid should not be recovered from them.

Why it matters here. It separates power from duty, which is the point at which most answers on statutory authority go wrong, and it should be read against Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, where a public body was held liable for a structure it had never inspected.

5. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts

A judge is not liable in tort for anything done in the discharge of judicial duty. The protection now comes from section 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act 1985, which provides that no court shall entertain or continue any civil or criminal proceeding against a person who is or was a Judge for any act, thing or word committed, done or spoken when acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official or judicial duty.

The Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850, which most books on this syllabus still cite, was repealed by the Repealing and Amending Act 2023 with effect from 17 December 2023. Chapter [Who May Not Be Sued] carries the detail.

The protection extends to persons exercising quasi-judicial functions, that is, functions of deciding between parties after hearing them, and it exists so that a decision is taken on the law and not out of fear of the loser. Article 361 of the Constitution gives a separate and wider protection to the President and the Governors.

6. Parental and quasi-parental authority

A parent, and a person standing in the place of a parent such as a schoolteacher, may do what is reasonably necessary for the correction, control and welfare of a child, and what would otherwise be a trespass to the person is not actionable. The authority is limited by reasonableness and by the purpose: it justifies restraint and moderate correction for the child's benefit, and never cruelty. What is reasonable has narrowed a great deal, and statutes protecting children now confine it much further than the old cases did.

A worked example

A municipality is authorised by statute to lay a water main along a street. While the work is going on:

One. The vibration of the machinery cracks a shopkeeper's wall. If the cracking is an inevitable consequence of laying a main by any reasonable method, statutory authority is a defence and the shopkeeper's remedy, if any, is the compensation the statute provides.

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Two. The contractor leaves an unlit trench across the footpath at night and a passer-by falls in. Statutory authority is no defence: the statute authorised the main, not the negligence.

Three. A workman pushes away a man who is swinging a rod at him, and the man falls and is hurt. Private defence answers the claim if the force used was necessary and proportionate.

Four. The workmen break down the door of an empty house to stop a fire spreading from the trench. Necessity answers the claim, because the harm prevented was greater than the harm done and they acted reasonably.

What it does NOT mean

Statutory authority does not authorise negligence. It covers the act and its necessary consequences, not a careless way of doing it.

A statutory power is not a statutory duty. Rajkot Municipal Corporation holds that a duty of care must be established independently.

Mistake is not generally a defence. It excuses only where the tort itself requires a state of mind that the mistake negatives.

Private defence is not revenge. Force used after the danger has passed is not defensive and is itself a tort.

Quick revision

  1. Private defence: reasonable and proportionate force for person or property; sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 state the same right in the penal law.
  2. Necessity: a lesser harm to prevent a greater; usually against an innocent person; no defence if the defendant created the emergency.
  3. Mistake: generally no defence; excuses in malicious prosecution and deceit, where the required state of mind is absent.
  4. Statutory authority: covers the authorised act and its necessary consequences; absolute authority excuses inevitable harm, conditional authority does not; negligence is never authorised.
  5. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552: a statutory power does not by itself create a duty of care; the appeal was allowed.
  6. Judicial acts: section 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act 1985; the Judicial Officers Protection Act 1850 was repealed in 2023; article 361 protects the President and Governors.
  7. Parental and quasi-parental authority: reasonable correction and control for the child's welfare only.

Test yourself

1. Explain statutory authority as a defence in tort. Where the legislature authorises an act, doing that act is not a tort, and the injured person has only such compensation as the statute gives. The authority extends to the necessary consequences of what was authorised, so harm that cannot be avoided if the authorised thing is done at all is not actionable. The distinction between absolute and conditional authority matters: where the statute authorises the act absolutely, inevitable harm is excused; where it authorises it only if it can be done without injury, the actor must so conduct himself as to avoid injury. Negligence is never authorised, so the defence fails where the harm flowed from a careless manner of doing the authorised act. And a statutory power is not a statutory duty: in Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, the Supreme Court set aside decrees against a corporation for a falling roadside tree, holding that a duty of care must be established and is not created merely by the existence of a power.

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2. Is mistake a defence in tort? As a general rule it is not, whether the mistake is of fact or of law. A person who honestly believes goods to be his own still commits trespass to goods by taking them, and one who honestly believes land to be his own still trespasses by entering it, because those torts require only an intentional act and not a guilty mind. Mistake operates only where the tort itself requires a particular state of mind which the mistake negatives. In malicious prosecution the plaintiff must prove the absence of reasonable and probable cause, so a prosecution launched on an honest and reasonable mistake is not actionable. In deceit the statement must be made knowingly, or without belief in its truth, or recklessly, so honest belief is a complete answer. And qualified privilege in defamation survives an honest mistake, since only malice in fact destroys it.

3. What is the extent of the right of private defence in tort? A person may use force to defend his own body, another's body, and property in his possession against an unlawful attack, and the same right is declared for the criminal law by sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. The force must be necessary, so that if the harm can be avoided without force none may be used, and it must be proportionate to the threat, judged by what the defender reasonably apprehended rather than by the outcome. Property may be defended, but not by force intended to cause death. The right ends when the danger ends: force used afterwards is retaliation and is itself a tort.

4. Explain necessity, and distinguish it from private defence. Necessity excuses an act that would otherwise be a tort where it was done to prevent a greater harm, as where a house is pulled down to stop a fire spreading, cargo is jettisoned to save a ship, or a surgeon operates on an unconscious patient to save life. The harm prevented must be greater than the harm caused, the defendant must have acted reasonably on the facts as they appeared, and the defence is not open to a person who created the emergency himself. It differs from private defence in the person against whom it operates: private defence is directed against a wrongdoer and answers his own attack, while necessity is usually exercised against an innocent person or his property, which is why the courts confine it narrowly.

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Module II

Torts against person, property, Freedom &Reputation

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Chapter Twenty

Trespass to the Person

Syllabus topic 2.1, "Trespass to Person: Assault, Battery, Mayhem, False imprisonment."

In one line

Trespass to the person is the group of torts that protect the body and personal liberty against direct interference: battery, assault, mayhem and false imprisonment.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: trespass to the person consists of any direct and intentional interference with the body or the liberty of another without lawful justification; it comprises battery, which is the actual application of force, assault, which is putting another in reasonable apprehension of immediate force, mayhem, which is an aggravated battery depriving a person of a member useful in fighting, and false imprisonment, which is total restraint of liberty; each is actionable per se, that is, without proof of damage, and each is also an offence under the penal law.

The three features they share

1. The interference must be DIRECT. This is what separates a trespass from an action on the case, and from negligence. Throwing a stone at a person is a battery, because the force is applied by the act itself. Leaving a stone on a dark path so that somebody trips over it is not a battery; it may be negligence. The old illustration is a log thrown on to a highway: it is trespass if it hits somebody as it falls, and a nuisance or negligence if somebody stumbles over it afterwards.

2. They are actionable per se. The plaintiff need not prove that he suffered any loss. This is injuria sine damno, and chapter [Injuria Sine Damno] explains why the law is like that. A man detained for four days in comfort has been falsely imprisoned as surely as one detained in a cell.

3. The act must be intentional or negligent, and voluntary. A person who is pushed into another has not committed a battery; the person who pushed him has. An act done in a fit or while asleep is not voluntary and is not a trespass.

The vocabulary

Force, in the law of battery, does not mean violence. The least touching of another in anger, or without consent and without lawful justification, is enough.

Actionable per se means actionable in itself, without proof of damage.

Direct means that the injury follows immediately from the act, rather than as a further consequence of it.

Consequential injury is harm that follows a wrongful act at one remove, and is the province of negligence and of the action on the case.

Where each of the four fits

TortThe interest protectedThe essenceChapter
BatteryBodily integrityForce actually applied[Battery]
AssaultFreedom from fear of forceReasonable apprehension of immediate force[Assault]
MayhemBodily integrity, aggravatedDeprivation of a member useful in fighting[Mayhem]
False imprisonmentPersonal libertyTotal restraint without lawful justification[False Imprisonment]
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Assault and battery are constantly confused, and in ordinary speech "assault" is used for both. In law an assault may occur without any touching at all, and a battery may occur without any prior assault, as where a man is struck from behind and never saw it coming.

The same conduct is also a crime

The penal law protects the same interests, and the current statute is the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, in force since 1 July 2024.

Section 130 defines assault and section 129 defines criminal force; section 131 provides that whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any person otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation given by that person is punishable.

Section 127 deals with wrongful confinement, which is the criminal counterpart of false imprisonment.

The two proceedings are independent, as chapter [Tort Distinguished from Crime] explains: the civil action compensates the person restrained, the prosecution punishes.

The constitutional dimension in India

Unlawful arrest and detention in India are not only torts. They violate article 21, which protects life and personal liberty, and article 22, which requires an arrested person to be produced before a magistrate within twenty-four hours. The consequence is that a person unlawfully detained has two routes: a suit for false imprisonment, and a petition under article 32 or 226 for compensation.

Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, and Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, are the leading examples, and both are worked in chapter [False Imprisonment] and chapter [Constitutional Tort].

A worked example

At a crowded railway platform, five things happen to Nandini in one minute.

One. A man raises his fist at her from two feet away and she steps back in fear. That is an assault: reasonable apprehension of immediate force, with no touching.

Two. He then grabs her wrist. That is a battery: force actually applied without consent or justification.

Three. In the struggle he tears her earlobe permanently. Whether that is mayhem depends on the old test of a member useful in fighting, which chapter [Mayhem] examines; it is certainly an aggravated battery.

Four. A guard, believing her to be the aggressor, locks her in the station office for an hour. That is false imprisonment unless the guard can justify the detention in law.

Five. A porter, hurrying past with a trolley, runs over her foot without seeing her. That is not a trespass at all, because the interference was not intentional; it is negligence, and she must prove a duty, a breach and damage.

That fifth point is the one examiners test, because it is where the family ends.

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What it does NOT mean

It does not require injury. All four are actionable per se.

It does not require anger or hostility in every case. An unwanted touching without consent may be a battery even where the toucher meant to be friendly, though the everyday jostling of ordinary life is not actionable.

It does not cover indirect harm. Directness is the boundary between trespass and negligence.

It is not answered by saying the defendant meant no harm. What must be intended is the act, not the injury.

Quick revision

  1. Trespass to the person: battery, assault, mayhem, false imprisonment.
  2. Three features: direct interference, actionable per se, and a voluntary act.
  3. Directness separates trespass from negligence; the log on the highway is the classic illustration.
  4. Assault needs no touching; battery needs no prior assault.
  5. The penal counterparts are sections 129, 130, 131 and 127 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.
  6. In India unlawful detention also violates articles 21 and 22, and compensation may be claimed under articles 32 and 226.
  7. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, and Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, are the Indian illustrations.

Test yourself

1. What is trespass to the person, and what are its essentials? Trespass to the person is any direct and intentional interference with the body or personal liberty of another without lawful justification. It comprises battery, assault, mayhem and false imprisonment. Its essentials are three. The interference must be direct, following immediately from the defendant's act rather than as a further consequence of it, which is what separates it from negligence. The act must be voluntary and either intentional or, on some views, negligent, so a person who is pushed into another commits no trespass. And the tort is actionable per se, so no damage need be proved: the violation of the right is itself the injury, on the principle of injuria sine damno.

2. Distinguish trespass to the person from negligence. Trespass requires a direct interference, is actionable without proof of damage, and rests on an intentional act. Negligence requires a duty of care, a breach of it, and damage caused by the breach, and the harm is typically consequential rather than direct. The classical illustration is a log thrown into a highway: if it strikes a passer-by as it falls, the injury is direct and the action is trespass; if it lies there and somebody stumbles over it later, the injury is consequential and the action is in negligence or nuisance. The practical differences are that a plaintiff in trespass need prove no loss, while a plaintiff in negligence must, and that the burden of justifying the act lies on a defendant in trespass.

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3. Is trespass to the person also a crime in India? Yes, and the statute in force since 1 July 2024 is the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. Section 129 defines criminal force, section 130 defines assault and section 131 punishes either otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation, while section 127 deals with wrongful confinement, the criminal counterpart of false imprisonment. The two proceedings are independent: the civil action is brought by the person wronged and compensates him on the balance of probabilities, while the prosecution is brought by the State and punishes on proof beyond reasonable doubt, so that an acquittal does not bar the suit. In India a third route exists where the wrongdoer is the State or its officers: compensation may be claimed under articles 32 and 226 for the violation of articles 21 and 22.

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Chapter Twenty-One

Battery

Syllabus topic 2.1, "Trespass to Person: Assault, Battery, Mayhem, False imprisonment."

In one line

Battery is the actual application of force to another person, however slight, without his consent and without lawful justification.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: battery is the intentional and direct application of physical force to the person of another without lawful justification; the force may be of the slightest kind and no injury need result, since the tort is actionable per se; it is committed as much by contact through an object or a substance as by the hand, and it is answered by consent, private defence, necessity, lawful arrest and lawful authority.

The essentials

1. Use of force. Any physical contact suffices. Spitting on a person, throwing water at him, snatching a book from his hand, pulling a chair away as he sits down and setting a dog on him are each a battery. The force need not be violent and need not hurt.

2. Without lawful justification. The contact must be one the law does not permit. This is where consent, private defence, necessity and lawful authority operate.

3. Directness. The force must be applied by the defendant's act, immediately. Contact through an instrument or a missile is direct; harm that follows later as a consequence is not.

4. Intention, or at least a voluntary act. The defendant must have meant the act. He need not have meant the harm, and he need not have known who would be struck.

Damage is NOT an essential. A battery is complete when the contact happens.

What is not a battery

The ordinary contact of daily life. Being jostled in a crowded train, tapped on the shoulder to attract attention, or brushed against in a queue is not actionable, because such contacts are generally accepted as unavoidable.

Contact with consent. A surgeon who operates with consent, a barber who cuts hair, a player tackled in a game, and a passenger who takes a crowded bus have all consented, expressly or by implication, to contact of that kind. Chapter [Volenti Non Fit Injuria] sets out the limits, and the consent extends only to the ordinary risks of the activity.

Contact by an involuntary act. A person pushed into another, or moving in a fit, has not acted voluntarily.

Contact justified by law. A police officer making a lawful arrest, a parent restraining a child, a person using reasonable force in private defence.

The criminal counterpart

The penal law does not use the word battery. Section 129 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines criminal force: intentionally using force to any person without that person's consent, in order to commit an offence, or intending or knowing it likely that the force will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom it is used. Section 131 punishes assault or criminal force otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation.

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Battery

So the same act may be a battery in tort and criminal force under the Sanhita, and the two proceedings run independently.

A worked example

Anil is annoyed with Bhaskar at a wedding. Consider four things he might do.

One. He throws a glass of water over Bhaskar. That is a battery. Contact through a substance is contact, no injury is needed, and the humiliation is not the point.

Two. He pulls away the chair as Bhaskar sits down, and Bhaskar falls. That is a battery. The force is applied through the chair and the floor, and it is direct because the fall follows immediately from Anil's act.

Three. He tells a waiter to serve Bhaskar a dish he knows Bhaskar is allergic to, without warning him. That is not a battery, because the force is not applied directly by Anil; it may be negligence, and if Anil intended the harm it may be another wrong.

Four. He shakes Bhaskar's hand very firmly to say goodbye. That is not a battery. The contact is of the kind ordinarily accepted in social life, and Bhaskar consented to a handshake.

Distinctions that carry marks

BatteryAssault
ContactActual contact is essentialNo contact at all
What is protectedBodily integrityFreedom from fear of immediate force
OrderMay happen with no assault before it, as where a man is struck from behindMay happen with no battery after it
DamageNot requiredNot required
BatteryNegligence causing injury
Nature of the actIntentional and directCareless, and the harm consequential
DamageNot requiredEssential
BurdenThe defendant justifies the contactThe plaintiff proves duty, breach and damage

What it does NOT mean

It does not require injury. The tort is complete on contact.

It does not require anger. A touching without consent may be a battery although it was meant kindly, and hostility is not a separate ingredient in every case.

It does not require the defendant to have touched the plaintiff with his body. A stone, a stick, water, a dog or a vehicle will do.

It does not cover every unwanted contact. The jostling of ordinary life is outside the tort.

Quick revision

  1. Battery is the direct and intentional application of force to another without lawful justification.
  2. The least touching is enough; no injury need be proved; the tort is actionable per se.
  3. Contact through an object, a substance or an animal counts.
  4. Defences: consent, private defence, necessity, lawful arrest, lawful authority, parental authority.
  5. The ordinary contacts of daily life are not actionable.
  6. Criminal counterpart: section 129 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines criminal force, section 130 defines assault, and section 131 punishes either.
  7. Distinguish from assault, where there is no contact, and from negligence, where the harm is consequential and damage must be proved.
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Test yourself

1. Define battery and state its essentials. Battery is the intentional and direct application of physical force to the person of another without lawful justification. Its essentials are the use of force, which may be of the slightest kind and need not cause injury; the absence of lawful justification, so that consent, private defence, necessity, lawful arrest and lawful authority all defeat the claim; directness, so that the contact must follow immediately from the defendant's act; and a voluntary act on the defendant's part, intending the contact though not necessarily the harm. Damage is not an essential, because the tort is actionable per se: the contact itself is the injury the law recognises.

2. Is contact through an object a battery? Yes. The force need not be applied by the defendant's body. Throwing water over a person, spitting at him, striking him with a stick, setting a dog on him, pulling away the chair he is sitting on and driving a vehicle at him are all batteries, because in each the force is applied directly by the defendant's own act operating through a thing. What matters is directness: contact that follows immediately from the act is a battery, while harm which results at one remove, as where a person later trips over an obstacle the defendant left, is consequential and belongs to negligence.

3. Are the everyday contacts of a crowded city actionable? No. Contacts that are generally accepted as unavoidable in ordinary life, such as being jostled in a crowded train, brushed against in a queue or tapped on the shoulder to attract attention, are not batteries. The law treats those who move about in public as having impliedly accepted them, and a rule to the contrary would make ordinary life impossible. The implied acceptance covers only contacts of that ordinary kind: a deliberate shove, a blow, or a touching that goes beyond what the situation requires remains a battery.

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Chapter Twenty-Two

Assault

Syllabus topic 2.1, "Trespass to Person: Assault, Battery, Mayhem, False imprisonment."

In one line

An assault is an act that puts another in reasonable apprehension that force is about to be used on him, whether or not any force follows.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: an assault is any act of the defendant which directly and either intentionally or negligently causes the plaintiff reasonably to apprehend the immediate infliction of force on his person; no contact is necessary and no damage need be proved, since the tort is actionable per se, and what must be shown is a reasonable apprehension of immediate force together with an apparent present ability to carry the threat out.

The essentials

1. An act, not a mere omission. Standing still is not an assault, however alarming the standing man looks.

2. Reasonable apprehension of force. The test is objective. It is not whether the plaintiff was frightened but whether a reasonable person in his position would have expected force to follow. A brave man who is not afraid is still assaulted.

3. The force apprehended must be immediate. A threat of harm next week is not an assault, whatever else it may be. The apprehension must be of force about to be applied now.

4. Apparent present ability. The defendant must appear able to carry out the threat. A man who points an unloaded gun which the plaintiff believes to be loaded assaults him, because the ability is apparent; a man who shakes his fist from a moving train does not, because he cannot reach.

Words, and what they do

The old rule was that mere words are not an assault. The modern position is more careful, and it is what an examiner is looking for.

Words may negative an assault. A raised hand accompanied by "if you were not my friend I would strike you" is not an assault, because the words tell the hearer that no force is coming.

Words may make an act an assault, or explain it. A gesture that would be ambiguous by itself may be an assault when the accompanying words show that force is intended.

A conditional threat may be an assault where the condition is one the plaintiff is not bound to comply with, as where a man is told to leave a place he is entitled to be in or be thrown out.

The criminal counterpart

Section 130 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines assault: whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation, intending or knowing it to be likely that it will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to him. Section 131 punishes whoever assaults or uses criminal force otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation given by that person. The penal ingredients are a useful check on the civil ones, since the Sanhita too asks for a gesture or preparation causing an apprehension of immediate force.

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A worked example

At a village panchayat meeting, Kiran and Latha quarrel.

One. Kiran raises a stick over Latha's head from three feet away. Latha steps back. That is an assault. There is an act, a reasonable apprehension of immediate force, and an apparent present ability to apply it.

Two. He then lowers the stick, saying "only the chairman's presence saves you today". That is not a further assault, and the words show that no force is coming.

Three. He shouts from across the road, sixty feet away, that he will beat her. That is not an assault, because there is no apparent present ability to apply force immediately.

Four. He telephones her that night saying he will beat her tomorrow. That is not an assault: the apprehension is not of immediate force. It may be an offence of criminal intimidation, and it may found other proceedings, but the tort of assault is not committed.

Five. He points a pistol at her which is, unknown to her, unloaded. That is an assault, because the ability is apparent and her apprehension is reasonable.

Distinctions that carry marks

AssaultBattery
ContactNoneEssential
EssenceApprehension of immediate forceApplication of force
Can happen without the other?Yes, if the blow missesYes, if the blow comes from behind
DamageNot requiredNot required
Assault in tortCriminal intimidation
Timing of the threatened harmImmediateMay be in the future
ProceedingCivil suit by the person threatenedProsecution
ContactNone needed in either

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean the plaintiff must be frightened. The test is what a reasonable person would apprehend.

It does not mean words alone can never matter. They may negative an act, explain it, or make a conditional threat actionable.

It does not require a real ability to apply force. An apparent present ability is enough, which is why an unloaded gun can be an assault.

It does not cover threats of future harm. Those belong to other branches of the law.

Quick revision

  1. Assault: an act causing a reasonable apprehension of the immediate application of force.
  2. No contact, no damage, actionable per se.
  3. Four essentials: an act, reasonable apprehension, immediacy, apparent present ability.
  4. Words alone are ordinarily not an assault, but may negative it, explain it, or make a conditional threat actionable.
  5. Section 130 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines assault and section 131 punishes assault or criminal force otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation.
  6. Assault may occur without battery, and battery without assault.
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Test yourself

1. Define assault and distinguish it from battery. An assault is an act of the defendant which directly causes the plaintiff reasonably to apprehend the immediate infliction of force upon his person. Its essentials are an act rather than a mere omission, a reasonable apprehension judged objectively, immediacy of the threatened force, and an apparent present ability to carry the threat out. Battery, by contrast, is the actual application of force. The two are independent: a blow aimed and missed is an assault without a battery, and a blow struck from behind is a battery without any assault, because the victim never apprehended it. Neither requires proof of damage, since both are actionable per se.

2. "Mere words do not amount to an assault." Discuss. The proposition is the traditional rule and it is now stated with qualifications. Words alone, unaccompanied by any act, ordinarily create no apprehension of immediate force and so are not an assault; a threat shouted from a distance or made over the telephone is not actionable as an assault, whatever else it may be. But words work in three other ways. They may negative what would otherwise be an assault, as where a raised hand is accompanied by a statement that no blow will be struck. They may explain an ambiguous gesture and so establish the apprehension. And a conditional threat may be an assault where the plaintiff is not bound to comply with the condition, as where a person lawfully present is told to leave or be thrown out.

3. Is pointing an unloaded gun an assault? Yes, if the plaintiff does not know it is unloaded and a reasonable person in his position would apprehend immediate force. The requirement is an apparent present ability to carry out the threat, not an actual one, because the interest the tort protects is freedom from the fear of force, and that fear is created just as effectively by a gun the victim believes to be loaded. The position is different where the plaintiff knows the gun is unloaded, for then no reasonable apprehension arises, and different again where the defendant is plainly out of reach, since immediacy is then absent.

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Chapter Twenty-Three

Mayhem

Syllabus topic 2.1, "Trespass to Person: Assault, Battery, Mayhem, False imprisonment."

In one line

Mayhem is an aggravated battery which deprives a person of a part of the body useful in defending himself.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: mayhem, sometimes spelled maim, is a form of trespass to the person consisting of a bodily injury that deprives the plaintiff of the use of a member which would be useful to him in fighting or in defending himself; it originated as a distinct wrong because such an injury weakened the King's fighting strength, and in modern law it is treated as an aggravated battery, the corresponding penal provision in India being the definition of grievous hurt.

The origin of the wrong

Mayhem is a very old head of liability and its history explains its odd shape. In medieval England the King was entitled to the military service of his subjects, and an injury that made a man less able to fight was therefore a wrong to the King as well as to the man. Depriving him of a hand, a finger, an eye or a front tooth was mayhem; injuries that disfigured without weakening, such as cutting off an ear or the nose, were not.

That distinction between what weakens and what merely disfigures is what students are expected to know, and it is also why the category has practically disappeared: modern law compensates disfigurement as readily as disablement.

The position in modern law

In tort, mayhem is not a separate cause of action in India. A plaintiff sues for battery, and the maiming goes to the seriousness of the wrong and therefore to the damages. What survives of mayhem is the idea that some batteries are far graver than others.

In the penal law, the corresponding idea is grievous hurt. Section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 designates the kinds of hurt that are grievous, and the list is recognisably descended from mayhem: emasculation, permanent privation of the sight of either eye, permanent privation of the hearing of either ear, privation of any member or joint, destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint, permanent disfiguration of the head or face, fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth, and any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the space of fifteen days in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits.

Note that permanent disfiguration of the head or face is in the list. The penal law, unlike the old law of mayhem, does not require the injury to weaken the victim's ability to fight.

Where the idea still does real work

Damages. The measure of general damages for personal injury turns on the nature and permanence of the disability, and a maiming injury attracts a far larger award. Chapter [Kinds of Damages] and, for accident claims, chapter [Computing Just Compensation] work out how a court arrives at the figure.

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Compensation for grievous hurt under statute. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 fixes compensation of two and a half lakh rupees for grievous hurt in a motor accident without any proof of fault, and section 145 of that Act, as substituted in 2019, adopts the penal definition of grievous hurt for the purposes of the insurance chapter. Chapter [Liability without Fault] works that out.

Consumer claims. Where a defective product maims a consumer, the Consumer Protection Act 2019 gives a remedy in product liability, which chapter [Product Liability] deals with.

A worked example

In a fight outside a shop, Ravi strikes Sunil three times.

The first blow knocks out one of Sunil's front teeth. On the old law that is mayhem, because a tooth used in fighting is a member useful in defence. Under section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 the fracture or dislocation of a tooth is grievous hurt.

The second blow slits Sunil's ear. On the old law that is not mayhem, because it disfigures without weakening. Under the Sanhita it is not within the list unless it amounts to permanent disfiguration of the head or face, which on these facts it may.

The third blow breaks Sunil's arm. That is grievous hurt as a fracture of a bone, and in the old language a deprivation of the use of a member.

In the civil suit Sunil pleads battery for all three, and the maiming enters as an aggravating feature which increases the damages. He does not plead three different torts.

Distinctions that carry marks

BatteryMayhem
NatureAny application of forceAn aggravated battery
InjuryNone need resultA member useful in fighting is lost or disabled
Modern Indian equivalentCriminal force, section 129 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023Grievous hurt, section 116
Separate cause of action today?YesNo; it goes to damages

What it does NOT mean

It is not a separate suit. A plaintiff sues in battery and relies on the maiming for damages.

It does not require disfigurement. The old test was loss of fighting capacity, and disfigurement alone was outside it.

The penal test is wider than the old civil one. Section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 includes permanent disfiguration of the head or face and hurts that keep the sufferer in severe pain for twenty days.

Quick revision

  1. Mayhem is an aggravated battery depriving a person of a member useful in fighting.
  2. Its origin is the King's interest in the fighting strength of his subjects.
  3. Disfigurement without loss of fighting capacity was not mayhem.
  4. In India today it is not a separate cause of action; it is battery, and the maiming increases the damages.
  5. The corresponding penal idea is grievous hurt, section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, which lists emasculation, loss of sight or hearing, privation or impairing of a member or joint, permanent disfiguration of the head or face, fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth, and hurts endangering life or causing fifteen days of severe pain or incapacity.
  6. Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 gives two and a half lakh rupees for grievous hurt without proof of fault.
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Mayhem

Test yourself

1. What is mayhem, and what is its place in modern Indian law? Mayhem, or maim, is an aggravated form of battery consisting of a bodily injury that deprives the plaintiff of the use of a member useful to him in fighting or defending himself, such as a hand, a finger, an eye or a front tooth. It began as a distinct wrong because an injury of that kind reduced the fighting strength available to the King, and injuries that merely disfigured, such as cutting off an ear, fell outside it. In modern Indian law it is not a separate cause of action: the plaintiff sues in battery and the maiming is relied on as an aggravating feature increasing the damages. The idea survives in the penal law as grievous hurt under section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, and in the statutory compensation of two and a half lakh rupees for grievous hurt under section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988.

2. How does the penal definition of grievous hurt differ from the old law of mayhem? The old law asked whether the injury deprived the victim of a member useful in fighting, so disfigurement without loss of capacity was outside it. Section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 is wider. It designates as grievous hurt emasculation, permanent privation of the sight of either eye or the hearing of either ear, privation of any member or joint, destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint, permanent disfiguration of the head or face, fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth, and any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be for fifteen days in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits. Disfiguration of the head or face is therefore expressly included, and so are injuries defined by their duration rather than by the part of the body affected.

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Chapter Twenty-Four

False Imprisonment

Syllabus topic 2.1, "Trespass to Person: Assault, Battery, Mayhem, False imprisonment."

In one line

False imprisonment is the total restraint of a person's liberty for any length of time, without lawful justification.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: false imprisonment is the infliction of bodily restraint which is not expressly or impliedly authorised by law; the restraint must be total, so that a partial obstruction leaving a reasonable means of escape is not enough, but no physical touching, no prison and no minimum period is required, the tort is actionable per se, and knowledge of the restraint is not essential though it goes to the damages.

The words

False here means wrongful, not untrue. Imprisonment does not mean a prison; it means any confinement within limits set by another.

So the tort has nothing necessarily to do with either falsehood or a jail, and the name misleads a beginner every time.

The essentials

1. Total restraint of liberty. The plaintiff must be prevented from going in every direction. If he is stopped from going one way but may reasonably go another, the restraint is partial and the tort is not committed. A person shut in a room is imprisoned; a person prevented from crossing a bridge who may walk round is not.

The escape route must be reasonable. A window on the third floor is not a means of escape, and nor is a route through fire, water, or trespass on somebody's land.

2. Without lawful justification. Restraint authorised by law is not false imprisonment: a lawful arrest, a lawful remand, the detention of a passenger by the conditions on which he entered a place, and reasonable parental control are all justified.

3. No physical force is needed. The restraint may be by physical barriers, by a show of authority, or by the assertion of legal power that the plaintiff submits to. A person who stays where he is because a police officer tells him he is under arrest is imprisoned.

4. Any length of time. A restraint of a few minutes is the tort.

5. Knowledge is not essential. A person locked in a room while asleep, or a person told the door is locked when it is not, may still be falsely imprisoned. Knowledge goes to the amount of damages, not to the existence of the tort.

Defences

Lawful arrest. An arrest made in accordance with the law of criminal procedure is justified. It is for the person who made the arrest to prove that it was lawful.

Judicial authority. Detention under a valid order of a court is justified, and the officer executing it is protected.

Consent. A person who enters premises on stated conditions, and is held to those conditions, is not imprisoned.

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Necessity and lawful authority, as chapter [General Defences II] explains.

The Indian dimension: the same facts are also a constitutional wrong

Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, and article 22(2) requires that a person arrested be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours. A detention that breaks those provisions is not merely a tort; it is the violation of a fundamental right, and the Supreme Court has held that compensation may be awarded for it in a writ petition.

Facts. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, decided on 1 August 1983. Rudul Sah was acquitted by the Court of Sessions at Muzaffarpur on 3 June 1968 and was kept in jail until 16 October 1982, more than fourteen years after his acquittal. He petitioned under article 32 for release and for compensation.

Held. He had been released before the hearing, so the prayer for release did not survive. The Court held that its power under article 32 is not confined to ordering release and that it may award compensation where the right to liberty has been grossly violated, otherwise the right would be a paper guarantee. It directed the State to pay Rs. 30,000 in addition to a sum already paid, called the award a palliative, and left him free to sue for damages in the ordinary way.

Facts. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, decided on 22 November 1985. A member of the Legislative Assembly was arrested at three in the morning while travelling to attend a session of the Assembly, and was kept in custody from the tenth to the fourteenth of September without being produced before the Executive Magistrate on the eleventh or the Sub Judge on the thirteenth, remand orders having been obtained from both at their residences after office hours.

Held. The police had acted deliberately and mala fide and there was a gross violation of articles 21 and 22(2). Since he was already at liberty no order of release was needed, but the Court held it had jurisdiction to compensate the victim and directed the State to pay Rs. 50,000.

Why they matter here. They show that in India the tort has a public law twin with three practical advantages: the writ court is quicker, sovereign immunity is no answer to it, and the compensation is awarded summarily. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, then laid down eleven requirements for every arrest and detention, including an arrest memo attested by a relative or a respectable person of the locality and medical examination every forty-eight hours, so that the facts of an unlawful detention can be proved.

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The criminal counterpart

Section 126 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 punishes wrongful restraint, which is voluntarily obstructing a person so as to prevent him from proceeding in a direction in which he has a right to proceed. Section 127 punishes wrongful confinement, which is wrongfully restraining a person in such a manner as to prevent him from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits.

Notice that the penal law makes wrongful restraint an offence even where it is only partial, while the tort of false imprisonment requires total restraint. That difference is a favourite examination point.

A worked example

Vikram goes into a bank at 4 p.m. Four things happen.

One. The manager, suspecting him of theft, tells the guard not to let him leave, and the guard stands at the only door. Vikram waits for twenty minutes and is then allowed to go. That is false imprisonment: the restraint was total, it was by a show of authority rather than by force, and twenty minutes is long enough.

Two. Suppose instead the guard blocks the front door but the side door is open and Vikram knows it. That is not false imprisonment: the restraint is partial and a reasonable means of egress remains, though the obstruction may be wrongful restraint under section 126 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.

Three. Suppose Vikram is asleep in the manager's office and is locked in for an hour without ever waking. That is still false imprisonment; his want of knowledge affects the damages only.

Four. Suppose a police officer arrests him lawfully on a warrant. That is not false imprisonment at all, and the burden of proving the arrest lawful is on the officer.

Distinctions that carry marks

False imprisonmentMalicious prosecution
What the defendant didRestrained the plaintiff himself, or directed itSet the law in motion against him
MaliceNot requiredEssential
Reasonable and probable causeIrrelevantIts absence must be proved
DamageNot requiredMust be proved
LimitationOne year from the end of the imprisonment, article 73One year from the acquittal, article 74
False imprisonment (tort)Wrongful restraint (section 126)
RestraintMust be totalMay be partial
ProceedingCivil suitProsecution

What it does NOT mean

It does not require a prison. Any place will do, including an open field if the plaintiff cannot leave it.

It does not require force. Submission to a show of authority is enough.

It does not require knowledge. A sleeping or unconscious person may be falsely imprisoned.

It does not cover partial obstruction. If a reasonable way out remains, the tort is not committed.

Quick revision

  1. False imprisonment: total restraint of liberty without lawful justification.
  2. "False" means wrongful; "imprisonment" means any confinement, not a jail.
  3. Total restraint is essential; a reasonable means of escape defeats the claim; a dangerous or unlawful escape route is not reasonable.
  4. No force, no minimum time and no knowledge are required; knowledge goes to damages.
  5. Defences: lawful arrest, judicial authority, consent, necessity and lawful authority.
  6. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086: Rs. 30,000 for fourteen years of illegal detention under article 32.
  7. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494: Rs. 50,000 for four days, articles 21 and 22(2) violated.
  8. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610: eleven requirements for every arrest and detention.
  9. Penal counterparts: wrongful restraint, section 126, and wrongful confinement, section 127, of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.
  10. Limitation: one year from the end of the imprisonment, article 73 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963.
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Test yourself

1. Define false imprisonment and state its essentials. False imprisonment is the infliction of bodily restraint which is not expressly or impliedly authorised by law. Its essentials are that the restraint be total, so that the plaintiff is prevented from going in every direction and no reasonable means of escape remains; that it be without lawful justification, so that a lawful arrest, a valid judicial order or consent defeats the claim; and that there be a restraint at all, which may be by a physical barrier, by force, or by a show of authority to which the plaintiff submits. No touching, no prison and no minimum period are required, the tort is actionable per se without proof of damage, and the plaintiff's knowledge of the restraint is not essential, though it affects the damages.

2. "The restraint must be total." Explain with illustrations. A partial obstruction is not false imprisonment. A person who is prevented from crossing a bridge, but is free to turn back and go round, has not been imprisoned, because a reasonable alternative remains open to him. A person locked in a room has been, because every direction is closed. The alternative must be reasonable: a window on a third floor, a route through fire or water, or one that would require the plaintiff to trespass on another's land, is no escape at all. Indian penal law draws the line differently: section 126 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 makes even a partial obstruction the offence of wrongful restraint, while section 127 corresponds to the tort by requiring restraint within circumscribing limits.

3. What remedies has a person unlawfully detained by the police in India? Three. A suit in tort for false imprisonment, in which he need prove no damage and the burden of justifying the detention lies on the officer, subject to a limitation of one year from the end of the imprisonment under article 73 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963. A petition under article 32 or 226 for habeas corpus and for compensation for the violation of articles 21 and 22, on the authority of Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, where Rs. 30,000 was awarded after fourteen years of detention beyond acquittal, and Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, where Rs. 50,000 was awarded for four days. And a criminal complaint for wrongful confinement under section 127 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. The safeguards laid down in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, including an arrest memo attested by a relative and medical examination every forty-eight hours, are what make the facts provable.

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4. Is knowledge of the restraint necessary? No. A person may be falsely imprisoned while asleep, while unconscious, or while believing himself free to go. The tort protects liberty itself, and liberty is taken away whether or not the person taken notices at the time. Knowledge is relevant to the measure of damages, since a plaintiff who suffered the fear and humiliation of a known detention has suffered more than one who learned of it afterwards, but it is not an ingredient of the wrong.

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Chapter Twenty-Five

Trespass to Land

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

Trespass to land is entering, or putting something on, land in another's possession without permission, and it is actionable although no harm is done.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: trespass to land is any unjustifiable interference with land in the possession of another, committed by entering upon it, by remaining on it after the right of entry has ended, or by placing or projecting any object upon it; it is actionable per se, that is, without proof of damage; the interest protected is POSSESSION and not ownership, so a person in possession may sue even a rightful owner who enters without process of law.

Possession, not ownership

This is the most important sentence in the chapter. The action protects possession. A tenant, a licensee in exclusive occupation, and even a person in wrongful possession may sue a stranger who enters. An owner who is out of possession cannot sue in trespass; he must first recover possession, and chapter [Remedies for Trespass to Land] explains how.

The reason is practical: the law wants disputes about land settled in court rather than by whoever is strongest on the day. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 embodies exactly that policy by giving a summary suit to a person dispossessed without his consent otherwise than in due course of law, even against the true owner.

The three ways it is committed

1. Entry upon land. Walking on to it, driving on to it, sending an animal on to it, or entering any part of it. The entry need only be intentional in the sense that the defendant meant to be where he was: a person who walks on to land honestly believing it to be his own is still a trespasser, since mistake is no defence, as chapter [General Defences II] explains.

2. Remaining on land. A person who entered lawfully and stays after his right has ended becomes a trespasser. A guest asked to leave who does not leave is the standard example.

3. Placing things on land. Throwing rubbish, piling building material, letting a wall lean over, growing tree branches across the boundary, or allowing water to flow on to the neighbour's land.

Trespass to the airspace and to the subsoil

Possession of land carries with it possession of the column of space above and the soil beneath, so far as is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of the land.

Above. A signboard projecting over a neighbour's land, a crane swinging across it, or wires strung over it are trespasses. Aircraft flying at a reasonable height are not, and statutes deal with them expressly.

Below. Tunnelling or mining under the surface, or driving foundations into the neighbour's subsoil, is a trespass.

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Continuing trespass

Where the trespass consists of leaving something on the land, or of remaining on it, a fresh cause of action arises every day it continues. This matters for limitation: article 87 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives three years from the date of the trespass, but section 22 of that Act provides that in the case of a continuing tort a fresh period runs at every moment during which it continues. So a heap of rubble left on a neighbour's land in 2020 is still actionable in 2026, though damages are confined to the period within limitation.

Defences

Licence. Permission, express or implied, is a complete answer while it lasts. Permission may be revoked, and after a reasonable time to leave, the person becomes a trespasser.

Authority of law. Entry by an officer executing a warrant, by a public servant under statutory power, or by a person exercising a right of way.

Necessity. Entry to put out a fire or to save life.

Re-entry by a person entitled to possession, using no more force than is reasonable.

Justification by an easement or a customary right.

What is NOT a defence: mistake, honest belief in one's own title, absence of damage, or the fact that the trespass benefited the occupier.

A worked example

Deepa is the tenant of a plot in Nashik. Her landlord is Farooq.

One. A stranger walks across the plot each morning as a short cut, doing no harm. Deepa may sue him in trespass. Damage is not needed and the shortness of the crossing is irrelevant.

Two. Farooq, the owner, enters and starts building a shed. Deepa may sue Farooq too, because the action protects her possession and he has no right to take the law into his own hands. If he dispossesses her, section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 gives her a summary suit to be restored.

Three. A neighbour's mango tree grows so that its branches hang over the plot. That is a trespass by projection while the branches remain, and it is also capable of being a nuisance; chapter [Private Nuisance] draws the line.

Four. The fire brigade breaks the gate to reach a burning house next door. That is not a trespass, because necessity justifies it.

Five. Deepa herself invites a surveyor on to the land, then asks him to leave, and he refuses. He entered lawfully and is now a trespasser by remaining.

Distinctions that carry marks

Trespass to landNuisance
Nature of the interferenceDirectIndirect or consequential
DamageNot requiredOrdinarily must be proved
Interest protectedPossessionUse and enjoyment of land
ExampleThrowing stones on to the landSmoke or noise drifting on to it
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TrespassDispossession
What the defendant doesInterferes with possessionTakes possession
RemedyDamages and injunctionRecovery of possession, sections 5 and 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963

What it does NOT mean

It does not require damage. The tort is actionable per se.

It does not require knowledge that the land was another's. Mistake is no defence.

It does not protect ownership as such. It protects possession, which is why an owner out of possession must sue for possession instead.

It does not last forever after a single entry. A single entry gives one cause of action; leaving something behind gives a continuing one.

Quick revision

  1. Trespass to land: unjustifiable interference with land in another's possession, actionable per se.
  2. Three forms: entry, remaining after the right has ended, and placing or projecting things.
  3. It protects POSSESSION, so a tenant may sue and an owner out of possession may not.
  4. Airspace and subsoil are protected so far as necessary for ordinary use and enjoyment.
  5. Mistake and absence of damage are no defence; licence, authority of law, necessity and re-entry are.
  6. Continuing trespass: section 22 of the Limitation Act 1963 gives a fresh period every moment; article 87 gives three years from the trespass.
  7. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 gives a summary suit to a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law, even against the true owner.

Test yourself

1. Define trespass to land and state its essentials. Trespass to land is any unjustifiable interference with land in the possession of another. It is committed by entering upon the land, by remaining on it after the right of entry has ended, or by placing or projecting any object upon it, and it extends to the airspace above and the soil beneath so far as is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of the land. Its essentials are an intentional act by the defendant, interference with land in the plaintiff's possession, and absence of lawful justification. Damage is not an essential, because the tort is actionable per se, and mistake is no defence, so a person who enters honestly believing the land to be his own is still a trespasser.

2. "Trespass protects possession, not ownership." Explain. The action lies at the suit of the person in possession, because what the tort protects is the exclusive control of the land rather than title to it. A tenant, a licensee in exclusive occupation and even a person in wrongful possession may therefore sue a stranger, while an owner who is out of possession cannot sue in trespass at all and must instead sue to recover possession under section 5 of the Specific Relief Act 1963. The policy is that disputes about land are to be settled by the courts and not by self-help: section 6 of the same Act gives a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law a summary suit for restoration, which succeeds even against the true owner, precisely so that a title-holder cannot enforce his title by force.

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3. What is a continuing trespass, and why does it matter? A continuing trespass is one that consists in a state of affairs rather than a single act: remaining on land after a licence has ended, or leaving rubble, a wall or a projecting structure there. It matters for limitation. Article 87 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 prescribes three years from the date of the trespass, which would bar a claim three years after the thing was placed, but section 22 provides that in a continuing tort a fresh period of limitation begins at every moment during which the tort continues. So the claim survives while the state of affairs lasts, though the damages recoverable are confined to the period within limitation. It also matters for the remedy, since a continuing trespass is the natural case for an injunction rather than damages alone.

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Chapter Twenty-Six

Trespass ab Initio

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

A person who enters under an authority given by the law and then abuses it is treated as a trespasser from the moment he entered, not merely from the moment he abused it.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: where a person enters land under an authority conferred by the law, as distinct from an authority given by the occupier, and afterwards abuses that authority by a positive wrongful act, he becomes a trespasser ab initio, that is, from the beginning, and his entire presence on the land, from the entry onwards, is treated as wrongful; the doctrine does not apply to an authority given by the party, and it is not attracted by a mere omission.

The words

Ab initio is Latin for "from the beginning". The doctrine is a fiction: the law pretends that the entry, which was lawful when it happened, was unlawful all along.

Why the law invented it

The purpose was to control officials. A person entering under a private licence can be sued for breach of the licence. A person entering under an authority given by law, an officer levying a distress, a Magistrate's officer executing process, an innkeeper's guest, could not, because the occupier gave him nothing to breach.

The doctrine supplied the sanction. If such a person abuses the authority, the law withdraws the authority retrospectively, so he is answerable in trespass for the whole of his presence and for everything he did there.

The three conditions

1. The authority must be given by the LAW, not by the party. This is the condition students forget. If the occupier himself gave the permission, an abuse of it makes the person a trespasser only from the moment of the abuse, because the occupier's remedy is on the terms of his own licence.

2. The abuse must be a positive wrongful act, a misfeasance. A mere failure to do something required, a nonfeasance, does not make the entrant a trespasser ab initio. An officer who seizes goods and neglects to give a receipt has failed to act; an officer who seizes goods and then uses them for himself has done a wrongful act.

3. The abuse must relate to the authority under which the entry was made. An officer who enters to execute a warrant and then commits an unconnected wrong is liable for that wrong, not necessarily as a trespasser from the beginning.

The criticism

The doctrine has been criticised for two reasons, and an examiner likes both.

It is artificial. It makes lawful conduct unlawful by hindsight, which is not how the law usually works.

It is unnecessary today. A person injured by an abuse of official power in India has other remedies: a suit for the specific wrong committed, and a petition under article 226 or 32, in which compensation may be awarded for the violation of a fundamental right, as chapter [Constitutional Tort] explains. The doctrine survives mainly as an examination topic and as a reminder that authority conferred by law is conferred for a purpose.

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A worked example

A revenue officer enters Suresh's shop under a statutory power to inspect stock.

One. He inspects the stock and leaves. Lawful entry, no trespass.

Two. He inspects, and then helps himself to a shirt. He has abused an authority given by law by a positive wrongful act, so he is a trespasser ab initio: his entry, his walking through the shop and his inspection are all treated as wrongful, and Suresh may sue in trespass for the whole visit as well as for the shirt.

Three. He inspects, and forgets to make the entry in the register that the statute requires. That is a nonfeasance. He is answerable under the statute, but he is not a trespasser ab initio.

Four. Suresh himself invites an accountant to examine his books, and the accountant copies a private letter. The authority came from Suresh, not from the law, so the doctrine does not apply; the accountant is answerable for what he did after the abuse, and for breach of the terms on which he was admitted.

Distinctions that carry marks

Trespass ab initioOrdinary trespass by remaining
The entryLawful when madeLawful when made
Source of the authorityThe lawUsually the occupier
Effect of the abuseWrongful from the entryWrongful from the abuse onwards
Kind of abuse requiredA positive wrongful actRefusal to leave

What it does NOT mean

It does not apply to a licence from the occupier. Authority given by the party is outside the doctrine.

It is not triggered by an omission. Only a misfeasance will do.

It does not make everything the entrant ever did wrongful. The abuse must relate to the authority under which he entered.

It is not the only remedy for abuse of official power in India. The constitutional remedy is usually the better one.

Quick revision

  1. Ab initio means from the beginning; the doctrine is a fiction that withdraws the authority retrospectively.
  2. It originates in an English decision of the early seventeenth century, the Six Carpenters' case.
  3. Three conditions: authority given by the LAW, abuse by a positive wrongful act, and a connection between the abuse and the authority.
  4. Authority given by the party is outside the doctrine.
  5. A nonfeasance does not attract it; a misfeasance does.
  6. Criticised as artificial and as unnecessary in a system with constitutional remedies for abuse of power.
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Test yourself

1. Explain the doctrine of trespass ab initio and its conditions. Where a person enters land under an authority conferred by the law and then abuses that authority by a positive wrongful act, the law treats him as a trespasser from the moment of entry, so that his whole presence on the land is wrongful and actionable. The doctrine has three conditions. The authority must come from the law and not from the occupier, because an occupier who gives a licence has his remedy on the terms of that licence. The abuse must be a misfeasance, a positive wrongful act, and not a mere nonfeasance or omission. And the abuse must relate to the authority under which the entry was made. Its origin is an English decision of the early seventeenth century, the Six Carpenters' case, and its purpose was to give a sanction against officials who entered under legal powers.

2. Why has the doctrine been criticised? On two grounds. It is artificial, because it makes conduct which was lawful when it occurred unlawful by hindsight, and the law does not ordinarily work that way; the entrant's later misconduct does not change the character of his earlier acts in fact. And it is largely unnecessary today, at least in India, because a person injured by an abuse of official power has better remedies: an action for the specific wrong committed, and a petition under article 32 or 226 in which a constitutional court may award compensation for the violation of a fundamental right without any recourse to a fiction. The doctrine survives as an examination topic and as a reminder that a power conferred by law is conferred for a purpose.

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Chapter Twenty-Seven

Remedies for Trespass to Land

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

A person whose land has been trespassed on may recover damages, get an injunction, sue for possession, or in a proper case put the trespasser out himself.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the remedies for trespass to land are judicial and extra-judicial; the judicial remedies are an action for damages, which lies without proof of loss because the tort is actionable per se, an action for mesne profits for the period of wrongful occupation, an injunction under sections 38 and 39 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 where the trespass is continuing or threatened, and a suit for possession under section 5 or the summary suit under section 6 of that Act; the extra-judicial remedies are re-entry and the expulsion of a trespasser using no more force than is reasonably necessary.

The judicial remedies

1. Damages. Since the tort is actionable per se, a plaintiff who proves the trespass recovers even if he lost nothing, and the damages are then nominal. Where the land is damaged, the measure is the diminution in its value or the cost of restoration. Where the trespasser has taken a benefit, the plaintiff may recover the value of the use.

2. Mesne profits. Where the trespasser has occupied the land, the plaintiff may recover the profits the occupier actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received, together with interest, but not profits due to the occupier's own improvements.

3. Injunction. Sections 38 and 39 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 govern. Section 38 allows a perpetual injunction to prevent the breach of an obligation, and expressly covers the case of an invasion of a right to property where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage, or where compensation in money would not be adequate relief. Section 39 provides for a mandatory injunction, which compels the defendant to undo what he has done, for example to remove a structure he has put up.

4. A suit for possession. Where the trespasser has taken possession, the owner's remedy is not trespass but recovery of possession, and there are two routes.

Section 5 against section 6, the point that carries marks

Section 5 provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908. This is the ordinary suit, based on title. It is tried at length, the plaintiff must prove that he is entitled to possession, and the decree settles the title.

Section 6 is different in every respect. It provides that if any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he, or any person claiming through him, may by suit recover possession, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit. The suit must be brought within six months of the dispossession, and not against the Government. No appeal or review lies from an order or decree passed in such a suit, though the person defeated may sue on his title afterwards.

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Section 5Section 6
BasisTitle to possessionPrevious possession and dispossession otherwise than in due course of law
Is title in issue?Yes, it is the whole questionNo, and a better title is no defence
LimitationThe ordinary period under the Limitation Act 1963Six months from the dispossession
Against the Government?YesNo
Appeal or review?YesNo appeal, no review
Effect on titleDecides itLeaves it to be decided in a later suit

The policy behind section 6 is the one stated in chapter [Trespass to Land]: a person who is put out of possession by force gets the land back first and argues about title afterwards, so that nobody profits from self-help.

The extra-judicial remedies

Re-entry. A person entitled to possession may enter and retake the land, using no more force than is reasonably necessary. The right is real but it is dangerous: excessive force is itself a wrong, and if the occupier has been in settled possession the safer course is a suit.

Expulsion of a trespasser. An occupier may ask a trespasser to leave and, after a reasonable opportunity to go, may put him out with reasonable force.

Distress damage feasant, the right to detain animals or chattels that have strayed on to the land and done damage, until compensation is paid. Chapter [Extra-Judicial Remedies] takes all of these together.

A worked example

Rehana returns from six months abroad and finds that Sameer has fenced part of her plot and parked lorries on it.

If she is in possession of the rest of the plot, the fencing and parking are trespasses. She may sue for damages and for a mandatory injunction under section 39 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 to remove the fence, and for a perpetual injunction under section 38 to stop the parking.

If Sameer has taken possession of the whole plot, trespass is not the right action, because she is out of possession. Within six months of the dispossession she may bring the summary suit under section 6, in which Sameer cannot rely on any title he claims. Beyond six months she must sue on her title under section 5.

If she goes and pulls the fence down herself, she is exercising the extra-judicial remedy of re-entry, which is lawful if she uses no more force than is reasonably necessary and is entitled to possession, and unlawful, and dangerous, if she is not.

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Limitation. Article 87 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives three years from the date of the trespass for the claim for compensation, and section 22 of that Act gives a fresh period every moment while a trespass continues.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean damages are the only remedy. For a continuing trespass an injunction is usually the real remedy, because damages would have to be sued for again and again.

It does not mean an owner may always take the land back himself. Self-help is lawful only within narrow limits, and section 6 exists to discourage it.

It does not mean a section 6 suit settles the title. It decides possession only, and the defeated party may sue on title afterwards.

It does not mean mesne profits are the same as damages. Mesne profits represent the value of the wrongful occupation, not the injury to the land.

Quick revision

  1. Judicial remedies: damages, mesne profits, injunction, and a suit for possession.
  2. Damages lie without proof of loss because trespass is actionable per se.
  3. Injunctions: section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 for a perpetual injunction, section 39 for a mandatory one.
  4. Section 5: the ordinary suit for possession, based on title.
  5. Section 6: the summary suit, based on previous possession and dispossession otherwise than in due course of law; six months; no appeal or review; not against the Government; a better title is no defence.
  6. Extra-judicial: re-entry, expulsion of a trespasser, and distress damage feasant, all with reasonable force only.
  7. Limitation: article 87 gives three years from the trespass, and section 22 gives a fresh period for a continuing trespass.

Test yourself

1. What remedies has a person whose land has been trespassed upon? Four judicial remedies and three extra-judicial ones. He may sue for damages, and since trespass is actionable per se he recovers even without proving loss, the damages being nominal in that case and measured by the diminution in value or the cost of restoration where there is real damage. He may claim mesne profits for the period of wrongful occupation. He may obtain an injunction, perpetual under section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 or mandatory under section 39, which is the practical remedy where the trespass is continuing or threatened. And where he has been put out of possession he may sue for possession, under section 5 on his title or, within six months, under section 6 summarily. Out of court he may re-enter, expel a trespasser after a reasonable opportunity to leave, or distrain animals damage feasant, in each case using no more force than is reasonably necessary.

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2. Distinguish a suit under section 5 from a suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963. A suit under section 5 is the ordinary suit for the recovery of specific immovable property, brought in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 by a person entitled to possession; title is the very question in issue, the ordinary period of limitation applies, an appeal lies, and the decree settles the title. A suit under section 6 is summary. It is available to a person dispossessed without his consent otherwise than in due course of law, must be brought within six months of the dispossession, cannot be brought against the Government, and is decided without going into title, so that a defendant with a better title still loses. No appeal or review lies from a decree in such a suit, but the defeated party may afterwards sue on his title. The two exist side by side because the law wants possession restored quickly and title decided deliberately.

3. When will a court grant an injunction rather than damages for trespass? Where damages would not be an adequate remedy, which is the test section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 itself states for an invasion of a right to property: where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused, or where compensation in money would not afford adequate relief. In practice that means a continuing or repeated trespass, where an award of damages would leave the plaintiff to sue again and again, and a threatened trespass, where the harm has not yet occurred. Where the trespasser has built or placed something on the land, the appropriate order is a mandatory injunction under section 39 requiring him to remove it.

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Chapter Twenty-Eight

Trespass to Goods

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

Trespass to goods is direct interference with goods in another's possession, and it is actionable without proof of any damage.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: trespass to goods is any direct and wrongful interference with goods in the possession of another, committed by taking them, by moving them, or by damaging or otherwise physically interfering with them; the interest protected is possession, the tort is actionable per se, and the interference must be direct, so that harm caused at one remove belongs to negligence.

The essentials

1. Goods in the plaintiff's possession. As with land, the action protects possession. A bailee, a finder and a person in wrongful possession may all sue a stranger, and an owner out of possession may not sue in trespass, though he may sue in conversion.

2. Direct interference. Taking the goods away, moving them from one place to another, killing an animal, scratching a car, letting the air out of a tyre, or beating a dog. Directness separates trespass from a consequential injury.

3. Intention, or at least a voluntary act. As with trespass to land, mistake is no defence: taking another's umbrella believing it to be your own is a trespass.

4. No damage need be proved. The tort is actionable per se. Merely moving goods without permission is enough, though the damages will then be nominal.

The three torts protecting goods, and how to keep them apart

Trespass to goodsDetinueConversion
The wrongDirect interference with possessionWrongful detention after a demand for returnDealing with the goods inconsistently with the owner's right
Is a demand needed?NoYes, and a refusalNo
What the plaintiff must havePossessionThe right to immediate possessionPossession, or the right to immediate possession
The remedyDamages for the interferenceReturn of the goods or their valueDamages measured by the full value of the goods
Damage required?NoThe detention is the wrongThe full value is the measure

The practical difference is what the plaintiff gets. Trespass compensates the interference; conversion makes the defendant pay for the goods as though he had bought them; detinue aims at getting the thing itself back.

Defences

Consent of the person in possession.

Lawful authority, such as seizure under legal process, or the exercise of a lien or of a right of distress.

Retaking of goods by a person entitled to immediate possession, using no more force than is reasonable, which chapter [Extra-Judicial Remedies] deals with as recaption.

Necessity, as where goods are moved to save them from fire.

Inevitable accident, since the act must be voluntary.

Remedies

Damages for the interference, measured by the diminution in the value of the goods, or nominal where there is none.

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Return of the goods. Section 7 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, and its Explanations make clear that a trustee may sue, and that a special or temporary right to present possession is enough.

Recaption, the extra-judicial retaking of the goods.

Limitation. Article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives three years: for wrongfully taking or detaining specific movable property lost, or acquired by theft or dishonest misappropriation or conversion, time runs from when the person entitled first learns in whose possession it is; for wrongfully taking, injuring or detaining other movable property, from when the property is wrongfully taken or injured.

A worked example

Gita parks her scooter outside a college and leaves her books in the basket.

One. A stranger pushes the scooter ten feet to make room for his car, and it is undamaged. That is a trespass to goods. Movement without permission is interference, and Gita need prove no loss; her damages will be nominal.

Two. He lets down her tyres. That is a trespass with damage, and the measure is the cost of putting them right.

Three. He takes one of her books home, honestly believing it to be his. That is a trespass to goods, because mistake is no defence, and once he refuses to return it after a demand it is also a detinue, and his dealing with it as his own is a conversion.

Four. He sells the book to a shop. That is a conversion, and Gita may recover its full value from him, from the shop, or from anybody else who dealt with it as owner. Chapter [Conversion] works that out.

Five. He moves the scooter to save it from a fire spreading across the road. That is not actionable, because necessity justifies the interference.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require damage. Moving goods is enough.

It does not require dishonesty. Mistake and good faith are no defence.

It does not protect ownership as such. It protects possession; an owner out of possession sues in conversion.

It does not cover consequential harm. Directness is essential; harm caused at one remove is negligence.

Quick revision

  1. Trespass to goods: direct and wrongful interference with goods in another's possession.
  2. Actionable per se, so no damage need be proved.
  3. Possession, not ownership, is the interest protected.
  4. Mistake is no defence; consent, lawful authority, recaption, necessity and inevitable accident are.
  5. Remedies: damages, recovery of the goods under section 7 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, and recaption.
  6. Limitation: article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, three years, with the starting point depending on how the goods were lost.
  7. Keep the three torts apart by what the plaintiff must show and by what he recovers.
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Trespass to Goods

Test yourself

1. What is trespass to goods, and what must the plaintiff prove? Trespass to goods is a direct and wrongful interference with goods in the possession of another, committed by taking them, moving them, damaging them or otherwise physically interfering with them. The plaintiff must prove that the goods were in his possession, since the tort protects possession rather than ownership, and that the defendant interfered with them directly by a voluntary act. He need not prove damage, because the tort is actionable per se, and he need not prove dishonesty, because mistake is no defence: a person who takes another's umbrella honestly believing it to be his own commits the tort. Directness is essential, so harm which follows at one remove from the defendant's act belongs to negligence and not to trespass.

2. Distinguish trespass to goods, detinue and conversion. Trespass is a direct interference with possession, needs no demand and no damage, and is compensated by damages for the interference. Detinue is the wrongful detention of goods after a demand for their return has been made and refused, and its object is to get the thing itself back, or its value if it cannot be returned. Conversion is dealing with the goods in a manner inconsistent with the owner's right, such as selling them or destroying them, needs no demand, and its measure is the full value of the goods, so that the defendant pays as though he had bought them. A plaintiff in trespass must have had possession; in conversion possession or the right to immediate possession suffices; in detinue the right to immediate possession is what matters.

3. What remedies are available for an interference with goods? Damages, measured by the diminution in the value of the goods or nominal where none has resulted. Recovery of the goods themselves: section 7 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 allows a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property to recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, and its Explanations make clear that a trustee may sue and that a special or temporary right to present possession is sufficient. And the extra-judicial remedy of recaption, that is, retaking the goods, using no more force than is reasonably necessary. Limitation is three years under article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, running from when the person entitled first learns in whose possession the goods are, where they were lost or taken by theft, misappropriation or conversion, and otherwise from the taking or injury.

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Chapter Twenty-Nine

Detinue

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

Detinue is the wrongful detention of goods after the person entitled to them has demanded their return.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: detinue is the wrongful detention of a chattel by a person in possession of it against the person entitled to its immediate possession; the plaintiff must prove that he had a right to immediate possession, that he demanded the goods, and that the defendant refused to deliver them, and the relief sought is the return of the goods themselves or, in the alternative, their value together with damages for the detention.

The essentials

1. The plaintiff must have a right to the immediate possession of the goods. An owner who has hired the goods out for a fixed term has no such right until the term ends, so he cannot sue in detinue in the meantime.

2. The defendant must be in possession. Detinue lies against a person who has the goods, not against a person who once had them and has parted with them, whose wrong is conversion.

3. A demand and a refusal. The demand may be in any form and the refusal may be by conduct, but there must be a real refusal. A request for a reasonable time to check the claimant's title is not a refusal.

Detinue in India: sections 7 and 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963

Section 7 provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908. Explanation 1 allows a trustee to sue for possession of movable property in which the beneficiary is interested, and Explanation 2 provides that a special or temporary right to present possession is sufficient to support such a suit.

Section 8 provides for the case where the defendant has the goods but is not their owner. It says that a person having possession or control of an article of movable property, of which he is not the owner, may be compelled specifically to deliver it to the person entitled to its immediate possession in four cases: where the thing is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff; where compensation in money would not afford adequate relief; where it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage; and where the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff.

The Explanation to section 8 goes further and helps the plaintiff with his proof. Unless the contrary is proved, the court shall presume, in respect of any article claimed under clause (b) or clause (c), that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief, or, as the case may be, that it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage.

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Detinue

So the Indian statutory scheme reaches the same result as detinue did, and reaches it more easily: the plaintiff can ask for the thing itself, and not merely for its value, and the presumption is on his side.

Detinue against conversion

The two overlap and a refusal to return goods on demand is usually both. The differences are these.

DetinueConversion
Wrong complained ofThe continued detentionA dealing inconsistent with the owner's right
Must the defendant still have the goods?YesNo
Is a demand needed?YesNo
ReliefThe goods, or their valueDamages measured by the value at the date of conversion
Which is more useful for a unique thing?Detinue, because it aims at the thingConversion pays for it

Where the goods are unique, an heirloom, a manuscript, a particular painting, the plaintiff wants the thing and not the money, and that is when this tort and section 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 are worth pleading.

A worked example

Prakash lends his grandfather's silver watch to Rani for a week. The week ends.

One. He asks for it back and she says she will return it next month. That is a refusal only if it amounts to one; a short and reasonable postponement is not. If she simply keeps it and stops answering, the demand and refusal are made out and the detention is wrongful.

Two. He sues. In India he frames the suit under section 7 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 for recovery of the specific movable property, and relies on section 8 to ask that she be compelled to deliver the watch itself, on the ground that it is a family heirloom so that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief and the actual damage would be extremely difficult to ascertain.

Three. Suppose instead she has sold it to a jeweller. Detinue no longer lies against her, because she does not have the watch. Her wrong is conversion, and she must pay its full value. The jeweller, who dealt with it as owner, has also converted it, and Prakash may sue him for the value or seek the watch from him under section 8.

Four. Limitation. Article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives three years, running in the case of goods acquired by conversion from the time Prakash first learns in whose possession the watch is.

What it does NOT mean

It does not lie without a demand. That is what separates it from trespass and from conversion.

It does not lie against a person who no longer has the goods. That claim is in conversion.

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Detinue

It does not guarantee the return of the thing. A court may order the value instead, and in India section 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 sets out when specific delivery may be compelled.

It is not defeated by the defendant's good faith. A person who honestly believes the goods are his still detains them wrongfully once the plaintiff's right is established.

Quick revision

  1. Detinue: wrongful detention of goods after a demand by the person entitled to immediate possession.
  2. Three essentials: the right to immediate possession, a demand, and a refusal.
  3. The defendant must still have the goods.
  4. In India the statutory form is sections 7 and 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963.
  5. Section 8 allows specific delivery in four cases: agent or trustee, money not adequate relief, damage extremely difficult to ascertain, and possession wrongfully transferred. Its Explanation presumes the second and third in the plaintiff's favour until the contrary is proved.
  6. Detinue aims at the thing; conversion pays for it.
  7. Limitation: article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, three years.

Test yourself

1. What is detinue and what must be proved? Detinue is the wrongful detention of a chattel by the person in possession of it against the person entitled to its immediate possession. The plaintiff must prove three things: that he had the right to immediate possession, so that an owner who has hired the goods out for a term cannot sue during the term; that he made a demand for their return, in any form; and that the defendant refused to deliver them, whether expressly or by conduct, a request for a reasonable time to verify the claimant's title not amounting to a refusal. The defendant must still be in possession, since a person who has parted with the goods is answerable in conversion instead.

2. How is detinue given effect in Indian law? Through sections 7 and 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963. Section 7 allows a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property to recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, and its Explanations make clear that a trustee may sue and that a special or temporary right to present possession suffices. Section 8 deals with a defendant who has possession or control of movable property of which he is not the owner, and allows him to be compelled to deliver it specifically to the person entitled to immediate possession in four cases: where he holds it as the plaintiff's agent or trustee, where compensation in money would not be adequate relief, where it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage, and where the possession of the thing has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff.

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Detinue

3. When is detinue a better claim than conversion? When the plaintiff wants the thing itself rather than its value, and the defendant still has it. Conversion is compensated by damages measured by the full value of the goods at the date of the conversion, which is an adequate remedy for an ordinary commercial article but not for a unique one. Where the chattel is an heirloom, a manuscript, a particular painting or a thing with no market substitute, the plaintiff should demand its return and, on refusal, sue for specific delivery, relying in India on section 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, which allows exactly that where money would not afford adequate relief or the damage would be extremely difficult to ascertain.

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Chapter Thirty

Conversion

Syllabus topic 2.2, "Torts affecting Property (Movable & Immovable): Trespass, Trespass ab initio etc."

In one line

Conversion is dealing with goods in a way that denies the owner's right to them, and the defendant pays their full value.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: conversion, also called trover, is an act of wilful interference with a chattel, done without lawful justification, by which the person entitled to it is deprived of its use and possession; the essence is a dealing inconsistent with the rights of the person entitled, the intention to challenge his title is not necessary, and the measure of damages is the value of the goods at the date of the conversion, so that the defendant is treated as though he had bought them.

The word

Trover is the old name of the action, from the French trouver, to find, because the plaintiff pleaded a fiction that he had lost the goods and the defendant had found them. The modern name, conversion, describes what the defendant does: he converts the goods to his own use.

The essentials

1. The plaintiff must have possession, or the right to immediate possession. A bailee in possession may sue; so may an owner entitled to immediate possession. An owner who has parted with possession for a fixed term cannot sue during the term.

2. A dealing inconsistent with the plaintiff's right. This is the heart of the tort. It is not enough to touch or move the goods; the defendant must deal with them as though they were his own, or in a way that denies the plaintiff's title.

3. No intention to challenge the title is needed. Honesty is no defence. A person who buys stolen goods innocently, or an auctioneer who sells them for a thief in good faith, converts them.

The ways conversion is committed

By taking, where goods are taken with the intention of exercising dominion over them.

By detention, where the defendant keeps the goods and refuses to deliver them on demand, which is also detinue.

By wrongful delivery, where a bailee delivers the goods to the wrong person.

By wrongful disposition, where the defendant sells, pledges or otherwise disposes of the goods.

By destruction or alteration, where the goods are destroyed, or changed so much that their identity is lost, as by making wine into vinegar.

By wrongful user, where the defendant uses the goods as his own, as where a bailee for storage drives the car.

What is NOT conversion: a mere assertion of a claim without an act, a refusal to deliver made in good faith to check the claimant's title within a reasonable time, and a bare failure to look after the goods, which is negligence.

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Conversion

The measure of damages, and why it matters

The measure is the value of the goods at the date of the conversion, together with any special damage. That has two consequences a student should be able to state.

The plaintiff need not take the goods back. If the defendant offers to return them, the plaintiff may accept, and the damages then cover the depreciation and the loss of use, but the tort has been committed.

A chain of innocent dealers may all be liable. If a thief sells to a dealer who sells to a buyer, each has dealt with the goods inconsistently with the owner's right, and each has converted them. The owner is entitled to one satisfaction only, but he may choose whom to sue.

Defences

Lawful justification, such as sale by a person with authority, a lien, or a statutory power of sale.

Consent of the person entitled.

Jus tertii, that is, a third person's better title, is a defence in limited circumstances only: a bailee cannot ordinarily set up the title of a third person against his bailor.

Limitation, under article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, three years, running from when the person entitled first learns in whose possession goods lost, stolen, misappropriated or converted are.

A worked example

Imran leaves his laptop with Jaya to be repaired.

One. Jaya lends it to her brother for a week. That is conversion by wrongful user: she has dealt with it as though it were hers.

Two. Jaya returns it to a customer of the same name by mistake. That is conversion by wrongful delivery. Her honesty is no answer.

Three. Jaya sells it to a shop, which sells it to Kamal, who buys in good faith for full value. Jaya, the shop and Kamal have each converted it. Imran may sue any of them for its full value at the date of the conversion, though he can have only one satisfaction.

Four. Kamal, having heard of the claim, offers the laptop back. Imran may take it, and recover the depreciation and the loss of its use in the meantime; the conversion has still occurred.

Five. If Imran wants the laptop itself rather than money, he sues under sections 7 and 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 for specific delivery, as chapter [Detinue] explains.

Distinctions that carry marks

ConversionTrespass to goods
EssenceDenial of the plaintiff's title by a dealingDirect interference with possession
DamageMeasured by the full value of the goodsMeasured by the interference
Good faithNo defenceNo defence
Moving goods a few feetNot conversion, because the owner's title is not deniedTrespass
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Conversion

What it does NOT mean

It does not require dishonesty. An innocent purchaser converts.

It does not require the defendant to keep the goods. Selling them, destroying them or giving them away are all conversions.

It does not lie for a mere assertion of ownership. There must be an act dealing with the goods.

It does not give the plaintiff two recoveries. He may sue any of a chain of converters, but he is entitled to one satisfaction only.

Quick revision

  1. Conversion, formerly trover: a wilful dealing with goods inconsistent with the right of the person entitled, without lawful justification.
  2. The plaintiff must have possession or the right to immediate possession.
  3. Good faith and absence of any intention to challenge the title are no defence.
  4. Forms: taking, detention, wrongful delivery, wrongful disposition, destruction or alteration, and wrongful user.
  5. Measure: the value of the goods at the date of the conversion, plus special damage.
  6. Every person in a chain who deals with the goods as owner converts them, but the plaintiff gets one satisfaction only.
  7. Limitation: three years under article 91 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963.
  8. For the thing itself rather than its value, sue under sections 7 and 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963.

Test yourself

1. Define conversion and state its essentials. Conversion is an act of wilful interference with a chattel, done without lawful justification, by which the person entitled to it is deprived of its use and possession. Its essentials are that the plaintiff had possession or the right to immediate possession of the goods, and that the defendant dealt with them in a manner inconsistent with that right, that is, as though they were his own or in a way denying the plaintiff's title. No intention to challenge the title is required, so honesty and good faith are no defence, and a person who buys stolen goods innocently converts them. The measure of damages is the value of the goods at the date of the conversion, so that the defendant is treated as though he had bought them.

2. In what ways may conversion be committed? By taking the goods with the intention of exercising dominion over them; by detaining them and refusing to deliver them on demand, which is also detinue; by wrongful delivery, as where a bailee hands them to the wrong person; by wrongful disposition, as where they are sold or pledged; by destruction or by such alteration that their identity is lost; and by wrongful user, as where a bailee for safe keeping uses the goods as his own. What is not conversion is a mere assertion of a claim without any act, a refusal made in good faith while the claimant's title is checked within a reasonable time, and a failure to take care of the goods, which is negligence rather than conversion.

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Conversion

3. "An innocent buyer of stolen goods is liable in conversion." Is that just? It is the law, and the reason is that conversion protects title rather than punishing dishonesty. Each person in a chain who deals with goods as owner denies the true owner's right, so the thief, the dealer and the innocent purchaser have each converted them, and the owner may sue whichever he chooses for the full value at the date of the conversion, taking one satisfaction only. The justification is that between two innocent parties the loss should fall on the one who dealt with the goods rather than on the owner who never parted with his title, and that a buyer can protect himself by inquiring into the seller's title while an owner cannot follow his goods around the market. The rule is qualified where a statute protects a purchaser in market overt or in the ordinary course of business, and by the defences of lawful authority and consent.

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Chapter Thirty-One

Defamation: What It Is

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

Defamation is the publication of a statement that lowers a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: defamation is the publication to a third person of a false statement concerning the plaintiff which tends to lower him in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or to expose him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, or to cause him to be shunned or avoided; the interest protected is reputation, the statement must be understood as referring to the plaintiff, and the truth of the statement is a complete defence in civil law.

The interest protected

Reputation is what other people think of you, and the law protects it because a person's standing with others determines his livelihood, his relationships and his ability to take part in public life.

The Supreme Court has put reputation on a constitutional footing. In Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221, the Court held that reputation is an integral part of the right to life under article 21, and used that to justify the criminal law of defamation as a reasonable restriction on the freedom of speech under article 19(2). So in India, defamation is not simply a private grievance; it engages a right the Constitution protects, which is why the balance with free speech is the hardest question in the subject.

The test

The classical test is whether the statement tends to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally. Each part of that phrase does work.

Tends to lower. The question is the tendency of the words, not whether anybody actually thought less of the plaintiff.

Right-thinking members. Not the plaintiff's own circle, and not people with unusual or discreditable standards. A statement that a man informed the police about a crime may lower him among criminals and is not defamatory.

Of society generally. A statement that offends a small group is not enough unless a substantial and respectable section of society would think less of the plaintiff.

Two supplementary tests are used in the cases: whether the words expose the plaintiff to hatred, contempt or ridicule, and whether they cause him to be shunned or avoided.

What is not defamation

Mere abuse. Words spoken in anger and understood by the hearers as abuse rather than as an assertion of fact are not defamatory. Calling a man a fool in a quarrel is vulgar, not actionable.

Statements true in substance. Truth is a complete defence in civil law, and chapter [Defences to Defamation] works it out.

Statements about the dead, which give no civil action to the estate, though in some circumstances they may defame a living relative.

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Defamation: What It Is

Statements not referring to the plaintiff, and statements that no reasonable person would understand as referring to him.

Statements not published, that is, not communicated to a third person, which chapter [The Essentials of Defamation] deals with.

Reputation against privacy, and where the line falls in India

A true statement destroys a reputation just as effectively as a false one, and civil defamation gives no remedy for it. That gap is filled in India by the right to privacy.

Facts. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264, decided on 7 October 1994. The editor and publisher of a Tamil magazine proposed to serialise the autobiography of a condemned prisoner, which described his links with several police officials. The State authorities warned them not to publish and threatened action, and they moved the Supreme Court under article 32.

Held. No prior restraint could be imposed on the press. The Court summarised the principles: the right to privacy is implicit in article 21 and is a right to be let alone, so nobody may publish anything concerning a person's home, family, marriage, procreation, motherhood, child-bearing or education without consent, whether truthful or otherwise; but publication based on public records, including court records, is unobjectionable, subject to an exception protecting the identity of a female victim of sexual assault or a like offence; and in the case of a public official no action for damages lies in respect of acts and conduct relevant to the discharge of official duties, even where the publication is untrue, unless the official proves that it was made with reckless disregard for truth, though a publication proved false and actuated by malice or personal animosity has no defence.

Why it matters here. It marks the boundary of the tort in India: what a true statement does not reach, privacy may; and against a public official the plaintiff must prove far more than an ordinary plaintiff.

A worked example

A newspaper prints four sentences about Ganesh, a municipal engineer.

One. "Ganesh takes bribes to pass building plans." Plainly defamatory: it tends to lower him in the estimation of right-thinking people and to expose him to contempt. Truth would be a defence, and the paper must prove it.

Two. "Ganesh is a fool who cannot read a drawing." Capable of being defamatory of him in his office, because it attacks his competence in his calling, but the same words shouted in a quarrel might be mere abuse.

Three. "Ganesh gave the police the names of the men who assaulted his neighbour." Not defamatory, although criminals may think worse of him: the test is the estimation of right-thinking members of society.

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Defamation: What It Is

Four. "Ganesh's marriage is unhappy and his wife has left him." Not necessarily defamatory at all, since it imputes no discredit, but on R. Rajagopal it may be an invasion of privacy, because marriage is one of the matters expressly named there.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require proof that anybody thought worse of the plaintiff. The test is the tendency of the words.

It does not protect a reputation the plaintiff does not have. A person of admittedly bad character in the very respect complained of recovers little.

It does not cover hurt feelings alone. The interest is reputation with others, not self-esteem.

It does not stop at what is false. A true statement is not defamation, but it may still be an invasion of privacy under R. Rajagopal.

Quick revision

  1. Defamation is the publication of a statement tending to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally.
  2. Supplementary tests: exposure to hatred, contempt or ridicule; being shunned or avoided.
  3. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221: reputation is part of the right to life under article 21.
  4. Mere abuse, true statements, statements about the dead and unpublished statements are outside the tort.
  5. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264: privacy is implicit in article 21; publication from public records is unobjectionable; a public official must prove reckless disregard for truth as to his official conduct.
  6. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 is the criminal counterpart.

Test yourself

1. Define defamation and state the test of a defamatory statement. Defamation is the publication to a third person of a statement concerning the plaintiff which tends to lower him in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or to expose him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, or to cause him to be shunned or avoided. The test is objective and asks about the tendency of the words rather than their actual effect, so the plaintiff need not prove that anybody in fact thought worse of him. The standard is that of right-thinking members of society, so words that lower the plaintiff only in the eyes of people with discreditable standards, such as a statement that he assisted the police, are not defamatory. The interest protected is reputation, and in India the Supreme Court held in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221, that reputation is an integral part of the right to life under article 21.

2. Is a true statement ever actionable? Not as defamation. Truth, if pleaded and proved, is a complete defence in a civil action, because the law protects the reputation a person deserves rather than the reputation he enjoys. But a true statement may be actionable on another footing. In R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264, the Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is implicit in article 21 and that nobody may publish anything concerning a person's home, family, marriage, procreation, motherhood, child-bearing or education without consent, whether truthful or otherwise, and that a person who does so is liable in damages. The exception is publication based on public records, including court records, subject to protection for the identity of a female victim of a sexual offence.

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Defamation: What It Is

3. What is the position of a public official who complains of a publication about his official conduct? He is in a much weaker position than an ordinary plaintiff. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264, holds that no action for damages is available to a public official in respect of acts and conduct relevant to the discharge of his official duties, even where the publication is untrue, unless he establishes that it was made with reckless disregard for truth. It is enough for the publisher to show that he acted after reasonable verification of the facts, and he need not prove that what he wrote was true. Where the publication is proved to be false and actuated by malice or personal animosity, the publisher has no defence. In matters unconnected with his official duties, the official has the same protection as any other citizen.

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Chapter Thirty-Two

Libel and Slander

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

Libel is defamation in a permanent form, slander is defamation in a transient form, and in India the difference matters far less than in England.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: libel is the publication of a defamatory statement in some permanent form, such as writing, printing, a picture, an effigy or a broadcast, while slander is its publication in a transient form, such as spoken words or gestures; in English law libel is actionable per se and is also a crime, while slander is actionable only on proof of special damage except in four cases; in India the distinction has largely not been followed, and the better view, taken by several High Courts, is that slander too is actionable without proof of special damage.

The English distinction

Libel is in permanent form: writing, print, a picture, a statue, an effigy, a film, and by statute in England a broadcast. It is actionable per se and is also a crime.

Slander is in transient form: spoken words, gestures, sign language. It is actionable only on proof of special damage, which means actual pecuniary loss, and it is not ordinarily a crime.

Special damage means some material or temporal loss, such as the loss of employment, of custom, or of the hospitality of friends. Mere loss of reputation or hurt feelings is not special damage.

The four exceptions, where slander is actionable per se

1. Imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment.

2. Imputation of a contagious or infectious disease which would cause the plaintiff to be shunned.

3. Imputation of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in an office, profession, calling, trade or business carried on by the plaintiff.

4. Imputation of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl, made actionable in England by statute.

Why the distinction was drawn, and why it is criticised

The historical reasons were the permanence of the written word, the deliberation involved in writing, and the wider circulation print achieves.

The criticisms are that a spoken word on television now reaches more people than a printed one, that a defamatory remark may be repeated indefinitely, and that the line between permanent and transient has become arbitrary. A defamatory statement read aloud from a script is slander; the script itself is libel.

The Indian position

This is the paragraph MU is asking for.

Indian law has not adopted the English distinction in its full form. The better view, taken by several High Courts, is that in India slander is also actionable without proof of special damage, and the reasons given are these.

The law came here as justice, equity and good conscience. As chapter [Tort in India] explains, English rules apply only so far as they suit Indian conditions, and a rule that leaves a poor plaintiff without a remedy because he cannot prove a rupee of loss does not.

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Libel and Slander

The Indian criminal law makes no distinction. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines defamation as the making or publishing of any imputation concerning a person, by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations, intending to harm or knowing it likely to harm his reputation. Speech and writing are treated alike, and the offence is complete without any special damage.

Literacy and circulation. In a society in which much communication is oral, confining the ready remedy to the written word protects only those who are written about.

Say in an answer that the point is not concluded by the Supreme Court, and that the High Courts have taken the view stated. That is honest and it is what a careful examiner wants.

Limitation

The Limitation Act 1963 keeps the two apart and its wording repays reading. Article 75 gives one year for compensation for libel, running from when the libel is published. Article 76 gives one year for slander, running from when the words are spoken, or, if the words are not actionable in themselves, from when the special damage complained of results.

So the statute itself contemplates that some slanders are actionable in themselves and some are not, which is a point in favour of the four exceptions being recognised in India even by those who reject the general rule.

A worked example

At a shareholders' meeting, Ravi says aloud that Sunita, a chartered accountant, "has been falsifying the accounts for years". A newspaper reports the meeting the next day, quoting him.

Ravi's spoken words are slander in English law. But they impute both a criminal offence and unfitness in her profession, so they fall within two of the four exceptions and are actionable without proof of special damage even in England. In India, on the view stated above, they are actionable in any event.

The newspaper's report is libel, in permanent form, and is actionable per se. The paper may plead that its report of the meeting is protected by qualified privilege, which chapter [Defences to Defamation] examines, and the privilege is lost if Sunita proves malice.

If Ravi had merely said "Sunita is a fool", in anger, that would be neither: it is mere abuse and imputes nothing.

Limitation. Sunita has one year against Ravi from the day he spoke, under article 76, and one year against the newspaper from the day of publication, under article 75.

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Libel and Slander

Distinctions that carry marks

LibelSlander
FormPermanent: writing, print, picture, effigy, filmTransient: spoken words, gestures
Actionable per se in England?YesOnly in four cases
Criminal in England?YesOrdinarily no
Position in IndiaActionable per seThe better view is that it too is actionable per se
LimitationArticle 75, one year from publicationArticle 76, one year from the speaking or from the special damage

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean spoken words are always harmless. The four exceptions cover most serious oral imputations even in England.

It does not mean the Indian position is settled by the Supreme Court. It is the view of High Courts, and an answer should say so.

It does not mean special damage is hurt feelings. It means actual material loss.

It does not affect the criminal law. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 treats spoken and written imputations alike.

Quick revision

  1. Libel: permanent form; slander: transient form.
  2. In England libel is actionable per se and is a crime; slander needs special damage except in four cases.
  3. The four exceptions: imputation of an imprisonable offence, of a contagious disease, of unfitness in office or calling, and of unchastity to a woman.
  4. Special damage means material or temporal loss, not hurt feelings.
  5. In India the distinction has largely not been followed and the better view is that slander too is actionable per se.
  6. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 makes no distinction between spoken and written imputations.
  7. Limitation: article 75 for libel, article 76 for slander, both one year, with different starting points.

Test yourself

1. Distinguish libel from slander and state the exceptions in which slander is actionable per se. Libel is the publication of a defamatory statement in a permanent form, such as writing, printing, a picture, an effigy or a film, and slander is its publication in a transient form, such as spoken words or gestures. In English law libel is actionable per se and is also a crime, while slander is actionable only on proof of special damage, meaning actual material or temporal loss such as the loss of employment or of custom. Slander is actionable without such proof in four cases: where it imputes a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; where it imputes a contagious or infectious disease which would cause the plaintiff to be shunned; where it imputes unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in an office, profession, calling, trade or business carried on by the plaintiff; and where it imputes unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl.

2. Has the distinction between libel and slander been accepted in India? Not in its full form. The better view, taken by several High Courts, is that in India slander is also actionable without proof of special damage. Three reasons are given. English rules apply in India only so far as they suit Indian conditions, under the rule of justice, equity and good conscience, and a rule that denies a remedy to a plaintiff who cannot prove pecuniary loss does not. The Indian criminal law makes no such distinction: section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 defines defamation as an imputation made by words spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or visible representations, so speech and writing are treated alike. And in a society where much communication is oral, confining the ready remedy to writing protects only the literate. The point has not been concluded by the Supreme Court, and an answer should say so.

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3. What is special damage in the law of slander? Special damage means some actual material or temporal loss flowing from the publication, such as the loss of a job, the loss of custom in a business, the loss of a marriage prospect or the withdrawal of hospitality by friends. It does not include the loss of reputation itself, which the law presumes where the tort is actionable per se, and it does not include hurt feelings, mental distress or social embarrassment. The requirement matters because in English law it is the price of suing on a spoken statement outside the four exceptions, and the Limitation Act 1963 reflects it: article 76 runs from the speaking of the words, or, where they are not actionable in themselves, from the time the special damage results.

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Chapter Thirty-Three

The Essentials of Defamation

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

The plaintiff must prove three things: the statement was defamatory, it referred to him, and it was published to somebody other than himself.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the essentials of defamation are that the statement complained of be defamatory, that is, that it tend to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right-thinking members of society; that it refer to the plaintiff, whether by name or by such description or circumstances as would lead reasonable people who know him to understand that he is meant; and that it be published, that is, communicated to at least one person other than the plaintiff himself.

Essential one: the statement must be defamatory

Chapter [Defamation: What It Is] states the test. Two refinements belong here.

The words are read as a whole and in their ordinary meaning. A sentence is not made defamatory by taking three words out of it, and a defamatory sting may be removed by the rest of the article, which is the rule known as the bane and the antidote.

Innuendo. Words innocent on their face may be defamatory because of facts known to the people who read them. That secondary meaning is called an innuendo, and the plaintiff must plead it and prove the extrinsic facts.

The classical illustration is a statement that a woman has given birth to a child, innocent in itself, but defamatory to those who know she is unmarried. A modern one is a report that a named restaurant was inspected by a food safety team, innocent to most readers, defamatory to those who know that the team inspects only after a complaint of adulteration.

Distinguish the true or legal innuendo, which depends on extrinsic facts and must be pleaded, from the false or popular innuendo, which is merely the ordinary meaning read between the lines and need not be.

Essential two: the statement must refer to the plaintiff

By name is the easy case.

Without a name, the test is whether the words would be understood by reasonable people who know the plaintiff as referring to him. A description of "the chairman of the municipal committee" identifies whoever holds that office.

Intention is irrelevant. A writer who invents a name and finds that a real person of that name is thought to be meant may still be liable, because the test is understanding and not intention.

Defamation of a class. A statement about a class is not actionable at the suit of a member unless the class is so small, or the words so pointed, that they can reasonably be understood to refer to him. "All lawyers are thieves" gives no action. "The three partners of the firm X are thieves" gives an action to each of the three.

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Essential three: publication

Publication means communication to at least one person other than the plaintiff. A letter of abuse sent by the defendant to the plaintiff alone is not defamation, though it may be another wrong.

Every repetition is a fresh publication. The person who repeats a defamatory statement is liable for his own publication of it, and it is no defence that he named his source or expressed disbelief.

Publication may be unintentional but must not be involuntary. Dictating a letter to a typist, or sending a postcard that anybody may read, is publication. Where a third person reads a sealed letter addressed to the plaintiff without authority, there is ordinarily no publication by the writer, unless he knew or ought to have anticipated it.

Between spouses. A communication by one spouse to the other is not publication, because in law husband and wife are treated as one for this purpose; but a communication by a stranger to one spouse about the other is publication.

On the internet. A statement placed on a website or sent to a group is published to everybody who reads it, and the tort is committed wherever it is read. Chapter [Defamation in India] deals with the practical consequences.

A worked example

A blog publishes: "The senior-most surgeon at the City Hospital has been operating while unqualified, and the College knows it."

Is it defamatory? Yes: it imputes both incompetence in a calling and complicity in a fraud.

Does it refer to the plaintiff? No name is given, but if the hospital has one senior-most surgeon, reasonable people who know the hospital will understand who is meant, and intention is irrelevant.

Was it published? Yes, to every reader, and each reader who forwards it publishes it again.

And an innuendo. Suppose the sentence were merely "The senior-most surgeon at the City Hospital was seen at the Medical Council's office on Tuesday." That is innocent on its face. If the plaintiff pleads and proves that the Council sits on Tuesdays only to hear complaints of professional misconduct, and that readers in the town know it, the sentence carries a defamatory innuendo.

And a class. If the blog had said "surgeons in this city operate while unqualified", no individual surgeon could sue, because the class is too large and the words do not point at anyone.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require the defendant to have intended to defame the plaintiff. Understanding, not intention, is the test of reference.

It does not require wide circulation. Publication to one person is enough, though circulation affects the damages.

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It does not make every member of a class a plaintiff. The class must be small enough, or the words pointed enough, to identify him.

It does not treat a letter to the plaintiff alone as defamation. There is no publication.

Quick revision

  1. Three essentials: the statement must be defamatory, must refer to the plaintiff, and must be published.
  2. Words are read as a whole; the bane may be cured by the antidote.
  3. Innuendo: a defamatory meaning arising from extrinsic facts, which must be pleaded and proved.
  4. Reference: the test is whether reasonable people who know the plaintiff would understand the words as referring to him; intention is irrelevant.
  5. Class defamation is actionable only where the class is small or the words point at the plaintiff.
  6. Publication: communication to at least one person other than the plaintiff; every repetition is a fresh publication.
  7. Communication between spouses is not publication; a postcard or a dictated letter is.

Test yourself

1. State and explain the essentials of defamation. Three. First, the statement must be defamatory, that is, it must tend to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or expose him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, or cause him to be shunned; the words are construed as a whole, and a defamatory meaning may arise from extrinsic facts by way of innuendo. Second, it must refer to the plaintiff, and the test is whether reasonable people who know him would understand the words as referring to him; his name need not be used, and the defendant's intention is irrelevant. Third, it must be published, that is, communicated to at least one person other than the plaintiff, since the tort protects his standing with others and not his own feelings.

2. What is innuendo? Distinguish its two kinds. An innuendo is a defamatory meaning that words bear otherwise than on their face. A true or legal innuendo arises from facts extrinsic to the statement which are known to some of those who read it, so that words innocent to the general reader are defamatory to them; the plaintiff must plead the innuendo and prove the extrinsic facts and that they were known to readers. A false or popular innuendo is not really an innuendo at all: it is the ordinary meaning that a reasonable reader would take from the words read between the lines, and it need not be specially pleaded. The classical illustration of the first is a statement that a woman has borne a child, innocent in itself but defamatory to those who know she is unmarried.

3. What amounts to publication, and when is there none? Publication is the communication of the defamatory matter to at least one person other than the plaintiff. It need not be wide: one reader is enough, though circulation affects damages. Every repetition is a fresh publication, and it is no defence that the repeater named his source or expressed disbelief. Dictating a letter to a typist, and sending a postcard or an open telegram, are publications. There is no publication where the defendant communicates the matter to the plaintiff alone, or where a third person reads a sealed letter without authority and the writer neither knew nor ought to have anticipated it, or where one spouse communicates it to the other, since husband and wife are treated as one for this purpose. A communication by a stranger to one spouse about the other is publication.

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Chapter Thirty-Four

Defences to Defamation

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

The defences are truth, fair comment, absolute privilege, qualified privilege and apology, and malice destroys only the fourth.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the defences to an action for defamation are justification by truth, which is a complete defence in civil law; fair comment on a matter of public interest, which protects an opinion honestly held and based on true facts; absolute privilege, which protects statements made in Parliament, in judicial proceedings and in certain official communications, however malicious; qualified privilege, which protects a statement made in the discharge of a duty or in the protection of an interest to a person having a corresponding interest, and which is defeated by proof of malice in fact; and apology, which is not a defence at common law but may mitigate damages.

1. Justification, or truth

In a civil action, truth is a complete defence, and the defendant need not show that publication was for the public good.

The whole sting must be proved. It is enough that the statement is substantially true; a minor inaccuracy that does not change the sting does not defeat the defence.

The burden is on the defendant. The law presumes the falsity of a defamatory statement, so the plaintiff need not prove it false.

In the CRIMINAL law the defence is narrower. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 makes truth a defence only where the imputation is true and its publication is for the public good, which is a question of fact. That difference between the civil and criminal defences is a favourite examination point.

2. Fair comment

The defence protects opinion, not fact, and it has four conditions.

It must be a comment, that is, an expression of opinion, and not an assertion of fact. "He is a dishonest judge" is an allegation of fact; "his judgment shows he did not read the record", based on the judgment, is comment.

The facts on which it is based must be true, and must be stated or sufficiently indicated so that the reader can judge the comment for himself.

It must be on a matter of public interest: the administration of justice, the conduct of public servants, public institutions, published books, plays and performances, and anything a person submits to public judgment.

It must be fair, in the sense of being an opinion an honest person could hold on those facts, however prejudiced or exaggerated. Malice defeats it, because a comment made from an improper motive is not honest.

3. Absolute privilege

Where the occasion is absolutely privileged, no action lies at all, however false the statement and however malicious the maker. The categories are narrow and each rests on a reason of public policy.

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Parliamentary proceedings. Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution protect anything said and any vote given in Parliament and in a State Legislature respectively, and the publication of reports and proceedings by or under their authority.

Judicial proceedings. Statements by judges, counsel, parties and witnesses in the course of judicial proceedings are absolutely privileged, so that everybody may speak freely in court. The protection extends to tribunals exercising judicial functions.

Official communications. Communications between officers of State in the course of official duty.

Communications between spouses, which are in any event not published, as chapter [The Essentials of Defamation] explains.

4. Qualified privilege

The occasion is privileged, but the privilege is lost if the plaintiff proves malice in fact, that is, spite or an improper motive, as chapter [The Mental Element in Tort] defines it.

The test is that the maker had a legal, social or moral duty to make the statement, or an interest to protect, and the person to whom it was made had a corresponding duty or interest to receive it. The reciprocity is essential: a statement broadcast to the world is not protected merely because one of its readers had an interest in it.

The standard instances are a reference given by a former employer, a complaint made to the authority with power to act on it, a report by an agent to his principal, a statement made in self-defence against an attack, and a fair and accurate report of parliamentary or judicial proceedings.

How the privilege is lost. By proof that the defendant did not believe what he said, or spoke from spite, or went beyond what the occasion required, or published more widely than the duty or interest called for.

5. Apology, and mitigation

At common law an apology is not a defence. It goes to the damages, and a prompt and full apology may reduce them substantially. In England a statutory defence exists for newspapers on terms; in India there is no equivalent general statutory defence, and an apology is therefore a matter of mitigation.

Other matters in mitigation: the plaintiff's own bad reputation in the respect complained of, provocation by the plaintiff, and the fact that the same libel has already been compensated elsewhere.

The public official, and the Indian gloss

Facts. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264, decided on 7 October 1994. The editor and publisher of a Tamil magazine proposed to serialise a condemned prisoner's autobiography, which described his links with police officials, and the authorities threatened action to stop it.

Held. No prior restraint could be imposed. Among the principles the Court summarised was this: in the case of a public official, no action for damages lies in respect of acts and conduct relevant to the discharge of his official duties, even where the publication is untrue, unless the official establishes that it was made with reckless disregard for truth; it is enough for the publisher to show that he acted after reasonable verification of the facts, and he need not prove that what he wrote was true. Where the publication is proved false and actuated by malice or personal animosity, there is no defence.

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Why it matters here. It gives Indian law a defence for the press about official conduct which is wider than fair comment and wider than qualified privilege, and it is what a student should cite when asked about the balance between reputation and free speech.

A worked example

A magazine publishes: "Contractor Q got the bridge contract because he paid the Minister. Q's earlier bridge at Y collapsed, and anyone who has seen it knows why: the man builds with sand."

"Q paid the Minister" is an allegation of fact. The defences available are justification, if the magazine can prove it, and, so far as the Minister's official conduct is concerned, the R. Rajagopal protection, which puts on the Minister the burden of showing reckless disregard for truth. As against Q, who is not a public official, that protection does not apply.

"Q's earlier bridge at Y collapsed" is a fact. If true, justification protects it.

"The man builds with sand" is comment on those facts. If the facts are true, the subject is of public interest, and the opinion is one an honest person could hold, fair comment protects it, unless Q proves malice.

If the magazine apologises the next week, that is not a defence, but it will reduce the damages.

Distinctions that carry marks

Absolute privilegeQualified privilege
Effect of maliceNone; the defence standsDestroys the defence
OccasionsParliament, judicial proceedings, State communicationsDuty or interest, with reciprocity
BasisFreedom of the occasion itselfThe proper use of an occasion
JustificationFair comment
What is protectedA statement of factAn expression of opinion
What must be provedThat the statement is substantially trueThat the facts are true and the opinion honest
Effect of maliceNone; truth is truthDestroys it, because malice negatives honesty

What it does NOT mean

Truth is not a defence in the criminal law by itself. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 requires that publication also be for the public good.

Fair comment does not protect a misstatement of fact. It protects opinion on true facts.

Qualified privilege is not lost by mere carelessness. It is lost by malice, which means an improper motive or want of honest belief.

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An apology is not a defence. It mitigates.

Quick revision

  1. Five defences: justification, fair comment, absolute privilege, qualified privilege, apology in mitigation.
  2. Truth is a complete civil defence and the burden is on the defendant; substantial truth is enough.
  3. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 requires truth AND public good for the criminal defence.
  4. Fair comment: comment not fact, on true facts, on a matter of public interest, honestly held; malice destroys it.
  5. Absolute privilege: articles 105 and 194 for legislatures, judicial proceedings, State communications; malice is irrelevant.
  6. Qualified privilege: duty or interest with reciprocity; destroyed by malice in fact or by excess of publication.
  7. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264: as to a public official's official conduct, the official must prove reckless disregard for truth.
  8. Apology is not a defence but reduces damages.

Test yourself

1. What defences are available in an action for defamation? Five. Justification, that is, truth: a complete defence in civil law, the burden being on the defendant, and substantial truth of the sting sufficing. Fair comment: an honest expression of opinion, based on facts which are true and stated or indicated, on a matter of public interest, defeated by malice. Absolute privilege: statements in Parliament or a State Legislature under articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution, statements by judges, counsel, parties and witnesses in judicial proceedings, and communications between officers of State, none of which is affected by malice. Qualified privilege: a statement made in the discharge of a legal, social or moral duty, or in the protection of an interest, to a person with a corresponding duty or interest, defeated by proof of malice in fact or by publication wider than the occasion required. And apology, which is not a defence but mitigates the damages.

2. Distinguish absolute from qualified privilege. Absolute privilege attaches to the occasion itself, so that no action lies however false the statement and however malicious the maker; it covers proceedings in Parliament and State Legislatures under articles 105 and 194, judicial proceedings, and communications between officers of State, and it exists because those occasions would be useless if participants had to weigh every word against the risk of a suit. Qualified privilege attaches to the proper use of an occasion: it protects a statement made in the discharge of a duty or the protection of an interest to a person having a corresponding duty or interest, and it is lost if the plaintiff proves malice in fact, or that the defendant did not believe what he said, or that he published more widely than the occasion required.

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3. How does the defence of truth differ in civil and criminal defamation? In the civil action truth alone is a complete defence: the defendant who proves that the statement is substantially true wins, whatever his motive, because the law protects the reputation a person deserves. In the criminal law the defence is narrower. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 makes it an exception that the imputation is true and that its publication is for the public good, and whether the publication is for the public good is a question of fact. So a true but gratuitous exposure of a private matter may found a prosecution although it could not found a civil suit, which is one reason the criminal remedy is criticised and was nevertheless upheld in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221.

4. When may a newspaper rely on fair comment? When four conditions are satisfied. The matter complained of must be comment, that is, an expression of opinion, and not an assertion of fact, so a newspaper that asserts corruption cannot call it comment. The facts on which the comment is based must be true and must be stated or sufficiently indicated, so that the reader can judge the opinion for himself. The subject must be one of public interest, which includes the administration of justice, the conduct of public servants and institutions, and anything submitted to public judgment. And the comment must be fair, in the sense that an honest person could hold it on those facts, however exaggerated or prejudiced; proof of malice defeats the defence because it shows the opinion was not honestly held.

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Chapter Thirty-Five

Defamation in India

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

In India defamation is both a civil wrong and an offence, the criminal provision has been held constitutional, and the internet has made the tort a daily one.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: in India a defamed person may sue for damages in tort and may also set the criminal law in motion under section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023; the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of criminal defamation in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, holding that reputation is an integral part of the right to life under article 21 and that the provision is a reasonable restriction under article 19(2); the civil and criminal defences differ, since truth alone suffices in the civil action while the criminal exception requires truth and publication for the public good; and publication on the internet is publication wherever the statement is read.

The two remedies, side by side

The civil actionThe prosecution
Who begins itThe person defamedThe person defamed, by complaint, or the State in the cases the law allows
ProvisionUncodified tort lawSection 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023
What must be provedA defamatory statement referring to the plaintiff, publishedThe same, with the mental element the section requires
Standard of proofBalance of probabilitiesBeyond reasonable doubt
TruthA complete defence by itselfException 1 requires truth AND publication for the public good
ResultDamages, and an injunction in a proper casePunishment

The two proceedings are independent. An acquittal does not bar the suit, as chapter [Tort Distinguished from Crime] explains.

The constitutional challenge

Facts. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221, decided on 13 May 2016. Writ petitions challenged the validity of the criminal law of defamation, then sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 together with section 199 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, on the ground that making defamation an offence is an unreasonable restriction on the freedom of speech and expression under article 19(1)(a).

Held. The Court upheld the provisions. It held that reputation is an integral part of the right to life guaranteed by article 21, that the interest in reputation must be balanced against free speech rather than subordinated to it, and that criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction saved by article 19(2). It left the petitioners free to challenge the issue of summons in their individual cases before the High Court under article 226 or section 482 of the Code.

Why it matters here. It settles that the criminal remedy stands beside the civil one in India, and it supplies the constitutional footing for reputation which chapter [Defamation: What It Is] uses.

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The press, the public official and the truth that cannot be proved

Facts. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264, decided on 7 October 1994. A magazine proposed to serialise the autobiography of a condemned prisoner naming police officials, and the authorities threatened action to prevent publication.

Held. No prior restraint could be imposed on the press. The right to privacy is implicit in article 21 and nothing concerning a person's home, family, marriage, procreation, motherhood, child-bearing or education may be published without consent, whether truthful or not, subject to the exception that publication based on public records, including court records, is unobjectionable, with a further exception protecting the identity of a female victim of a sexual offence. As to a public official's acts and conduct relevant to the discharge of his official duties, no action for damages lies even where the publication is untrue, unless the official establishes reckless disregard for truth; it is enough for the publisher to show reasonable verification. A publication proved false and actuated by malice or personal animosity has no defence.

Why it matters here. It is the Indian answer to the question of how a newspaper is to criticise a public official when it cannot prove every fact, and it is the case to cite on the balance between article 19(1)(a) and article 21.

Defamation on the internet

Nothing in the tort changes, but three consequences follow from the medium.

Publication is wherever the statement is read. A post uploaded in one State and read in another is published in both, which affects where a suit may be filed.

Every forward is a fresh publication. The person who shares a defamatory message publishes it, and it is no defence to say who wrote it first.

The intermediary. A platform that merely hosts what users write is in a different position from the person who wrote it, and the extent of its protection is governed by the law on intermediaries rather than by the law of torts.

The practical remedy sought in these cases is usually an injunction to take the material down, which chapter [Injunction and Specific Restitution of Property] deals with, rather than damages.

A worked example

A former employee posts on a public forum that Meena, who runs a coaching class, "cheats her students and keeps their fees".

In tort. Meena sues for damages. The statement is defamatory, refers to her and was published. The poster must prove it substantially true if he pleads justification.

In the criminal law. She may file a complaint under section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. There the poster's defence of truth will not succeed unless he also shows that publication was for the public good, which is a question of fact.

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Against those who shared it. Every person who forwarded the post published it and may be sued; naming the original author is no defence.

If Meena were a public official and the statement concerned her official conduct, R. Rajagopal would require her to establish reckless disregard for truth, and reasonable verification by the poster would be enough to defeat her claim.

What she really wants is the post taken down, so the practical relief is an injunction.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean the criminal remedy has been struck down. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221, upheld it.

It does not mean the section numbers of the Penal Code still apply. Since 1 July 2024 the provision is section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.

It does not mean a public official cannot sue at all. He may, on his private conduct like anybody else, and even on his official conduct where he proves reckless disregard for truth or malice.

It does not mean an internet platform is liable like an author. That question belongs to the law on intermediaries.

Quick revision

  1. Defamation in India is both a tort and an offence, and the proceedings are independent.
  2. The offence is section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023; sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 stand repealed since 1 July 2024.
  3. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221: criminal defamation upheld; reputation is part of article 21; a reasonable restriction under article 19(2).
  4. Civil truth is a complete defence; Exception 1 to section 356 requires truth and public good, and public good is a question of fact.
  5. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264: no prior restraint; privacy under article 21; public records exception; public officials must prove reckless disregard for truth.
  6. Online: publication where read, every forward is a fresh publication, and the usual relief is an injunction.

Test yourself

1. Discuss the constitutional validity of criminal defamation in India. It was upheld in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 221. The petitioners argued that making defamation an offence is an unreasonable restriction on the freedom of speech guaranteed by article 19(1)(a), and that the civil remedy is sufficient. The Supreme Court held that reputation is an integral part of the right to life under article 21, that a citizen's right to reputation must be balanced against another's right to speak rather than yield to it, and that criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction saved by article 19(2). It accordingly upheld what were then sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 and section 199 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, leaving individual petitioners free to challenge the issue of summons in their own cases under article 226 or section 482. Since 1 July 2024 the corresponding provision is section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.

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2. How does Indian law balance the freedom of the press against the right to reputation? Through the principles laid down in R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1995 SC 264. The Court refused to allow prior restraint on publication. It held that the right to privacy is implicit in article 21, so that matters such as a person's family, marriage and motherhood may not be published without consent even if true, unless the publication is based on public records, with a further exception protecting the identity of a female victim of a sexual offence. And it held that a public official has no action in respect of publications about his official conduct, even untrue ones, unless he establishes reckless disregard for truth, it being enough for the publisher to show reasonable verification. The result is a wide space for criticism of official conduct, a protected space for private life, and liability where a publication is false and malicious.

3. A defamatory message is forwarded by twenty people on a messaging application. Who is liable? Each of them, and the author. Every repetition of a defamatory statement is a fresh publication, so each person who forwarded the message published it to those who received it, and it is no defence that he named the original author or expressed disbelief. Liability is not affected by the medium: a message read on a telephone is published as surely as one printed in a newspaper, and it is published wherever it is read, which is why such suits may be filed in more than one place. The platform itself stands differently, since its position is governed by the law relating to intermediaries rather than by the ordinary law of publication. The practical relief sought is usually an injunction to remove the material rather than damages against twenty defendants.

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Chapter Thirty-Six

Torts Affecting Personal Relations

Syllabus topic 2.3, "Torts related to Reputation (Defamation) & Personal Relations"

In one line

These are the wrongs that injure a person through his relationships: enticing away a spouse, harbouring one, seducing a servant or daughter, and depriving somebody of the company or services of a family member.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the torts affecting personal relations are enticement of a spouse, harbouring a spouse, seduction of a daughter or servant, and the causing of loss of services or of consortium; they developed at a time when a husband had a proprietary interest in his wife's society and a master in his servant's services, most of them are obsolete or abolished in England, and in India the surviving practical head is compensation for loss of consortium and for loss of the services of a deceased family member, which is regularly awarded in motor accident claims.

The historical shape of these wrongs

They rest on two ideas the modern law has abandoned.

The husband's proprietary interest. At common law a husband had a right to his wife's society and services, and an action against anybody who deprived him of them. The wife had no corresponding action.

The master's interest in his servant. A master had an action against a person who injured his servant so that the master lost his services, and the daughter of the house was treated, by a fiction, as a servant so that her father could sue her seducer.

Both ideas have gone, and the wrongs that rest on them have gone with them, with one exception.

The four wrongs

Enticement. Persuading a spouse to leave or to remain apart from the other. It required an active inducement rather than the mere offering of shelter.

Harbouring. Receiving and keeping a spouse who has left, with knowledge and against the other's wishes, so as to prevent a return. Providing shelter to a person fleeing cruelty was never a wrong.

Seduction. The action lay to the father or master, not to the woman, for the loss of her services caused by her seduction, and the fiction that a daughter was a servant was what allowed it. Damages went far beyond the value of any services.

Loss of services and of consortium. Where a person was injured by a wrong, another whose legal relationship gave a right to his services or society could sue for the loss.

What survives, and where it is found today

In England the actions for enticement, harbouring and seduction were abolished by statute in 1970, and the action for loss of services followed.

In India the position is not governed by any such statute, but the actions are effectively dead for the same reasons: the proprietary premise is inconsistent with the equality guaranteed by the Constitution, and matrimonial relief is the appropriate remedy for the conduct these actions were aimed at. What survives, and thrives, is compensation for loss of consortium and for loss of the services of a person killed or injured.

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Consortium means the society, comfort, care and companionship of a family member. Indian law now recognises three forms: spousal consortium, the company and affection of a husband or wife; parental consortium, the loss a child suffers by the death of a parent; and filial consortium, the loss a parent suffers by the death of a child.

The Indian case that made consortium a standard head

Facts. Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram alias Chuhru Ram, decided on 18 September 2018. The claim arose out of a fatal motor accident and the question was what heads of compensation the dependants were entitled to under section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, which requires the Claims Tribunal to award compensation which appears to it to be just.

Held. The Court held that loss of consortium is a head of compensation in its own right, and that it is not confined to a spouse: parental consortium, which is the loss to a child of the care and company of a parent, and filial consortium, which is the loss to a parent of the company of a child, are also compensable. It also treated the conventional heads of loss of estate and funeral expenses as separate from consortium, and awarded them in addition.

Why it matters here. It converts an old proprietary idea into a modern one: the claim is no longer for the loss of a person's services as an asset, but for the loss of a relationship, and it is available to wives, husbands, children and parents alike. Chapter [Computing Just Compensation] shows how the head fits into the arithmetic of an award.

A worked example

Anand is killed in a road accident. He leaves a wife, a nine-year-old son and an elderly mother, and he had employed a driver whose wages he paid.

Enticement, harbouring and seduction have nothing to do with the case, and no Indian court would entertain an action of that kind today.

Loss of consortium is claimed by all three: spousal consortium for the wife, parental consortium for the son and filial consortium for the mother, on the authority of Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram.

The driver has no claim for the loss of his employment. The old action was the master's for the loss of his servant's services, never the servant's for the loss of his master.

And if Anand had been injured rather than killed, his wife's claim for loss of consortium during the period of his incapacity would be part of the compensation awarded, the assessment being governed by section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and the cases in chapter [Computing Just Compensation].

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What it does NOT mean

It does not mean a spouse is property. The modern head compensates the loss of a relationship, not the loss of an asset.

It does not mean these actions still lie in India. They are effectively dead, and matrimonial law provides the remedies.

It does not mean consortium is available only to a widow. Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram recognises parental and filial consortium as well.

It does not mean the loss of services head has no descendants. It survives as a head of dependency in fatal accident claims.

Quick revision

  1. The four old wrongs: enticement, harbouring, seduction, and loss of services or consortium.
  2. They rest on the husband's proprietary interest in his wife and the master's in his servant, both abandoned.
  3. Abolished by statute in England in 1970; in India effectively dead, and inconsistent with constitutional equality.
  4. What survives is compensation for loss of consortium.
  5. Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram alias Chuhru Ram, 18 September 2018: spousal, parental and filial consortium are all compensable, in addition to loss of estate and funeral expenses.
  6. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires the Tribunal to award just compensation, and consortium is part of it.
  7. Limitation for the old action for loss of service by seduction: article 77 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, one year from when the loss occurs.

Test yourself

1. What are the torts affecting personal relations, and what is their position today? They are enticement of a spouse, harbouring a spouse, seduction of a daughter or servant, and the causing of loss of services or of consortium. Each rests on a premise the modern law has abandoned: the husband's proprietary interest in his wife's society and services, and the master's interest in the services of his servant, a daughter being treated as a servant by a fiction so that her father could sue her seducer. In England they were abolished by statute in 1970. In India there is no such statute, but they are effectively obsolete, both because their proprietary premise is inconsistent with constitutional equality and because matrimonial law now provides the appropriate remedies. What survives is compensation for loss of consortium, and it is regularly awarded in motor accident claims.

2. Explain loss of consortium as a head of compensation in Indian law. Consortium means the society, comfort, care and companionship of a family member. In Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram alias Chuhru Ram, decided on 18 September 2018, the Supreme Court held that loss of consortium is a head of compensation in its own right in a claim under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, and that it is not confined to a spouse: a child who loses a parent may claim parental consortium and a parent who loses a child may claim filial consortium. The award is made in addition to the conventional heads of loss of estate and funeral expenses, and it is part of the just compensation which section 168 of the Act requires the Claims Tribunal to determine. The head illustrates how an old proprietary action has been replaced by a modern one that compensates the loss of a relationship.

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Chapter Thirty-Seven

Nuisance: What It Is

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or with some right over it, or with the public's use of a public place.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it, and it is of two kinds: a public nuisance, which is an act or omission causing common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to a section of it, and a private nuisance, which interferes with a particular person's use or enjoyment of his land; the essence of the tort is the unreasonableness of the interference, and unlike trespass it is ordinarily an indirect interference requiring proof of damage.

The word

Nuisance comes through French from the Latin nocere, to hurt. The interest protected is not possession, which trespass protects, but enjoyment: the ability to use land in comfort.

Nuisance against trespass, the distinction that decides which action lies

TrespassNuisance
Nature of interferenceDirectIndirect or consequential
What is interfered withPossessionUse or enjoyment
DamageNot required, actionable per seOrdinarily must be proved
ExampleThrowing stones on to the landLetting smoke or noise drift on to it
Example on the boundaryPlanting a tree on the neighbour's landLetting the roots or branches grow across

The same facts often support both, and the classical illustration is the tree: planting it over the boundary is a trespass, letting its branches grow over is a nuisance while they remain, and the fruit that falls belongs to the tree's owner.

The two kinds

Public nuisance is an interference with a right common to the public: obstructing a highway, polluting a river, keeping an unsafe building beside a road, carrying on an offensive trade in a crowded locality. It is primarily a crime, and only a person who proves special damage may sue in tort. Chapter [Public Nuisance] works it out.

Private nuisance is an interference with a particular occupier's use or enjoyment of his own land: smoke, smell, noise, vibrations, heat, water, roots, and the escape of things that make life on the land uncomfortable. Chapter [Private Nuisance] works it out.

The one idea that runs through both: reasonableness

No occupier has a right to absolute quiet, clean air or a perfect view, and no occupier may do exactly as he pleases on his own land. Every case is a compromise, and the compromise is expressed as reasonableness: would an ordinary person, occupying that land in that locality, regard the interference as more than he should be expected to put up with?

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Four factors decide it.

Locality. What is reasonable in an industrial area is not reasonable in a residential one. The rule is often put as: a person who comes to live beside a foundry cannot expect the quiet of a village.

Duration and continuity. An isolated act is rarely a nuisance; a state of affairs continuing over time usually is. A single blast may be a trespass or negligence, while blasting every night for a month is a nuisance.

Extent of the harm. Trivial interference is not actionable; the maxim is de minimis non curat lex, the law does not concern itself with trifles.

The plaintiff's own sensitivity. The standard is that of an ordinary person, and an unusually delicate trade or an unusually sensitive plaintiff cannot raise the standard for everybody.

The two kinds of harm

Material or physical damage to property, such as cracks caused by vibration, crops killed by fumes, or a wall pushed over by roots. Here the locality matters much less: no locality entitles a neighbour to damage property.

Interference with comfort and convenience, such as noise, smell and smoke. Here the locality matters a great deal, and the test of what an ordinary person would tolerate does the work.

A worked example

Farida runs a small dairy behind her house in a residential lane in Pune. Her neighbour Hari complains of four things.

One. The smell of the cattle shed. This is interference with comfort, and the answer turns on locality, duration and the standard of an ordinary person. In a residential lane a smell strong enough to keep windows shut is likely to be a nuisance.

Two. Flies from the shed settling on Hari's food. The same analysis, and the harm is more serious.

Three. Water from washing the shed seeping into Hari's wall and cracking the plaster. This is material damage to property, and locality is no answer.

Four. Hari, who runs a photographic studio in his back room, says the vibration of the milk machine ruins his long-exposure work. This engages the sensitivity rule: if an ordinary occupier would not be affected, the delicate trade does not raise the standard.

And one more. Suppose Farida's cattle stray on to Hari's land. That is not a nuisance at all; it is a trespass, because the interference is direct.

What it does NOT mean

It does not give a right to absolute comfort. The test is what an ordinary person in that locality should be expected to put up with.

It does not require the defendant to be at fault. Nuisance is not negligence, and a defendant may be liable for a state of affairs on his land which he did not create, if he adopts or continues it.

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It does not protect a hypersensitive plaintiff. The standard is objective.

It does not need a direct act. Directness is the mark of trespass, not of nuisance.

Quick revision

  1. Nuisance: unlawful interference with the use or enjoyment of land, or with a right over it, or with a public right.
  2. Two kinds: public, an injury to the public at large, and private, an injury to a particular occupier.
  3. Trespass is direct and actionable per se; nuisance is indirect and ordinarily needs damage.
  4. The test is reasonableness, decided by locality, duration and continuity, the extent of the harm, and the plaintiff's ordinary rather than special sensitivity.
  5. For material damage to property, locality carries little weight; for interference with comfort, it carries a great deal.
  6. De minimis non curat lex: trivial interference is not actionable.

Test yourself

1. Define nuisance and distinguish it from trespass. Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it, or with a right common to the public. Trespass is a direct interference with possession. Three differences follow. Trespass requires directness, so throwing stones on to land is trespass while letting smoke drift on to it is nuisance. Trespass protects possession while nuisance protects enjoyment, so a person who is not dispossessed at all may still sue in nuisance. And trespass is actionable per se while nuisance ordinarily requires proof of damage. The same facts may give both: planting a tree across the boundary is trespass, while allowing its branches to overhang is a nuisance for as long as they do.

2. What factors decide whether an interference is a nuisance? Reasonableness, judged by four factors. The locality, since what is tolerable in an industrial area is not tolerable in a residential one, though this counts for little where actual physical damage to property is caused. The duration and continuity of the interference, since an isolated act is rarely a nuisance while a continuing state of affairs usually is. The extent of the harm, since the law does not concern itself with trifles. And the standard of an ordinary person rather than of the particular plaintiff, so that an unusually delicate trade or an unusually sensitive occupier cannot raise the standard for the neighbourhood. The question in every case is whether an ordinary occupier of that land in that locality should be expected to put up with the interference.

3. Does nuisance depend on the defendant being at fault? Not in the way negligence does. The question is whether the interference with the plaintiff's enjoyment is unreasonable, not whether the defendant took reasonable care, so a defendant who has taken every precaution may still be liable if the result is an unreasonable interference. Fault enters at the margins: a defendant is liable for a state of affairs he did not create if, knowing of it, he adopts or continues it, and reasonable care may be relevant to whether an isolated escape was a nuisance at all. But a plea that the defendant was careful, or that his activity is useful to the public, is not an answer to a nuisance.

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Chapter Thirty-Eight

Public Nuisance

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

A public nuisance harms the public at large, so the State prosecutes it, and a private person may sue only if he proves damage peculiar to himself.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a public nuisance is an act or an illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public, or to the people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which necessarily causes injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use any public right; it is an offence and not ordinarily a tort, and a private individual may sue in tort only if he proves special damage, that is, damage particular to himself and different in kind from that suffered by the public generally.

The statutory definition

Section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 provides that a person is guilty of a public nuisance who does any act or is guilty of an illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to the people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which must necessarily cause injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use any public right.

Two features of that definition matter. The harm must be common, that is, suffered by the public or by a section of it, and a nuisance is not excused merely because it causes some convenience or advantage.

The three routes against a public nuisance

1. Prosecution. The State prosecutes under section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. This is the primary remedy, because the wrong is a wrong to everybody.

2. A Magistrate's conditional order. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 allows a Magistrate, on receiving a police report or other information, to make a conditional order requiring a person to remove an unlawful obstruction or nuisance from a public place, to stop a trade or occupation injurious to the health or physical comfort of the community, to stop the construction of a building or dispose of a substance likely to cause a conflagration or explosion, to fence a tank, well or excavation, or to destroy, confine or dispose of a dangerous animal, within a fixed time, or else to appear and show cause. Sections 153 to 156 provide for service of the order, for the person to comply or show cause, for a penalty for failure, and for the procedure that follows.

This is the fastest remedy in practice, and it is the one an ordinary citizen actually uses.

3. A civil suit. Section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 provides that in the case of a public nuisance or other wrongful act affecting, or likely to affect, the public, a suit for a declaration and injunction or such other relief as may be appropriate may be instituted by the Advocate-General, or, with the leave of the court, by two or more persons, even though no special damage has been caused to them. Sub-section (2) preserves any right of suit which exists independently of the section.

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The tort, and the special damage rule

A public nuisance is a tort at the suit of a private individual only where he proves special damage. That means damage which is:

Particular to him, and not merely a share of the inconvenience the public suffers; and

Different in kind, or at least substantially greater in degree, than what the public suffers; and

Direct, not remote.

The reason for the rule is practical: if every member of the public could sue for an obstruction on a highway, one obstruction would produce ten thousand suits, and the criminal law and the Magistrate's power exist precisely to deal with the public aspect of the wrong.

Examples of special damage recognised in the cases: a shopkeeper whose customers cannot reach his shop because of a long obstruction of the road; a person whose vehicle is damaged by an unlighted heap left on the highway; a person who suffers illness from a polluted water supply.

Not special damage: having to walk further, being delayed, or sharing the general discomfort.

A worked example

A builder dumps sand across a public lane in Nagpur for three months.

The public. Every user of the lane is inconvenienced. That is the common injury which makes it a public nuisance under section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.

A resident who is delayed each morning has no civil action: his harm is the same in kind as everybody else's.

A shopkeeper on that lane, whose customers cannot reach him and whose takings fall, has special damage: it is particular to him and different in kind, so he may sue in tort for damages and for an injunction.

A cyclist who rides into the heap at night and is injured has special damage too, and may also sue in negligence.

Any two residents, with the leave of the court, may sue under section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 for a declaration and an injunction, without proving special damage at all.

And the quickest route is a complaint to the Magistrate, who may pass a conditional order under section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 requiring the sand to be removed within a fixed time.

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Distinctions that carry marks

Public nuisancePrivate nuisance
Who is harmedThe public or a section of itA particular occupier
Primary characterAn offenceA tort
Who may sue in tortOnly a person with special damageThe occupier
Statutory suitSection 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, two or more persons with leave, no special damage neededNot applicable
Criminal provisionSection 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023None as such

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean nobody can sue. A person with special damage may sue in tort, and two or more persons may sue under section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 with leave.

It does not mean inconvenience is enough. Special damage must be particular to the plaintiff and different in kind from the public's.

It does not mean a useful activity is exempt. Public benefit is not a defence to a nuisance, though it may bear on the relief granted.

It does not require ownership of land by the plaintiff. Unlike private nuisance, the plaintiff's interest is in the public right, not in his land.

Quick revision

  1. Public nuisance: an act or illegal omission causing common injury, danger or annoyance to the public, section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023.
  2. It is primarily an offence, not a tort.
  3. A private person may sue in tort only on proof of special damage: particular to him, different in kind or substantially greater in degree, and direct.
  4. Delay and general inconvenience are not special damage.
  5. Section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908: a suit for declaration and injunction by the Advocate-General, or by two or more persons with leave, without special damage.
  6. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023: a Magistrate's conditional order for removal, with sections 153 to 156 for service, compliance, penalty and procedure.
  7. Three routes: prosecute, apply to a Magistrate, or sue.

Test yourself

1. What is a public nuisance, and when may a private person sue for it? A public nuisance is an act or an illegal omission which causes common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to the people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which necessarily causes injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use a public right: that is the definition in section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. It is primarily an offence, because the wrong is done to the public at large. A private person may sue in tort only if he proves special damage, meaning damage particular to himself, different in kind or substantially greater in degree than that suffered by the public generally, and direct rather than remote. A shopkeeper whose customers cannot reach him because a road is blocked has special damage; a passer-by who is merely delayed does not.

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2. What remedies exist against a public nuisance in India? Three. The State may prosecute under section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, which is the primary remedy since the wrong is public. A Magistrate may pass a conditional order under section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 requiring the removal of an unlawful obstruction or nuisance from a public place, the stopping of a trade injurious to the health or comfort of the community, the fencing of a tank, well or excavation, or the disposal of a dangerous animal, within a fixed time, and sections 153 to 156 provide for service, compliance, penalty and the procedure thereafter; this is the quickest route in practice. And a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction lies under section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 at the instance of the Advocate-General or, with the leave of the court, of two or more persons, even though no special damage has been caused to them.

3. Why is special damage required, and what counts as special damage? It is required because a public nuisance injures everybody, and if every member of the public could sue, a single obstruction would generate an unmanageable number of identical suits; the public aspect of the wrong is left to the criminal law and to the Magistrate's summary power. Special damage means harm particular to the plaintiff, different in kind from what the public suffers, or at least substantially greater in degree, and directly caused. Loss of custom by a shopkeeper cut off by an obstruction, physical injury from an unlighted heap on a highway, and illness from a polluted supply have all been treated as special damage. Having to take a longer route, being delayed, or sharing the general discomfort of a smell or a noise is not.

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Chapter Thirty-Nine

Private Nuisance

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

A private nuisance is an unreasonable interference with a particular person's use or enjoyment of his own land.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a private nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it, committed by an act or omission of the defendant which causes either material damage to the property or substantial interference with the comfort and convenience of the occupier judged by the standard of an ordinary person; the plaintiff must have an interest in the land affected, the interference must be unreasonable, and damage must ordinarily be proved.

The three essentials

1. An unreasonable interference. Not every interference is a nuisance; the question is whether an ordinary occupier in that locality should be expected to put up with it, and chapter [Nuisance: What It Is] sets out the four factors that decide it.

2. The interference must be with the use or enjoyment of land, or with a right over it. Rights over land include easements such as a right of way, a right to light, a right to air through a defined channel and a right to support.

3. Damage. Either material damage to property, or substantial interference with comfort and convenience. Where the plaintiff sues on the interference with an easement, damage is presumed.

Who may sue and who may be sued

Who may sue. The occupier of the land, and an owner out of occupation where the nuisance causes permanent injury to his reversionary interest. A mere licensee without any interest in the land ordinarily cannot.

Who may be sued. The creator of the nuisance, whether or not he is in occupation; the occupier who continues or adopts a nuisance created by somebody else, including a predecessor, a trespasser or nature, once he knows of it and fails to abate it; and the landlord where he authorised the nuisance, or where it existed at the date of letting and he knew of it, or where he undertook to repair.

The kinds of interference

By encroachment, as where roots or branches spread across the boundary.

By physical injury to the land or buildings, as by vibration, fumes that kill crops, or water that undermines a wall.

By interference with comfort, as by noise, smell, smoke, dust or heat.

By interference with an easement or a natural right, as by obstructing a right of way, blocking light through a defined aperture, or withdrawing support from the neighbour's soil.

The rules that decide difficult cases

Malice may make a reasonable use unreasonable. As chapter [The Mental Element in Tort] explains, motive is generally irrelevant, but in nuisance an act done on one's own land for the purpose of annoying a neighbour may be held unreasonable when the same act done for an ordinary purpose would not.

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Coming to the nuisance is no defence. It is no answer that the plaintiff moved in after the defendant's activity began, because the law does not allow one occupier to fix the character of a locality against later comers.

Public benefit is no defence. That the defendant's factory employs hundreds does not entitle it to make life on the neighbouring land intolerable; the point may bear on whether an injunction or damages is the proper relief.

The hypersensitive plaintiff is not protected. Where an ordinary occupier would not be affected, an unusually delicate use of land gives no action, and the Indian illustration of the principle is the refusal to treat annoyance to feelings as an actionable injury in Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13.

Facts. In that case the plaintiffs sued in the City Civil Court at Ahmedabad for an injunction restraining the exhibition of the film Jai Santoshi Maa, saying it hurt the religious feelings of a section of Hindus, and applied for a temporary injunction; the trial judge refused it, holding that no civil right of theirs was involved.

Held. The appeal was dismissed. Hurt to religious feelings has not been recognised by the courts as a civil actionable wrong; mere annoyance to feelings, without any pecuniary or tangible loss, cannot found an injunction; and a plaintiff must show a substantial injury which the court can recognise.

Why it matters here. It shows where the boundary of the tort lies. The law protects the enjoyment of land against interferences an ordinary person would find substantial, not every feeling that can be hurt.

A worked example

A bakery starts night work next to Sharmila's house in a residential colony.

The ovens run from midnight to four. Noise and heat interfere with sleep. In a residential locality that is likely to be a nuisance: the interference is with comfort, it is continuous, and an ordinary occupier would find it substantial.

Flour dust settles on her terrace and stains the walls. That is material damage to property, and here the locality counts for little.

Sharmila keeps rare orchids which die from the heat, though ordinary plants would not. The hypersensitivity rule applies: if an ordinary occupier's plants would have survived, the orchids give no separate claim.

Sharmila moved in two years after the bakery opened. Coming to the nuisance is no defence.

The bakery says it supplies bread to three hospitals. Public benefit is no defence, though it may persuade a court to award damages rather than close the bakery at night.

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The bakery turns up its music at 2 a.m. only when Sharmila complains. Malice may turn what would otherwise be a reasonable use into an unreasonable one.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require the defendant to be negligent. The question is whether the interference is unreasonable, not whether care was taken.

It does not require the plaintiff to own the land. Occupation with an interest in the land is enough, and an owner out of occupation may sue for permanent injury to his reversion.

It does not protect against every discomfort. The standard is that of an ordinary person, and trifles are outside the law.

It is not defeated by the plaintiff having come to the nuisance.

Quick revision

  1. Private nuisance: unreasonable interference with the use or enjoyment of land, or with a right over it.
  2. Essentials: unreasonable interference, with land or a right over it, causing material damage or substantial discomfort.
  3. Who may sue: the occupier, and an owner for permanent injury to the reversion.
  4. Who may be sued: the creator, the occupier who continues or adopts, and in three cases the landlord.
  5. Malice may make an otherwise reasonable use unreasonable.
  6. Coming to the nuisance and public benefit are not defences; hypersensitivity gains nothing.
  7. Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir, AIR 1978 Guj 13: hurt to religious feelings is not a civil actionable wrong; mere annoyance to feelings will not found an injunction.

Test yourself

1. What are the essentials of private nuisance? Three. There must be an unreasonable interference, judged by the standard of an ordinary occupier of that land in that locality, having regard to the locality itself, the duration and continuity of the interference, its extent, and the fact that an unusually sensitive plaintiff is not protected. The interference must be with the use or enjoyment of land, or with some right over or in connection with it, such as an easement of way, light, air or support. And there must be damage, either material damage to the property, in which case the locality counts for little, or substantial interference with comfort and convenience, in which case it counts for much; where an easement is interfered with, damage is presumed.

2. Who may sue and who may be sued in private nuisance? The occupier of the affected land may sue, because the interest protected is the use and enjoyment of land, and an owner out of occupation may sue where the nuisance causes permanent injury to his reversionary interest; a bare licensee with no interest in the land ordinarily cannot. Three classes may be sued: the creator of the nuisance, whether or not he occupies the land from which it comes; the occupier who continues or adopts a nuisance created by a predecessor, a trespasser or by nature, once he knows of it and fails to abate it; and the landlord, where he authorised the nuisance, where it existed at the date of the letting and he knew or ought to have known of it, or where he had undertaken to repair.

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3. "Coming to the nuisance is no defence." Explain, and say what defences do exist. It is no answer that the plaintiff acquired or came to occupy his land after the defendant's activity had begun, because otherwise the first occupier of a locality could fix its character permanently and later comers would take it as they found it, however unreasonable the interference. Nor is it a defence that the defendant's activity benefits the public, though that may persuade a court to award damages instead of an injunction, or that the defendant took all reasonable care, since nuisance is not negligence. The defences that do exist are prescription, where the nuisance has been continued as of right for twenty years so that an easement to commit it has been acquired, and statutory authority, where the legislature has authorised the very thing complained of; chapter [Defences and Remedies in Nuisance] works both out.

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Chapter Forty

Defences and Remedies in Nuisance

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Prescription and statutory authority are the two real defences; the remedies are damages, an injunction and abatement.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the defences to an action for nuisance are prescription, where the defendant has continued the nuisance as of right for twenty years so as to acquire an easement, and statutory authority, where the legislature has authorised the very act complained of; the remedies are damages, an injunction under sections 38 and 39 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, and the extra-judicial remedy of abatement, that is, the removal of the nuisance by the person injured.

The defences

1. Prescription. A right to commit what would otherwise be a private nuisance may be acquired as an easement by twenty years of continuous enjoyment as of right. Three points decide most questions.

Time runs from when the nuisance began, not from when the activity began. A factory that has worked for thirty years but whose fumes only began to reach the plaintiff's land five years ago has no prescriptive right.

The enjoyment must be as of right, that is, open, without force and without permission.

Prescription runs against a private nuisance only. No length of time legalises a public nuisance.

2. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the act complained of, the harm that inevitably follows is not actionable. As chapter [General Defences II] explains, the authority may be absolute or conditional, and it never authorises negligence.

What is NOT a defence

Prescription for a public nuisance. Time gives no right.

That the plaintiff came to the nuisance. He may buy or occupy land next to an existing nuisance and still sue.

That the defendant's act is for the public benefit. A useful activity carried on unreasonably is still a nuisance, though the point may affect the remedy.

That the nuisance is due to the acts of others as well. Where several people each contribute, each may be liable although his own contribution alone would not be a nuisance.

That reasonable care was taken. Nuisance is not negligence.

That the place is a suitable one for the activity. Suitability of the locality is a factor in deciding reasonableness, not a defence in itself, and it counts for very little where material damage to property is caused.

The remedies

1. Damages. Where the nuisance has caused material damage, the measure is the cost of repair or the diminution in value. Where it has interfered with comfort, the damages are general and are assessed for the inconvenience suffered.

2. Injunction. This is the remedy that actually stops a nuisance, and it is governed by the Specific Relief Act 1963. Section 38 allows a perpetual injunction to prevent the breach of an obligation, and covers the invasion of a right to property where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage, or where compensation in money would not be adequate relief. Section 39 allows a mandatory injunction, compelling the defendant to undo what he has done, for example to pull down a wall that obstructs a right to light or to remove a plant that emits the fumes.

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An injunction is discretionary. Where the injury is small, capable of being estimated in money, and adequately compensated by a small payment, a court may award damages instead, and the public importance of the defendant's activity may weigh in that decision.

3. Abatement. The person injured may himself remove the nuisance, and chapter [Extra-Judicial Remedies] takes the rules. The right is narrow: notice must ordinarily be given first, no more must be done than is necessary, and where there is a choice the least mischievous method must be taken. A person who abates a nuisance without notice, or who does more than is necessary, becomes a wrongdoer himself.

4. And for a public nuisance, the Magistrate's conditional order under section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, and a suit under section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, as chapter [Public Nuisance] sets out.

Limitation, and the point about continuing nuisance

Most nuisances are continuing, and section 22 of the Limitation Act 1963 provides that in the case of a continuing tort a fresh period of limitation begins to run at every moment during which the tort continues. So an action is not barred while the nuisance lasts, though damages are confined to the period within limitation.

Section 23 matters where the wrong is not actionable without special damage: the period is computed from the time the injury results, not from the act.

A worked example

For twenty-two years a workshop next to Zoya's house has run a lathe from nine in the morning to six in the evening. Zoya bought the house four years ago. This year the workshop added a night shift.

The day working. The workshop may claim a prescriptive right, since the noise has been made openly, as of right and without permission for more than twenty years. Zoya's recent purchase does not restart the clock, because prescription runs against the land.

The night shift. No prescriptive right can exist, because it began this year. Whether it is a nuisance depends on locality, duration and the standard of an ordinary occupier, and night noise in a residential area is very likely to be one.

Zoya's remedies. Damages for the disturbance, and, more usefully, a perpetual injunction under section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 restraining work between fixed hours. If the workshop has built a wall that channels the noise into her window, a mandatory injunction under section 39 may compel its removal.

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Abatement. Zoya may not walk into the workshop and switch off the lathe. Abatement is available for a nuisance she can remove from her own land or, in narrow circumstances, by entering after notice; it is not a licence to interfere with the defendant's business.

Limitation. Section 22 of the Limitation Act 1963 gives her a fresh cause of action every day the night shift continues.

What it does NOT mean

Prescription does not legalise a public nuisance. However long it has continued.

Statutory authority does not authorise negligence. Only the act and its necessary consequences.

An injunction is not automatic. It is discretionary, and damages may be awarded instead where the injury is small and can be compensated in money.

Abatement is not self-help at large. Notice, necessity and the least mischievous method are all required.

Quick revision

  1. Two defences: prescription, twenty years as of right, and statutory authority.
  2. Prescription runs from when the nuisance began, not from when the activity began, and never against a public nuisance.
  3. Not defences: coming to the nuisance, public benefit, contribution by others, reasonable care, and suitability of the locality.
  4. Remedies: damages, injunction under sections 38 and 39 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, and abatement.
  5. An injunction is discretionary; damages may be substituted where the injury is small and quantifiable.
  6. Abatement requires notice, necessity and the least mischievous method.
  7. Section 22 of the Limitation Act 1963 gives a fresh period every moment of a continuing nuisance; section 23 postpones the start where special damage is needed.

Test yourself

1. What defences are available in an action for nuisance? Two are real. Prescription: a right to commit what would otherwise be a private nuisance may be acquired as an easement by twenty years of continuous enjoyment as of right, that is, openly, without force and without permission; time runs from the date the nuisance began to affect the plaintiff and not from the date the defendant's activity began, and no period of time will legalise a public nuisance. Statutory authority: where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the harm inevitably resulting from it is not actionable, though the authority never extends to a negligent manner of doing the act, and where the authority is conditional the actor must so conduct himself as to avoid the harm.

2. What is not a defence to a nuisance? That the plaintiff came to the nuisance, since the first occupier of a locality cannot fix its character against later comers. That the defendant's activity benefits the public, though this may bear on whether an injunction or damages is granted. That others contribute to the same interference, since each contributor may be liable although his own share alone would not amount to a nuisance. That the defendant took reasonable care, since the question is the unreasonableness of the interference and not the care taken. And that the locality is a suitable one for the activity, which is a factor in assessing reasonableness rather than an answer, and which carries little weight where material damage to property has been caused.

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3. What remedies has a person injured by a nuisance? Damages, measured by the cost of repair or the diminution in value where there is material damage, and assessed generally for inconvenience where the interference is with comfort. An injunction, which is the remedy that stops the nuisance: a perpetual injunction under section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, which expressly covers the invasion of a right to property where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage or where money would not be adequate relief, and a mandatory injunction under section 39 to undo what has been done. The remedy is discretionary, and where the injury is small and can be adequately compensated in money a court may award damages instead. And abatement, the extra-judicial removal of the nuisance, which requires notice, permits no more than is necessary, and obliges the abator to choose the least mischievous method. For a public nuisance there are in addition the Magistrate's conditional order under section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 and a suit under section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.

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Chapter Forty-One

Negligence: What It Is

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Negligence is the failure to take the care the law requires, causing damage that the law will compensate.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: negligence is the breach of a duty caused by the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or the doing of something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do; its essential components are three, a duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff, a breach of that duty, and resulting damage which is not too remote.

The definition the Supreme Court uses

The definition above is not a textbook writer's. It is the one the Supreme Court adopted in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, and repeated in Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, and it is worth reproducing exactly because it is the formula an Indian court applies.

Facts. In Jacob Mathew a patient in a hospital at Ludhiana had difficulty in breathing at about eleven at night. The duty nurse was contacted and no doctor came for twenty to twenty-five minutes; when two doctors arrived an oxygen cylinder was connected which, according to the complaint, was empty, and the patient died. A first information report was lodged and the doctors were prosecuted for causing death by a rash or negligent act. They asked to have the prosecution quashed.

Held. Among the conclusions the Court summed up: negligence is the breach of a duty caused by the omission to do something which a reasonable man would do or by doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do, and its essential components are three: duty, breach and resulting damage. Negligence in the medical profession calls for a treatment with a difference, so that an error of judgment or an accident is not negligence and a doctor who follows a practice acceptable to the profession of the day is not liable merely because a better course existed. In criminal law the degree must be gross or of a very high degree, and res ipsa loquitur is a rule of evidence in civil law with at most a limited application in a criminal trial.

Why it matters here. It is the Indian statement of the elements, and the chapters that follow are built on the three it names.

The two senses of the word

"Negligence" is used in two ways and confusing them costs marks.

As an independent tort, which is the subject of these chapters: duty, breach, damage.

As a mode of committing another tort, or as a state of mind. A trespass may be committed negligently, and "negligent" is used of the manner in which a nuisance is created or a bailee's duty is broken. In that sense negligence is an adjective, not a cause of action.

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The three elements, in outline

1. A duty of care owed to the plaintiff. Not a general duty to be careful, but a duty owed to this plaintiff in these circumstances. Chapter [The Duty of Care] works out how a court decides whether one exists.

2. A breach of that duty. Failure to come up to the standard of the reasonable person, judged objectively, with the standard raised for a professional. Chapter [Breach of Duty and the Standard of Care] works it out.

3. Damage caused by the breach, and not too remote. The plaintiff must suffer harm the law recognises, it must be caused by the breach, and it must not be too remote a consequence. Chapter [Damage, Causation and Remoteness] works it out.

All three must be proved by the plaintiff, and the burden is his throughout, subject to the evidential help res ipsa loquitur gives, which chapter [Res Ipsa Loquitur] explains.

Negligence and its neighbours

NegligenceTrespass
The actCarelessIntentional and direct
DamageEssentialNot required
Who proves whatThe plaintiff proves duty, breach and damageThe defendant justifies the interference
NegligenceNuisance
Question askedWas reasonable care taken?Was the interference unreasonable?
Care as an answerIt is the whole answerIt is no answer
DamageEssentialOrdinarily essential
Civil negligenceCriminal negligence
Degree requiredFailure of reasonable careGross, or of a very high degree
Mental elementNone beyond the failureMens rea must be shown
ResultDamagesPunishment
AuthorityJacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180The same case

A worked example

A shopkeeper leaves a metal shutter half open across the pavement while unloading a truck. A passer-by walks into it in the evening and loses an eye.

Duty. Did the shopkeeper owe a duty to the passer-by? Yes: a person who creates a hazard on a pavement owes a duty to those who use it.

Breach. Did he fall below the standard of a reasonable shopkeeper? Leaving a sharp obstruction at head height, unmarked, in the evening, is very likely a breach.

Damage. The loss of an eye is damage the law recognises, it was caused by the breach, and it is not too remote.

Change one fact. Suppose the passer-by was running away from the police and looking behind him. That does not remove the duty or the breach; it raises contributory negligence, which reduces the damages, as chapter [Contributory and Composite Negligence] explains.

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Change another. Suppose the shutter was properly marked and lit, and the passer-by walked into it because he was reading his telephone. There is then no breach at all, and the claim fails at the second element.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean carelessness alone is actionable. Careless conduct that harms nobody, or that harms a person to whom no duty was owed, gives no action.

It does not mean an accident is negligence. Jacob Mathew says in terms that an error of judgment or an accident is not proof of negligence.

It does not mean the standard is what this defendant could manage. The standard is objective, and inexperience is no excuse.

It does not mean civil and criminal negligence are the same. The criminal degree is gross, and mens rea must be shown.

Quick revision

  1. Negligence is the breach of a duty by omitting what a reasonable man would do, or doing what a prudent and reasonable man would not.
  2. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180: the essential components are duty, breach and resulting damage.
  3. The word is used both for the independent tort and for a mode of committing other torts.
  4. The plaintiff proves all three elements; res ipsa loquitur helps evidentially.
  5. Criminal negligence requires a gross degree and mens rea; civil negligence does not.
  6. An error of judgment or an accident is not negligence.
  7. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, restates the same definition for medical cases.

Test yourself

1. Define negligence and state its essentials. Negligence is the breach of a duty caused by the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or by the doing of something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do. That is the definition the Supreme Court adopted in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, and repeated in Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480. Its essential components are three: a duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff, a breach of that duty judged by the standard of the reasonable person, and damage resulting from the breach which is not too remote. All three must be proved by the plaintiff.

2. Distinguish negligence as a tort from negligence as a mode of committing a tort. As an independent tort, negligence is a cause of action with three elements, duty, breach and damage, and a plaintiff who cannot prove all three fails. As a mode of committing another tort, the word describes the manner of the defendant's conduct rather than the cause of action: a trespass may be committed negligently, a nuisance may be created negligently, and a bailee may perform his duty negligently, but in each of those the plaintiff sues on the other tort and negligence is merely an adjective. The distinction matters because the elements and the defences differ: an action in nuisance is not answered by proof that reasonable care was taken, while an action in negligence is.

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3. How does criminal negligence differ from civil negligence? In degree and in mental element. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, holds that what may be negligence in civil law is not necessarily negligence in criminal law: for negligence to amount to an offence the element of mens rea must be shown, and the degree of negligence must be much higher, that is, gross or of a very high degree. The Court held that the expression rash or negligent act in the penal provision must be read as qualified by the word grossly, and that to prosecute a medical professional it must be shown that he did or failed to do something which no medical professional in his ordinary senses and prudence would have done or failed to do. It also held that res ipsa loquitur, being a rule of evidence in civil law, has at most a limited application in a criminal trial.

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Chapter Forty-Two

The Duty of Care

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

A defendant is liable in negligence only if the law says he owed this plaintiff a duty to take care, and a duty is not created merely because harm was foreseeable.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a duty of care is a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which one can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure one's neighbour, a neighbour being a person so closely and directly affected by the act that one ought reasonably to have him in contemplation; the modern approach asks in addition whether there is sufficient proximity between the parties and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty, and the existence of a statutory power does not by itself create one.

Where the modern law begins

The general principle comes from Donoghue v. Stevenson, (1932) AC 562, which the Supreme Court of India cites by that reference in Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552.

Facts. A manufacturer's product reached an ultimate consumer, who was injured by its condition. There was no contract between the manufacturer and the consumer, which is why the claim could not be brought in contract. The Supreme Court recites the case in those terms in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1.

Held. The manufacturer was liable to the ultimate consumer on the principle of a duty to take care. A duty in tort may therefore exist although there is no contract between the parties, which is the proposition the whole modern law of negligence is built on.

The formula that came out of that case is the neighbour principle: you must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour, and your neighbour is a person so closely and directly affected by your act that you ought reasonably to have him in contemplation.

Why foreseeability alone is not enough

If everyone owed a duty to everyone who might foreseeably be harmed, liability would have no boundary. Courts have therefore added two further questions.

Proximity. Is there a sufficiently close and direct relationship between the parties? Physical closeness, a relationship of reliance, an assumption of responsibility and the directness of the harm all bear on it.

Fairness, justice and reasonableness. Is it fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty of this scope on this defendant for the benefit of this class of plaintiffs? This is where a court weighs the burden on public authorities, the risk of indeterminate liability, and the existence of other remedies.

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The Supreme Court's own formulation, in Jay Laxmi Salt Works, is that duty is the primary yardstick of tortious liability and its ambit keeps widening on the touchstone of fairness and the practicality of the situation.

The Indian case that shows a duty being refused

Most notes on this topic cite only cases where a duty was found. The examinable point is that a duty may be refused, and the leading Indian authority is one where it was.

Facts. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, decided on 17 January 1997. A pedestrian walking to his office was killed when a roadside tree maintained by the Municipal Corporation suddenly fell on him. His widow and children sued in negligence. The trial court decreed the claim and the High Court affirmed, holding that the Corporation's statutory power to plant and maintain roadside trees carried a corresponding absolute duty to keep them in proper condition, so that the claimants need not prove why the tree fell.

Held. The appeal was allowed and both decrees were set aside. The existence of a duty of care must be established before liability for negligence can arise; a duty is not fastened on a public authority merely because it has a statutory power; the fall of the tree was not reasonably foreseeable by the Corporation; and the damage was too remote. Because the claimants were poor and the money had probably been spent, the Court directed that the Rs. 45,000 already paid should not be recovered from them.

Why it matters here. Three propositions come out of it, and each is examinable: a power is not a duty; foreseeability is judged on what this defendant could reasonably foresee, not on hindsight; and the duty question is decided before the standard-of-care question is reached.

And the Indian case where a duty was found

Facts. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750. The Clock Tower in Chandni Chowk, belonging to the Corporation, collapsed and killed three people. It was eighty years old, the mortar of its top storey had a life of forty to forty-five years, and the Corporation had never examined it for latent defects.

Held. The owner of a structure abutting a highway owes a duty to users of the highway to keep it in a safe condition. A properly maintained structure does not ordinarily collapse, so res ipsa loquitur applied and the burden lay on the Corporation to explain the fall. Its failure to test a building long past the life of its materials was negligence.

Why the two cases sit together. In Subhagwanti the danger was one the owner could and should have discovered by inspection; in Rajkot Municipal Corporation the Court held that the fall of a living tree was not foreseeable in the same way. Read together they show that the duty question turns on what this defendant, in this position, could reasonably be expected to know and to do.

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Special situations

Omissions. The law is slower to impose a duty to act than a duty not to injure. A duty to act arises from a relationship, from control over the source of the danger, from an undertaking, or from the creation of the risk.

Public authorities. Rajkot Municipal Corporation is the Indian authority: a statutory power does not by itself create a common law duty of care.

Unborn children. A duty is owed to a child in the womb, actionable after birth, as chapter [Who May Sue] explains.

Rescuers. A person who negligently creates a danger owes a duty to those who come to the rescue, which is also why volenti non fit injuria does not run against a rescuer.

A worked example

A contractor digs a trench across a village road and leaves it open overnight.

To a villager who falls in, a duty is plainly owed: the harm is foreseeable, the relationship is proximate, and it is fair and reasonable to impose the duty on the person who made the hole.

To a person who is injured going in to pull the villager out, a duty is owed as a rescuer.

To the village panchayat, which loses money because a bus route is suspended, the answer is likely to be no: the loss is economic, the relationship is not proximate, and imposing a duty would open liability to everyone inconvenienced by the trench.

To the villager's employer, who loses his services, the answer is no for the same reasons, and chapter [Torts Affecting Personal Relations] explains why the old action for loss of services is gone.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean foreseeability creates a duty. Proximity and the fairness of imposing the duty are separate questions.

It does not mean a public authority is liable whenever it has power to act. Rajkot Municipal Corporation holds the opposite.

It does not mean a duty is owed to the world. It is owed to persons in the class the defendant ought to have had in contemplation.

It does not merge with the standard of care. Whether a duty exists comes first; how much care it required comes next.

Quick revision

  1. The neighbour principle from Donoghue v. Stevenson, (1932) AC 562: take reasonable care to avoid acts you can foresee would injure your neighbour, and a duty may exist without any contract.
  2. Modern approach: foreseeability, proximity, and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose the duty.
  3. Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1: duty is the primary yardstick and its ambit widens on the touchstone of fairness and practicality.
  4. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552: a statutory power is not a duty; the fall of a tree was not foreseeable; the appeal was allowed.
  5. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750: the owner of a structure abutting a highway owes a duty to keep it safe.
  6. Duties are slower to arise for omissions, and arise from relationship, control, undertaking or creation of the risk.
  7. A duty is owed to an unborn child and to a rescuer.
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Test yourself

1. What is a duty of care and how does a court decide whether one exists? A duty of care is a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which one can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure one's neighbour, a neighbour being a person so closely and directly affected by the act that one ought reasonably to have him in contemplation; the principle comes from Donoghue v. Stevenson, (1932) AC 562. Foreseeability alone is not enough, because it would make liability boundless, so a court asks two further questions: whether there is sufficient proximity between the parties, in the sense of closeness, reliance or assumption of responsibility, and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty of that scope on that defendant. The Supreme Court's formulation in Jay Laxmi Salt Works (P) Ltd v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1, is that duty is the primary yardstick of tortious liability and that its ambit keeps widening on the touchstone of fairness and the practicality of the situation.

2. "A statutory power is a statutory duty." Comment with reference to Indian authority. The proposition is wrong, and the Indian authority against it is Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552. A pedestrian was killed by the fall of a roadside tree maintained by the Corporation, and both the trial court and the High Court held the Corporation liable, reasoning that its power to plant and maintain roadside trees carried a corresponding absolute duty to keep them safe. The Supreme Court allowed the appeal and set aside both decrees, holding that the existence of a duty of care must be established before liability in negligence can arise, that a duty is not fastened on a public authority merely because it possesses a statutory power, that the fall of the tree was not reasonably foreseeable by the Corporation, and that the damage was too remote. It nevertheless directed, on humane grounds, that the Rs. 45,000 already paid should not be recovered from the poor claimants.

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3. Reconcile Subhagwanti with Rajkot Municipal Corporation. The two decisions turn on what the defendant could reasonably be expected to know and to do. In Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, an eighty-year-old clock tower whose mortar had a life of forty to forty-five years collapsed and killed three people, and the Corporation had never tested it for latent defects; the Court held that the owner of a structure abutting a highway owes a duty to keep it safe, applied res ipsa loquitur and found negligence, because inspection would have revealed the danger. In Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, a living tree fell without warning and the Court held that no duty of the kind alleged arose and the fall was not reasonably foreseeable. The difference is discoverability: a decaying structure can be examined and a healthy tree cannot be watched leaf by leaf, so the first defendant could have prevented the harm by reasonable diligence and the second could not.

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Chapter Forty-Three

Breach of Duty and the Standard of Care

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Breach is failing to do what a reasonable person would have done, and the standard rises with the danger, the skill professed and the price charged.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a duty of care is broken where the defendant fails to come up to the standard of the reasonable person, which is an objective standard measured by what a person of ordinary prudence would have done in the circumstances; the standard is fixed by the magnitude of the risk, the seriousness of the injury threatened, the utility of the defendant's conduct and the cost of precautions, it is raised where the defendant professes a special skill, and it is not lowered by the defendant's inexperience.

The reasonable person

The standard is that of the reasonable person: not the most cautious person imaginable and not the average person with all his failings, but a person of ordinary prudence in the defendant's position.

Three consequences follow, and each is examinable.

The standard is objective. A learner driver is judged by the standard of a competent driver, and inexperience is no excuse.

The standard takes account of the circumstances, not of the person. A doctor is judged as a doctor and a bus driver as a bus driver, but neither is judged by what he personally could manage.

Compliance with common practice is strong evidence but not conclusive. A practice may itself be careless, though a court will not readily say so.

The four factors that fix how much care is required

1. The magnitude of the risk, which is the likelihood of harm occurring. The more probable the harm, the more care is required.

2. The seriousness of the injury threatened. Where the possible harm is grave, more care is required even if the risk is small. A person carrying acid must take more care than a person carrying water, and a person known to be blind in one eye must be protected against a risk to the other.

3. The utility of the defendant's conduct. Some risks are worth taking. An ambulance driven fast to save a life is judged differently from a car driven fast for pleasure.

4. The cost and practicability of precautions. The law does not require a defendant to eliminate every risk regardless of expense; it requires precautions a reasonable person would take, weighing the risk against the burden.

The professional standard

A person who professes a special skill is judged by the standard of an ordinarily competent member of that profession. This is the Bolam standard, and the Supreme Court adopted it for India.

Facts. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, decided on 5 August 2005. A patient in a hospital at Ludhiana had difficulty in breathing at night; no doctor came for twenty to twenty-five minutes, and when two came the oxygen cylinder connected was, according to the complaint, empty. The patient died and the doctors were prosecuted for causing death by a rash or negligent act.

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Held. Negligence is the breach of a duty by omitting what a reasonable man would do or doing what a prudent and reasonable man would not, and its components are duty, breach and resulting damage. Professional negligence calls for a treatment with a difference: a simple lack of care, an error of judgment or an accident is not negligence, and so long as a doctor follows a practice acceptable to the medical profession of the day he is not liable merely because a better alternative was available or a more skilled doctor would not have followed it; what must be seen is whether the precautions were taken which the ordinary experience of men has found sufficient. For criminal liability the degree must be gross.

Why it matters here. It is the Indian statement of the professional standard, and chapter [Medical Negligence] takes it further. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, restates it and adds that medical professionals are entitled to protection so long as they perform their duties with reasonable skill and competence in the interest of their patients.

The standard rises with what is charged for it

This is an Indian refinement worth knowing, and it comes from a case a student can remember.

Facts. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, decided on 3 January 1997. A German co-pilot staying at a five star hotel in New Delhi dived from the hotel's three metre spring board into its swimming pool, struck his head on the bottom because the pool was too shallow for that board, and was paralysed; he suffered for thirteen years and died before the suit was decided.

Held. A five star hotel charging a high price owes a correspondingly high degree of care as to the quality and safety of its structure and services. The pool did not meet even the minimum, let alone the preferred, standards of safety, and the spring board should have been removed when the standards were revised in 1970. A general notice that guests use the facilities at their own risk cannot soften the duty, since one who extends an invitation cannot then say the invitee accepted the risk. The suit was decreed for Rs. 50 lakhs with interest at six per cent from 27 September 1985.

Why it matters here. It ties the standard of care to the service professed and the price charged: the same act may be reasonable in a dharamshala and negligent in a luxury hotel.

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Proving the breach

The burden is on the plaintiff. Where the accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen without negligence, and the thing that caused it was under the defendant's control, the maxim res ipsa loquitur helps him, and chapter [Res Ipsa Loquitur] works it out. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, and Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, are the two Indian illustrations.

A worked example

A school takes forty children on a picnic to a river.

Magnitude of the risk. Children near moving water; the likelihood of somebody entering the water is high.

Seriousness. Drowning is fatal; the gravity is at its maximum.

Utility. A picnic has social value, but it is not an ambulance run; the utility will not excuse much.

Cost of precautions. Two extra teachers, a rope line and a headcount every fifteen minutes cost little.

Conclusion. A reasonable school would take those precautions, and a school that took none has broken its duty. If the school had advertised itself as providing specialist adventure supervision and charged for it, Klaus Mittelbachert suggests that the standard expected of it would be higher still.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean every accident is a breach. Jacob Mathew says an accident or an error of judgment is not proof of negligence.

It does not mean the defendant's best efforts suffice. The standard is objective; a beginner is judged as a competent person.

It does not mean following custom is always enough. Common practice is strong evidence, and a court may still hold the practice careless.

It does not mean cost is irrelevant. The burden of precautions is one of the four factors.

Quick revision

  1. Breach is measured against the reasonable person, objectively.
  2. Four factors: magnitude of the risk, seriousness of the injury threatened, utility of the conduct, and the cost and practicability of precautions.
  3. Inexperience is no excuse; a learner is judged as a competent driver.
  4. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180: a professional who follows a practice acceptable to his profession is not liable merely because a better course existed; criminal negligence must be gross.
  5. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480: protection so long as duties are performed with reasonable skill and competence.
  6. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201: the standard rises with the service professed and the price charged; a disclaimer notice does not soften it; Rs. 50 lakhs decreed.
  7. The burden of proving breach is on the plaintiff, assisted where it applies by res ipsa loquitur.
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Test yourself

1. How does a court decide whether a duty of care has been broken? By comparing the defendant's conduct with that of a reasonable person in his position, objectively and without regard to his personal capacities, so that inexperience is no excuse. How much care that requires is fixed by four factors: the magnitude of the risk, that is, the likelihood of harm; the seriousness of the injury threatened, so that a grave risk demands more care even if it is improbable; the utility of the defendant's conduct, so that a socially valuable activity may justify a risk that a trivial one would not; and the cost and practicability of the precautions, since the law asks for precautions a reasonable person would take rather than the elimination of every risk. Compliance with common practice is strong evidence that no breach occurred but is not conclusive, because a practice may itself be careless.

2. What standard is applied to a professional, and what is the Indian authority? A person who professes a special skill is judged by the standard of an ordinarily competent member of that profession, not by that of the most eminent practitioner. In Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, the Supreme Court adopted that standard for India, holding that professional negligence calls for a treatment with a difference; that a simple lack of care, an error of judgment or an accident is not negligence; that so long as a doctor follows a practice acceptable to the medical profession of the day he is not liable merely because a better alternative existed or a more skilled doctor would have chosen differently; and that what must be seen is whether the precautions taken were those which the ordinary experience of men has found sufficient. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, restates the principles and adds that professionals are entitled to protection so long as they act with reasonable skill and competence in the patient's interest.

3. Does the standard of care vary with what the defendant charges? Indian authority says it does, for a service provider who holds himself out as offering a superior service. In Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, a guest was paralysed diving from a spring board into a hotel pool that was too shallow for it, and the Delhi High Court held that a five star hotel charging a high or fancy price owes a correspondingly high degree of care as to the quality and safety of its structure and services, that it must update itself to the latest safety standards rather than rely on those current when it was built, and that a general notice that guests use the facilities at their own risk cannot soften that duty because one who extends an invitation cannot say the invitee accepted the risk. The suit was decreed for Rs. 50 lakhs with interest.

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Chapter Forty-Four

Damage, Causation and Remoteness

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

The plaintiff must show that the breach caused his damage and that the damage was not too remote a consequence of it.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: damage is the third essential of negligence, and it must be both caused by the breach and not too remote; causation is tested by asking whether the harm would have occurred but for the defendant's breach, subject to the rules on multiple causes and on a novus actus interveniens; remoteness limits liability to consequences of a kind that were reasonably foreseeable, which is the test of The Wagon Mound, preferred to the older test of direct consequences in Re Polemis.

Causation: the but-for test

Ask: would the harm have happened but for the defendant's breach? If it would have happened anyway, the breach did not cause it and the claim fails, however careless the defendant was.

Multiple causes. Where two causes each would have been sufficient, the but-for test breaks down and the courts ask instead whether the breach materially contributed to the harm.

Novus actus interveniens is Latin for a new act intervening. Where an independent act breaks the chain of causation, the defendant is not liable for what follows. The act must be truly independent: the intervention of a rescuer, of a doctor treating the injury, or of the plaintiff acting reasonably in the emergency the defendant created does not break the chain.

Remoteness: how far down the chain does liability run?

Every act has endless consequences. The law stops somewhere, and the two candidates for where are these.

The test of directness, associated with Re Polemis: a defendant is liable for all the direct consequences of his negligent act, whether or not they were foreseeable.

The test of reasonable foresight, associated with The Wagon Mound: a defendant is liable only for consequences of a kind that a reasonable person would have foreseen. This is the test now generally applied.

Two refinements matter.

The kind of harm, not its extent, must be foreseeable. If personal injury of some sort was foreseeable, it is no answer that the injury turned out far worse than expected.

The eggshell skull rule. A defendant takes his victim as he finds him. If a foreseeable blow causes far greater harm because the plaintiff has a thin skull, a weak heart or an unusual condition, the defendant is liable for the whole of it.

The Indian case decided on remoteness

Facts. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, decided on 17 January 1997. A pedestrian was killed when a roadside tree maintained by the Municipal Corporation fell on him. The trial court and the High Court held the Corporation liable on the footing that its power to maintain roadside trees carried an absolute duty to keep them safe.

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Held. The appeal was allowed. A duty of care must be established and is not created merely by the existence of a statutory power; the fall of the tree was not reasonably foreseeable by the Corporation; and the damage was too remote. The Court nevertheless directed that the Rs. 45,000 already paid should not be recovered from the claimants, who were poor.

Why it matters here. It shows the Indian courts applying foreseeability at both ends of the claim: to the existence of the duty and to the remoteness of the damage. Read it against Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, where the collapse of an eighty-year-old, never-inspected structure was both foreseeable and proximate.

Damage that the law recognises

Not every kind of loss is compensable in negligence.

Physical injury and damage to property are the paradigm.

Consequential economic loss, that is, loss flowing from physical injury or property damage, is recoverable.

Pure economic loss, that is, financial loss unconnected with any physical injury to the plaintiff or his property, is recoverable only in narrow circumstances, because a duty to avoid it is rarely held to be fair, just and reasonable, as chapter [The Duty of Care] explains.

Nervous shock, that is, a recognisable psychiatric injury, is recoverable subject to the control mechanisms in chapter [Nervous Shock].

A worked example

A tanker driver parks on a slope without applying the handbrake. The tanker rolls, hits a wall, and petrol leaks.

A pedestrian is crushed. But for the breach he would not have been hurt; the harm is of a foreseeable kind; the claim succeeds.

A worker with a weak heart dies of shock at the noise. The kind of harm, personal injury, was foreseeable, and the eggshell skull rule makes the defendant liable for the extent.

A passer-by lights a cigarette near the leak and there is an explosion. Whether the chain is broken depends on whether that act was truly independent. If the leak was obvious and the passer-by acted deliberately in the face of it, the chain may be broken; if he had no reason to know, it is not.

A factory a kilometre away loses a day's production because the road is closed. That is pure economic loss unconnected with any damage to the factory's property, and it is very unlikely to be recoverable.

A rescuer is burned pulling the driver out. The chain is not broken, a duty is owed to rescuers, and volenti non fit injuria does not run against him.

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Distinctions that carry marks

CausationRemoteness
QuestionDid the breach in fact cause the harm?Should the defendant answer for this consequence?
TestBut for the breach, would the harm have happened?Was harm of this kind reasonably foreseeable?
NatureA question of factA question of law and policy
Re PolemisThe Wagon Mound
TestAll direct consequencesOnly consequences of a foreseeable kind
StatusThe older testThe test now generally applied

What it does NOT mean

It does not require the extent of the harm to be foreseeable. Only its kind.

It does not excuse a defendant because the victim was unusually vulnerable. The eggshell skull rule.

It does not break the chain merely because somebody else also acted. The intervening act must be truly independent, and rescue and medical treatment ordinarily are not.

It does not make all financial loss recoverable. Pure economic loss is recoverable only exceptionally.

Quick revision

  1. The third element of negligence is damage caused by the breach and not too remote.
  2. Causation: the but-for test, with material contribution where causes are multiple.
  3. Novus actus interveniens: an independent intervening act breaks the chain; rescue, medical treatment and reasonable acts in an emergency do not.
  4. Remoteness: directness in Re Polemis, reasonable foresight in The Wagon Mound, and foresight is the test now applied.
  5. The kind of harm must be foreseeable; its extent need not be.
  6. The eggshell skull rule: take your victim as you find him.
  7. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552: the fall of the tree was not foreseeable and the damage was too remote.
  8. Pure economic loss is recoverable only in narrow circumstances.

Test yourself

1. Explain the tests of remoteness of damage. Two tests compete. The test of directness, associated with Re Polemis, makes a defendant liable for all the direct consequences of his negligent act whether or not they were foreseeable, which is simple to apply but can make liability disproportionate to fault. The test of reasonable foresight, associated with The Wagon Mound, limits liability to consequences of a kind that a reasonable person would have foreseen, and it is the test now generally applied. Two refinements soften it: the kind of harm and not its extent must be foreseeable, and under the eggshell skull rule a defendant takes his victim as he finds him, so that a foreseeable injury made far worse by the plaintiff's unusual susceptibility is compensated in full. Indian courts apply foreseeability, and in Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, (1997) 9 SCC 552, the Supreme Court set aside decrees on the ground, among others, that the damage was too remote.

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2. What is a novus actus interveniens? A new act intervening: an act, event or decision occurring after the defendant's breach which is so independent of it that the law treats it as breaking the chain of causation, so that the defendant is not liable for what follows. The intervening act must be genuinely independent, and voluntary human conduct that is deliberate and informed is the clearest example. What does not break the chain is action taken by a rescuer, since rescue is a foreseeable response to the danger the defendant created; medical treatment of the injury, unless it is grossly negligent; and conduct of the plaintiff which is a reasonable reaction to the emergency in which the defendant placed him. The question is always whether the later event was within the risk the defendant created or outside it.

3. Does the law of negligence compensate every financial loss? No. Physical injury and damage to property are the paradigm heads, and economic loss consequential on them, such as lost earnings or lost profits from a damaged machine, is recoverable. Pure economic loss, that is, financial loss suffered without any physical injury to the plaintiff or his property, is recoverable only in narrow circumstances, typically where there is a special relationship of reliance or an assumption of responsibility, because courts have generally held that it is not fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty of that width; otherwise a single accident on a road could give a claim to every business inconvenienced by the closure. Nervous shock is recoverable where it amounts to a recognisable psychiatric injury and the control mechanisms in chapter [Nervous Shock] are satisfied.

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Chapter Forty-Five

Res Ipsa Loquitur

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Where an accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen if those in control take proper care, the accident itself is evidence of negligence.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: res ipsa loquitur means the thing speaks for itself; where the thing causing the damage was under the management or control of the defendant, and the accident is such as does not ordinarily happen if those who have such control use proper care, the accident itself affords reasonable evidence, in the absence of explanation by the defendant, that it arose from want of care; the maxim is a rule of evidence and not a rule of law, and it shifts the burden of explanation on to the defendant.

The three conditions

1. The thing causing the damage was under the defendant's control or management.

2. The accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used.

3. There is no explanation of how the accident happened, or the explanation offered is consistent with negligence.

Where the three are satisfied, the plaintiff may prove the accident and stop; it is then for the defendant to show that it happened without negligence on his part.

The Indian authority for what the maxim does

Facts. Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, decided on 25 March 1977. A company's car, driven by its manager, left the road and struck a tree beyond the pavement so violently that the vehicle was badly damaged and its occupants killed. The dependants of a passenger claimed compensation. The company pleaded inevitable accident but led no evidence of how the accident happened.

Held. Where a car leaves the road and strikes a tree so violently, the maxim res ipsa loquitur applies. The general purport of the words is that the accident speaks for itself, or tells its own story: in such cases it is enough for the plaintiff to prove the accident and nothing more, and it is then for the defendant to establish that it happened from some cause other than his own negligence. Having pleaded inevitable accident and led no evidence, the company failed.

Why it matters here. It is the clearest Indian statement of what the maxim is for: it relieves the plaintiff of the hardship of proving how an accident happened when only the defendant can know.

The second Indian illustration

Facts. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750. The Clock Tower in Chandni Chowk, owned by the Corporation, collapsed and killed three people. It was eighty years old, the mortar of its top storey had a life of forty to forty-five years, and the Corporation had never examined it for latent defects.

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Held. The owner of a structure abutting a highway owes a duty to those using the highway to keep it in a safe condition; a properly maintained structure does not ordinarily collapse, so the principle of res ipsa loquitur applied and the burden lay on the Corporation to explain the fall; and the failure to test a building long past the life of its materials was negligence.

Why it matters here. It shows the maxim used against a public body, and it is the case to cite when the defendant argues that the defect was latent.

The limit: a rule of evidence, not of law

Facts. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, decided on 5 August 2005. Doctors were prosecuted for causing death by a rash or negligent act after a patient died when, on the complaint's version, an empty oxygen cylinder was connected.

Held. Among the Court's conclusions: res ipsa loquitur is only a rule of evidence, operating in the domain of civil law, particularly in torts, and helping to determine the onus of proof in negligence actions; it cannot be pressed into service to determine liability for negligence in the domain of criminal law, where it has at most a limited application.

Why it matters here. A student who says the maxim "proves" negligence is wrong. It shifts the burden of explanation; it does not decide the case, and it does not travel into the criminal courts.

What the maxim is NOT

It is not a presumption of law. The defendant can rebut it with a reasonable explanation consistent with the absence of negligence.

It does not reverse the legal burden in every jurisdiction and every case. The safer statement, and the one the Indian cases use, is that the accident is evidence of negligence which calls for an explanation.

It does not apply where the cause of the accident is known. If the facts are fully known, the court decides on the facts, and there is nothing for the maxim to do.

It does not apply where the thing was not in the defendant's control.

A worked example

Four accidents, and whether the maxim applies.

A bag of cement falls from a building under construction and hits a passer-by. The maxim applies: bags do not ordinarily fall from buildings where proper care is taken, and the site was in the builder's control.

A surgical instrument is left inside a patient after an operation. The maxim applies: that does not ordinarily happen if care is taken, and the operating theatre is entirely within the hospital's control.

A bus swerves off a straight road on a clear day and overturns. The maxim applies, on Pushpabai.

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A passenger slips on a wet floor at a station in the middle of a monsoon downpour. The maxim probably does not apply: floors get wet in a downpour without anybody being negligent, so the accident is not of a kind that speaks for itself, and the plaintiff must prove what the station master failed to do.

Quick revision

  1. Res ipsa loquitur: the thing speaks for itself.
  2. Three conditions: the thing was in the defendant's control, the accident does not ordinarily happen with proper care, and there is no explanation.
  3. Effect: the plaintiff proves the accident and the defendant must explain.
  4. Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735: a car leaving the road and striking a tree; the plea of inevitable accident failed for want of evidence.
  5. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750: a collapsing clock tower; the burden lay on the Corporation to explain.
  6. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180: it is a rule of evidence in civil law, with at most a limited application in criminal cases.
  7. It does not apply where the cause is known or the thing was not in the defendant's control.

Test yourself

1. Explain res ipsa loquitur and its conditions. The maxim means that the thing speaks for itself. Where the thing which caused the damage was under the management or control of the defendant, and the accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen if those in control use proper care, the accident itself affords reasonable evidence, in the absence of an explanation by the defendant, that it arose from want of care. Its three conditions are therefore control, an accident of a kind that speaks of negligence, and the absence of an explanation. Its effect is procedural: the plaintiff proves the accident and stops, and the defendant must then explain how it happened without negligence on his part, as the Supreme Court put it in Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735.

2. Is res ipsa loquitur a rule of law or a rule of evidence, and why does the difference matter? It is a rule of evidence. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, states it in terms: the maxim is only a rule of evidence, operating in the domain of civil law and especially in torts, and helping to determine the onus of proof in negligence actions; it cannot be pressed into service to determine liability in criminal law, where it has at most a limited application. The difference matters in three ways. It does not prove negligence, it calls for an explanation, and a reasonable explanation consistent with due care defeats it. It has no place where the cause of the accident is fully known, because the court then decides on the facts. And it cannot be used to convict, where the prosecution must prove gross negligence beyond reasonable doubt.

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3. Give two Indian illustrations of the maxim. In Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, AIR 1966 SC 1750, an eighty-year-old clock tower belonging to the Corporation collapsed in Chandni Chowk and killed three people; the mortar of its top storey had a life of forty to forty-five years and the Corporation had never tested it for latent defects. The Court held that a structure abutting a highway does not ordinarily collapse if properly maintained, applied the maxim, and placed on the Corporation the burden of explaining the fall, which it could not discharge. In Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, a company car driven by its manager left the road and struck a tree so violently that the occupants were killed; the Court held the maxim applied, that it was enough for the claimants to prove the accident, and that the company, having pleaded inevitable accident without leading any evidence, was liable.

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Chapter Forty-Six

Contributory and Composite Negligence

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Contributory negligence is the plaintiff's own carelessness, which reduces his damages; composite negligence is the carelessness of two or more defendants, which gives the plaintiff the whole sum from any of them.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: contributory negligence is a want of reasonable care by the plaintiff for his own safety which contributes to the damage he suffers, and under the modern law it does not defeat the claim but reduces the damages in proportion to his share of the responsibility; composite negligence arises where the injury is caused by the negligence of two or more persons, and the liability of each to the injured person is joint and several, so that he may recover the whole amount from any one of them, apportionment being a matter between the wrongdoers.

Contributory negligence

What it is. The plaintiff failed to take the care a reasonable person would take for his own safety, and that failure contributed to his damage. He need owe no duty to anybody; the question is whether he looked after himself.

The old rule and the modern one. At common law contributory negligence was a complete defence, which produced harsh results, and it was mitigated by the last opportunity rule: the party who had the last opportunity of avoiding the accident was liable for the whole of it. The modern approach, which Indian courts apply and which the assessment of just compensation under section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires, is apportionment: the court fixes the plaintiff's share of the responsibility as a percentage and reduces the damages by it.

The doctrine of alternative danger. A plaintiff who is put in a position of danger by the defendant's negligence, and takes a course that turns out badly, is not contributorily negligent if he acted reasonably in the agony of the moment.

Children and contributory negligence. A child is judged by the standard of a child of that age, and very young children are not capable of contributory negligence at all.

Composite negligence

What it is. Two or more persons are each negligent, and their combined negligence causes a single indivisible injury to the plaintiff.

Facts. Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273, decided on 7 May 2015. The claimant was injured in an accident caused by the composite negligence of the drivers of a trailer-truck and of a bus, and the question was whether he could recover the whole compensation from one of them and how liability was to be apportioned.

Held. In a case of composite negligence the liability of each wrongdoer to the claimant is joint and several. The claimant may recover the whole amount from any one of them, and he is not required to sue all of them or to have the liability apportioned between them before he is paid. Apportionment as between the tortfeasors is a matter for them, by contribution among themselves, and does not affect the claimant's right to full compensation from any one.

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Why it matters here. It is the rule that makes a claim practical: an injured person need not disentangle whose fault was greater, and the insurer of one vehicle cannot delay payment by pointing at the other.

The table that keeps them apart

Contributory negligenceComposite negligence
Whose negligenceThe plaintiff's own, along with the defendant'sTwo or more defendants'
Effect on the claimDamages reduced in proportionNo reduction; the claim is for the whole
RecoveryFrom the defendant, reducedThe whole from any one defendant
ApportionmentBetween plaintiff and defendantBetween the defendants only
Indian authorityApportionment under section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273

A single accident can involve both: two negligent drivers and a pedestrian who stepped out without looking. The court then reduces the total for the pedestrian's share, and the reduced sum is recoverable in full from either driver.

A worked example

A truck and a motorcycle collide at a junction. The motorcyclist, who was not wearing a helmet, suffers a head injury. A pedestrian standing at the corner is also hit.

The pedestrian. He was careless in no way. His injury was caused by the composite negligence of the truck driver and the motorcyclist, so on Khenyei he may recover the whole of his compensation from either of them, and the two must sort out contribution between themselves.

The motorcyclist. He was himself negligent in two respects, if the evidence shows it: the manner of his riding, and the absence of a helmet, which contributed to the extent of his head injury even if not to the collision. His damages will be reduced by the percentage the court fixes as his share.

The last opportunity rule. If the truck driver saw the motorcycle in time to stop and did not, the older approach would have made him liable for the whole; the modern approach reaches a similar result by giving him a much larger share on apportionment.

And the agony of the moment. If the motorcyclist swerved into a wall to avoid the truck and was hurt by the wall, the doctrine of alternative danger protects him: a reasonable choice made in the emergency created by the truck is not contributory negligence.

What it does NOT mean

Contributory negligence is not a complete defence today. It reduces the damages.

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Composite negligence does not require the plaintiff to sue everybody. Khenyei holds that he may recover the whole from any one.

Composite negligence does not let a defendant pay only his share to the plaintiff. Apportionment operates between the wrongdoers.

A child is not judged as an adult. The standard is that of a child of that age, and a very young child cannot be contributorily negligent.

Quick revision

  1. Contributory negligence: the plaintiff's own want of care for his safety, contributing to his damage.
  2. Modern effect: apportionment, not a complete defence.
  3. The last opportunity rule was the old mitigation of the harsh rule.
  4. Doctrine of alternative danger: a reasonable choice in the agony of the moment is not contributory negligence.
  5. Children are judged by the standard of their age.
  6. Composite negligence: two or more defendants, one indivisible injury.
  7. Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273: liability is joint and several; the claimant may recover the whole from any one; apportionment is between the tortfeasors.
  8. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires the Tribunal to award just compensation, and apportionment for the claimant's own negligence is made in fixing it.

Test yourself

1. What is contributory negligence, and what is its effect? Contributory negligence is a failure by the plaintiff to take the care that a reasonable person would take for his own safety, which contributes to the damage he suffers. He owes no duty to the defendant; the question is only whether he looked after himself. At common law it was a complete defence, which was harsh and was mitigated by the last opportunity rule, under which the party who had the last chance to avoid the accident bore the whole loss. The modern approach, applied by Indian courts and reflected in the assessment of just compensation under section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, is apportionment: the court fixes the plaintiff's share of responsibility as a percentage and reduces his damages accordingly. A plaintiff who acts reasonably in an emergency created by the defendant is protected by the doctrine of alternative danger, and a child is judged by the standard of a child of that age.

2. Distinguish contributory negligence from composite negligence. Contributory negligence concerns the plaintiff's own carelessness, and its consequence is a reduction of his damages in proportion to his share of the fault. Composite negligence concerns the carelessness of two or more defendants whose combined conduct causes a single indivisible injury, and its consequence is that each of them is liable to the plaintiff for the whole. In Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273, the Supreme Court held that in composite negligence the liability of the wrongdoers to the claimant is joint and several, so that the claimant may recover the entire amount from any one of them and need not sue all or wait for the liability to be apportioned; apportionment is a matter for the tortfeasors among themselves and does not affect his right to full compensation. Both may occur in the same accident, in which case the total is first reduced for the plaintiff's share and the balance is recoverable in full from any of the defendants.

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3. Explain the last opportunity rule and the doctrine of alternative danger. The last opportunity rule was a device to soften the old rule that contributory negligence was a complete defence: where both parties were negligent, the one who had the last opportunity of avoiding the accident was held liable for the whole of it, so that a plaintiff whose earlier carelessness was followed by the defendant's failure to avoid the consequences still recovered. It has largely been overtaken by apportionment, which achieves the same fairness more directly by dividing the responsibility. The doctrine of alternative danger, sometimes called the agony of the moment, provides that a plaintiff who is placed in a position of danger by the defendant's negligence and who takes a course that turns out badly is not to be held contributorily negligent if he acted reasonably in the emergency, because the law does not require perfect judgment from a person whom the defendant has put in peril.

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Chapter Forty-Seven

Medical Negligence

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

A doctor is judged by the standard of an ordinarily competent practitioner of his branch, and is not liable merely because the treatment failed or a better course existed.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: medical negligence is the breach by a medical professional of the duty to bring to his task a reasonable degree of skill and knowledge and to exercise a reasonable degree of care; the standard is that of the ordinary competent practitioner exercising and professing to have that special skill, which is the test in Bolam's case adopted for India in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab; an error of judgment or an accident is not negligence, and a practitioner who follows a practice acceptable to the profession of the day is not liable merely because a better alternative existed.

The duty a doctor owes

A doctor who accepts a patient owes three duties: a duty of care in deciding whether to take the case, a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give, and a duty of care in the administration of that treatment. A breach of any of them, causing damage, is actionable.

The standard: Bolam, as adopted in India

Facts. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, decided on 5 August 2005 by three judges. A patient in a hospital at Ludhiana had difficulty breathing at about eleven at night; no doctor came for twenty to twenty-five minutes, and when two arrived the oxygen cylinder connected was, on the complaint's version, empty. The patient died, and the doctors were prosecuted for causing death by a rash or negligent act.

Held. The Court summed up its conclusions. Negligence has three components: duty, breach and resulting damage. Professional negligence calls for a treatment with a difference: a simple lack of care, an error of judgment or an accident is not proof of negligence, and so long as a doctor follows a practice acceptable to the medical profession of the day he cannot be held liable merely because a better alternative course was available or because a more skilled doctor would not have followed that course; what has to be seen is whether the precautions were taken which the ordinary experience of men has found to be sufficient. For criminal liability the negligence must be gross or of a very high degree and mens rea must be shown. Res ipsa loquitur is a rule of evidence in civil law with at most a limited application in a criminal trial. The Court also laid down guidelines for prosecuting doctors: a private complaint should not be entertained unless supported by a credible opinion from another competent doctor, and an investigating officer should obtain an independent and competent medical opinion before proceeding.

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Why it matters here. It is the standard, the criminal threshold and the procedural protection, all in one judgment.

And its restatement. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, sets out a list of principles for deciding medical negligence cases, ending with the proposition that medical professionals are entitled to protection so long as they perform their duties with reasonable skill and competence and in the interest of their patients, whose welfare must be paramount.

Negligence per se: practising a system you are not qualified in

Facts. Poonam Verma v. Ashwin Patel, AIR 1996 SC 2111, decided on 10 May 1996. A registered homeopath treated a patient for a viral fever with allopathic drugs. The patient's condition worsened, he was moved to another clinic and then to a hospital, and he died.

Held. A person registered in one system of medicine who practises another for which he holds no qualification is guilty of negligence per se, and the appeal against the homeopath was allowed on that footing. The Court declined to proceed against the second doctor, because by the time the patient reached him his condition had already been damaged to an unascertainable extent.

Why it matters here. It is the one situation in which the Bolam standard does not have to be worked through: a practitioner outside his own system is negligent without more.

Where the thing speaks for itself

Facts. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634, decided on 20 February 1996. A woman underwent a sterilisation operation in a government hospital. A mop, that is, a surgical towel, was left inside her abdomen; complications followed, a second operation was performed to remove it, and she died.

Held. Leaving a mop inside the abdomen was negligence; the doctors and staff had acted negligently and caused the death; and once death by negligence in a hospital is established, the State is liable to pay damages. The plea that running a hospital was a sovereign function was not accepted.

Why it matters here. It shows res ipsa loquitur working in a hospital, and it is the Indian authority for the State's liability for its hospitals, which chapter [Vicarious Liability of the State] takes further.

The three forums, and what each requires

Civil courtConsumer CommissionCriminal court
What is claimedDamages in negligenceCompensation for deficiency in servicePunishment
StandardReasonable care of a competent practitionerThe same standard, applied to "deficiency"Gross negligence, plus mens rea
ProofBalance of probabilitiesBalance of probabilities, summary procedureBeyond reasonable doubt
Expert evidenceUsually required in complicated casesNot required in every caseAn independent medical opinion before prosecution
Cost and speedSlow, court fee on the claimQuick and cheapNot compensatory at all
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Facts. V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513, decided on 8 March 2010. A patient was treated for typhoid when she was in fact suffering from malaria, and died. The consumer forums dismissed the complaint on the ground that no expert evidence had been produced.

Held. There is no general rule that expert evidence is required in every case of medical negligence. There may be simple cases in which it is not required, and those are to be decided by the consumer forums under the procedure the Act prescribes; in complicated cases where expert evidence is required, the parties have a right to go to the civil court. The Court also cautioned against deferring too readily to expert evidence.

Why it matters here. It keeps the consumer remedy usable, which matters because section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 makes medical treatment for consideration a service, and chapter [Medical Services under the Act] works that out.

A worked example

A surgeon operates on Kavita's knee. The operation is a recognised procedure, competently performed, and the knee does not improve.

Is that negligence? No. Jacob Mathew says an error of judgment or a failure of treatment is not negligence, and following a practice acceptable to the profession is enough even if a better course existed.

Change one fact: a swab is left inside the knee. That is Achutrao and it speaks for itself.

Change another: the operation was performed by a dentist. That is Poonam Verma, negligence per se.

Change another: the surgeon did not tell Kavita of a known risk of stiffness. That is a failure of the duty to advise, and is judged by the same standard of a reasonably competent practitioner.

Where should Kavita go? If the facts are simple, a Consumer Commission, which is quick and cheap, and V. Kishan Rao holds that expert evidence is not required in every case. If they are complicated, a civil court. A prosecution requires gross negligence and, under the Jacob Mathew guidelines, an independent medical opinion first.

What it does NOT mean

A bad outcome is not negligence. The law judges the process, not the result.

A second opinion that differs is not proof of negligence. A doctor is not liable merely because a more skilled practitioner would have acted differently.

A patient does not have to bring expert evidence in every consumer case. V. Kishan Rao says so.

A doctor is not immune from prosecution. He is protected by a higher threshold and a procedural safeguard, not by an exemption.

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Quick revision

  1. Duty: care in deciding to take the case, in deciding what treatment to give, and in administering it.
  2. Standard: the ordinary competent practitioner of that branch, the Bolam test as adopted in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180.
  3. An error of judgment or an accident is not negligence; a practice acceptable to the profession is a defence.
  4. Criminal liability needs gross negligence, mens rea, and, under the guidelines, an independent medical opinion before prosecution.
  5. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480: protection so long as duties are performed with reasonable skill and competence in the patient's interest.
  6. Poonam Verma v. Ashwin Patel, AIR 1996 SC 2111: practising a system one is not qualified in is negligence per se.
  7. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634: a mop left in the abdomen; the State is liable for negligence in its hospital.
  8. V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513: expert evidence is not required in every case.
  9. Three forums: civil court, Consumer Commission under the Consumer Protection Act 2019, and criminal court.

Test yourself

1. What standard of care is expected of a doctor in India? That of an ordinarily competent practitioner of the branch of medicine he professes, exercising a reasonable degree of skill, knowledge and care. In Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, the Supreme Court held that professional negligence calls for a treatment with a difference: a simple lack of care, an error of judgment or an accident is not proof of negligence, and so long as a doctor follows a practice acceptable to the medical profession of the day he is not liable merely because a better alternative existed or because a more skilled doctor would have acted otherwise. What must be seen is whether the precautions taken were those which the ordinary experience of men has found sufficient. Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, restates the principles and holds that medical professionals are entitled to protection so long as they act with reasonable skill and competence in the interest of their patients.

2. When is a doctor criminally liable for negligence? Only where the negligence is gross or of a very high degree and mens rea is shown. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, holds that the jurisprudential concept of negligence differs in civil and criminal law, that the expression rash or negligent act in the penal provision must be read as qualified by the word grossly, and that to prosecute a medical professional it must be shown that he did or omitted something which no medical professional in his ordinary senses and prudence would have done or omitted, the hazard taken being such that injury was most likely imminent. The Court also laid down guidelines: a private complaint should not be entertained unless supported by a credible opinion from another competent doctor, and an investigating officer should obtain an independent and competent medical opinion before proceeding. It further held that res ipsa loquitur, being a rule of evidence in civil law, has at most a limited application in a criminal trial.

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3. Where may a patient complain, and what does each forum require? Three forums are open. A civil court, where the patient sues in negligence and must prove duty, breach and damage on the balance of probabilities; complicated cases requiring expert evidence belong here. A Consumer Commission, since section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 makes treatment for consideration a service and a defect in it a deficiency; the procedure is summary, quick and cheap, and V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513, holds that expert evidence is not required in every case, simple cases being decided by the forums on the Act's own procedure while complicated ones may go to the civil court. And a criminal court, where the threshold is gross negligence with mens rea and the Jacob Mathew safeguards apply.

4. "A doctor who practises a system of medicine he is not qualified in is negligent without more." Is that so? Yes. In Poonam Verma v. Ashwin Patel, AIR 1996 SC 2111, a registered homeopath treated a patient for a viral fever with allopathic drugs and the patient died. The Supreme Court held that a person registered in one system who practises another for which he holds no qualification is guilty of negligence per se, and allowed the appeal against him on that footing alone, invoking the maxim sic utere tuo ut alienum non laedas. The reason is that the standard of care is measured by the skill the practitioner professes, and a practitioner who has no qualification in the system he is using cannot meet the standard of an ordinarily competent practitioner of it. The Court declined to hold the second doctor liable, since by the time the patient reached him the damage was already unascertainable.

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Chapter Forty-Eight

Nervous Shock

Syllabus topic 2.5, "Joint Tort-Feasors, Nervous Shock and Malicious abuse of Legal Process."

In one line

Nervous shock is a claim for a recognisable psychiatric injury caused by what the plaintiff saw, heard or feared, without any physical impact on him.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: nervous shock is the term used for a claim in negligence for psychiatric injury caused otherwise than by physical impact; the plaintiff must prove a recognisable psychiatric illness and not merely grief, fright or distress; a primary victim, who was himself within the range of foreseeable physical injury, recovers if injury of some kind was foreseeable, while a secondary victim, who suffers through what happened to another, must in addition show a close tie of love and affection with the person endangered, closeness in time and space to the event or its immediate aftermath, and that the shock came through his own sight or hearing of it.

Why the law was reluctant

Three reasons were given for refusing such claims, and all three still shape the rules.

Proof. An injury that leaves no mark is harder to prove and easier to fabricate.

Floodgates. One accident may be witnessed by hundreds, and every one of them might sue.

Where to stop. Grief at a death is universal, and if grief were compensable the law would be compensating an ordinary incident of life.

The law's answer to all three is the requirement of a recognisable psychiatric illness: a medically identified condition, diagnosed by evidence, and not sorrow, fright or anxiety however genuine.

How the law developed

Stage one. The earliest decisions refused a claim for shock unaccompanied by physical impact at all.

Stage two. Recovery was allowed where the plaintiff had reasonably feared for his own safety, that is, where he was himself in the zone of danger.

Stage three. Recovery was extended to a plaintiff who feared for the safety of a close relative and witnessed the event.

Stage four. The modern control mechanisms were settled for secondary victims: a close tie of love and affection, proximity in time and space to the accident or its immediate aftermath, and perception by the plaintiff's own unaided senses rather than by being told about it.

Primary and secondary victims

Primary victimSecondary victim
Who he isWithin the range of foreseeable physical injury, or a rescuerSuffers through what happens to another
What he must proveA recognisable psychiatric illness, and that injury of some kind was foreseeableThe illness, plus the three control mechanisms
Close tie needed?NoYes
Presence at the scene needed?He was there by definitionYes, at the event or its immediate aftermath

The "immediate aftermath" is the boundary that produces most of the litigation: a parent who reaches the hospital while the injuries are still untended may be within it, and one who is told by telephone the next day is not.

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Where the claim actually appears in India

Indian courts do not often use the label. The same interest is protected in three other ways, and a good answer names them.

As part of the damages in a personal injury or fatal accident claim. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires the Claims Tribunal to award compensation which appears to it to be just, and mental suffering, loss of amenities and loss of consortium are heads within it, as chapter [Computing Just Compensation] shows.

As compensation for mental agony under the consumer law. Section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 empowers a Commission to direct payment of compensation, and Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, holds that a Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression caused by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully on convincing material, and that the amount is to be recovered from the officers responsible where it is paid out of public funds.

As compensation in a writ petition for the violation of a fundamental right, which chapter [Constitutional Tort] deals with.

A worked example

A school bus overturns. Consider five claimants.

A child in the bus who is uninjured but develops a diagnosed anxiety disorder. He is a primary victim: he was within the range of foreseeable physical injury, and the illness is recoverable.

A mother who sees the crash from the pavement and develops a psychiatric illness. She is a secondary victim, and she satisfies all three control mechanisms: a close tie, presence at the event, and perception by her own senses.

A father who is told by telephone and develops the same illness. He fails the second and third mechanisms and would not recover as a secondary victim.

A passer-by with no connection to any child who is badly shaken. He fails the close-tie requirement, and mere distress is not a psychiatric illness in any event.

A rescuer who pulls children out and is left with a diagnosed condition. He is treated as a primary victim, and chapter [Volenti Non Fit Injuria] explains why consent is no answer to him either.

What it does NOT mean

Grief is not compensable. The plaintiff must prove a recognisable psychiatric illness.

It does not require physical impact. That was the earliest rule and it has gone.

It is not available to everyone who was upset. The control mechanisms exist precisely to limit the class.

It is not a separate tort. It is a kind of damage in the tort of negligence, so duty, breach and causation must all be proved.

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Quick revision

  1. Nervous shock is a claim for a recognisable psychiatric illness caused without physical impact.
  2. Grief, fright and distress are not enough.
  3. Development: no recovery without impact, then fear for one's own safety, then fear for a close relative witnessed, then the modern control mechanisms.
  4. Primary victim: within the range of foreseeable physical injury, or a rescuer; foreseeability of injury of some kind suffices.
  5. Secondary victim: close tie of love and affection, proximity in time and space to the event or its immediate aftermath, and perception by his own senses.
  6. In India the interest is protected mainly through the heads of compensation: section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019, and compensation in a writ petition.
  7. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: compensation for harassment and mental agony against a public authority, recoverable from the erring officers.

Test yourself

1. What is nervous shock and what must a plaintiff prove? Nervous shock is the traditional name for a claim in negligence for psychiatric injury caused otherwise than by physical impact, that is, by what the plaintiff saw, heard or feared. He must prove a recognisable psychiatric illness, medically identified, and not merely grief, fright, anxiety or distress, however genuine. If he is a primary victim, that is, someone who was himself within the range of foreseeable physical injury or who acted as a rescuer, it is enough that injury of some kind was foreseeable. If he is a secondary victim, suffering through what happened to another, he must in addition satisfy three control mechanisms: a close tie of love and affection with the person endangered, closeness in time and space to the accident or its immediate aftermath, and perception of the event by his own unaided senses rather than through being told of it.

2. Why did the law resist claims for nervous shock, and how were the objections met? Three objections were raised: that such injuries are difficult to prove and easy to feign; that a single accident may be witnessed by hundreds, so that liability would be indeterminate; and that grief at a death is a universal incident of life which the law cannot compensate. The law met all three with a single requirement, that the plaintiff prove a recognisable psychiatric illness rather than emotion, which answers the proof objection by demanding medical evidence and the floodgates objection by excluding those who are merely upset. The control mechanisms for secondary victims then limit the class further, by requiring a close relationship, presence at the event or its immediate aftermath, and direct perception.

3. How is this interest protected in Indian practice? Less by a distinct tort than by the heads of compensation in the statutory claims. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires a Claims Tribunal to award compensation which appears to it to be just, and mental suffering, loss of amenities and loss of consortium are recognised heads within it. Section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 empowers a Commission to order compensation, and in Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, the Supreme Court held that a Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression caused by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully and not lightly, and that where the money comes from public funds the department must recover it from the officers responsible. Compensation in a writ petition for the violation of a fundamental right is the third route.

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Chapter Forty-Nine

Fraud or Deceit

Syllabus topic 2.4, "Torts affecting person &Property: Nuisance, Negligence, Fraud"

In one line

Deceit is telling somebody a lie, knowing it to be false, so that he acts on it and loses by it.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the tort of deceit is committed where the defendant makes a false representation of fact, knowing it to be false, or without belief in its truth, or recklessly not caring whether it be true or false, with the intention that the plaintiff should act on it, and the plaintiff does act on it and suffers damage; an honest belief in the truth of the statement, however unreasonable, is a complete defence, which is what separates deceit from negligent misstatement.

The five essentials

1. A representation of fact. A statement of existing fact, made by words or by conduct. A statement of opinion, of intention or of law is not ordinarily a representation of fact, though a statement of opinion may imply that the maker holds it, and a statement of intention may imply that he has it.

2. Falsity. The representation must be untrue. Silence is ordinarily not a representation, but there are three exceptions: where a half-truth misleads, where a statement true when made becomes false before it is acted on and is not corrected, and where the relationship is one requiring disclosure.

3. Knowledge of the falsity, or recklessness. The representation must be made knowingly, or without belief in its truth, or recklessly without caring whether it is true or false. This is the mental element that gives the tort its name and it is the whole of the difference between deceit and negligence.

4. Intention that the plaintiff act on it. The maker must have intended that the plaintiff, or a class including him, should act on the representation.

5. The plaintiff acted on it and suffered damage. Damage is essential; deceit is not actionable per se.

Honest belief is a complete defence

This is the proposition to state first in any answer.

A person who believes what he says is not liable in deceit, however careless he was in coming to that belief and however unreasonable the belief is. If his want of care caused loss to somebody who relied on him, the claim lies, if at all, in negligence and not in deceit. That is why an honest but stupid director escapes deceit while a knowing one does not.

Fraud in the Indian Contract Act 1872

Section 17 defines fraud, for the purposes of contract, as including the suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true; the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact; a promise made without any intention of performing it; any other act fitted to deceive; and any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent. It adds that mere silence is not fraud unless the circumstances are such that it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is in itself equivalent to speech.

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Section 18 defines misrepresentation, which covers an innocent but false assertion, and section 19 makes an agreement caused by fraud or misrepresentation voidable at the option of the party deceived, who may also insist that the contract be performed and that he be put in the position in which he would have been if the representation made had been true.

So the same lie may give a contractual remedy of rescission under section 19 and a tortious remedy of damages in deceit, and a student should say both.

Fraud in the consumer law

Section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 defines an unfair trade practice to include the making of a false statement about the standard, quality, quantity, grade or composition of goods, false representations about services, and other deceptive practices, so a consumer misled by a seller has a third route, which chapter [Unfair and Restrictive Trade Practices] works out.

A worked example

A seller tells Nitin that a second-hand car has run 40,000 kilometres. Consider four versions.

One. He knows the true figure is 140,000. That is deceit: a false representation of fact made knowingly, intended to be acted on, acted on, and causing loss. It is also fraud under section 17 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, so the contract is voidable under section 19, and it is an unfair trade practice under section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019.

Two. He read 40,000 on the odometer and believed it, though a careful seller would have checked the service book. That is not deceit, because he had an honest belief; the claim, if any, lies in negligent misstatement, and the consumer remedy may still be available for a defective good.

Three. He says nothing at all about the mileage. Silence is not ordinarily a representation, so there is no deceit, unless he made a half-true statement or the position was one requiring disclosure.

Four. He says "this car is a bargain". That is opinion, or sales talk, and no action lies on it.

Distinctions that carry marks

DeceitNegligent misstatement
Mental elementKnowledge, absence of belief, or recklessnessWant of reasonable care
Honest beliefA complete defenceNo defence
DamageEssentialEssential
Deceit (tort)Fraud (section 17, Contract Act)
RemedyDamagesThe contract is voidable under section 19
Who may claimAnybody intended to act on the statementA party to the contract
SilenceOrdinarily not actionableNot fraud unless there is a duty to speak or silence is equivalent to speech
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What it does NOT mean

Carelessness is not deceit. The tort requires knowledge or recklessness.

Silence is not ordinarily a representation. Three exceptions apply.

Sales talk is not a representation of fact. Puffing is not actionable.

Deceit is not actionable without damage. The plaintiff must have acted on the statement and lost by it.

Quick revision

  1. Deceit: a false representation of fact, made knowingly or recklessly, intended to be acted on, acted on, and causing damage.
  2. Honest belief, however unreasonable, is a complete defence.
  3. Silence is not a representation except in three cases: a misleading half-truth, a statement that becomes false before it is acted on, and a relationship requiring disclosure.
  4. Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 defines fraud for contracts and includes a promise made with no intention of performing it.
  5. Section 18 covers innocent misrepresentation; section 19 makes the agreement voidable and allows the deceived party to insist on being put in the position the representation would have produced.
  6. Section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 makes a false statement about goods or services an unfair trade practice.
  7. One lie may give three remedies: damages in deceit, rescission in contract, and relief before a Consumer Commission.

Test yourself

1. State the essentials of the tort of deceit. Five. A representation of fact, by words or conduct, as distinct from a statement of opinion, intention or law. Its falsity, silence not ordinarily amounting to a representation except where a half-truth misleads, where a statement true when made becomes false and is not corrected, or where the relationship requires disclosure. Knowledge of the falsity, or absence of belief in the truth of the statement, or recklessness as to whether it is true or false. An intention that the plaintiff, or a class including him, should act on it. And action on it by the plaintiff resulting in damage, since deceit is not actionable per se. An honest belief in the truth of the statement, however unreasonable, is a complete defence.

2. Distinguish the tort of deceit from fraud under the Indian Contract Act 1872. The tort gives damages to anybody who was intended to act on the false statement and who acted on it to his loss, whether or not any contract resulted. Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 defines fraud for the purposes of a contract, and includes the suggestion as a fact of what is not true by one who does not believe it, the active concealment of a fact by one who knows it, a promise made with no intention of performing it, any other act fitted to deceive, and anything the law declares fraudulent, adding that mere silence is not fraud unless there is a duty to speak or silence is equivalent to speech. Its consequence is that the agreement is voidable at the option of the party deceived under section 19, who may rescind or may insist on being placed in the position in which he would have been if the representation had been true. The same lie may therefore support both a claim in tort and rescission in contract, and in India a third remedy before a Consumer Commission.

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3. Is a careless false statement deceit? No. The mental element of deceit is knowledge that the statement is false, or absence of belief in its truth, or recklessness in the sense of not caring whether it is true or false. A defendant who honestly believed what he said is not liable in deceit however unreasonable that belief was, and however easily he could have checked. If his carelessness caused loss to a person who relied on him in circumstances where a duty of care existed, the claim lies in negligent misstatement, where honest belief is no defence but a duty of care must be established. The distinction matters because the defences, and the classes of person who may sue, are different.

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Chapter Fifty

Joint Tortfeasors

Syllabus topic 2.5, "Joint Tort-Feasors, Nervous Shock and Malicious abuse of Legal Process."

In one line

Where two or more people are responsible for the same damage, the injured person may recover the whole of it from any one of them.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: persons are joint tortfeasors where they act in furtherance of a common design, where one is vicariously liable for the tort of the other, or where they breach a joint duty; their liability to the plaintiff is joint and several, so that he may sue any one or all of them and recover the whole of his damages from any one, subject to satisfaction only once, and the rule preventing contribution between wrongdoers has been abandoned so that a tortfeasor who pays may recover a share from the others.

Who is a joint tortfeasor

Agency and vicarious liability. A master and his servant, a principal and his agent, and partners in a firm, where the wrong is committed in the course of the employment, agency or business.

Common design. Two or more persons acting in concert in pursuance of a common purpose, so that the act of one is the act of all.

Breach of a joint duty. Where two persons owe a duty together and both fail, for example joint owners of a building that collapses.

Joint against independent tortfeasors, and composite negligence

Joint tortfeasorsIndependent tortfeasors causing the same damage
RelationshipCommon design, agency, or a joint dutyNone; they act independently
The tortOne tort committed by allSeparate torts producing one damage
Liability to the plaintiffJoint and severalEach liable for the damage he caused, and jointly where the damage is indivisible
ExampleTwo partners publishing a libelTwo drivers colliding and injuring a pedestrian

Composite negligence is the Indian expression for the second situation where the injury is indivisible, and the leading authority is Indian.

Facts. Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273, decided on 7 May 2015. A claimant was injured in an accident caused by the composite negligence of the drivers of a trailer-truck and of a bus. The question was whether the whole compensation could be recovered from one of them and how liability should be apportioned.

Held. In composite negligence the liability of each wrongdoer to the claimant is joint and several. The claimant may recover the whole amount from any one of them, and he is not required to sue all of them or to have the liability apportioned between them first. Apportionment as between the tortfeasors is a matter for them, by contribution among themselves, and does not affect the claimant's right to full compensation from any one.

Why it matters here. It is the practical rule that decides how a Claims Tribunal proceeds under section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 when two vehicles are to blame, and it protects the claimant from being made to litigate the drivers' quarrel.

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The three rules that follow from joint liability

1. The plaintiff may sue any one, some or all. He is not obliged to join everybody, and a decree against one does not by itself bar an action against another.

2. One satisfaction only. He may have judgment against several but may enforce it only until he is paid once. Accepting satisfaction from one discharges the others, because the law compensates a loss and does not multiply it.

3. Contribution is now allowed. The old English rule was that a wrongdoer who paid could not recover any part of it from his fellows. That rule has been abandoned, and a tortfeasor who has paid more than his share may recover contribution from the others, except where his own wrong was deliberate and he knew it to be wrong.

Release, and the trap in it

A release of one joint tortfeasor at common law released all of them, because the cause of action was one. A covenant not to sue one, reserving rights against the others, did not. The distinction is technical and is a favourite examination point: the substance is whether the plaintiff has given up the cause of action or merely promised not to enforce it against one person.

A worked example

A newspaper publishes a defamatory article written by a freelance journalist, on facts supplied by an informant who knew they were false.

The journalist and the newspaper are joint tortfeasors: the publication is one tort, and the newspaper is in any event answerable for the acts of those it publishes.

The informant, if he acted in concert with the journalist to publish, is a joint tortfeasor by common design; if he merely supplied the material without any such design, he may be an independent wrongdoer.

The plaintiff's choice. He may sue the newspaper alone, which is the defendant with money, and recover the whole. The newspaper may then claim contribution from the journalist and the informant.

Satisfaction. If the newspaper pays in full, the plaintiff cannot go on to recover the same damages again from the journalist.

And if the plaintiff releases the journalist in a settlement, he must take a covenant not to sue rather than a release, or he risks discharging the newspaper as well.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean the plaintiff recovers twice. He is entitled to one satisfaction.

It does not mean each defendant pays only his share to the plaintiff. Apportionment operates between the wrongdoers, as Khenyei holds.

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It does not mean contribution is always available. A deliberate wrongdoer who knew his act was wrong may be refused it.

It does not require all wrongdoers to be sued together. The plaintiff chooses.

Quick revision

  1. Joint tortfeasors: common design, agency or vicarious liability, or breach of a joint duty.
  2. Liability is joint and several: sue any one, some or all.
  3. One satisfaction only; accepting satisfaction from one discharges the rest.
  4. Contribution between tortfeasors is now allowed; the old rule denying it has been abandoned.
  5. A release of one discharges all; a covenant not to sue does not.
  6. Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273: in composite negligence liability is joint and several, the claimant may recover the whole from any one, and apportionment is between the tortfeasors.
  7. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires the Tribunal to award just compensation and to specify who pays it.

Test yourself

1. Who are joint tortfeasors, and what is the nature of their liability? Persons are joint tortfeasors in three situations: where one is vicariously liable for the tort of the other, as master and servant, principal and agent, or partners; where they act in furtherance of a common design, so that the act of one is the act of all; and where they are in breach of a duty owed jointly. Their liability to the plaintiff is joint and several. He may sue any one, some or all of them, may obtain judgment against several, and may recover the whole of his damages from any one, subject to the rule that he is entitled to only one satisfaction, so that payment in full by one discharges the others. As between themselves, contribution is now allowed, the old rule denying it having been abandoned, though a deliberate wrongdoer who knew his act to be wrong may be refused it.

2. Distinguish joint tortfeasors from independent tortfeasors and explain composite negligence. Joint tortfeasors commit one tort together, whether by common design, through vicarious liability, or by breach of a joint duty. Independent tortfeasors commit separate torts which happen to produce damage to the same plaintiff; where that damage is divisible each answers for his own part, and where it is one indivisible injury the Indian expression is composite negligence. In Khenyei v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2015) 9 SCC 273, a claimant was injured by the composite negligence of the drivers of a trailer-truck and a bus, and the Supreme Court held that the liability of each to the claimant is joint and several, that he may recover the whole from any one of them without suing all or waiting for apportionment, and that apportionment is a matter of contribution between the wrongdoers which does not affect his right to full compensation.

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3. What is the difference between a release and a covenant not to sue? A release is a surrender of the cause of action itself, and because the cause of action against joint tortfeasors is one, a release granted to one of them discharges all. A covenant not to sue is merely a promise not to enforce the claim against a particular person, leaving the cause of action alive against the others, so the plaintiff may still proceed against them. The distinction is technical but it decides cases, and a plaintiff settling with one of several wrongdoers must take a covenant not to sue, with an express reservation of his rights against the rest, if he intends to preserve his claim.

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Chapter Fifty-One

Malicious Prosecution

Syllabus topic 2.5, "Joint Tort-Feasors, Nervous Shock and Malicious abuse of Legal Process."

In one line

Malicious prosecution is setting the criminal law in motion against somebody maliciously and without reasonable cause, when the prosecution ends in his favour and damages him.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the tort of malicious prosecution is committed where the defendant prosecuted the plaintiff, the prosecution ended in the plaintiff's favour, the defendant acted without reasonable and probable cause, he acted maliciously, and the plaintiff suffered damage to his reputation, his person or his property; the burden of proving all five, including the absence of reasonable and probable cause, lies on the plaintiff.

The five ingredients

1. The defendant prosecuted the plaintiff. To prosecute is to set the law in motion against another on a criminal charge. A person who merely gives information to the police honestly, leaving the police to decide, is not a prosecutor; a person who files a complaint, or who procures the prosecution by pressing false information, is.

2. The prosecution ended in the plaintiff's favour. An acquittal, a discharge, a withdrawal, or a quashing will do. The plaintiff need not prove his innocence, only that the proceeding terminated in his favour; and while it is pending, no action lies at all, which is why article 74 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 runs the period of one year from the acquittal or other termination.

3. Absence of reasonable and probable cause. This means an honest belief, founded on reasonable grounds, in the existence of a state of circumstances which would lead an ordinarily prudent and cautious person to conclude that the plaintiff was probably guilty. The plaintiff must prove that the defendant had no such cause, which is proof of a negative and is the hardest part of the case.

4. Malice. Malice here means any improper motive, that is, a purpose other than the desire to bring an offender to justice. Spite is malice, and so is the wish to extort money, to gain a collateral advantage, or to silence a rival. Malice may be inferred from the absence of reasonable and probable cause, but the absence of cause cannot be inferred from malice.

5. Damage. The plaintiff must have suffered damage to his reputation, to his person by arrest or imprisonment, or to his property by the expense of defending himself.

Why the tort is kept narrow

The law wants offences reported. If every acquitted accused could sue the complainant, nobody would report a crime. The five ingredients, and particularly the requirement that the plaintiff prove the absence of reasonable and probable cause, exist to keep the balance.

The Indian case, and the discipline it enforces

Facts. West Bengal State Electricity Board v. Dilip Kumar Ray, (2007) 14 SCC 568, decided on 24 November 2006. An employee sued the Board for damages. The trial court held that he was not entitled to damages for defamation but awarded damages for harassment, and the High Court affirmed, reading that award as damages for malicious prosecution causing harassment. There was no specific pleading of malicious prosecution, no issue framed on it, and no evidence led to establish it.

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Held. The appeal was allowed and the High Court's judgment set aside. Damages for malicious prosecution cannot be awarded where the tort was neither pleaded nor put in issue nor proved, and findings resting on surmises and conjectures cannot support such a decree. In the course of the judgment the Court set out the vocabulary of this group of wrongs: malicious prosecution requires proceedings instituted maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause; a malicious abuse of legal process consists in the malicious misuse or misapplication of process to accomplish a purpose not warranted by the order of the court; and there is a distinction between a malicious use and a malicious abuse of legal process, an abuse being where the party employs it for an unlawful object.

Why it matters here. It is the Indian authority on the ingredients and on the need to plead and prove them, and it is the bridge to chapter [Malicious Abuse of Legal Process].

A worked example

Rakesh tells the police that his neighbour Suman stole his motorcycle. He knows the motorcycle is with his own brother. Suman is arrested, spends four days in custody, is tried and is acquitted.

Prosecution. Rakesh did not merely give information; he set the law in motion on facts he knew to be false, so he is a prosecutor.

Termination in Suman's favour. The acquittal.

Absence of reasonable and probable cause. Rakesh knew where the motorcycle was, so he had no honest belief on reasonable grounds.

Malice. An improper motive is established by the same facts, and may in any event be inferred from the absence of cause.

Damage. Four days in custody, the cost of the defence, and the injury to reputation.

Limitation. Article 74 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives one year from the acquittal.

Change one fact. Suppose Rakesh honestly believed Suman had taken it, on the word of a witness he had no reason to disbelieve. Then reasonable and probable cause existed, the claim fails at the third ingredient, and the acquittal makes no difference.

Distinctions that carry marks

Malicious prosecutionFalse imprisonment
What the defendant didSet the criminal law in motionRestrained the plaintiff himself, or directed the restraint
MaliceEssentialNot required
Reasonable and probable causeIts absence must be provedIrrelevant
DamageMust be provedNot required
LimitationArticle 74, one year from the acquittalArticle 73, one year from the end of the imprisonment
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What it does NOT mean

An acquittal is not proof of the tort. It satisfies one ingredient of five.

Giving information honestly is not prosecuting. The informant who leaves the decision to the police is not a prosecutor.

Malice does not prove the absence of reasonable cause. The inference runs the other way only.

A claim cannot be brought while the prosecution is pending. Favourable termination is an ingredient.

Quick revision

  1. Five ingredients: prosecution by the defendant, termination in the plaintiff's favour, absence of reasonable and probable cause, malice, and damage.
  2. The burden of all five, including the negative, is on the plaintiff.
  3. Reasonable and probable cause: an honest belief on reasonable grounds that the plaintiff was probably guilty.
  4. Malice is any improper motive, and may be inferred from the absence of reasonable cause, but not the converse.
  5. Damage may be to reputation, person or property, including the cost of the defence.
  6. West Bengal State Electricity Board v. Dilip Kumar Ray, (2007) 14 SCC 568: the tort must be pleaded, put in issue and proved; a decree on surmises was set aside.
  7. Limitation: article 74 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, one year from the acquittal or other termination.

Test yourself

1. State and explain the ingredients of malicious prosecution. Five must be proved by the plaintiff. That the defendant prosecuted him, that is, set the criminal law in motion against him, which an honest informant who leaves the decision to the police does not do. That the prosecution terminated in his favour, by acquittal, discharge, withdrawal or quashing, since no action lies while it is pending. That the defendant acted without reasonable and probable cause, meaning without an honest belief founded on reasonable grounds in circumstances that would lead an ordinarily prudent person to think the plaintiff probably guilty; this is proof of a negative and is the hardest ingredient. That the defendant acted maliciously, malice meaning any improper motive other than the desire to bring an offender to justice. And that the plaintiff suffered damage to his reputation, his person or his property. West Bengal State Electricity Board v. Dilip Kumar Ray, (2007) 14 SCC 568, shows the consequence of not pleading and proving them: the decree was set aside.

2. Why is the burden on the plaintiff to prove the absence of reasonable and probable cause? Because the law wants offences reported, and a rule that put the burden on the defendant to justify every complaint would deter honest informants. The tort exists to punish the abuse of the criminal process, not the failure of a prosecution, and an acquittal proves only that the charge was not made out beyond reasonable doubt. Requiring the plaintiff to prove the absence of cause keeps the balance between protecting the citizen from malicious accusation and protecting the citizen who reports a crime in good faith. It also explains the related rule that malice may be inferred from the absence of reasonable and probable cause, but that the absence of cause may never be inferred from malice, since a person may act from a bad motive on facts that would justify any prudent person.

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3. Distinguish malicious prosecution from false imprisonment. In false imprisonment the defendant himself restrains the plaintiff, or directs the restraint; in malicious prosecution he sets the law in motion and the restraint, if any, follows from the act of the court or the police. False imprisonment requires no malice and no want of reasonable cause, and it is actionable without proof of damage; malicious prosecution requires both malice and the absence of reasonable and probable cause, and damage must be proved. The periods of limitation differ too: article 73 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963 gives one year from the end of the imprisonment, while article 74 gives one year from the acquittal or other termination of the prosecution.

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Module III

Principles of Liability in Torts and Legal Remedies

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Chapter Fifty-Three

Vicarious Liability: Basis and Justification

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

Vicarious liability makes one person answerable for a tort committed by another because of the relationship between them.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: vicarious liability is the liability of one person for the tort of another, arising not from any fault of his own but from the relationship between them; its basis is expressed in the maxims qui facit per alium facit per se, he who acts through another acts himself, and respondeat superior, let the superior answer; it requires a relationship the law recognises, a tort committed by the person for whom liability is imposed, and a connection between the tort and that relationship, ordinarily that it was committed in the course of employment.

The two maxims

Qui facit per alium facit per se means "he who acts through another acts himself". It expresses the idea that a person who gets his work done by another is doing it himself, so the law treats the other's wrongs in that work as his.

Respondeat superior means "let the superior answer". It expresses the idea that the person in the position of authority, and of means, should answer.

The three requirements

1. A relationship the law recognises. Master and servant is the principal one; principal and agent, partners, and in some circumstances a person who lends his servant or his vehicle, are others. Chapters [Who Is a Servant] and [Other Relations that Attract Vicarious Liability] work them out.

2. A tort committed by the other person. There must be a wrong for which the servant himself would be liable. Vicarious liability is not a separate tort.

3. A connection between the tort and the relationship. For a servant that connection is the course of employment, which chapter [Course of Employment] works out.

Why the law does this: the justifications

This is the part of the topic MU prints in terms, and it is what turns a definition into an answer.

Control. The master chooses the servant, directs the work and can stop it. A person who has that power should answer for how it is used.

Benefit. The work is done for the master's benefit, and it is fair that the person who takes the profit of an activity should take its losses. This is sometimes put as: the risk is a cost of the enterprise.

Loss distribution and the deep pocket. The master can insure, and can pass the cost into his prices; the injured person can do neither. Chapter [The Object of the Law of Torts] shows how this reflects the loss-distribution object.

Deterrence. A master who bears the cost of his servants' wrongs will select and supervise them better.

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The plaintiff's practical protection. A servant is often not worth suing. If liability stopped with him, the right would be theoretical.

There is a criticism, and mentioning it earns marks: liability without fault sits uneasily with the fault principle, and it may make a careful employer pay for a wrong he did everything to prevent. The answer is that the doctrine is not about blame but about who should carry a loss the enterprise generated.

The scope of the doctrine

It is joint and several. The master and the servant are both liable, and the plaintiff may sue either or both, as chapter [Joint Tortfeasors] explains. The servant does not escape merely because the master is liable.

It extends to the State. Article 300 of the Constitution makes the State suable, and chapter [Vicarious Liability of the State] works out how far. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, is the modern Indian illustration.

Facts. A government jeep was being driven not by its appointed driver but by another employee, with the driver sitting beside him and with his knowledge and consent. It was driven rashly and killed a scooterist, and the State denied liability because the man at the wheel was not authorised to drive.

Held. The State was vicariously liable. The modern trend is to make a master liable for acts which do not strictly fall within the course of employment as ordinarily understood, and where the appointed driver allowed a colleague to drive with his knowledge and consent while he sat beside him, the act was in the course of employment. The Court relied on Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, where a company was liable although its manager had taken a passenger without authority.

Why it matters here. It states the direction of Indian law: the connection with the employment is read generously, and a technical want of authority does not save the master.

A worked example

A courier company employs Deepak to deliver parcels on a motorcycle.

Deepak knocks down a pedestrian while delivering. The company is liable: the relationship is master and servant, there is a tort, and it was committed in the course of employment.

Deepak lends the motorcycle to a friend who knocks down the same pedestrian. The company's liability now depends on whether the friend was doing the company's work with its authority, actual or implied; Kanchanmala shows that a court will not be quick to let the employer out where the servant remained in charge.

Deepak assaults a customer who complains about a late delivery. Whether the assault is in the course of employment is the question in chapter [Course of Employment]; a wrongful mode of doing authorised work is within it, a personal quarrel is not.

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Deepak takes the motorcycle home for a family wedding and crashes. That is a frolic of his own and the company is not liable.

Who does the pedestrian sue? Both. The company has the money, and the liability is joint and several.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require fault in the master. That is the whole point of the doctrine.

It does not excuse the servant. He remains liable, and in principle the master who pays may seek indemnity from him.

It is not confined to employees. Principals, partners and, in some circumstances, owners of vehicles are caught.

It does not apply to every act of a servant. The tort must be connected with the employment.

Quick revision

  1. Vicarious liability: liability of one person for another's tort, arising from their relationship.
  2. Maxims: qui facit per alium facit per se and respondeat superior.
  3. Three requirements: a recognised relationship, a tort by the other, and a connection with the relationship.
  4. Justifications: control, benefit, loss distribution and the deep pocket, deterrence, and the plaintiff's practical protection.
  5. Criticism: liability without fault; the answer is that the doctrine allocates a loss rather than blame.
  6. Liability is joint and several, and the servant remains liable.
  7. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659: the course of employment is read generously; an unauthorised driver with the appointed driver beside him was still within it.

Test yourself

1. What is vicarious liability, and on what basis is it imposed? Vicarious liability is the liability of one person for a tort committed by another, imposed not because of any fault of his own but because of the relationship between them. Its basis is expressed in two maxims: qui facit per alium facit per se, he who acts through another acts himself, and respondeat superior, let the superior answer. Three things must be shown: a relationship the law recognises, principally master and servant but also principal and agent and partners; a tort committed by the person for whose act liability is claimed; and a connection between that tort and the relationship, which for a servant means that it was committed in the course of his employment. The liability is joint and several, so the servant remains liable too.

2. How is vicarious liability justified? By five arguments. Control: the master selects the servant, directs the work and can stop it, so he should answer for how it is done. Benefit: the work is done for the master's advantage, and the person who takes the profits of an activity should bear its losses. Loss distribution: the master can insure and can pass the cost into his prices, while the injured person can do neither, so placing the loss on him spreads it most efficiently. Deterrence: an employer who pays for his servants' wrongs will select and supervise them better. And practical protection: a servant is often not worth suing, so a rule stopping at him would leave the right theoretical. The standing criticism is that liability without fault is inconsistent with the fault principle; the answer is that the doctrine allocates a loss the enterprise created rather than apportioning blame.

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3. Does the master's liability excuse the servant? No. Both are liable, and their liability to the plaintiff is joint and several, so he may sue either or both and recover the whole from either, subject to one satisfaction. In principle a master who has paid may seek indemnity or contribution from the servant whose wrong it was, since the servant is the primary wrongdoer, though in practice this is rarely pursued because the servant has no means, which is one of the reasons the doctrine exists at all.

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Chapter Fifty-Four

Who Is a Servant

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

A servant works under a contract of service and is subject to the employer's control; an independent contractor works under a contract for services and decides how the work is done.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a servant is a person employed by another to do work under a contract of service, in which the employer has the right to control not only what work is done but the manner of doing it, while an independent contractor works under a contract for services and is bound only to produce a result, choosing the method himself; the traditional test is the control test, which is supplemented by the organisation or integration test and by the modern multiple test, and the distinction matters because a master is liable for the torts of his servant in the course of employment while an employer is ordinarily not liable for the torts of an independent contractor.

The three tests

1. The control test. Does the employer have the right to control not merely what is done but how it is done? This works well for a driver or a factory hand and badly for a surgeon or a pilot, whom no hospital or airline can tell how to operate or to fly.

2. The organisation or integration test. Is the work done as an integral part of the business, or is it merely accessory to it? A staff surgeon is part of the hospital; a visiting consultant who brings his own team may not be.

3. The multiple test. The modern approach weighs everything: who provides the tools and premises, who bears the financial risk, how payment is made, whether the person may work for others, whether he may send a substitute, and the description the parties themselves give. No single factor decides.

Say in an answer that the control test survives as the starting point and that the courts now look at the whole relationship, because that is the accurate position and it is what a good answer shows.

Why the distinction matters

A master is liable for a servant's tort committed in the course of employment. An employer is ordinarily not liable for the tort of an independent contractor, subject to the exceptions in chapter [Liability for an Independent Contractor].

The lent servant, and the presumption about vehicles

Where A's servant is lent to B, the question is who had the right to control the manner of doing the work at the moment of the tort. The burden of shifting liability from the general employer to the temporary one is heavy, and it is not discharged merely by showing that the temporary employer told the servant what to do.

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For vehicles Indian law starts from a presumption, and one Supreme Court case sets its limits.

Facts. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, decided on 8 February 1966. The owner of a taxi entrusted it to a man who drove it, collected the fares, met the expenses and handed the balance and the accounts to the owner. A cleaner, employed either by the owner or on his behalf by the driver, was trained by the driver to drive and was taken to obtain a licence. While taking the driving test the cleaner injured the respondent. The driver was not in the vehicle.

Held. By a majority the owner was not liable. There is a presumption that a vehicle is driven on the master's business by his authorised agent or servant, but the presumption may be rebutted, and it was rebutted here: the evidence did not show that the owner had employed the cleaner to drive, or permitted him to drive, or asked him to take a test, or authorised the driver to employ strangers to drive; and the driver was not in the vehicle so as to be in control on the owner's behalf. For a master's liability to arise, the act must be a wrongful act authorised by the master, or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing some act authorised by him.

Why it matters here. It gives both the presumption and the way to rebut it, and it supplies the formula for the course of employment that chapter [Course of Employment] then works out.

And the case on the other side. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, held the State liable where a jeep was driven by an employee who was not the appointed driver, because the appointed driver was sitting beside him and had allowed it with his knowledge and consent. Read the two together: what mattered in each was whether the master's servant remained in control.

A worked example

A hospital engages four people.

A staff nurse, paid a monthly salary, working the hospital's shifts with the hospital's equipment. A servant on any test.

A visiting surgeon, who operates twice a week, uses the hospital's theatre, is paid per operation and also practises elsewhere. The control test is unhelpful, since nobody tells a surgeon how to operate. The organisation test asks whether the surgical service is an integral part of what the hospital offers, and it usually is, so the hospital is generally liable to the patient for negligence in its theatre; Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634, made the State liable for a mop left inside a patient in a government hospital.

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A contractor who builds a new wing, choosing his own methods and workers. An independent contractor, and the hospital is not liable for his negligence, subject to the exceptions in chapter [Liability for an Independent Contractor].

A driver lent by an ambulance company to drive the hospital's vehicle for a week. The general employer remains liable unless the hospital had the right to control the manner of his driving, which is a heavy burden to discharge.

Distinctions that carry marks

ServantIndependent contractor
ContractOf serviceFor services
ControlOver what is done and howOver the result only
Tools and premisesUsually the employer'sUsually his own
Financial riskThe employer'sHis own
SubstitutionCannot ordinarily send a substituteMay ordinarily do so
Employer's liability for his tortsYes, in the course of employmentNo, subject to exceptions

What it does NOT mean

The label the parties use does not decide. A contract that calls a person a contractor may still create a contract of service.

Control is not the only test today. Integration and the multiple test supplement it.

A skilled professional is not outside the doctrine. The control test simply gives way to the others.

A lent servant is not automatically the temporary employer's. The burden of shifting liability is heavy.

Quick revision

  1. Servant: contract of service, control over the manner of work. Independent contractor: contract for services, control over the result only.
  2. Three tests: control, organisation or integration, and the modern multiple test.
  3. The label the parties choose is not conclusive.
  4. A master is liable for a servant's torts in the course of employment; an employer is ordinarily not liable for a contractor's.
  5. Lent servant: the general employer remains liable unless the right to control the manner of the work passed.
  6. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697: a vehicle is presumed to be driven on the master's business, but the presumption may be rebutted; the owner was not liable where a cleaner drove during a licence test.
  7. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659: liability where the appointed driver let a colleague drive with his knowledge and consent while he sat beside him.

Test yourself

1. Distinguish a servant from an independent contractor and state the tests. A servant works under a contract of service, in which the employer has the right to control not only what work is done but the manner of doing it. An independent contractor works under a contract for services and undertakes to produce a result, choosing the method himself. Three tests are used. The control test asks who directs the manner of the work; it is the traditional starting point and fails for skilled professionals whom nobody can instruct in their craft. The organisation or integration test asks whether the work is done as an integral part of the business or is merely accessory to it. The modern multiple test weighs all the circumstances: the provision of tools and premises, who bears the financial risk, the mode of payment, whether the person may work for others or send a substitute, and the parties' own description, which is not conclusive. The distinction matters because a master answers for his servant's torts in the course of employment while an employer ordinarily does not answer for a contractor's.

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2. Who is liable when a servant is lent to another employer? The general employer remains liable unless the right to control the manner of doing the work passed to the temporary employer, and the burden of establishing that shift is a heavy one. Telling the workman what to do is not the same as controlling how he does it, and the presumption is that the person who selected, employs and pays him retains that control. In India the question most often arises about vehicles, and Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, sets out the framework: there is a presumption that a vehicle is being driven on the master's business by his authorised servant, but it may be rebutted, and it was rebutted where a cleaner drove the taxi during a licence test without the owner's authority and without the driver being present to control the vehicle on his behalf.

3. Is a hospital liable for the negligence of its doctors? Generally yes, where the doctor is part of the hospital's organisation, even though nobody can control the manner in which a doctor exercises clinical judgment. The control test gives way to the organisation or integration test: treatment is an integral part of what a hospital offers, so negligence in its wards and theatres is the hospital's responsibility. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634, is the Indian authority: a mop was left inside a patient during an operation in a government hospital, and the Court held that once death by negligence in the hospital is established the State is liable to pay damages. The position may differ where a patient engages a consultant independently and the hospital merely provides facilities.

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Chapter Fifty-Five

Course of Employment

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

A master answers for what his servant does wrongly while doing the master's work, and not for what the servant does on his own account.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: an act is done in the course of employment where it is a wrongful act authorised by the master, or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing some act authorised by the master; the master is therefore liable for careless, mistaken, excessive or even forbidden ways of doing the job, and is not liable where the servant has stepped outside the employment altogether and is on a frolic of his own.

The formula, and where it comes from

Facts. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, decided on 8 February 1966. The owner of a taxi entrusted it to a driver who collected the fares and accounted to him. The cleaner was trained to drive by that driver and, while taking a driving test with the driver absent from the vehicle, injured the respondent.

Held. The owner was not liable. The presumption that a vehicle is driven on the master's business by his authorised servant was rebutted: the owner had not employed or permitted the cleaner to drive, had not asked him to take a test, and had not authorised the driver to employ strangers, and the driver was not present to control the vehicle on the owner's behalf. For the master's liability to arise the act must be a wrongful act authorised by the master, or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing some act authorised by the master.

Why it matters here. It is the formula, stated by the Supreme Court, and every situation below is an application of it.

The situations, in the order examiners set them

1. A careless way of doing the job. A driver who drives too fast on his round is doing authorised work in an unauthorised way. The master is liable.

2. A mistaken way of doing the job. A servant who acts on an honest mistake while doing his work, for example a railway porter who pulls a passenger off a moving train believing him to be on the wrong one, is still doing the work. The master is liable.

3. An excessive way of doing the job. A servant who uses more force than the job requires, for example a bouncer who ejects a customer violently, is still doing the job. The master is liable.

4. A forbidden way of doing the job. A prohibition on the mode of doing the work does not take the act outside the employment; a prohibition on the sphere of the work does. A driver told not to race is still employed to drive; a driver told never to carry passengers who carries one may still be within the employment if the carriage was for the master's purposes.

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Course of Employment

5. A frolic of his own. Where the servant abandons the master's business for his own, the master is not liable. A detour on the master's business is not a frolic; a journey undertaken purely for the servant's own ends is.

6. Delegation by the servant. If the servant hands the job to somebody else without authority, the master is not liable unless the servant remained in control, which is where Sitaram Motilal Kalal and State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, part company: in the second case the appointed driver sat beside the man at the wheel and had allowed him to drive with his knowledge and consent, and the State was liable.

7. A criminal act. A servant's theft or fraud is within the employment where it was committed in the course of doing what he was employed to do, particularly where the employment gave him the opportunity and the master held him out as trustworthy.

The Indian direction of travel

Both Supreme Court cases in this chapter point the same way. In Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, a company was held liable although its manager had taken a passenger without authority, and the Court noted that the recent trend is to make the master liable for acts which do not strictly fall within the course of employment as ordinarily understood. Kanchanmala repeats that in terms. So an Indian answer should say that the connection with the employment is construed generously.

A worked example

A transport company employs Farid to drive a lorry from Pune to Surat.

He speeds and hits a car. Course of employment: a wrongful mode of doing authorised work.

He takes a fifteen kilometre detour to eat and hits a car there. Still in the course: a deviation reasonably incidental to the journey.

He drives 200 kilometres to Nashik to visit his family and hits a car there. A frolic of his own; the company is not liable.

He lets a friend drive while he sleeps in the cabin. On Sitaram Motilal Kalal the company escapes only if the delegation was outside his authority and he was not in control; on Kanchanmala the fact that he was in the vehicle points the other way.

He is told never to give lifts and gives one; the passenger is hurt. A prohibition on the mode of doing the work, so the company may still be liable, particularly if the lift served the company's purposes in some way.

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Course of Employment

He steals goods he was carrying. Within the employment, because the employment gave him the goods and the opportunity, and the owner entrusted them to the company.

What it does NOT mean

It does not depend on authority for the wrongful act itself. No master authorises negligence; the question is whether the job was authorised.

A prohibition does not automatically end the employment. Only a prohibition limiting the sphere of the work does.

A deviation is not a frolic. The scale and purpose of the departure decide.

A crime is not automatically outside the employment. Theft and fraud in the course of the work may be within it.

Quick revision

  1. The formula: a wrongful act authorised by the master, or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act.
  2. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, states it and rebuts the presumption about vehicles on the facts.
  3. Careless, mistaken, excessive and forbidden modes of doing the job are all within the employment.
  4. A prohibition on the mode does not exclude liability; a prohibition on the sphere does.
  5. A frolic of the servant's own is outside; a deviation on the master's business is not.
  6. Unauthorised delegation takes the act outside unless the servant remained in control.
  7. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, and Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735: the connection with employment is construed generously in India.
  8. Theft or fraud by a servant may be within the employment where the work gave him the opportunity.

Test yourself

1. When is an act done in the course of employment? When it is either a wrongful act authorised by the master, or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing some act authorised by the master. That is the formula stated by the Supreme Court in Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697. It follows that the master is liable where the servant does the job carelessly, mistakenly, excessively, or even in a way expressly forbidden, provided the prohibition limited the manner of the work rather than its sphere. He is not liable where the servant has abandoned the work for purposes of his own, which is a frolic of his own, though a deviation reasonably incidental to the master's business remains within the employment. Unauthorised delegation to another takes the act outside the employment unless the servant remained in control of the work.

2. Does an express prohibition by the master end his liability? Not by itself. The law distinguishes between a prohibition that limits the sphere of the employment and one that limits the mode of doing the work. A servant told not to drive at all who drives is outside his employment; a servant told not to drive fast who drives fast is doing the authorised work in a forbidden manner and the master remains liable. The reason is that a master cannot escape responsibility for the risks his enterprise creates by issuing instructions, since a rule to the contrary would allow every employer to immunise himself with a notice board. The question in each case is what the servant was employed to do, not what he was told about how to do it.

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3. "The trend in India is to construe the course of employment generously." Discuss. The proposition is supported by two Supreme Court decisions. In Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co., AIR 1977 SC 1735, a company's manager took a passenger in the company's car without authority, and the Court, noting that the recent trend is to make the master liable for acts which do not strictly fall within the course of employment as ordinarily understood, held the company vicariously liable. In State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, a government jeep was driven by an employee who was not its appointed driver, with the driver sitting beside him and permitting it, and the State was held liable. Against them stands Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, where the owner escaped because the person driving had no authority of any kind and the driver was not present to control the vehicle. The three together show a generous construction with a limit: the servant must still be doing the master's work, or the work must still be under his control.

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Chapter Fifty-Six

Liability for an Independent Contractor

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

An employer is not liable for the torts of an independent contractor, except where the duty he owes cannot be delegated.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the general rule is that a person who employs an independent contractor is not liable for torts committed by the contractor or his servants in the execution of the work, because the contractor is not under his control as to the manner of doing it; the exceptions are where the employer authorises or ratifies the wrong, where he is himself negligent in selecting the contractor or in giving directions, where the work is extra-hazardous, where it involves a withdrawal of support or interference with a highway, where the duty is a statutory or a common law duty which cannot be delegated, and where the liability is strict or absolute.

The general rule and its reason

The reason follows from chapter [Who Is a Servant]. Vicarious liability rests on control of the manner of the work, and an employer of an independent contractor has none: he specifies a result and leaves the method to a person who is in business on his own account.

The consequence is that the injured person's remedy is against the contractor. Where the contractor is not worth suing, the plaintiff will try to bring the case within one of the exceptions, and that is what most litigation on this topic is about.

The exceptions

1. Authorisation or ratification. Where the employer authorised the very act complained of, or adopted it afterwards, he is liable as a joint tortfeasor and not vicariously at all.

2. The employer's own negligence. Choosing a contractor known to be incompetent, giving him defective plans or instructions, or failing to check work he was bound to check, is the employer's own breach.

3. Extra-hazardous work. Where the work carries a special risk of danger to others, for example blasting, demolition or work with fire near neighbouring property, the employer cannot escape by employing a contractor.

4. Withdrawal of support and works on a highway. Excavations that remove support from a neighbour's land, and works that create a danger on a highway, engage a duty of the employer himself.

5. Non-delegable duties. Some duties are personal: the employer must see that care is taken, not merely take care to arrange for it. Examples are the duty of an employer to provide a safe system of work, the duty of an occupier towards visitors in certain circumstances, and duties imposed by statute in terms that make the person on whom they lie answerable however the work is done.

6. Strict and absolute liability. Where liability does not depend on fault at all, the employment of a contractor is beside the point. The rule in Rylands v. Fletcher attaches to the person who brings the dangerous thing on to the land, and it was in Rylands v. Fletcher itself that independent contractors did the work and the defendants were still liable.

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The Indian rule goes furthest here. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, so that it cannot escape by pointing at anybody else, and it cannot rely on any of the exceptions available under Rylands v. Fletcher. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 makes the same point statutorily, by placing liability on the owner who handles the hazardous substance.

A worked example

A housing society engages a contractor to demolish an old wing and build a new one.

A workman is injured by the contractor's faulty scaffolding. The society is not liable; the claim is against the contractor as his employer.

Debris from the demolition falls into the neighbouring plot and injures a child. Demolition is extra-hazardous work, and the society may be liable notwithstanding the contract.

The excavation withdraws support and the neighbour's wall cracks. The society is liable: the duty not to withdraw support is its own.

The society engaged a contractor with no licence and a record of collapses. That is the society's own negligence in selection.

The contractor stores a large quantity of a hazardous chemical on the site and it escapes. Strict liability attaches to the occupier who brought it on to the land, and if the activity is hazardous or inherently dangerous the rule in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, imposes an absolute and non-delegable duty. Under section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 the owner handling the substance is liable to give relief without any proof of fault.

What it does NOT mean

It does not mean the injured person has no remedy. He sues the contractor.

It does not mean a written contract shifts every risk. A non-delegable duty is not delegated by a document.

It does not apply to strict or absolute liability. Those attach to the person carrying on the activity.

It does not protect an employer who chose badly. Negligent selection is his own tort.

Quick revision

  1. General rule: no liability for the torts of an independent contractor.
  2. Reason: no control over the manner of the work.
  3. Exceptions: authorisation or ratification; the employer's own negligence; extra-hazardous work; withdrawal of support and works on a highway; non-delegable duties; and strict or absolute liability.
  4. Rylands v. Fletcher itself was a case where contractors did the work and the defendants were still liable.
  5. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: an absolute and non-delegable duty on an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity.
  6. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 places no-fault liability on the owner handling a hazardous substance.
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Test yourself

1. Is an employer liable for the torts of an independent contractor? As a general rule, no. Vicarious liability rests on the right to control the manner in which work is done, and an employer of an independent contractor has no such right: he specifies a result and the contractor, who is in business on his own account, chooses the method. The injured person's remedy is therefore against the contractor. The rule is subject to six exceptions: where the employer authorised or ratified the wrongful act; where he was himself negligent, in selecting an incompetent contractor or in giving defective instructions; where the work is extra-hazardous; where it involves the withdrawal of support or the creation of danger on a highway; where the duty is non-delegable, so that the employer must see that care is taken rather than merely arrange for care; and where liability is strict or absolute, in which case it attaches to the person carrying on the activity regardless of who does the work.

2. What is a non-delegable duty? A duty which the person on whom it lies must see performed, so that he remains answerable even if he entrusts the work to a competent independent contractor. The distinction is between a duty to take care, which can be discharged by employing a competent person, and a duty to see that care is taken, which cannot. Examples are the employer's duty to provide a safe system of work, certain duties of an occupier towards visitors, duties imposed by statute in terms that fix responsibility on a named person, and above all liability for hazardous activities: in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, and section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 places the same kind of liability on the owner who handles a hazardous substance.

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Chapter Fifty-Seven

Other Relations that Attract Vicarious Liability

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

Besides master and servant, vicarious liability arises between principal and agent, between partners, and where an owner casually entrusts a dangerous thing to somebody to do his work.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the relations that attract vicarious liability are master and servant, principal and agent, partners in a firm, a company and those through whom it acts, and, in India, an owner who entrusts his vehicle to another to be driven for his purposes, which is called casual delegation; the common element is that the wrongdoer was doing the defendant's work with his authority, express or implied.

Principal and agent

Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 defines an agent as a person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with third persons, and the person for whom the act is done is the principal.

Section 188 provides that an agent having authority to do an act has authority to do every lawful thing necessary in order to do it, and that an agent authorised to carry on a business has authority to do every lawful thing necessary for that purpose or usually done in the course of conducting it.

Section 238 provides that misrepresentations made, or frauds committed, by agents acting in the course of their business for their principals have the same effect on agreements made by such agents as if the misrepresentations or frauds had been made or committed by the principals; but misrepresentations or frauds which do not fall within their authority do not affect their principals.

The tort rule matches. A principal is liable for a tort committed by his agent within the scope of the authority conferred, whether that authority is express, implied or apparent, and the test of scope is the same idea as the course of employment in chapter [Course of Employment].

Partners

Partners are agents of the firm and of one another for the purposes of the business, so a tort committed by one partner in the ordinary course of the business makes all of them liable, jointly and severally, and the firm's property answers as well.

Companies

A company acts through people. It is liable for the torts of its servants and agents in the ordinary way, and in addition the acts of those who are its directing mind are treated as its own acts rather than as somebody else's for which it is vicariously liable.

Casual delegation, and the owner of a vehicle

This is the Indian branch that matters most in practice, because it is how the owner of a car is made liable for the driving of a friend or a relative.

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The principle. Where an owner asks another person to do something for him with his chattel, the other is doing the owner's work, and the owner is liable for his negligence in doing it even though there is no contract of employment.

Facts. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, decided on 8 February 1966. A taxi owner entrusted the vehicle to a driver who collected the fares and accounted to him; the driver trained the cleaner and took him for a driving test, during which the cleaner injured the respondent. The driver was not in the vehicle.

Held. The owner was not liable. There is a presumption that a vehicle is driven on the master's business by his authorised agent or servant, but it may be rebutted, and it was, because the owner had not employed or permitted the cleaner to drive, had not asked him to take a test, and had not authorised the driver to employ strangers; nor was the driver present to control the vehicle on his behalf. The act must be a wrongful act authorised by the master or a wrongful and unauthorised mode of doing an act authorised by him.

And the other side. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, held the State liable where a jeep was driven by an employee who was not the appointed driver, the appointed driver being beside him and having consented, because the modern trend is to make the master liable for acts which do not strictly fall within the course of employment as ordinarily understood.

Why they matter here. Together they show that what the court looks for is whether the vehicle was being used for the owner's purposes and whether the person the owner trusted remained in control.

Where vicarious liability does NOT arise

Parent and child. A parent is not liable simply as a parent, as chapter [Who May Not Be Sued] explains; he is liable where the child was his servant or agent, or where he was himself negligent.

Employer and independent contractor, subject to the exceptions in chapter [Liability for an Independent Contractor].

Hirer of a vehicle with its driver, where the driver remains the general employer's servant.

A worked example

Gopal owns a car.

His driver, employed on a salary, knocks somebody down while taking Gopal to work. Master and servant: Gopal is liable.

Gopal asks his neighbour to take the car and fetch his daughter from the station, and the neighbour knocks somebody down. Casual delegation: the neighbour was doing Gopal's work with his authority, and Gopal is liable although the neighbour is neither servant nor agent in any formal sense.

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Gopal lends the car to the same neighbour for the neighbour's own holiday. No liability: the car was not being used for Gopal's purposes.

Gopal's manager, authorised to run his shop, makes a fraudulent statement to a customer while selling goods. Principal and agent, and section 238 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 states the same rule for the contract: the fraud of an agent acting in the course of his business for his principal affects the principal.

One of Gopal's partners defames a supplier while negotiating for the firm. All the partners are liable, because a partner is an agent of the firm for the purposes of its business.

Quick revision

  1. The relations: master and servant, principal and agent, partners, company and its people, and casual delegation.
  2. Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 defines agent and principal; section 188 fixes the extent of an agent's authority; section 238 makes an agent's fraud in the course of the business the principal's concern.
  3. A principal is liable for an agent's tort within the scope of express, implied or apparent authority.
  4. Partners are agents of the firm; liability is joint and several.
  5. Casual delegation: the owner of a chattel is liable where another uses it for the owner's purposes with his authority.
  6. Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697: the presumption about vehicles, and how it is rebutted.
  7. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659: liability where the trusted driver remained in the vehicle and consented.
  8. No liability merely as a parent, nor for an independent contractor except in the recognised cases.

Test yourself

1. What relations besides master and servant attract vicarious liability? Principal and agent, where the principal answers for torts committed by the agent within the scope of his authority, express, implied or apparent; the Indian Contract Act 1872 supplies the framework, section 182 defining agent and principal, section 188 the extent of an agent's authority, and section 238 providing that misrepresentations or frauds by agents acting in the course of their business for their principals have the same effect as if made by the principals, while those outside their authority do not. Partners, who are agents of the firm for the purposes of the business, so that a tort by one in the ordinary course makes all liable jointly and severally. Companies, which answer for their servants and agents and whose directing minds' acts are treated as the company's own. And casual delegation, where an owner entrusts a chattel to another to be used for the owner's purposes.

2. Explain casual delegation with Indian authority. Casual delegation describes the case where an owner asks another person, who is neither his servant nor his agent in any formal sense, to do something for him with his property, typically to drive his vehicle. Because the other is doing the owner's work with his authority, the owner answers for his negligence. Indian law begins from a presumption that a vehicle is being driven on the owner's business by his authorised servant or agent, but Sitaram Motilal Kalal v. Santanuprasad Jaishankar Bhatt, AIR 1966 SC 1697, holds that the presumption may be rebutted, and rebutted it where a cleaner drove during a licence test without the owner's authority and with the driver absent from the vehicle. State of Maharashtra v. Kanchanmala Vijaysing Shirke, (1995) 5 SCC 659, shows the other side: the State was liable where the appointed driver sat beside a colleague and allowed him to drive with his knowledge and consent. The question in each case is whether the vehicle was being used for the owner's purposes and whether the person he trusted remained in control.

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Chapter Fifty-Eight

Vicarious Liability of the State

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

The State is liable for the torts of its servants to the same extent as the East India Company was, and the old sovereign and non-sovereign division has been cut down almost to nothing.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: article 300(1) of the Constitution provides that the Union and the States may sue and be sued in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have sued or been sued if the Constitution had not been enacted, so the extent of the State's liability is that of the East India Company as settled in the P. and O. Steam Navigation case, which distinguished sovereign from non-sovereign functions; State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati held the State liable like any other employer, Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh denied liability for an exercise of sovereign power, and N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh held that the doctrine of sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State.

The provision

Article 300(1) provides that the Government of India may sue and be sued by the name of the Union of India, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, and may, subject to any provisions made by Parliament or a State Legislature, sue or be sued in relation to their respective affairs in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces or Indian States might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.

Three things follow.

The State can be sued. There is no general immunity in India.

The extent is historical. The words "in like cases" send the court back through the Government of India Acts to the liability of the East India Company.

Parliament may change it. No Act has been passed, and N. Nagendra Rao records that a Bill introduced in 1965 was withdrawn, reintroduced in 1967 and lapsed.

Article 294 deals with the succession to property and liabilities, article 299 with the form of government contracts, and article 361 with the personal immunity of the President and Governors, which chapter [Who May Not Be Sued] takes.

The four cases, in order

One: the East India Company case. The P. and O. Steam Navigation case, decided by the Supreme Court of Calcutta in 1861, drew the line the whole subject still uses: the Company was liable for acts done in the conduct of undertakings which might be carried on by a private person, and not for acts done in the exercise of powers which could only be exercised by a sovereign. The Supreme Court approved it in Kasturilal.

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Two: Vidhyawati.

Facts. State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933, decided on 2 February 1962. A Government jeep being driven from the repair shop to the Collector's residence by a State employee was driven rashly and negligently and killed a pedestrian. His widow and daughter sued.

Held. The State was liable. Its liability for a tort committed by its servant within the scope of employment is the same as that of any other employer. Article 300(1), by using the words "in like cases", refers back through section 176(1) of the Government of India Act 1935 and its predecessors to the liability of the East India Company.

Three: Kasturi Lal.

Facts. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, decided on 29 September 1964. Police at Meerut arrested a partner of a bullion firm on suspicion and seized gold and silver, which were kept in the police malkhana. The head constable in charge misappropriated the gold and absconded to Pakistan. The firm sued the State for its value.

Held. The claim failed. The powers to arrest, to search and to seize are conferred by statute on specified officers and can properly be characterised as sovereign powers, so although the negligence was that of State employees in the course of employment, no claim lay. The Court approved the P. and O. case, distinguished Vidhyawati, and suggested that Parliament legislate.

Four: Nagendra Rao.

Facts. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205, decided on 6 September 1994. Stocks of fertiliser and foodgrain were seized under control orders made under the Essential Commodities Act 1955, were not disposed of, and deteriorated. The trial court decreed their value; the High Court reversed on the authority of Kasturi Lal.

Held. The appeal was allowed and the decree restored. The doctrine of sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State which runs factories and carries on trade; the old distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions should no longer decide the liability of the State; and the defence is not available where the State or its officers act negligently in the exercise of statutory powers over a citizen's property. The Court recorded that the Law Commission had recommended legislation and that the Government (Liability in Tort) Bill of 1965 was introduced, withdrawn, reintroduced in 1967 and lapsed.

Where the law stands now

Three propositions, and an answer should give all three.

Kasturi Lal has not been formally overruled, but it has been so narrowed that it is rarely applied.

The sovereign or non-sovereign division is no longer the test. Nagendra Rao says so in terms, and the modern question is whether the function is one that a private person could perform and whether immunity can be justified in a welfare State.

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The constitutional remedy has overtaken the private law question altogether. Where a fundamental right is violated, compensation is awarded under articles 32 and 226 and sovereign immunity is no answer to it at all. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, and Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, are the authorities, and chapter [Constitutional Tort] works them out. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634, made the State liable for negligence in a government hospital, which is the plainest modern illustration in private law.

A worked example

A State's officers do four things on the same day.

A State transport bus injures a pedestrian. Running a bus service is something a private person may do; the State is liable on Vidhyawati.

A police officer seizes goods and they rot in the malkhana. On Kasturi Lal the seizure was an exercise of sovereign power and no claim lay; on Nagendra Rao the State is liable for negligence in dealing with a citizen's property under statutory powers, and Nagendra Rao is the later and better view.

A prisoner dies in custody after a beating. The private law question hardly arises: compensation is awarded in a writ petition for the violation of article 21, and sovereign immunity is no defence, on Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960.

A patient dies because a mop was left inside her in a government hospital. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634: once death by negligence in the hospital is established, the State is liable to pay damages.

Quick revision

  1. Article 300(1): the State may be sued "in like cases" as the Dominion and the Provinces, which sends the court back to the liability of the East India Company.
  2. P. and O. Steam Navigation: liable for what a private person might do, not for the exercise of sovereign power.
  3. State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933: liable like any other employer.
  4. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039: not liable for an exercise of statutory police powers.
  5. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205: sovereign immunity has no place in a welfare State; the old division should no longer decide.
  6. No statute has been passed; the 1965 Bill lapsed.
  7. Constitutional compensation under articles 32 and 226 bypasses the question, and sovereign immunity is no answer to it.
  8. Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634: liability for negligence in a government hospital.
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Test yourself

1. Discuss the liability of the State for the torts of its servants in India. Article 300(1) of the Constitution provides that the Union and the States may sue and be sued in relation to their affairs in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have done, so that the extent of the liability is historical and traces back through the Government of India Acts to the liability of the East India Company as settled in the P. and O. Steam Navigation case, which distinguished acts done in undertakings a private person might carry on from acts done in the exercise of sovereign power. In State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933, the State was held liable for a pedestrian killed by a Government jeep, its liability being that of any other employer. In Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, no claim lay for gold misappropriated from a police malkhana, because the powers of arrest, search and seizure were sovereign powers. In N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205, the Court held that sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State and that the old division should no longer decide liability. Parliament has never legislated, the Bill of 1965 having lapsed, and in practice the constitutional remedy under articles 32 and 226 has overtaken the private law question.

2. Has Kasturi Lal been overruled? Not formally, but it has been narrowed until very little is left of it. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1994) 6 SCC 205, held that the doctrine of sovereign immunity has no place in a modern welfare State which runs factories and carries on trade, that the old distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions should no longer be invoked to determine the liability of the State, and that the defence is not available where officers act negligently in the exercise of statutory powers over a citizen's property, which are the very facts of Kasturi Lal. In addition, where the wrong violates a fundamental right the claim is now made under articles 32 and 226, and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, holds that sovereign immunity does not apply to such a claim at all. So Kasturi Lal survives as authority on paper and is seldom decisive in practice.

3. Why has the constitutional remedy displaced the private law claim against the State? For four practical reasons. It is quicker, because a writ petition is decided without a full trial. It is not met by sovereign immunity, since Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, holds that a claim in public law for the contravention of a fundamental right is distinct from and additional to the private law remedy in tort, and that the defence does not apply to it. It is available to any person, citizen or not, as Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, holds, because article 21 protects every person. And it avoids the whole historical inquiry into what the East India Company would have been liable for, which article 300(1) otherwise requires and which no Indian legislature has replaced.

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Chapter Fifty-Nine

Constitutional Tort

Syllabus topic 3.1, "Vicarious Liability: Basis, scope, Justification, Different types."

In one line

A constitutional court may order the State to pay compensation for violating a fundamental right, and sovereign immunity is no answer to it.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a constitutional tort is the violation of a fundamental right by the State or its officers, for which the Supreme Court under article 32 and the High Courts under article 226 may award compensation as a public law remedy; the remedy is distinct from and additional to the private law action in tort, it is granted summarily in a writ petition without a suit, the defence of sovereign immunity does not apply to it, and it is available to every person and not only to citizens.

How the remedy was made

Facts. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, decided on 1 August 1983. Rudul Sah was acquitted by the Court of Sessions at Muzaffarpur on 3 June 1968 and was kept in jail until 16 October 1982, more than fourteen years after his acquittal. He petitioned under article 32 for release and for compensation.

Held. He had been released before the hearing, so the prayer for release did not survive. The Court held that its power under article 32 is not confined to issuing a writ of release, and that it may award compensation where the right to liberty has been grossly violated, because otherwise the right would be reduced to a paper guarantee. It directed the State to pay Rs. 30,000 in addition to a sum already paid, described the award as a palliative, and left him free to sue for damages in the ordinary way.

Why it matters here. It is the origin. Everything that follows is an application of the reasoning that a right without an effective remedy is not a right, which chapter [Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium] states as a maxim.

Facts. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, decided on 22 November 1985. A member of the Legislative Assembly was arrested at three in the morning while travelling to attend a session and was kept in custody from the tenth to the fourteenth of September without being produced before the Executive Magistrate on the eleventh or the Sub Judge on the thirteenth, remand orders having been obtained at their residences after office hours.

Held. The police had acted deliberately and mala fide, and there was a gross violation of articles 21 and 22(2). Since he was already at liberty no order of release was needed, but the Court held that it had jurisdiction to compensate the victim by awarding monetary compensation, and directed the State to pay Rs. 50,000.

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The remedy is public law, and immunity does not touch it

Facts. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960, decided on 24 March 1993. The petitioner's son was taken into police custody and his body was found the next day on a railway track with multiple injuries. The State said he had escaped and been run over by a train. Her letter was treated as a petition under article 32, the Court directed the District Judge to inquire, and the inquiry established that the death was unnatural and caused by injuries inflicted in custody.

Held. A claim in public law for compensation for the contravention of a fundamental right is a remedy available under articles 32 and 226, distinct from and in addition to the private law remedy in tort, and the principle of sovereign immunity does not apply to it. The Court awarded Rs. 1,50,000 to the petitioner, with Rs. 10,000 as costs to the Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee, leaving her free to pursue any other remedy.

Why it matters here. It is the judgment that states the theory: the remedy is not tort at all, it is the enforcement of a right, so the defences that belong to the law of torts do not travel into it.

It protects every person, not only citizens

Facts. Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, decided on 28 January 2000. A Bangladeshi national was gang-raped by railway employees at Howrah station. An advocate moved the High Court under article 226 claiming compensation for her, and Rs. 10 lakhs was awarded against the Railways. The Railways argued that the wrong was that of individual employees, that the remedy lay in private law, that the petitioner was a stranger and that the victim was a foreign national.

Held. The appeal was dismissed. The right to life under article 21 is available to every person and not only to a citizen, so a foreign national may enforce it; the employees were performing functions of a commercial character on behalf of the Union, which made the Union liable; a practising advocate could bring the petition in the public interest; and compensation in public law is an appropriate remedy for the violation of a fundamental right.

And the safeguards that make the facts provable

Facts. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, decided on 18 December 1996. A letter drawing attention to deaths in police lock-ups was treated as a writ petition.

Held. Custodial violence and death in a lock-up strike a blow at the rule of law. The Court issued eleven requirements to be followed in every case of arrest and detention until legislation was made, among them that the arresting officers bear accurate visible identification, that a memo of arrest be prepared and attested by a family member or a respectable person of the locality and countersigned by the arrestee, that a friend or relative be informed of the arrest and the place of detention, that the arrestee be examined for injuries at the time of arrest and medically examined every forty-eight hours, and that a police control room record the arrest.

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Why it matters here. Compensation is worth nothing if a detention cannot be proved, and these requirements are what put the facts on paper.

The differences from a private law action

Constitutional tortAction in tort
Where it is broughtArticle 32 or 226A civil court
ProcedureSummary, on affidavit, often with a judicial inquiryA suit, with pleadings and trial
Who may claimEvery person, citizen or not, and a public-spirited petitioner on his behalfThe injured person or his representative
Sovereign immunityNo answer at allMay be raised, subject to Nagendra Rao
MeasureA palliative, fixed summarilyFull damages, assessed
Effect on the other remedyPreserved; the plaintiff may still sueIndependent

A worked example

A young man is picked up by the police, held for six days without being produced before a magistrate, beaten, and released without any charge.

In a suit. He may sue for false imprisonment and battery, prove the detention and the assault, and recover damages after a trial that may take years; the State may plead that the arrest was in the exercise of statutory police powers, on Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039.

In a writ petition. He may move the High Court under article 226 for compensation for the violation of articles 21 and 22, and on Nilabati Behera sovereign immunity is no answer, on Rudul Sah and Bhim Singh compensation may be awarded summarily, and the D.K. Basu requirements will show whether an arrest memo was made and whether he was medically examined.

Both. The public law award is a palliative, and Rudul Sah expressly leaves the ordinary suit open.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a substitute for a suit in every case. It is granted where the violation is gross and the facts are not seriously in dispute.

It is not full compensation. Rudul Sah calls the award a palliative, and the suit remains available.

It is not confined to citizens. Chandrima Das holds that article 21 protects every person.

It is not answered by sovereign immunity. Nilabati Behera holds that the principle does not apply to a public law claim.

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Quick revision

  1. Constitutional tort: compensation for the violation of a fundamental right, under articles 32 and 226.
  2. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086: Rs. 30,000 for fourteen years of detention after acquittal; a right without a remedy is a paper guarantee; the award is a palliative.
  3. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494: Rs. 50,000 for four days of mala fide detention.
  4. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960: a public law remedy distinct from tort; sovereign immunity does not apply; Rs. 1,50,000 awarded.
  5. Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988: article 21 protects every person; Rs. 10 lakhs upheld against the Railways.
  6. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610: eleven requirements for every arrest and detention.
  7. The private law action survives alongside it.

Test yourself

1. What is a constitutional tort, and how did the remedy develop? It is the violation of a fundamental right by the State or its officers, for which a constitutional court awards compensation in a writ petition. The remedy was created in Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086, where a man was kept in jail for more than fourteen years after his acquittal; by the hearing he was free, and the Court held that its power under article 32 is not confined to ordering release and that it may award compensation where liberty has been grossly violated, otherwise the right would be a paper guarantee. It was applied in Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, where Rs. 50,000 was awarded for four days of mala fide detention. Its theoretical basis was settled in Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, AIR 1993 SC 1960: a claim in public law for the contravention of a fundamental right is distinct from and additional to the private law remedy in tort, and sovereign immunity does not apply to it. Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrima Das, AIR 2000 SC 988, extended it to every person, citizen or not.

2. How does a constitutional tort differ from an ordinary action in tort? In forum, procedure, defences and measure. It is brought under article 32 or 226 rather than by suit, and is decided summarily on affidavit, often after a judicial inquiry directed by the court, rather than after a full trial. It may be moved by a public-spirited person on behalf of the victim, as in Chandrima Das, where a practising advocate petitioned for a foreign national. Sovereign immunity, which may still be pleaded in a private law action after Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1965 SC 1039, is no answer at all to it, as Nilabati Behera holds. And the award is a palliative fixed summarily rather than full damages assessed on evidence, which is why Rudul Sah expressly left the injured person free to sue for damages in the ordinary way.

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3. What did D.K. Basu decide, and why does it matter to this topic? In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, the Supreme Court treated a letter about deaths in police custody as a writ petition, held that custodial violence strikes at the rule of law, and issued eleven requirements to be followed in every case of arrest and detention until legislation was made. They include accurate visible identification by the arresting officers, an arrest memo attested by a family member or a respectable person of the locality and countersigned by the arrestee, information of the arrest and the place of detention to a friend or relative, examination for injuries at the time of arrest and medical examination every forty-eight hours, and recording of the arrest at a police control room. It matters because the constitutional remedy depends on proof: compensation for an unlawful detention is worth nothing if the detention cannot be established, and these requirements create the record that makes it provable.

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Chapter Sixty

Strict Liability: The Rule in Rylands v. Fletcher

Syllabus topic 3.2, "Principle of Strict Liability: Ryland V. Fletcher case with exceptions."

In one line

A person who brings a dangerous thing on to his land for his own purposes must keep it there at his peril, and is liable if it escapes and does damage, however careful he was.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher is that a person who for his own purposes brings on to his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril, and if he fails to do so is prima facie liable for the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape; liability is strict, so it is no defence that the escape occurred without his wilful act, default or neglect, or even that he did not know the thing was there, and the rule applies only to a non-natural use of the land.

The rule, as the Supreme Court of India states it

Facts. Rylands v. Fletcher, Law Report 1 Exchequer 265 (1866), as the citation is given by the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086. The defendants employed independent contractors to build a reservoir on their land. The contractors came upon disused mine shafts which they did not block, and when the reservoir was filled the water escaped down the shafts and flooded the plaintiff's coal mine. The defendants themselves were not negligent.

Held. A person who for his own purposes brings on to his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril, and if he fails to do so is prima facie liable for the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. The liability is strict: it is no defence that the thing escaped without the defendant's wilful act, default or neglect, or that he had no knowledge of its existence. The rule applies only to a non-natural user of the land, and does not apply where the escape is due to an act of God or of a stranger, or to the default of the person injured, or where the thing is present with that person's consent, or in certain cases of statutory authority.

Why it matters here. Everything in this chapter and the next comes from that statement, and it is an Indian court's statement of an English rule, which is exactly what chapter [Tort in India] says the position is.

The three essentials

1. A dangerous thing. Something likely to do mischief if it escapes. Water, gas, electricity, fire, explosives, poisonous fumes, sewage, chemicals, and even things not dangerous in themselves if they are dangerous in the quantity or the place in which they are kept.

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2. Escape. The thing must escape from the place where the defendant has control over it to a place outside his control. Damage caused to a person on the defendant's own land, by something that has not escaped, is not within the rule and belongs to negligence or occupiers' liability.

3. Non-natural use of the land. This is the requirement that does the work in modern cases. It does not mean artificial as opposed to natural; it means a special use bringing with it increased danger to others, as distinct from the ordinary use of land or a use proper for the general benefit of the community. Storing water in a domestic tank is a natural use; storing it in a reservoir is not.

Why the rule exists

The rule allocates the risk of an unusual and dangerous activity to the person who chooses to carry it on for his own benefit. He decides to keep the thing, he profits from keeping it, and his neighbours have no say in the matter, so the loss its escape causes should be his rather than theirs.

That is also why it is strict. Requiring proof of negligence would put on the neighbour the burden of finding out what happened inside premises he cannot enter.

Who may sue and who is liable

The plaintiff must ordinarily have an interest in the land affected, though the rule has been applied more widely in some cases.

The defendant is the person who brought the thing on to the land and controlled it, whether or not he owns the land, and it is no answer that the work was done by an independent contractor: in Rylands v. Fletcher itself the reservoir was built by contractors and the defendants were still liable, as chapter [Liability for an Independent Contractor] notes.

The older rule the same idea grew out of: scienter

Before Rylands v. Fletcher the common law already made a person answerable, without proof of negligence, for damage done by a dangerous animal he kept. The rule is called the scienter rule, and it recurs in the older question papers on this subject often enough to be worth knowing.

Facts. Raman v. Cochin Devaswom Board, decided on 20 May 2015. A temple elephant owned by the Board killed a woman who had come to the temple to pray. Her legal representatives sued the Board and the two mahouts in whose care and custody the animal was, and in this second appeal one mahout resisted the Board's recovery of a contribution from his salary.

Held. The scienter rule is a rule evolved by the English courts for an action against a person who knowingly keeps a dangerous animal; "scienter" means knowingly, and the guilty knowledge it denotes is of a lesser degree than the mens rea of a criminal action. The law divides animals into those mansuetae naturae, which can be tamed, such as a dog or a horse, and those ferae naturae, which are ferocious, such as a lion or a tiger, and an elephant belongs to the second class. Where the animal is of a species known to mankind to be ferocious, the plaintiff need not prove scienter and recovers on proof that the injury was caused by an animal of that kind kept by the defendant. On the facts no court had found the mahouts negligent, so the Board's liability was not vicarious: the liability of the Board and of both mahouts was absolute, and they were liable to compensate as joint and several tortfeasors in equal measure.

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Why it matters here. It shows the same instinct at work as in Rylands v. Fletcher: a person who chooses to keep something dangerous keeps it at his peril. The difference is in what must be proved. For an animal ferae naturae nothing beyond the keeping and the injury need be shown; for an animal mansuetae naturae the plaintiff must prove that the keeper knew of its vicious propensity.

The scienter rule is not a topic of the current syllabus, which prints only Rylands v. Fletcher and the exceptions under topic 3.2. It is here because the examiner has asked for it as a short note on the older papers, and because it is the shortest way to see what strict liability is for.

A worked example

A factory keeps a large tank of industrial acid on its roof.

The tank bursts and acid flows into the neighbouring school. All three essentials are satisfied: acid is a dangerous thing, it escaped, and keeping a large quantity on a roof is a non-natural use. The factory is liable although it maintained the tank perfectly.

An employee inside the factory is burned when the tank bursts. There is no escape from the defendant's control, so the rule does not apply; the claim lies in negligence or under employment law.

The tank bursts because an unprecedented earthquake shakes the building. That is an act of God, one of the recognised exceptions, and chapter [Exceptions to Strict Liability] works it out.

The tank bursts because a saboteur cuts it open. That is the act of a stranger, another exception.

And if the factory is one carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry? Then in India the rule that applies is not Rylands v. Fletcher at all but the rule of absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, under which none of these exceptions is available. Chapter [Absolute Liability] works that out, and it is the single most important development in this part of the syllabus.

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Distinctions that carry marks

NegligenceStrict liability
FaultMust be provedIrrelevant
EscapeNot requiredEssential
Use of landNot relevantMust be non-natural
DefencesContributory negligence, volentiSix recognised exceptions
Strict liabilityAbsolute liability
SourceRylands v. Fletcher (1866)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
Escape required?YesNot in the same sense; the rule attaches to the activity
Non-natural use required?YesNo
ExceptionsSixNone
Measure of damagesOrdinaryRelated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise

What it does NOT mean

It does not require the thing to be dangerous in itself. Water is harmless until it is collected in quantity.

It does not apply without an escape. Harm on the defendant's own premises is outside it.

It does not make every use of land actionable. The use must be non-natural, which excludes ordinary domestic and community uses.

It is not the Indian rule for hazardous industry. M.C. Mehta replaced it for that class of case.

Quick revision

  1. The rule: bring on to land, collect and keep there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, and keep it at your peril.
  2. Citation as given by the Supreme Court: Law Report 1 Exchequer 265 (1866).
  3. Three essentials: a dangerous thing, an escape, and a non-natural use of land.
  4. Liability is strict: no wilful act, default, neglect or knowledge need be shown.
  5. The defendant is liable although the work was done by an independent contractor.
  6. Non-natural use means a special use bringing increased danger, not merely an artificial one.
  7. Six exceptions, taken in the next chapter.
  8. For hazardous industry in India the rule is absolute liability under M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086.

Test yourself

1. State and explain the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher. The rule is that a person who for his own purposes brings on to his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril, and if he fails to do so is prima facie liable for the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. That is how the Supreme Court of India states it in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, giving the citation as Law Report 1 Exchequer 265 (1866). The facts were that the defendants employed contractors to build a reservoir, the contractors failed to block disused mine shafts, and water escaped and flooded the plaintiff's mine, the defendants themselves being free from negligence. Three essentials must be shown: a thing likely to do mischief if it escapes; an escape from the defendant's control; and a non-natural use of the land, meaning a special use bringing increased danger to others rather than an ordinary use or one for the general benefit of the community. Liability is strict, so it is no defence that the escape happened without the defendant's wilful act, default or neglect, or that he did not know the thing was there.

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2. What is meant by non-natural use of land? Not artificial as opposed to natural, but a special use which brings with it increased danger to others, as distinct from the ordinary use of the land or a use proper for the general benefit of the community. Collecting water in a domestic tank or cistern is an ordinary use; impounding it in a reservoir is not. The requirement is what keeps the rule within bounds, because almost anything can do mischief if it escapes in sufficient quantity, and without it the rule would make every occupier an insurer of his neighbours. It is also the requirement that has changed most with time, since what is an ordinary use of land in an industrial area today may not have been in 1866, and it is one reason the Supreme Court of India declined to apply the rule to modern hazardous industry.

3. Distinguish strict liability from negligence and from absolute liability. Negligence requires proof of a duty, a breach and damage, and reasonable care is a complete answer. Strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher requires no fault at all: the plaintiff proves a dangerous thing, an escape and a non-natural use, and the defendant's care is irrelevant, though six recognised exceptions are open to him. Absolute liability, laid down for India in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, goes further still: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty, is liable for harm caused by an accident in that activity, cannot rely on any of the exceptions to Rylands v. Fletcher, and pays compensation related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise rather than measured only by the plaintiff's loss.

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Chapter Sixty-One

Exceptions to Strict Liability

Syllabus topic 3.2, "Principle of Strict Liability: Ryland V. Fletcher case with exceptions."

In one line

Six things defeat the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, and none of them defeats absolute liability in India.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the recognised exceptions to the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher are the plaintiff's own default, the plaintiff's consent, common benefit, the act of a stranger, an act of God, and statutory authority; the Supreme Court set out those exceptions in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India and then held that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity in India cannot rely on any of them.

The six exceptions

1. Plaintiff's own default. Where the escape is due to the plaintiff's own act, or where his own unusual conduct or unusually sensitive property brings the damage on himself, no action lies. The point is the same as the sensitivity rule in nuisance in chapter [Private Nuisance].

2. Consent of the plaintiff. Where the plaintiff has expressly or impliedly consented to the presence of the source of danger, and there is no negligence, he cannot complain. A tenant who takes a flat below a water tank installed for the benefit of the whole building has consented to the tank being there.

3. Common benefit. Where the thing is kept for the benefit of both the plaintiff and the defendant, the rule does not apply. This overlaps with consent, and it explains why the ordinary water and drainage installations of a building are outside the rule.

4. Act of a stranger. Where the escape is caused by the deliberate and unforeseeable act of a person over whom the defendant has no control, the defendant is not liable. The stranger must be a stranger: an act by the defendant's servant or by an independent contractor doing his work is not within the exception.

5. Act of God. Where the escape is caused by natural forces without human intervention, in circumstances so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably provide against them. Chapter [General Defences I] works out the limits, and Ramalinga Nadar v. Narayana Reddiar, AIR 1971 Ker 197, fixes the boundary: the acts of an unruly mob are not an act of God, because the expression covers only inevitable accidents caused by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man.

6. Statutory authority. Where the thing is kept, or the activity carried on, under the authority of a statute, the rule may be displaced. Whether it is depends on the terms of the statute, and chapter [General Defences II] sets out the distinction between absolute and conditional authority. Statutory authority never authorises negligence.

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And the seventh answer that is not an exception at all

Read this before writing an answer, because it is the difference between a good one and an average one.

Facts. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, decided on 20 December 1986 by five judges. Oleum gas escaped from a unit of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a densely populated part of Delhi, and the Court had to fix the measure of liability of an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry when an accident in it kills or injures people.

Held. The Court set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher together with its exceptions, and then declined to apply it. A rule evolved in the nineteenth century could not guide a modern industrial economy; law must grow to meet new situations; and Indian courts cannot allow their judicial thinking to be constricted by the law as it prevails in England, because India no longer needs the crutches of a foreign legal order. It laid down that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected by an accident in that activity, and cannot rely on any of the exceptions which operate against the rule of strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher; and that the compensation must be related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so as to deter.

Why it matters here. The six exceptions remain the law for ordinary cases of escape from land. They are simply unavailable to the defendant who matters most: the hazardous enterprise. Chapter [Absolute Liability] works the rule out.

A worked example

A chemical plant stores chlorine in tanks beside a residential colony. Chlorine escapes and injures the residents. Consider five explanations the plant might offer.

"A terrorist cut the pipe." Act of a stranger, which would defeat strict liability, and would not defeat absolute liability if the plant is engaged in a hazardous activity.

"An earthquake of unprecedented force cracked the tank." Act of God, with the same result.

"The residents built their houses after we came." Not an exception at all. Coming to the nuisance is no defence, as chapter [Defences and Remedies in Nuisance] explains, and it is no answer here either.

"We were licensed by the State to store chlorine." Statutory authority may displace the rule if the statute authorises the very thing that happened and there was no negligence, and the argument becomes much weaker where the statute merely permits a business.

"We took every possible precaution." No answer at all to either rule. The whole point of strict liability is that care is irrelevant, and M.C. Mehta says in terms that it is no answer for a hazardous enterprise to say it took all reasonable care and that the harm occurred without negligence on its part.

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What it does NOT mean

Reasonable care is not an exception. It is irrelevant.

The act of an employee or a contractor is not the act of a stranger.

Public benefit is not an exception. Common benefit means benefit shared with the plaintiff, not benefit to the public at large.

None of the six saves a hazardous enterprise in India. M.C. Mehta removed them.

Quick revision

  1. Six exceptions: plaintiff's default, plaintiff's consent, common benefit, act of a stranger, act of God, and statutory authority.
  2. Ramalinga Nadar v. Narayana Reddiar, AIR 1971 Ker 197: a mob is not an act of God, which is confined to elementary forces of nature without human agency.
  3. The act of a servant or an independent contractor is not the act of a stranger.
  4. Statutory authority never authorises negligence.
  5. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable and cannot rely on any of the exceptions.
  6. Compensation from such an enterprise is related to its magnitude and capacity so as to deter.

Test yourself

1. State the exceptions to the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher. Six are recognised, and the Supreme Court set them out in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086. The plaintiff's own default, where the escape or the damage is brought about by his own act or by an unusually sensitive use of his property. The plaintiff's consent, express or implied, to the presence of the source of danger, in the absence of negligence. Common benefit, where the thing is maintained for the benefit of both parties, as with the water installations of a building. The act of a stranger, meaning a person over whom the defendant has no control and whose deliberate act was not foreseeable, which does not extend to the act of a servant or of an independent contractor doing the defendant's work. An act of God, that is, an escape caused by natural forces without human intervention and so extraordinary that no reasonable foresight could provide against it. And statutory authority, where the statute authorises the very thing complained of, though it never authorises negligence.

2. Are these exceptions available to a hazardous industry in India? No. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, a Bench of five judges considered the escape of oleum gas from a plant in a densely populated part of Delhi, set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher with its exceptions, and declined to apply it, holding that a rule evolved in the nineteenth century could not govern a modern industrial economy and that Indian courts need not follow English law. It laid down that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community, is absolutely liable for harm resulting from an accident in that activity, and cannot rely on any of the exceptions which operate against strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher; and it held that the compensation must be related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so that it has a deterrent effect. The six exceptions therefore remain the law for ordinary escapes from land and are unavailable in precisely the class of case where most modern harm occurs.

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3. Is the act of a contractor employed by the defendant an "act of a stranger"? No. The exception protects a defendant against the deliberate and unforeseeable act of a person over whom he has no control, and a contractor engaged to do his work is not such a person. Rylands v. Fletcher itself makes the point: the reservoir was built by independent contractors whose failure to block the disused shafts caused the escape, and the defendants were nevertheless held liable. The same is true of a servant. What the exception covers is the act of a genuine outsider, such as a trespasser or a saboteur, whose intervention the defendant could not reasonably have anticipated or guarded against.

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Chapter Sixty-Two

Absolute Liability

Syllabus topic 3.3, "Principle of Absolute Liability: Bhopal Gas Disaster case and Shree Ram Food Oleum Gas Leakage case and orientation to Public liability Insurance Act, 199."

In one line

An enterprise that carries on a hazardous activity is liable for the harm an accident in it causes, with no exceptions and no excuse of care taken.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the rule of absolute liability laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India is that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity which poses a potential threat to the health and safety of persons working in the factory and residing in the surrounding areas owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results, and if harm results it is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, it being no answer that it took all reasonable care and that the harm occurred without negligence on its part; the liability is not subject to any of the exceptions to the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, and the measure of compensation must be related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so that it has a deterrent effect.

The case

Facts. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, decided on 20 December 1986. Oleum gas escaped from one of the units of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a densely populated part of Delhi. Applications for compensation were made in a public interest petition already pending about the same plant. The Court had to decide the measure of liability of an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry when an accident in it kills or injures people, and in particular whether the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher applied.

Held. The Court set out the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, its requirement of a non-natural use and its exceptions, and then declined to apply it. A rule evolved in the nineteenth century, before these developments of science and technology, could not guide a modern economy; law has to grow to meet new situations; and Indian courts cannot allow their judicial thinking to be constricted by the law as it prevails in England or in any other foreign country, since India no longer needs the crutches of a foreign legal order. It then laid down four propositions.

One. An enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results to anyone.

Two. The enterprise must conduct the activity with the highest standards of safety, and if any harm results it is absolutely liable to compensate, and it is no answer that it took all reasonable care and that the harm occurred without any negligence on its part.

Three. The liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the rule of strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher.

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Four. The measure of compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because the compensation must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount must be.

The reasoning behind the measure. The Court held that if an enterprise is permitted to carry on a hazardous activity for profit, the law must presume that the permission is conditional on its absorbing the cost of any accident as an item of its overheads, and that such an activity can be tolerated only on condition that the enterprise indemnifies all who suffer, regardless of whether it was carried on carefully or not. It added that the enterprise alone has the resources to discover and guard against the hazards.

Absolute against strict liability

Strict liabilityAbsolute liability
SourceRylands v. Fletcher, Law Report 1 Exchequer 265 (1866)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
To whom it appliesAny occupier who brings a dangerous thing on to landAn enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity
Escape requiredYesNot as a separate requirement; the rule attaches to the activity
Non-natural use requiredYesNo
ExceptionsSixNone
Nature of the dutyTo keep the thing in at one's perilAbsolute and non-delegable
Measure of damagesThe plaintiff's lossRelated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise

How the rule has been used since

Facts. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446, decided on 13 February 1996. Chemical industries at Bichhri, in Udaipur district, produced highly toxic iron-based and gypsum-based sludge which was thrown in the open in and around the village, poisoning the soil and the underground water over a wide area and making the water unfit for drinking and irrigation.

Held. The Court applied the rule of absolute liability laid down in M.C. Mehta and also adopted the polluter pays principle, that the financial cost of preventing or remedying damage caused by pollution must lie with the undertakings that cause the pollution rather than with the Government. It directed the Central Government to determine the amount required for remedial measures, provided that if the industries did not pay it the amount should be recovered from them and used by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, and directed that the polluting units remain closed until they complied.

Why it matters here. It shows the rule working ten years later, and it adds the principle by which the cost of clean-up is allocated.

The statutory sequel

Parliament followed the courts. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 makes the owner of a hazardous substance liable to give relief for death or injury or damage to property resulting from an accident, and provides that the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Chapter [The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991] works out the whole Act, and chapter [The Bhopal Gas Disaster] deals with the disaster that produced both the case law and the statute.

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A worked example

A fertiliser plant in a city releases ammonia; two hundred people are hospitalised.

Is the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher available? It could be: ammonia is a dangerous thing, it escaped, and the storage is a non-natural use. But the plant would then be able to plead an act of a stranger, an act of God, or statutory authority.

Is absolute liability available? Yes, and it is the better claim. A fertiliser plant handling ammonia is an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, so on M.C. Mehta it owes an absolute and non-delegable duty, it cannot plead any of the exceptions, and it cannot say it took all reasonable care.

How much? The compensation is related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so the same accident produces a larger award against a large company than against a small one, which is a deliberate departure from the ordinary compensatory measure.

Is there a statutory route? Yes. Under section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 the immediate relief is available without proving fault, and it is backed by compulsory insurance.

And who pays for cleaning the site? On the polluter pays principle applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446, the industry does.

What it does NOT mean

It is not the rule for every dangerous thing. It applies to an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity.

It does not admit the Rylands v. Fletcher exceptions. The Court removed them expressly.

It is not measured only by the plaintiff's loss. The size of the enterprise enters the calculation.

It is not a criminal sanction. The prosecution of those responsible is separate, as the Bhopal litigation shows.

Quick revision

  1. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, five judges, 20 December 1986, the Oleum gas leak from Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in Delhi.
  2. An enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community.
  3. It is absolutely liable for harm from an accident in that activity, and care taken is no answer.
  4. None of the exceptions to Rylands v. Fletcher is available.
  5. Compensation is related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, to deter.
  6. The Court refused to be bound by English law: India no longer needs the crutches of a foreign legal order.
  7. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446: absolute liability applied, and the polluter pays principle adopted.
  8. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 gives statutory no-fault relief.
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Test yourself

1. State the rule of absolute liability and the reasons the Supreme Court gave for it. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, a Bench of five judges held that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, which poses a potential threat to the health and safety of persons working in the factory and residing in the surrounding areas, owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results; that it must conduct the activity with the highest standards of safety and, if harm results, is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, it being no answer that it took all reasonable care and that the harm occurred without negligence; that the liability is subject to none of the exceptions available under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher; and that the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so as to have a deterrent effect. The reasons were that a rule evolved in the nineteenth century cannot govern a modern industrial economy, that law must grow to meet new situations, that Indian courts need not be constricted by English law, and that an enterprise permitted to carry on a hazardous activity for profit must absorb the cost of accidents as an overhead, since it alone has the resources to discover and guard against the hazards.

2. Distinguish absolute liability from strict liability. Strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher applies to an occupier who brings a dangerous thing on to land in a non-natural use, requires an escape, and is subject to six exceptions: the plaintiff's default, his consent, common benefit, the act of a stranger, an act of God, and statutory authority. Absolute liability applies to an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, does not depend on a non-natural use or on an escape in the same sense, admits none of those exceptions, and imposes a duty described as absolute and non-delegable. The measures differ too: strict liability compensates the plaintiff's loss, while absolute liability requires compensation related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so that the award deters. Absolute liability is an Indian rule made in 1986; strict liability is an English rule of 1866 which India still applies outside the hazardous-industry class.

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3. How has the rule been applied since 1986? Most importantly in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446, where chemical industries at Bichhri had thrown highly toxic sludge in the open, poisoning soil and groundwater over a wide area. The Court applied the absolute liability rule and added the polluter pays principle, holding that the financial cost of preventing or remedying pollution must lie with the undertakings that cause it rather than with the Government. It directed the Central Government to determine the amount needed for remedial measures, ordered that it be recovered from the industries if they did not pay and used by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, and directed that the polluting units stay closed until they complied. Parliament followed the same course by enacting the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, whose section 3 gives relief for an accident while handling a hazardous substance without any proof of wrongful act, neglect or default.

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Chapter Sixty-Three

The Bhopal Gas Disaster

Syllabus topic 3.3, "Principle of Absolute Liability: Bhopal Gas Disaster case and Shree Ram Food Oleum Gas Leakage case and orientation to Public liability Insurance Act, 199."

In one line

The worst industrial accident in history produced a special Act giving the Government the exclusive right to sue, a settlement of 470 million dollars, and a judgment restoring the criminal case that had been quashed.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: after the escape of methyl isocyanate gas from the Union Carbide plant at Bhopal in December 1984, Parliament passed the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985 giving the Union Government the exclusive right to represent the victims; its validity was upheld in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India on the doctrine of parens patriae; the claims were settled in February 1989 for 470 million United States dollars and the pending criminal proceedings were quashed; and in Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India the Supreme Court upheld the settlement but held that the quashing of the criminal proceedings was not justified and restored them.

What happened

In the night of 2 and 3 December 1984, methyl isocyanate gas escaped from the plant of Union Carbide India Limited at Bhopal. Thousands of people died and many more were injured, and the injuries continued to appear for years. The scale of the disaster made ordinary litigation impossible: the victims were poor, disorganised and largely illiterate, and the defendant was a multinational corporation with its parent abroad.

The statute, and the case that upheld it

Parliament passed the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985, which gave the Union Government the exclusive right to represent every victim in every claim arising out of the disaster, in India and abroad, and to compromise those claims.

Facts. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480, decided on 22 December 1989 by five judges. The constitutional validity of the Act was challenged, principally on the ground that it took away the victims' own right to sue and to be heard.

Held. The Act was upheld. The Court applied the doctrine of parens patriae, the obligation of the State to protect and take into custody the rights of citizens who are unable to protect themselves, and held that the victims of the disaster were exactly such a class. It read into the Act a requirement of notice and an opportunity of being heard for the victims where a settlement is proposed, and held that the State was under an obligation to see that the victims were compensated even if the company could not pay.

Why it matters here. It is the Indian authority on parens patriae, and chapter [Who May Sue] uses it for the proposition that somebody other than the injured person may sue on their behalf.

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The settlement, and the case that reviewed it

In February 1989 the Supreme Court recorded a settlement of all civil claims arising out of the disaster for 470 million United States dollars, and quashed the criminal proceedings that were then pending. Review and writ petitions followed, on the grounds that the amount was inadequate, that the victims had not been heard, and that criminal proceedings could not be bargained away.

Facts. Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India, (1991) 4 SCC 584, decided on 3 October 1991 by five judges.

Held. The Court held that under article 142(1) of the Constitution it had jurisdiction to withdraw the suits pending at Bhopal to itself and dispose of them in terms of the settlement, and jurisdiction to withdraw criminal proceedings, but that on the particular facts the quashing of the criminal proceedings was not justified, and it restored them. It held that the settlement was not void for non-compliance with Order XXIII Rule 3B of the Code of Civil Procedure, and that the orders recording the settlement did not confer criminal immunity. It upheld the settlement of 470 million dollars while directing that the Union of India make good any shortfall in meeting the claims of the victims.

Why it matters here. Three propositions come out of it, and each is examinable: a court may use article 142 to do complete justice in a mass disaster; a settlement of civil claims does not buy off the criminal law; and where the State takes over the victims' claims it becomes answerable for their sufficiency.

What the disaster changed in the law

Absolute liability. The rule in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, was laid down two years after Bhopal and in the shadow of it, and chapter [Absolute Liability] works it out.

A statutory no-fault scheme. Parliament enacted the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, whose section 3 gives immediate relief for death, injury or damage from an accident while handling a hazardous substance without any proof of fault, backed by compulsory insurance and by the Environmental Relief Fund under section 7A. Chapter [The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991] works out the whole Act.

The polluter pays principle. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446, applied absolute liability to the poisoning of soil and groundwater at Bichhri and held that the cost of remedying pollution must lie with the undertaking that caused it.

A worked example

Suppose a similar escape happened today at a chemical plant in Maharashtra.

The claim in tort. Absolute liability under M.C. Mehta, with no exceptions available and compensation related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise.

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The Bhopal Gas Disaster

Immediate relief. Section 3 of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, without proving fault, from the owner and his insurer, with the Environmental Relief Fund behind it.

Who sues? The victims may sue, and the Union may take over the claims by legislation, as it did in 1985; on Charan Lal Sahu that is constitutionally permissible under parens patriae, but the victims must be heard before any settlement.

Any settlement. May be recorded by the Court, including under article 142, but on Union Carbide it cannot extinguish the criminal case, and the State must make good a shortfall.

Clean-up. On the polluter pays principle in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action, the industry pays.

What it does NOT mean

The settlement did not end the criminal case. Union Carbide restored it.

The Act of 1985 did not abolish the victims' rights. It transferred the conduct of their claims and, on Charan Lal Sahu, required them to be heard.

Absolute liability was not laid down in the Bhopal case itself. It was laid down in M.C. Mehta, which arose from the Oleum gas leak in Delhi.

Article 142 is not a source of substantive liability. It is a power to do complete justice in a cause before the Court.

Quick revision

  1. The escape of methyl isocyanate gas at Bhopal in December 1984.
  2. The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985 gave the Union the exclusive right to represent the victims.
  3. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480: the Act upheld on the doctrine of parens patriae, with notice and hearing to victims read in, and an obligation on the State to see them compensated.
  4. February 1989: settlement of 470 million United States dollars; criminal proceedings quashed.
  5. Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India, (1991) 4 SCC 584: article 142 jurisdiction affirmed; the settlement upheld; the quashing of the criminal proceedings held unjustified and those proceedings restored; the Union to make good any shortfall.
  6. The disaster produced absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, and the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991.
  7. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446, added the polluter pays principle.

Test yourself

1. Write a note on the Bhopal Gas Disaster case. Methyl isocyanate gas escaped from the Union Carbide plant at Bhopal in the night of 2 and 3 December 1984, killing thousands. Because the victims were poor and disorganised and the defendant was a multinational corporation, Parliament passed the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985, giving the Union Government the exclusive right to represent them in all claims in India and abroad. In Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480, a Bench of five judges upheld the Act on the doctrine of parens patriae, the obligation of the State to protect those unable to protect themselves, while reading into it a requirement that victims be given notice and an opportunity of being heard before any settlement, and holding that the State must see that they are compensated even if the company cannot pay. In February 1989 the Court recorded a settlement of 470 million United States dollars and quashed the pending criminal proceedings, and in Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India, (1991) 4 SCC 584, it upheld the settlement, held that it did not confer criminal immunity, held that the quashing of the criminal proceedings was not justified, restored them, and directed the Union to make good any shortfall.

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2. What is the doctrine of parens patriae and how was it applied at Bhopal? Parens patriae means parent of the country, and it describes the power and duty of the State to take into its care the rights of persons who are unable to protect themselves. In Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480, the Supreme Court used it to uphold the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985, which had taken away the victims' individual right to sue and vested it in the Union. The Court held that victims who were poor, disorganised and facing a multinational corporation were exactly the class the doctrine exists for, so that legislation of that kind was within the State's power. It qualified the conclusion in two ways that matter: victims must be given notice and an opportunity to be heard where a settlement is proposed, and the State, having taken over their claims, is obliged to ensure that they are compensated even if the company is unable to pay.

3. What did the Supreme Court decide about the settlement and the criminal case? In Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India, (1991) 4 SCC 584, the Court held that it had jurisdiction under article 142(1) of the Constitution to withdraw the suits pending in the District Court at Bhopal to itself and to dispose of them in terms of the settlement, and jurisdiction to withdraw criminal proceedings as well. It upheld the settlement of 470 million United States dollars and held that it was not void for non-compliance with Order XXIII Rule 3B of the Code of Civil Procedure, and that the orders recording it did not confer criminal immunity. But it held that on the particular facts the quashing of the criminal proceedings was not justified, and it restored them. It also directed the Union of India to make good any shortfall in meeting the claims of the victims, which follows from the obligation recognised in Charan Lal Sahu.

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Chapter Sixty-Four

The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991

Syllabus topic 3.3, "Principle of Absolute Liability: Bhopal Gas Disaster case and Shree Ram Food Oleum Gas Leakage case and orientation to Public liability Insurance Act, 199."

In one line

The Act makes the owner of a hazardous substance pay immediate relief for an accident without any proof of fault, and compels him to insure so that the money is there.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 provides for public liability insurance for the purpose of giving immediate relief to persons affected by an accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance; section 3 imposes liability on the owner on the principle of no fault, section 4 obliges him to take out insurance before he begins handling the substance, section 7A establishes the Environmental Relief Fund, and the relief is awarded by the Collector under section 7 on an application made under section 6.

Why the Act exists

The Bhopal disaster showed two gaps. A victim who must prove fault gets nothing for years, and a defendant may have no money when judgment is finally given. The Act answers both: liability without fault, and compulsory insurance to back it.

The Act gives immediate relief, not full compensation. Section 8 preserves every other right, and chapter [Absolute Liability] supplies the larger claim.

The Act, section by section

Sections 1 and 2: title, commencement and definitions. The Act came into force on 1 April 1991. Section 2 defines "handling", "hazardous substance", "owner" and the other working words, and expressions defined in the Transfer of Property Act 1882 and the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 carry their meanings from those Acts.

Section 3: liability on the principle of no fault. Where death or injury to any person, other than a workman, or damage to any property has resulted from an accident, the owner is liable to reimburse such amount or provide such other relief as may be prescribed, for death due to a fatal accident, medical expenses for total or partial disability, loss of wages due to partial disability, other injury or sickness, damage to private property, and such other loss as may be prescribed. Sub-section (2) is the heart of the Act: in a claim for relief the claimant is not required to plead and establish that the death, injury or damage was due to any wrongful act, neglect or default of any person. The Explanation adopts the meaning of "workman" from the Workmen's Compensation Act 1923 and provides that "injury" includes permanent total or partial disability or sickness resulting from an accident.

Section 4: duty to insure. Every owner must take out one or more insurance policies before he starts handling any hazardous substance, insuring him against the liability under section 3, and must renew them so that cover continues throughout. Sub-section (2A) requires the policy to be for not less than the paid-up capital of the undertaking, and it may extend to such amount as may be prescribed but not exceeding five hundred crore rupees; for an owner who is not a company, paid-up capital means the market value of all assets and stocks. Sub-section (2C) requires the owner to pay, along with the premium, a further amount not exceeding the premium for credit to the Relief Fund, and sub-section (2D) requires the insurer to remit it, failing which it is recoverable as arrears of land revenue. Sub-section (3) allows the Central Government to exempt the Central Government, a State Government, a Government corporation or a local authority, but only where that owner maintains a fund of its own for meeting the liability.

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Section 5: the Collector verifies and publicises. Whenever it comes to his notice that an accident has occurred within his jurisdiction, the Collector must verify it and give publicity inviting applications.

Section 6: who may apply, and by when. An application may be made by the injured person, by the owner of the damaged property, by all or any of the legal representatives where death has resulted, or by an authorised agent; where all the legal representatives do not join, the application is made for the benefit of all and the rest are impleaded as respondents. Sub-section (1A), inserted in 2023, allows an application for the restoration of public or private property damaged by the handling of a hazardous substance. No application is entertained unless made within five years of the accident.

Section 7: award of relief. On receipt of an application the Collector holds an inquiry, gives the parties an opportunity of being heard, and makes an award determining the relief, which is paid by the owner or out of the Relief Fund.

Section 7A: the Environmental Relief Fund. The Central Government may establish the Fund; there are credited to it the amounts paid by owners with their premiums under section 4(2C), the penalties imposed under the Act, the income from its investments and any other prescribed amounts; the Fund is used to pay relief under awards made by the Collector; and the Central Government may make a scheme for its vesting and administration.

Section 8: relief is in addition to other rights. The right to claim relief under section 3 is in addition to any other right to claim compensation under any other law, and where the owner is liable both under this Act and under another law, the amount paid under this Act is reduced from what is payable under the other.

Sections 9 to 13: powers. Power to call for information, power of entry and inspection, power of search and seizure, power to give directions, and power to apply to a court to restrain an owner from handling a hazardous substance.

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Sections 14, 15, 15A and 15B: penalties, as rewritten in 2024. Section 14 makes a contravention of the insurance obligations in section 4 punishable with a penalty equal to the annual premium, extending to twice that amount, with an additional penalty for each month a contravention continues. Section 15 makes non-compliance with a direction under section 12 punishable with a penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees extending to fifteen lakh rupees, with an additional penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees for each day of continued non-compliance, and applies the same range to a failure to comply with section 9 or an obstruction of the powers under sections 10 and 11. Section 15A provides for the appointment of an adjudicating officer to impose these penalties, and section 15B for an appeal against his order.

Section 16 is omitted. Sections 17, 17A and 17B deal with contravention by a Government department, the crediting of penalty amounts to the Environmental Relief Fund, and the offence of failing to pay a penalty or additional penalty.

Sections 18 to 23: machinery. Cognizance of offences, power to delegate, protection of action taken in good faith, the Advisory Committee, the effect of other laws, and the power to make rules.

A worked example

A tanker of chlorine overturns at a factory gate in Thane and injures thirty people, damages six shops, and kills one passer-by.

Immediate relief. The Collector verifies the accident under section 5 and invites applications. The injured, the shopkeepers and the legal representatives of the deceased apply under section 6 within five years, and the Collector awards relief under section 7 without anybody proving fault, because section 3(2) says so.

Who pays. The owner, and his insurer under the policy he was bound to take out under section 4, with the Environmental Relief Fund under section 7A behind it.

A workman injured in the same accident. He is outside section 3, which excludes a workman, and his remedy lies under the employees' compensation legislation.

Is that all they get? No. Section 8 preserves every other right, so the larger claim in tort under the rule of absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, remains, and what was paid under this Act is deducted from it.

And if the owner never insured? He faces a penalty under section 14, imposed by the adjudicating officer under section 15A, equal to the annual premium and extending to twice that amount, with a monthly additional penalty while the default continues.

What it does NOT mean

It is not full compensation. It is immediate relief, and section 8 preserves the larger claim.

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It does not cover a workman. Section 3 excludes him expressly.

It is not confined to the owner's own money. Compulsory insurance and the Environmental Relief Fund stand behind the liability.

Its penalties are no longer prison sentences. Since 1 April 2024 sections 14 and 15 impose monetary penalties, adjudicated under section 15A with an appeal under section 15B.

Quick revision

  1. Purpose: immediate relief for an accident while handling a hazardous substance.
  2. Section 3: no-fault liability of the owner; the claimant need not plead or establish wrongful act, neglect or default; a workman is excluded.
  3. Section 4: compulsory insurance before handling begins, for not less than the paid-up capital and up to a prescribed amount not exceeding five hundred crore rupees, plus a contribution to the Relief Fund with the premium.
  4. Section 5: the Collector verifies and publicises. Section 6: who may apply, and a five-year limit. Section 7: the Collector's award.
  5. Section 7A: the Environmental Relief Fund, credited with owners' contributions, penalties and investment income.
  6. Section 8: the relief is in addition to other rights, and is deducted from what is payable under another law.
  7. Sections 9 to 13: information, entry, inspection, search, seizure, directions and restraining applications.
  8. Sections 14, 15, 15A and 15B, as rewritten with effect from 1 April 2024: monetary penalties imposed by an adjudicating officer, with an appeal.
  9. Section 16 is omitted; sections 17 to 23 deal with Government departments, the crediting of penalties, offences, cognizance, delegation, good faith, the Advisory Committee, other laws and rules.

Test yourself

1. What is the scheme of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991? The Act gives immediate relief to persons affected by an accident occurring while handling a hazardous substance. Section 3 makes the owner liable on the principle of no fault for death, injury to a person other than a workman, or damage to property, and provides expressly that the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 4 obliges every owner to take out insurance before he begins handling the substance, for not less than the paid-up capital of the undertaking and up to a prescribed limit not exceeding five hundred crore rupees, and to pay a further amount with the premium for the Relief Fund. Section 5 requires the Collector to verify an accident and publicise it, section 6 allows the injured, the property owner or the legal representatives to apply within five years, and section 7 empowers the Collector to award relief. Section 7A establishes the Environmental Relief Fund. Section 8 makes the relief additional to other rights, deducting what is paid under the Act from what is payable elsewhere.

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2. How does this Act differ from a claim in tort for absolute liability? In four ways. The Act gives relief without proof of fault by a summary procedure before the Collector, while the tort claim is decided by a court. The Act gives prescribed amounts of immediate relief, while absolute liability under M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, gives compensation related to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise. The Act is backed by compulsory insurance and by the Environmental Relief Fund, so the money exists, whereas a decree in tort is worth what the defendant is worth. And the Act excludes a workman, who is left to the employees' compensation legislation, while the tort claim has no such exclusion. Section 8 makes clear that the two coexist, the amount paid under the Act being deducted from what is payable under any other law.

3. What happened to the penalty provisions of this Act in 2024? They were rewritten by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act 2023, Act 18 of 2023, with effect from 1 April 2024. What were offences punishable with imprisonment became monetary penalties. Section 14 now makes a contravention of the insurance obligations punishable with a penalty equal to the annual premium and extending to twice that amount, with an additional penalty for each month the contravention continues. Section 15 makes non-compliance with a direction punishable with a penalty of not less than ten thousand rupees extending to fifteen lakh rupees, with a daily additional penalty. A new section 15A provides for an adjudicating officer to impose those penalties and a new section 15B for an appeal against his order, while section 17A directs that penalty amounts be credited to the Environmental Relief Fund and section 17B makes failure to pay a penalty an offence. Any textbook printed before 2024 states this part of the Act wrongly.

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Chapter Sixty-Five

Judicial Remedies: Damages

Syllabus topic 3.4, "Judicial and Extra Judicial Remedies."

In one line

Damages are money awarded to put the injured person, so far as money can, in the position he would have been in if the wrong had not happened.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: damages are the principal judicial remedy in tort, and the governing principle is restitutio in integrum, restoration to the original position so far as money can achieve it; damages are unliquidated, that is, assessed by the court and not fixed in advance; they are classified as nominal, contemptuous, ordinary or compensatory, aggravated and exemplary; and they are divided for pleading into special damages, which must be specifically pleaded and proved, and general damages, which the law presumes.

The governing principle

Restitutio in integrum means restoration to the original position. The court asks what the plaintiff has lost and awards a sum that represents it.

The principle is a ceiling as well as a floor. The plaintiff is not to profit from the wrong, so a claimant whose damaged car is replaced with a new one gives credit for the improvement, and a claimant who has been paid by an insurer does not recover twice.

Special and general damages

Special damages are the items of loss that can be calculated exactly at the date of the suit: medical bills, the cost of repairs, wages actually lost. They must be specifically pleaded and strictly proved.

General damages are the items the law presumes and the court estimates: pain and suffering, loss of amenities, loss of future earnings, injury to reputation. They need not be pleaded item by item.

Do not confuse "special damages" in this sense with the "special damage" a plaintiff must prove in slander and in public nuisance, which means damage particular to him. The same words carry two different meanings, and chapters [Libel and Slander] and [Public Nuisance] use the second.

How a court arrives at a figure

For damage to property, the cost of repair, or the diminution in value where repair is impossible, plus consequential loss such as the cost of hiring a replacement.

For personal injury, the medical expenses actually and prospectively incurred, the loss of earnings to date, the loss of future earning capacity, and general damages for pain, suffering and loss of amenities.

For death, the dependency, that is, what the dependants have lost, plus conventional heads. Chapter [Computing Just Compensation] works out the multiplier method the Motor Vehicles Act cases use.

In statutory claims, the statute may direct the exercise. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires the Claims Tribunal to hold an inquiry and make an award determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just, and section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 lists the reliefs a Consumer Commission may order, including compensation for loss or injury suffered by a consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.

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Two rules that limit the award

Mitigation. A plaintiff must take reasonable steps to reduce his loss, and he cannot recover for loss he could reasonably have avoided. A shopkeeper whose stock is damaged must sell what can be sold.

Remoteness. Damage that is too remote is not recoverable at all, whatever its size, and chapter [Damage, Causation and Remoteness] works out the test.

Compensation from a public authority, and the Indian gloss

Facts. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, decided on 5 November 1993. Allottees complained that statutory development authorities had delayed possession of houses, failed to complete flats and built defectively.

Held. Housing construction by a statutory authority or a private builder is a service, and a complaint was maintainable. A Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression caused by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully on convincing material and not lightly; and where the compensation is paid out of public funds the department must recover it from the officers responsible, apportioned among them. In one appeal the Court directed the authority to fix responsibility within six months and to recover the Rs. 10,000 awarded from the officers' salary.

Why it matters here. It adds a distinctively Indian head of damages, compensation for harassment by a public authority, and a distinctively Indian consequence, that the officer and not the taxpayer ultimately pays.

A worked example

A negligently driven lorry hits Sunita's stall, injures her and destroys her stock.

Special damages. The hospital bills, the value of the stock, the cost of repairing the stall, and the earnings she lost while in hospital, each proved by a document.

General damages. Pain and suffering, loss of amenities, and any reduction in her future earning capacity.

Mitigation. She must sell what stock survived rather than let it rot, and she must accept reasonable medical treatment.

Remoteness. A contract she lost because a customer heard about the accident and doubted her reliability is likely to be too remote.

Which forum. If the lorry is a motor vehicle, the claim goes to a Claims Tribunal under section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 and the Tribunal awards what is just under section 168.

What it does NOT mean

Damages are not a fine. They are measured by the plaintiff's loss, not by the defendant's wickedness, subject to the exceptional heads in chapter [Kinds of Damages].

They are not the same as the sum claimed. The court assesses; the plaint proposes.

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They do not require an exact arithmetic for every head. General damages are estimated.

They are not the only remedy. Injunction, specific restitution and the extra-judicial remedies follow in the next chapters.

Quick revision

  1. Restitutio in integrum: restoration to the original position so far as money can do it, and it is a ceiling as well as a floor.
  2. Damages in tort are unliquidated: assessed by the court.
  3. Special damages are calculated and must be pleaded and proved; general damages are presumed and estimated.
  4. "Special damage" in slander and public nuisance means something different: damage peculiar to the plaintiff.
  5. Mitigation and remoteness both limit the award.
  6. Section 168 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 requires just compensation; section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 lists the reliefs a Commission may order.
  7. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: compensation for harassment and mental agony by a public authority, recoverable from the erring officers.

Test yourself

1. On what principle are damages awarded in tort? On the principle of restitutio in integrum, that the injured person is to be restored, so far as money can do it, to the position he would have occupied had the wrong not been committed. Damages in tort are unliquidated, so the court assesses them rather than applying a figure the parties have fixed. The principle works in both directions: the plaintiff recovers his whole loss, but he is not to profit from the wrong, so he gives credit for betterment and for sums already received in respect of the same loss. Two rules limit the award: he must mitigate, that is, take reasonable steps to reduce his loss, and he cannot recover damage that is too remote.

2. Distinguish special damages from general damages. Special damages are the items of loss capable of exact calculation at the date of the suit, such as medical expenses already incurred, the cost of repairs and wages actually lost; they must be specifically pleaded and strictly proved. General damages are the items the law presumes to flow from the wrong and which the court estimates, such as pain and suffering, loss of amenities, loss of future earning capacity and injury to reputation; they need not be pleaded item by item. The distinction is one of pleading and proof rather than of principle. It must not be confused with the phrase special damage as used in slander and public nuisance, where it means damage peculiar to the plaintiff and different in kind from that suffered by the public.

3. Can compensation be awarded for harassment by a public authority in India? Yes. In Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, the Supreme Court held that the housing activity of a statutory authority is a service, that a consumer forum may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression caused by a public functionary, and that such a finding must be recorded carefully on convincing material and not lightly. It added a consequence that is distinctively Indian: where the compensation is paid out of public funds, the department must recover it from the officers found responsible, apportioned among them, and in one of the appeals it directed the authority to fix that responsibility within six months and to recover the Rs. 10,000 awarded from the officers' salary. The reasoning was that when a court directs the State to pay, the ultimate sufferer is the taxpayer, which is why the burden is placed on those actually at fault.

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Chapter Sixty-Six

Kinds of Damages

Syllabus topic 3.4, "Judicial and Extra Judicial Remedies."

In one line

Damages may be nominal, contemptuous, ordinary, aggravated or exemplary, and only the last is meant to punish.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: nominal damages are a token sum awarded where a legal right has been infringed without loss; contemptuous damages are a derisory sum awarded where the claim, though technically good, ought not to have been brought; ordinary or compensatory damages are measured by the plaintiff's actual loss; aggravated damages are compensatory but increased because the defendant's conduct injured the plaintiff's feelings or dignity; and exemplary or punitive damages exceed the loss and are awarded to punish and deter.

The five kinds

1. Nominal damages. A small sum marking the violation of a right where no real loss followed. They are the natural award in a case of injuria sine damno, and chapter [Injuria Sine Damno] shows why the action lies at all.

2. Contemptuous damages. A derisory sum, often the smallest coin, awarded where the plaintiff has technically established his claim but the court considers the suit unworthy. The message is that the plaintiff won and should not have come. Costs are often refused as well.

3. Ordinary or compensatory damages. The general case: the sum that represents the plaintiff's loss, assessed on the principles in chapter [Judicial Remedies: Damages].

4. Aggravated damages. Still compensatory, but increased because the manner of the wrong added to the injury: insult, humiliation, malice, or a high-handed way of doing it. They compensate injured feelings rather than punish.

5. Exemplary or punitive damages. A sum beyond compensation, awarded to punish the defendant and to deter him and others. They are exceptional, and the classes in which they are given are narrow: oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by servants of the government; conduct calculated by the defendant to make a profit exceeding the compensation payable to the plaintiff; and cases where a statute authorises them.

The Indian departure: the size of the defendant enters the calculation

Facts. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, decided on 20 December 1986 by five judges. Oleum gas escaped from a unit of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a densely populated part of Delhi, and the Court had to fix the measure of liability of an enterprise carrying on a hazardous industry.

Held. Besides laying down absolute liability, the Court held that the measure of compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because the compensation must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable. It reasoned that an enterprise permitted to carry on a hazardous activity for profit must absorb the cost of accidents as an item of its overheads.

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Why it matters here. It is a departure from restitutio in integrum, since the award is no longer measured only by the plaintiff's loss, and it is the Indian answer to the question whether damages may deter.

Compensation for harassment, and where it goes

Facts. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, decided on 5 November 1993. Allottees complained of delay, non-completion and defective construction by statutory development authorities.

Held. A Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully and not lightly, and where it is paid out of public funds the department must recover it from the officers responsible; in one appeal the Rs. 10,000 awarded was directed to be recovered from the officers' salary.

Why it matters here. It is an Indian example of an award that is compensatory in form and deterrent in operation, and it shows the statutory route: section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 empowers a Commission to order compensation, and section 89 provides a penalty for a false or misleading advertisement, which is punitive and payable to the State rather than to the consumer.

The distinctions in one table

KindPurposeAmountTypical case
NominalTo mark a rightTokenTrespass causing no damage; injuria sine damno
ContemptuousTo mark disapproval of the suitDerisoryA technically good claim that should not have been brought
OrdinaryTo compensateThe lossMost cases
AggravatedTo compensate for injured feelingsThe loss, increasedInsulting or high-handed conduct
ExemplaryTo punish and deterBeyond the lossOppressive government action; profit-seeking wrongdoing; statutory authority

A worked example

Four plaintiffs, four awards.

A neighbour walks across a lawn every day and damages nothing. Trespass is actionable per se; the award is nominal.

A man sues a newspaper for calling him "unpunctual", and the court finds the word technically defamatory but the suit trivial. Contemptuous damages, and probably no costs.

A patient loses the use of a hand through negligent surgery. Ordinary damages: medical expenses, lost earnings, and general damages for pain and loss of amenities.

A woman is wrongfully detained by a shop's staff in front of a crowd and accused of theft. Aggravated damages, because the humiliation added to the injury.

Police officers detain a man for four days without producing him before a magistrate, deliberately and mala fide. This is the classic case for exemplary damages against servants of the government, and in India the Supreme Court reached the same result through the constitutional remedy: Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, AIR 1986 SC 494, awarded Rs. 50,000 although he was already free.

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What it does NOT mean

Nominal damages do not mean a weak case. They mean no loss, not no wrong.

Aggravated damages are not punitive. They compensate injured feelings.

Exemplary damages are not available at large. The categories are narrow.

The Indian rule in M.C. Mehta is not a general licence to inflate awards. It applies to an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity.

Quick revision

  1. Five kinds: nominal, contemptuous, ordinary or compensatory, aggravated, and exemplary or punitive.
  2. Nominal: a token marking a right, the award in injuria sine damno.
  3. Contemptuous: derisory, marking disapproval of the suit; costs often refused.
  4. Aggravated: compensatory, increased for insult, humiliation or high-handedness.
  5. Exemplary: beyond compensation, to punish and deter; the categories are oppressive government action, profit-seeking wrongdoing, and statutory authorisation.
  6. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086: compensation from a hazardous enterprise must be correlated to its magnitude and capacity, so as to deter.
  7. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: compensation for harassment by a public authority, recovered from the officers responsible.
  8. Section 39 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 for compensation; section 89 for the penalty for a misleading advertisement.

Test yourself

1. Explain the kinds of damages awarded in tort. Five. Nominal damages are a token sum awarded where a legal right has been infringed but no loss has followed, and they are the natural award in a case of injuria sine damno, such as a trespass that damages nothing. Contemptuous damages are a derisory sum awarded where the plaintiff has technically made out his claim but the court thinks the suit should never have been brought, and costs are often refused as well. Ordinary or compensatory damages represent the plaintiff's actual loss and are the general case. Aggravated damages are compensatory but increased because the manner of the wrong, its insult, malice or high-handedness, added to the plaintiff's injury. Exemplary or punitive damages go beyond compensation and are awarded to punish and deter, in narrow categories: oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by government servants; conduct calculated to yield the defendant a profit exceeding the compensation payable; and cases in which a statute authorises them.

2. Distinguish aggravated damages from exemplary damages. Aggravated damages remain compensatory. They are awarded because the plaintiff suffered more than the bare wrong would ordinarily cause, the additional element being injury to feelings, dignity or pride arising from the way the defendant behaved. Exemplary damages are not compensatory at all: they exceed the plaintiff's loss and are imposed to punish the defendant and to deter him and others, so they resemble a fine paid to the plaintiff. The consequences of the distinction are practical. Aggravated damages may be awarded in any case where the manner of the wrong aggravated the harm; exemplary damages are confined to the recognised categories, and a court will not award them merely because it disapproves of the defendant.

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3. Has Indian law departed from the compensatory measure? Yes, in one important class of case. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, the Supreme Court held that the compensation payable by an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because it must have a deterrent effect, so that the larger and more prosperous the enterprise the greater the sum. That is a departure from restitutio in integrum, since the award is no longer fixed only by the plaintiff's loss. The reasoning was that an enterprise permitted to carry on such an activity for profit must absorb the cost of accidents as an overhead. A second Indian development points the same way: Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, allows compensation for harassment by a public authority and directs that it be recovered from the officers responsible, which is compensatory in form and deterrent in operation.

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Chapter Sixty-Seven

Injunction and Specific Restitution of Property

Syllabus topic 3.4, "Judicial and Extra Judicial Remedies."

In one line

An injunction stops a wrong from continuing or beginning, and specific restitution gives the plaintiff back the very thing he lost.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: besides damages, a plaintiff in tort may obtain an injunction, which is an order restraining the defendant from doing or continuing a wrongful act or, in its mandatory form, compelling him to undo it, and specific restitution of property, which is the recovery of the property itself; injunctions in India are governed by sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 and recovery of property by sections 5 to 8 of the same Act.

Injunctions: the statutory scheme

Section 36 provides that preventive relief is granted at the discretion of the court by injunction, temporary or perpetual.

Section 37 defines the two: a temporary injunction continues until a specified time or until further order of the court, and is regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908; a perpetual injunction can be granted only by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit, and thereby the defendant is perpetually enjoined from asserting a right or committing an act which would be contrary to the plaintiff's rights.

Section 38 governs the perpetual injunction. It may be granted to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in the plaintiff's favour, and, where the obligation arises from contract, the court is guided by the rules in Chapter II. Where the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to, or enjoyment of, property, the court may grant a perpetual injunction where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff, where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused or likely to be caused by the invasion, where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief, and where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings.

Those four situations are the answer to "when will a court grant an injunction rather than damages", and they should be reproduced.

Section 39 governs the mandatory injunction: where to prevent the breach of an obligation it is necessary to compel the performance of certain acts which the court is capable of enforcing, the court may in its discretion grant an injunction to prevent the breach complained of and also to compel performance of the requisite acts.

Section 40 allows damages to be awarded in addition to or in substitution for an injunction, and requires the plaintiff to claim them in his plaint, though the court may allow an amendment.

Section 41 lists the cases in which an injunction cannot be granted, among them: to restrain a person from prosecuting a pending judicial proceeding, except to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings; to restrain proceedings in a court not subordinate to the one from which the injunction is sought; to restrain a person from applying to a legislative body; to restrain proceedings in a criminal matter; to prevent the breach of a contract which could not be specifically enforced; to prevent an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance; to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced; where equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding, except in the case of breach of trust; and where the conduct of the plaintiff or his agents disentitles him to the assistance of the court.

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Section 42 allows an injunction to enforce a negative agreement in certain cases.

Specific restitution of property

Section 5 provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, that is, by an ordinary suit on title.

Section 6 is the summary suit for a person dispossessed without his consent otherwise than in due course of law: he may recover possession notwithstanding any other title set up in the suit, must sue within six months of the dispossession, may not sue the Government, and there is no appeal or review from the decree, though he or the defeated party may afterwards sue on title. Chapter [Remedies for Trespass to Land] works out the difference between sections 5 and 6.

Section 7 allows a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property to recover it in the manner provided by the Code, and its Explanations allow a trustee to sue and treat a special or temporary right to present possession as sufficient.

Section 8 allows a person having possession or control of an article of movable property of which he is not the owner to be compelled to deliver it specifically to the person entitled to its immediate possession, in four cases: where he holds it as the plaintiff's agent or trustee; where compensation in money would not afford adequate relief; where it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage; and where possession has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff. Its Explanation presumes the second and third in the plaintiff's favour until the contrary is proved.

A worked example

A factory next to Ismail's house begins running a generator at night, and its contractor has also built a shed one metre inside Ismail's boundary and taken away his water pump.

A temporary injunction under sections 36 and 37, on an application in the suit, to stop the night running while the case is heard.

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A perpetual injunction under section 38 at the trial: the invasion is of his right to the enjoyment of property, there is no standard for ascertaining the damage caused by lost sleep, and money would not be adequate relief, so two of the four situations in section 38 are satisfied.

A mandatory injunction under section 39 to pull down the shed, since preventing the breach requires the defendant to be compelled to do an act.

Damages under section 40, in addition to the injunction, provided he claims them in the plaint.

The pump is specific movable property. He may sue under section 7 to recover it, and rely on section 8 to compel its specific delivery if money would not be adequate relief or the damage would be difficult to ascertain, the Explanation presuming both in his favour.

And if the factory had dispossessed him of part of his land, section 6 gives a summary suit within six months in which the factory's title is irrelevant.

What it does NOT mean

An injunction is not available as of right. Section 36 makes preventive relief discretionary.

It is not available in every case. Section 41 lists the cases in which it cannot be granted at all.

Damages and an injunction are not alternatives the plaintiff may pick at the end. Section 40 requires damages to be claimed in the plaint, though an amendment may be allowed.

Specific restitution is not automatic for movables. Section 8 sets out the four cases in which delivery of the thing itself may be compelled.

Quick revision

  1. Section 36: preventive relief by injunction, temporary or perpetual, at the court's discretion.
  2. Section 37: a temporary injunction lasts till a time or further order and is regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908; a perpetual injunction is granted by the decree at the hearing on the merits.
  3. Section 38: four situations for a perpetual injunction, including no standard for ascertaining damage, money not adequate relief, and prevention of a multiplicity of proceedings.
  4. Section 39: mandatory injunction, to compel acts necessary to prevent the breach.
  5. Section 40: damages in addition to or in substitution for an injunction, claimed in the plaint.
  6. Section 41: the cases in which an injunction cannot be granted, including acquiescence, criminal proceedings and equally efficacious relief elsewhere.
  7. Sections 5 and 6: recovery of immovable property on title, and the summary suit within six months.
  8. Sections 7 and 8: recovery of movable property, and the four cases in which specific delivery may be compelled, with a presumption in the plaintiff's favour.

Test yourself

1. When will a court grant an injunction instead of damages? Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 names the situations. Where the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to, or enjoyment of, property, a perpetual injunction may be granted where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff; where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused or likely to be caused by the invasion; where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief; and where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings. The remedy is discretionary under section 36, and section 41 lists cases in which it cannot be granted at all, including where the plaintiff has acquiesced in a continuing breach, where equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by another usual mode of proceeding, and where his own conduct disentitles him to the court's assistance. Section 40 allows damages to be awarded in addition to or in substitution for an injunction, if claimed in the plaint.

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2. Distinguish a temporary from a perpetual and a mandatory injunction. Section 37 draws the first distinction: a temporary injunction continues until a specified time or until further order of the court, may be granted at any stage of a suit, and is regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908; a perpetual injunction can be granted only by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits, and it perpetually enjoins the defendant from asserting a right or committing an act contrary to the plaintiff's rights. A mandatory injunction, under section 39, is different in kind rather than in duration: instead of restraining the defendant it compels him to perform acts necessary to prevent the breach, for example to demolish a structure he has built, and it is granted where the court is capable of enforcing the performance of those acts.

3. How does a plaintiff recover the thing itself rather than its value? For immovable property, by a suit under section 5 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, brought on title in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, or, if he was dispossessed without his consent otherwise than in due course of law, by the summary suit under section 6, which must be brought within six months, cannot be brought against the Government, and is decided without regard to title, no appeal or review lying from the decree. For movable property, by a suit under section 7, a trustee being competent to sue and a special or temporary right to present possession being sufficient; and where the defendant has possession or control of an article of which he is not the owner, section 8 allows the court to compel specific delivery in four cases: where he holds it as the plaintiff's agent or trustee, where compensation in money would not be adequate relief, where the actual damage would be extremely difficult to ascertain, and where possession has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff, with a presumption in the plaintiff's favour on the second and third.

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Chapter Sixty-Eight

Extra-Judicial Remedies

Syllabus topic 3.4, "Judicial and Extra Judicial Remedies."

In one line

In some situations the law allows a person to put a wrong right himself, without going to court, provided he uses no more force than is necessary.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the extra-judicial remedies, also called remedies by the act of the party or self-help, are self-defence, expulsion of a trespasser, re-entry on land, recaption of goods, abatement of a nuisance, and distress damage feasant; each is available only within narrow limits, each requires that no more force be used than is reasonably necessary, and a person who exceeds those limits commits a tort himself.

1. Self-defence

A person may use reasonable force to defend his own body, the body of another, and property in his possession against an unlawful attack. Chapter [General Defences II] works out the conditions, and the penal law states the same right in sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023: nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence, and every person has a right, subject to the restrictions in section 37, to defend his own body and the body of any other person against any offence affecting the human body, and property, whether movable or immovable, of himself or of any other person.

The limits. The force must be necessary and proportionate, it must be used while the danger continues, and property may never be defended by force intended to cause death.

2. Expulsion of a trespasser

An occupier may request a trespasser to leave and, after giving him a reasonable opportunity to go, may put him out using no more force than is reasonably necessary.

The limits. The request comes first, except where the entry was violent; the force must be reasonable; and a person who entered lawfully must be given a reasonable time to leave before he is treated as a trespasser at all.

3. Re-entry on land

A person entitled to possession may enter and retake the land, using no more force than is reasonably necessary.

This is the most dangerous of the six, and it must be read with section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, which gives a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law a summary suit to recover possession within six months, in which even a true owner's title is no defence. So a person who takes the law into his own hands may find himself ordered to give the land back and left to sue on his title afterwards. Chapter [Remedies for Trespass to Land] works that out.

4. Recaption of goods

A person entitled to the immediate possession of goods may retake them from a person who has wrongfully taken or detained them.

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The limits. He may take them peaceably wherever they are; he may enter the land of the wrongdoer, after a demand, to recover them; he may not enter the land of an innocent third person except after a demand and refusal; and force must be reasonable.

5. Abatement of a nuisance

The person injured may himself remove the nuisance, for example by cutting overhanging branches or removing an obstruction.

The limits. Notice must ordinarily be given first, particularly where entry on another's land is necessary; only so much may be done as is necessary to end the nuisance; where there is a choice of methods the least mischievous must be taken; and what is cut or removed belongs to its owner and must not be appropriated. A person who abates without notice, or does more than is necessary, is himself a wrongdoer. Chapter [Defences and Remedies in Nuisance] gives the setting.

6. Distress damage feasant

A person on whose land cattle or chattels have strayed and done damage may seize and detain them until compensation is paid.

The limits. The thing must have been actually doing damage; it must be seized on the land where it is doing damage; the detainer may not use or work the thing; and he must return it once compensation is paid or tendered. The remedy has been narrowed a good deal by statutes dealing with cattle trespass.

Why the law keeps these remedies narrow

Self-help is quick and cheap, and it is also how private quarrels become fights. Every condition above exists to keep the peace: the requirement of notice, the requirement that force be reasonable, and above all the summary suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, which makes dispossession by strength unprofitable even for a person with a good title.

A worked example

Priya finds that her tenant has left, that a stranger has moved into the flat, that the stranger's dog is digging up her garden, and that a neighbour's tree now overhangs the balcony. Her car has also been taken by a mechanic who refuses to return it until an inflated bill is paid.

The stranger. Priya may ask him to leave and, after a reasonable opportunity, put him out with reasonable force. If he has been in settled possession, the safer course is a suit, because if she puts him out otherwise than in due course of law he may recover possession under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 without proving any title.

The dog. Distress damage feasant: she may seize and detain it while it is doing damage on her land, and must not work it or ill-treat it, and must return it on compensation being paid.

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The branches. Abatement: she may cut them back to the boundary after notice, doing no more than is necessary, and the cut branches belong to the neighbour.

The car. Recaption: she may retake it peaceably, and may enter the mechanic's premises to do so after a demand; she may not break in, and she may not use force against the person.

And if she is attacked while doing any of this, she may defend herself with reasonable and proportionate force.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a licence to use force at large. Every remedy is limited to what is reasonably necessary.

It does not defeat section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963. A person dispossessed by self-help may recover possession summarily, whatever the other party's title.

Abatement is not a substitute for a suit. It is confined to what is necessary and requires notice.

Distress damage feasant does not give ownership. The thing is detained as security, not acquired.

Quick revision

  1. Six extra-judicial remedies: self-defence, expulsion of a trespasser, re-entry, recaption of goods, abatement of a nuisance, distress damage feasant.
  2. Each requires no more force than is reasonably necessary.
  3. Self-defence: sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 state the same right for the penal law.
  4. Expulsion: request first, then reasonable force.
  5. Re-entry: dangerous, because section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 lets the dispossessed person recover within six months regardless of title.
  6. Recaption: peaceable retaking; entry on the wrongdoer's land after demand; on an innocent person's land only after demand and refusal.
  7. Abatement: notice, necessity, the least mischievous method, and no appropriation of what is removed.
  8. Distress damage feasant: seizure while doing damage, no use of the thing, return on compensation.

Test yourself

1. What are the extra-judicial remedies in tort, and what conditions govern them? Six. Self-defence, the use of reasonable and proportionate force to protect person or property while the danger continues, which the penal law also declares in sections 34 and 35 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023. Expulsion of a trespasser, after a request to leave and a reasonable opportunity to do so, with no more force than is necessary. Re-entry on land by a person entitled to possession, again with reasonable force only. Recaption of goods by a person entitled to their immediate possession, taken peaceably, with entry on the wrongdoer's land permitted after a demand and on an innocent person's land only after demand and refusal. Abatement of a nuisance, ordinarily after notice, doing no more than is necessary, choosing the least mischievous method, and not appropriating what is removed. And distress damage feasant, the seizure of an animal or chattel while it is doing damage on the land, which may not be used and must be returned on compensation being paid. In every case a person who exceeds the limits commits a tort himself.

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2. Why is re-entry on land the most dangerous of these remedies in India? Because section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 makes self-help unprofitable. A person dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law may sue within six months to recover possession, and in that suit no other title may be set up, so that even the true owner loses. There is no appeal or review from the decree, though the defeated party may afterwards sue on his title. The consequence is that an owner who ejects an occupier by force may be ordered to restore possession to the very person he removed, and must then bring the ordinary suit under section 5 that he should have brought in the first place. The policy is to keep the peace by ensuring that disputes about land are settled by courts and not by strength.

3. What conditions attach to the abatement of a nuisance? Four. Notice must ordinarily be given to the person responsible before abatement, particularly where it is necessary to enter his land, since the law prefers that he be given the chance to remove the nuisance himself. Only so much may be done as is necessary to end the nuisance, so a person who cuts an overhanging branch may cut it back to the boundary and no further. Where there is a choice of methods, the least mischievous must be adopted. And what is severed or removed remains the property of its owner and must not be appropriated by the abator. A person who abates without notice, or who does more than is necessary, becomes a wrongdoer himself and may be sued, which is why abatement is a remedy of convenience for small and obvious interferences rather than a substitute for a suit.

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Module IV

Concept of Consumer & Consumer Protection Act 2019

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Chapter Sixty-Nine

Why a Consumer Law, and the Scheme of the Act of 2019

Syllabus topic 4.1, "Consumer: Definition; Defect in goods."

In one line

The Consumer Protection Act 2019 gives a buyer of goods or services a quick and cheap remedy before a Commission, in place of a suit.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the Consumer Protection Act 2019, Act 35 of 2019, was enacted to provide for the protection of the interests of consumers and to establish authorities for the timely and effective administration and settlement of consumer disputes; it replaced the Consumer Protection Act 1986, which section 107 repeals while saving what was done under it; and it added a regulator, the Central Consumer Protection Authority, a chapter on product liability, provisions on e-commerce and unfair contracts, and mediation.

Why the ordinary law was not enough

A buyer with a defective refrigerator has, in theory, a claim in contract against the seller and possibly one in tort against the manufacturer. In practice a suit costs more than the refrigerator, takes years, and requires proof the buyer cannot get. The doctrine of caveat emptor, let the buyer beware, made things worse, because it put the risk of quality on the person least able to judge it.

The consumer law answers with four things: a forum that is quick and cheap, a procedure that is summary, a definition of the wrong that does not require proof of fault in the ordinary sense, and a regulator that can act without waiting for a complaint.

Commencement and repeal

Section 1 provides for the short title, extent, commencement and application. The Act extends to the whole of India, and different dates could be appointed for different provisions and States.

The dates, taken from the Act's own footnotes. Most of the Act, including sections 2 in part, 3 to 9, 28 to 73, 74 to 81, 82 to 87, 90, 91, 95, 98, 100 to 103, 105, 106 and 107, came into force on 20 July 2020, by notification S.O. 2351(E) of 15 July 2020. The provisions relating to the Central Consumer Protection Authority, sections 10 to 27 and the connected clauses, came into force on 24 July 2020, by notification S.O. 2421(E) of 23 July 2020.

Section 107 repeals the Consumer Protection Act 1986 and saves anything done or any action taken under it, and provides that mention of particular matters shall not prejudice the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act 1897 to the repeal.

Section 106 is the ordinary power to remove difficulties within two years.

What the repeal did to pending cases

Facts. Neena Aneja v. Jai Prakash Associates Ltd, decided on 16 March 2021. A complaint had been instituted before the National Commission under the Act of 1986. After the Act of 2019 came into force on 20 July 2020 with higher pecuniary limits, the National Commission directed the pending case to be filed before the forum having jurisdiction under the new Act.

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Held. The appeals were allowed and those orders set aside. Proceedings instituted before the commencement of the Act of 2019 continue before the fora corresponding to those under the Act of 1986 and are not to be transferred in accordance with the new pecuniary limits, and the National Commission was directed to continue hearing the case. The word "entertain" in sections 34, 47 and 58 means to adjudicate upon or to proceed to consider on the merits.

Why it matters here. Every case decided before 20 July 2020, and every case then pending, speaks the language of the 1986 Act, and a student must be able to read both. The old numbering is given alongside the new throughout this module.

The scheme of the Act, chapter by chapter

ChapterSectionsSubjectWhere it is worked out
I1 to 2Preliminary and definitions[Who Is a Consumer], [Goods and Defect], [Service and Deficiency]
II3 to 9Consumer Protection Councils[Consumer Rights and the Consumer Protection Councils]
III10 to 27Central Consumer Protection Authority[The Central Consumer Protection Authority]
IV28 to 73Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions[The District Commission] to [Judicial Review of the Consumer Commissions]
V74 to 81Mediation[Mediation under the Act]
VI82 to 87Product liability[Product Liability]
VII88 to 93Offences and penalties[Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law]
VIII94 to 107Miscellaneous[Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law]

What the Act of 2019 added to the Act of 1986

A regulator. The Central Consumer Protection Authority, which may investigate, order recall, order refund and impose penalties for misleading advertisements, without a complaint from any consumer.

Product liability. A whole chapter making the manufacturer, the service provider and the seller answerable for a defective product.

E-commerce. The definitions cover online transactions expressly, and section 94 empowers the Central Government to take measures to prevent unfair trade practices in e-commerce.

Unfair contracts. A new head allowing a Commission to strike at one-sided contractual terms.

Mediation. A statutory mechanism with consumer mediation cells attached to the Commissions.

Wider jurisdiction rules. A complaint may be filed where the complainant resides or works, and electronic filing is provided for.

A worked example

Meenal buys a washing machine online in 2026. It never works properly, the seller ignores her, and the manufacturer says the model is discontinued.

Under the old law she would sue in a civil court for breach of contract, pay court fee on the value, and wait.

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Under this Act she is a consumer, because she bought goods for consideration and not for resale or a commercial purpose; the fault is a defect; the seller's refusal to repair is a deficiency in service; she may complain to the District Commission where she resides; she may file electronically; the Commission may order replacement, refund and compensation; and the Central Consumer Protection Authority may act against the seller's advertising even if she does nothing.

If her complaint had been filed before 20 July 2020, Neena Aneja would keep it before the forum in which it was instituted.

What it does NOT mean

It does not abolish the suit. A consumer may still sue, and section 100 preserves other remedies, as chapter [Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law] notes.

It does not cover every buyer. A person who buys for resale or for a commercial purpose is outside, subject to the livelihood exception.

It does not require proof of negligence for every claim. Defect and deficiency are defined in terms of the standard required or promised.

The figures in sections 34, 47 and 58 are not the figures in force.

Quick revision

  1. The Consumer Protection Act 2019 is Act 35 of 2019, and it replaced the Act of 1986.
  2. Most provisions came into force on 20 July 2020, and the Central Authority provisions on 24 July 2020.
  3. Section 107 repeals the 1986 Act and saves what was done under it; section 106 is the power to remove difficulties.
  4. Neena Aneja v. Jai Prakash Associates Ltd, 16 March 2021: cases instituted before 20 July 2020 stay in the forum where they were filed.
  5. Eight chapters: definitions, Councils, the Central Authority, the Commissions, mediation, product liability, offences, miscellaneous.
  6. New in 2019: a regulator, product liability, e-commerce, unfair contracts, mediation, and wider jurisdiction.
  7. The pecuniary figures in the Act are not the figures in force.

Test yourself

1. Why was the Consumer Protection Act 2019 enacted, and what did it add to the law? Because the ordinary remedies were useless for small claims: a suit in contract or tort costs more than the goods, takes years and demands proof a buyer cannot obtain, and the rule of caveat emptor placed the risk of quality on the person least able to judge it. The Act of 1986 answered with a cheap, quick and summary forum, and the Act of 2019 replaced it with a wider scheme. It added the Central Consumer Protection Authority, a regulator that may investigate, order recall and refund and penalise misleading advertisements without waiting for a complaint; a chapter on product liability making manufacturers, service providers and sellers answerable; express provision for e-commerce, including the power in section 94 to make measures preventing unfair trade practices online; a head of unfair contracts; statutory mediation; and wider rules of jurisdiction allowing a complaint where the complainant resides or works and permitting electronic filing.

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2. When did the Act come into force, and what happened to cases pending under the old Act? Most of the Act, including the definitions in part and the provisions on Councils, Commissions, mediation, product liability and the miscellaneous chapter, came into force on 20 July 2020 by notification S.O. 2351(E) of 15 July 2020; the provisions establishing the Central Consumer Protection Authority, sections 10 to 27, came into force on 24 July 2020 by notification S.O. 2421(E) of 23 July 2020. Section 107 repealed the Act of 1986 while saving what had been done under it. As to pending cases, Neena Aneja v. Jai Prakash Associates Ltd, decided on 16 March 2021, held that proceedings instituted before 20 July 2020 continue before the fora corresponding to those under the old Act and are not transferred to accord with the new pecuniary limits, and it set aside the National Commission's contrary direction.

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Chapter Seventy

Who Is a Consumer

Syllabus topic 4.1, "Consumer: Definition; Defect in goods."

In one line

A consumer is a person who buys goods or hires services for a consideration, or anybody using them with his approval, but not a person who buys for resale or for a commercial purpose.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: under section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 a consumer is any person who buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods with the approval of the buyer, but does not include a person who obtains the goods for resale or for any commercial purpose; and any person who hires or avails of any service for such a consideration, and any beneficiary of the service availing it with the approval of the person who hired it, but not a person who avails of a service for any commercial purpose.

The definition, taken apart

Two limbs. Goods, in sub-clause (i), and services, in sub-clause (ii). A complainant must fall in one of them.

Consideration is essential. It may be paid, promised, partly paid and partly promised, or under a system of deferred payment. A person who receives goods or services entirely as a gift is not a consumer.

The user and the beneficiary are included. A person who did not buy the goods is a consumer if he uses them with the buyer's approval, and a person who did not hire the service is a consumer if he is a beneficiary of it with the approval of the person who hired it. That is how a member of a family, or a patient whose treatment a relative paid for, gets standing.

Two exclusions. Buying for resale, and buying or availing for a commercial purpose.

The Explanation. Clause (a) provides that commercial purpose does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood, by means of self-employment. Clause (b) provides that "buys any goods" and "hires or avails any services" include offline or online transactions through electronic means, by teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

The commercial purpose exclusion, and the two cases on it

Facts. Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583, decided on 4 April 1995. A small-scale industrial unit bought machinery and complained to a consumer forum. The question was whether a purchase for use in a manufacturing business is a purchase for a commercial purpose, and what the Explanation added in 1993 does.

Held. Whether a purchase is for a commercial purpose depends on the facts of each case. Goods bought and used exclusively for earning a livelihood by self-employment are not bought for a commercial purpose, whatever the size of the machine, and this covers a person who works the machine himself, with or without the help of one or two others. But where goods are bought for a larger commercial venture, run with employed labour and for profit, the buyer is not a consumer. The Explanation is clarificatory and applies to pending matters.

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Facts. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023. Commercial entities insured their premises and stock, suffered losses in riots, and complained when the insurer repudiated their claims. The insurer said that a company insuring a commercial establishment avails the service for a commercial purpose.

Held. The test is whether the service has a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, and the dominant intention or dominant purpose of the transaction must be examined. A contract of insurance is a contract of indemnity: its object is to indemnify against loss from an unknown or contingent event, not to generate profit. The complaint therefore had no close or direct nexus with any profit-generating activity, and the insured, though a commercial concern, was a consumer.

Why they matter here. Together they give the working test. Ask what the goods or services were bought FOR, and whether that purpose has a close and direct nexus with making a profit. A tailor's sewing machine, a taxi driver's car and a company's fire insurance are all within the Act; a factory's production line bought to run with employed labour is not.

Who is NOT a consumer

A person who buys for resale. A trader buying stock.

A person who buys or avails for a commercial purpose, subject to the self-employment exception.

A person who receives goods or services free. Since consideration is essential, though chapter [Medical Services under the Act] shows that free treatment in a hospital which charges others is treated differently.

A person complaining about something that is not goods or a service, for example a purely gratuitous act of a friend.

A worked example

Five complainants at the same District Commission.

Ravi, who bought a scooter for his own use, which does not start. A consumer under sub-clause (i).

Ravi's daughter, who was riding it with his approval when the brakes failed. A consumer as a user with the buyer's approval.

Sunita, who bought ten scooters to hire out to tourists, employing three drivers. Not a consumer: the purchase has a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, and the self-employment exception does not fit because she does not use them herself.

Farid, who bought one scooter to work as a delivery rider himself. A consumer: goods bought and used exclusively for earning his livelihood by self-employment, on Laxmi Engineering Works.

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A company, which insured its godown and was refused a claim after a fire. A consumer, on National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, because a contract of indemnity has no close and direct nexus with profit-generating activity.

What it does NOT mean

It does not require the complainant to be the buyer. A user or a beneficiary with approval is included.

It does not exclude every business. The test is the purpose and its nexus with profit generation.

It does not exclude online purchases. The Explanation covers electronic transactions, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing expressly.

It does not require full payment. A promise, part payment or deferred payment is enough.

Quick revision

  1. Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019; section 2(1)(d) of the Act of 1986 in older cases.
  2. Two limbs: buying goods, and hiring or availing services, in both cases for a consideration.
  3. A user of the goods, and a beneficiary of the service, with approval, are included.
  4. Excluded: resale, and any commercial purpose.
  5. Explanation (a): goods bought and used exclusively for earning a livelihood by self-employment are not for a commercial purpose.
  6. Explanation (b): online, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing transactions are covered.
  7. Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583: the question is one of fact; the self-employment exception is generous but does not cover a venture run with employed labour for profit.
  8. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, 13 April 2023: the test is a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, and an insurance contract of indemnity has none.

Test yourself

1. Who is a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act 2019? Section 2(7) defines a consumer in two limbs. The first covers any person who buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of those goods, other than the buyer, when the use is made with the buyer's approval; it excludes a person who obtains the goods for resale or for any commercial purpose. The second covers any person who hires or avails of any service for such a consideration, and includes any beneficiary of the service other than the person who hired it, when it is availed with his approval; it excludes a person who avails of the service for any commercial purpose. The Explanation provides that commercial purpose does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for earning his livelihood by self-employment, and that buying goods and availing services include transactions made online, by teleshopping, by direct selling and by multi-level marketing.

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2. Explain the commercial purpose exclusion with decided cases. The exclusion keeps traders and businesses out of a forum designed for ordinary buyers, and it is qualified by the self-employment exception. In Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583, the Supreme Court held that whether a purchase is for a commercial purpose is a question of fact in each case; that goods bought and used exclusively for earning a livelihood by self-employment are outside the exclusion whatever the size of the machine, including where the buyer works it himself with the help of one or two others; but that a purchase for a larger venture run with employed labour and for profit is excluded, and that the Explanation is clarificatory and applies to pending cases. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023, the Court held that the test is whether the service has a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, judged by the dominant purpose of the transaction, and that a contract of insurance, being a contract of indemnity against loss rather than a means of profit, has no such nexus, so a commercial concern insuring its property is a consumer.

3. Is a person who did not pay for the goods ever a consumer? Yes, in two situations, both expressly provided for. A user of goods other than the buyer is a consumer where the use is made with the approval of the person who bought them, so a family member injured by a defective appliance may complain although the head of the household paid for it. A beneficiary of a service other than the person who hired it is a consumer where the service is availed with the approval of the person who hired it, so a patient whose treatment a relative paid for may complain in his own right, which is the point that makes Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia, AIR 1998 SC 1801, work. What is not enough is a purely gratuitous supply, because consideration paid, promised, partly promised or deferred is an essential of the definition.

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Chapter Seventy-One

Goods and Defect

Syllabus topic 4.1, "Consumer: Definition; Defect in goods."

In one line

A defect is a fault, imperfection or shortcoming in the quality of goods measured against what the law, a contract or the trader's own claim required.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(10) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 defines a defect as any fault, imperfection or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or under any contract express or implied, or as is claimed by the trader in any manner whatsoever in relation to any goods or product; the word "defective" is construed accordingly.

The three standards a defect is measured against

Read the definition slowly, because it contains three separate yardsticks and a problem question usually turns on which one applies.

1. What the law requires. A standard fixed by or under any law in force, for example a quality standard prescribed for a food product or a safety standard for a helmet.

2. What the contract requires. Express terms, and implied terms.

3. What the trader claimed. "As is claimed by the trader in any manner whatsoever" is the widest limb: an advertisement, a brochure, a label, a sales representation. A trader who claims more than the law requires is held to his claim.

The definition is about the goods, not about the seller's conduct. A defect exists or it does not, whether or not anybody was careless.

Goods, product, and the related definitions

Goods, in section 2(21), means every kind of movable property and includes food as defined in the food safety law.

Product, in section 2(33), means any article, goods, substance or raw material, or any extended cycle of it, which may be in gaseous, liquid or solid state, possessing intrinsic value, capable of delivery either as wholly assembled or as a component, and produced for introduction to trade or commerce; it excludes human tissues, blood, blood products and organs.

Spurious goods, in section 2(43), means goods which are falsely claimed to be genuine.

Product liability and its associated definitions carry the further scheme in Chapter VI, which chapter [Product Liability] works out.

How a defect is proved: sections 38 and 39

This is the part students omit, and it is the part that answers "what will the Commission actually do".

Section 38 governs the procedure on admission of a complaint. Where a complaint relates to goods, the Commission refers a sample of the goods to an appropriate laboratory for testing where it is necessary to determine whether they suffer from any defect; the complainant deposits the fees for the analysis; the report is sent to the parties, who may object to it; and the Commission decides the complaint after hearing the parties on the report. Where the defect can be determined without analysis, or the complaint relates to services, the Commission proceeds on the evidence brought by the parties.

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Section 39 lists what a Commission may order where it is satisfied that the goods suffer from any defect, or that the services suffer from any deficiency. The reliefs include: to remove the defect; to replace the goods with new goods of similar description free from defect; to return the price or the charges paid, with such interest as may be decided; to pay compensation for loss or injury suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party, the Commission having power under the proviso to grant punitive damages in such circumstances as it deems fit; to pay compensation in a product liability action under Chapter VI; to remove deficiencies in services; to discontinue an unfair or restrictive trade practice and not to repeat it; not to offer hazardous goods for sale; to withdraw hazardous goods from sale; to cease manufacture of hazardous goods; to pay a sum to a fund where the loss is suffered by a large number of consumers who are not identifiable conveniently; to issue corrective advertisement; to provide for adequate costs to parties.

The list is worth learning, because a question that asks "what relief may a consumer get" is answered from it and from nowhere else.

A worked example

Anil buys a pressure cooker whose label says it is made of stainless steel and carries a five-year guarantee. Within a month the base warps and it leaks.

Is it a defect? Yes, on all three limbs if the facts support them: the warping is a shortcoming in quality against the standard the contract implied, against the guarantee, and against what the label claimed.

How is it proved? The Commission may refer a sample to an appropriate laboratory under section 38 to determine the composition of the metal, Anil depositing the fee; the report goes to both sides, who may object; and the Commission then decides after hearing them.

What may the Commission order? Under section 39 it may direct the removal of the defect, replacement with a new cooker free from defect, or return of the price; compensation for any loss or injury caused by negligence, including the burn Anil suffered when it leaked; punitive damages if the circumstances warrant; a corrective advertisement if the label misled buyers generally; the withdrawal of the model from sale if it is hazardous; and costs.

And if the cooker were sold as a well-known brand and was not? That is spurious goods under section 2(43), and chapter [Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law] carries the penal consequences.

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What it does NOT mean

A defect is not the same as a deficiency. Defect is about goods; deficiency is about services, and chapter [Service and Deficiency] takes it.

It does not require proof of negligence. The definition compares the goods with a standard.

It is not limited to what the law prescribes. What the trader claimed is a yardstick in itself.

Testing is not always required. Section 38 provides for it only where it is necessary to determine the defect.

Quick revision

  1. Section 2(10): a defect is any fault, imperfection or shortcoming in quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard required by law, by contract, or as claimed by the trader.
  2. Three yardsticks: the law, the contract, the trader's own claim.
  3. Section 2(21) defines goods, section 2(33) product, and section 2(43) spurious goods.
  4. Section 38: the Commission may refer a sample to an appropriate laboratory; the complainant deposits the fee; the report goes to the parties, who may object; the Commission decides after hearing them.
  5. Section 39: the reliefs, including removal of the defect, replacement, refund with interest, compensation for loss or injury due to negligence, punitive damages under the proviso, compensation in a product liability action, removal of deficiencies in services, discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice, withdrawal or cessation of hazardous goods and services, a payment to a fund where the consumers are not conveniently identifiable, corrective advertisement and costs.
  6. A defect does not require proof of negligence.

Test yourself

1. Define defect and explain how it is determined. Section 2(10) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 defines a defect as any fault, imperfection or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or under any contract express or implied, or as is claimed by the trader in any manner whatsoever in relation to any goods or product. There are therefore three yardsticks, and a complaint may rely on any of them: the standard the law prescribes, the standard the contract requires, and the standard the trader himself claimed in an advertisement, a label or a representation. The comparison is between the goods and the standard, so no negligence need be proved. Section 38 provides the machinery: where it is necessary to determine whether goods suffer from a defect, the Commission refers a sample to an appropriate laboratory, the complainant deposits the fee, the report is sent to the parties who may object to it, and the Commission decides after hearing them; where analysis is unnecessary the Commission proceeds on the evidence.

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2. What reliefs may a Commission grant where goods are found defective? Section 39 sets them out. It may direct the removal of the defect; the replacement of the goods with new goods of similar description free from defect; the return to the complainant of the price or the charges paid; the payment of compensation for loss or injury suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party; the payment of punitive damages in such circumstances as the Commission deems fit; the discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice and an undertaking not to repeat it; that hazardous goods not be offered for sale, be withdrawn from sale, or that their manufacture cease; the payment of a sum to a fund where the loss is suffered by a large number of consumers who cannot conveniently be identified; the issue of a corrective advertisement to neutralise a misleading one; and the payment of adequate costs. The width of the list is what makes the consumer forum more useful to a buyer than a civil court.

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Chapter Seventy-Two

Service and Deficiency

Syllabus topic 4.2, "Services: Types of services, Deficiency-meaning, Denial of Services, Commercial & Professional Services, Medical Services."

In one line

Service is anything made available to potential users for a consideration, and deficiency is any shortcoming in the way it is performed.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(42) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 defines service as service of any description which is made available to potential users, including but not limited to the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but not including the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service; and section 2(11) defines deficiency as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law or has been undertaken to be performed in pursuance of a contract or otherwise, and includes any act of negligence or omission or commission which causes loss or injury to the consumer, and the deliberate withholding of relevant information from the consumer.

The definition of service, taken apart

"Of any description". The list of banking, financing, insurance, transport and the rest is illustrative and the words "but not limited to" say so. Anything made available to potential users is capable of being a service.

"Made available to potential users". The service must be offered to the public or a section of it, not performed as a private favour.

Two exclusions. A service rendered free of charge, and a service rendered under a contract of personal service.

The second exclusion is narrow, and the case that explains it is the leading case on medical services.

What "deficiency" adds

Section 2(11) is wider than a bare failure to perform. Besides any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance, it includes two things expressly:

any act of negligence or omission or commission by the service provider which causes loss or injury to the consumer; and

the deliberate withholding of relevant information from the consumer.

The second is new with the Act of 2019 and it matters: a provider who conceals a material fact commits a deficiency even if the service he performed was otherwise faultless.

The two cases that fix the reach of "service"

Facts. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, decided on 5 November 1993. Allottees complained to the consumer forums that statutory development authorities had delayed possession of houses, failed to complete flats within the stipulated time, and built defectively. The authorities argued that a statutory body performing a statutory function was not amenable to the Act, and that housing became a service only when the Act was amended in 1993.

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Held. Housing construction by a statutory authority or a private builder is a service, and a complaint for delay or defective construction was maintainable even before the amendment. A Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression by a public functionary, on a finding recorded carefully on convincing material and not lightly, and where the compensation is paid out of public funds the department must recover it from the officers responsible; the Court directed one authority to fix responsibility within six months and to recover Rs. 10,000 from the officers' salary.

Why it matters here. It brings statutory authorities inside the Act, which is the single most useful extension for an ordinary complainant, and it adds harassment as a head of compensation.

Facts. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, decided on 13 November 1995 by three judges. The question was whether medical treatment is a service, the profession arguing that it was governed by its own disciplinary law.

Held. Service rendered to a patient by a medical practitioner, by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment, is a service, except where the doctor renders service free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service. A contract of personal service requires a master and servant relationship and is different from a contract for personal services, which is not excluded, so an ordinary doctor and patient relationship is inside the Act while a medical officer treating his own employer is outside it. Service rendered free of charge to everybody, in a private or a government hospital, is outside the Act, and a token registration fee does not change that; but where a hospital charges those who can pay and treats the poor free, even the free service is service and its recipient is a consumer.

Why it matters here. It settles the meaning of both exclusions in section 2(42), and chapter [Medical Services under the Act] takes the medical consequences.

A worked example

Five complaints, and whether each is about a service.

A bank refuses to release a fixed deposit on maturity. Banking is named in section 2(42); the refusal is a deficiency.

A development authority delivers a flat four years late. A service, on Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, and the delay is a deficiency; compensation for harassment may be added.

A doctor in private practice misdiagnoses a fever. A service, on Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha; whether there is a deficiency depends on the standard in chapter [Medical Negligence].

A charitable hospital that treats everybody free misdiagnoses a fever. Not a service, because it is rendered free of charge to everybody, and a token registration fee does not alter that.

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A friend drives Meena to the airport as a favour and takes the wrong road. Not a service: no consideration and nothing made available to potential users.

What it does NOT mean

It is not limited to the listed sectors. The list is illustrative.

It does not require a written contract. Deficiency covers what was undertaken "in pursuance of a contract or otherwise".

Free service is not always outside. Where a hospital charges some and treats others free, the free treatment is still a service.

Deficiency is not confined to bad performance. Negligence causing loss, and the deliberate withholding of relevant information, are included expressly.

Quick revision

  1. Section 2(42): service of any description made available to potential users, illustrated by banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, energy, telecom, boarding or lodging, housing construction, entertainment, amusement and the purveying of news.
  2. Two exclusions: free of charge, and under a contract of personal service.
  3. Section 2(11): deficiency is any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in quality, nature and manner of performance, and includes negligence causing loss or injury and the deliberate withholding of relevant information.
  4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: housing construction by a statutory authority is a service; compensation for harassment; recovery from the erring officers.
  5. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550: medical treatment is a service; a contract of personal service needs a master and servant relationship; wholly free treatment is outside, but free treatment in a hospital that charges others is inside.

Test yourself

1. Define service and deficiency under the Consumer Protection Act 2019. Section 2(42) defines service as service of any description which is made available to potential users, including but not limited to the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but excluding the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service. Section 2(11) defines deficiency as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and it includes any act of negligence or omission or commission which causes loss or injury to the consumer, and the deliberate withholding of relevant information from him.

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2. Are statutory authorities and doctors within the Act? Both are. In Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, the Supreme Court held that housing construction by a statutory development authority or a private builder is a service, so that complaints of delay, non-completion and defective construction are maintainable, and that a Commission may award compensation for harassment, mental agony and oppression by a public functionary, to be recovered from the officers responsible where it is paid out of public funds. In Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, the Court held that consultation, diagnosis and treatment by a medical practitioner is a service, that disciplinary control by the Medical Council does not exclude the Act, and that the exclusion for a contract of personal service applies only where there is a master and servant relationship, so a medical officer treating his employer is outside the Act while an ordinary doctor and patient relationship is within it.

3. Is a service rendered free of charge ever within the Act? As a rule, no: section 2(42) excludes the rendering of any service free of charge, so a hospital or a practitioner that treats everybody without payment is outside the Act, and the payment of a token amount for registration only does not alter that position. But Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, drew an important distinction. Where an institution charges those who can pay and treats those who cannot free of charge, the service rendered free is still service within the Act and its recipient is a consumer, because the institution's activity as a whole is carried on for consideration. The same reasoning applies to a government hospital which charges some patients while treating others free.

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Chapter Seventy-Three

Types of Services and Denial of Service

Syllabus topic 4.2, "Services: Types of services, Deficiency-meaning, Denial of Services, Commercial & Professional Services, Medical Services."

In one line

The Act names eleven kinds of service by way of illustration, and a refusal to give a service at all is as much a deficiency as giving it badly.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(42) illustrates service by naming banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement and the purveying of news or other information, and the words "but not limited to" make the list illustrative rather than exhaustive; a denial of service, that is, a refusal or failure to provide a service that has been paid for or undertaken, is a deficiency within section 2(11), because deficiency covers any inadequacy in the manner of performance and includes an act of omission causing loss or injury.

The types, one by one

Banking. Dishonour of a cheque wrongly, failure to release a deposit on maturity, unauthorised debits, failure to act on a stop payment instruction.

Financing. Refusal to release a sanctioned loan, wrongful repossession of a financed vehicle, charging more than the agreed rate.

Insurance. Repudiation of a claim without justification, delay in settlement, mis-selling of a policy. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023, is the case that keeps even a commercial insured inside the Act, because a contract of indemnity has no close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity.

Transport. Failure to carry, loss of luggage, cancellation without refund, injury caused by a carrier's negligence.

Processing. Spoiling material given for processing, delay, or returning it in a worse condition.

Supply of electrical or other energy. Wrongful disconnection, defective metering, excessive billing, long unexplained outages.

Telecom. Wrongful disconnection, billing for services not provided, failure to port a number.

Boarding or lodging. Unsafe premises, refusal of a confirmed booking, unsanitary conditions. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201, though a suit and not a consumer complaint, is the case on the standard a five star hotel must meet.

Housing construction. Delay in possession, defective construction, failure to give title. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, is the leading case, and it brings statutory development authorities inside the Act.

Entertainment and amusement. Cancellation of a booked event, unsafe rides, refusal of a ticket already sold.

Purveying of news or other information. Failure to deliver a subscribed publication, though the content itself is governed by other law.

And because the list is illustrative, education, legal services, courier services, medical services and every other paid service have been dealt with under it; chapter [Medical Services under the Act] takes medical services and chapter [Commercial and Professional Services] takes the professions.

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Denial of service

MU names this separately, and the point is simple but worth making cleanly.

A deficiency is not confined to poor performance. Section 2(11) covers any inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance and expressly includes an act of omission causing loss or injury, and the deliberate withholding of relevant information.

So a refusal is a deficiency. A bank that refuses to pay a matured deposit, an insurer that refuses to consider a claim, a builder that refuses possession after taking the price, and an electricity supplier that refuses a connection to a person entitled to it have each denied a service they undertook to provide.

What must still be shown. That the complainant is a consumer, that the service was one the opposite party had undertaken to provide, and that the refusal was without justification. A refusal that the contract or the law permits is not a deficiency.

A worked example

Sneha buys a flat from a builder, insures her household goods, and takes an electricity connection.

The builder takes the full price and gives possession four years late. Housing construction is a service, delay is a deficiency, and Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta allows compensation for the harassment as well as for the delay.

The insurer refuses her claim for a burglary, saying the policy did not cover it, and it did. Insurance is a service, and repudiation without justification is a deficiency; the fact that she is not a trader is irrelevant, and even if she were, Harsolia Motors holds that an indemnity contract has no nexus with profit generation.

The electricity company disconnects her supply for arrears that belong to the previous occupant. Supply of energy is a service, and wrongful disconnection is both a deficiency and a denial of service.

The builder refuses to hand over the completion certificate. That is the deliberate withholding of relevant information as well as an omission, and it falls within the second limb of section 2(11).

Sneha's neighbour, who bought his flat to let it out to a company as an office, may face the commercial purpose objection, and chapter [Commercial and Professional Services] explains how it is answered.

What it does NOT mean

The list in section 2(42) is not exhaustive. The words are "but not limited to".

Denial of service is not a separate cause of action. It is a deficiency, and the complaint is framed as one.

A justified refusal is not a deficiency. A bank that refuses to honour a cheque for want of funds is doing its duty.

Free services are still outside. The exclusions in section 2(42) apply whatever the sector.

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Quick revision

  1. Section 2(42) names banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, energy, telecom, boarding or lodging, housing construction, entertainment, amusement and the purveying of news; the list is illustrative.
  2. A deficiency under section 2(11) includes an omission causing loss or injury and the deliberate withholding of relevant information.
  3. A denial of service, that is, a refusal to provide what was undertaken, is a deficiency.
  4. A justified refusal is not.
  5. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787: housing construction, including by a statutory authority.
  6. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, 13 April 2023: insurance, and the nexus test for commercial complainants.
  7. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels Ltd, AIR 1997 Del 201: the standard of care expected of a five star hotel.

Test yourself

1. What types of service are covered by the Consumer Protection Act 2019? Section 2(42) defines service as service of any description made available to potential users and illustrates it by naming the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement and the purveying of news or other information. The words "but not limited to" make the list illustrative, so education, courier services, legal services, medical treatment and any other service made available for consideration fall within it. Two exclusions apply throughout: a service rendered free of charge and one rendered under a contract of personal service. Housing construction by a statutory authority is within the Act on Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta, AIR 1994 SC 787, and insurance taken by a commercial concern is within it on National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023.

2. Is a refusal to provide a service a deficiency? Yes, where the refusal is unjustified. Section 2(11) defines deficiency as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required by law or has been undertaken in pursuance of a contract or otherwise, and it expressly includes any act of negligence or omission or commission causing loss or injury to the consumer and the deliberate withholding of relevant information. A refusal is an omission in the manner of performance, so a bank that will not pay a matured deposit, an insurer that will not consider a claim, a builder that will not give possession after receiving the price, and a supplier that disconnects a connection wrongly have all committed a deficiency. What the complainant must still show is that he is a consumer, that the opposite party had undertaken to provide the service, and that the refusal was without justification, since a refusal permitted by the contract or by law is not a deficiency at all.

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Chapter Seventy-Four

Commercial and Professional Services

Syllabus topic 4.2, "Services: Types of services, Deficiency-meaning, Denial of Services, Commercial & Professional Services, Medical Services."

In one line

A business may be a consumer if the service it bought has no close nexus with making a profit, and a professional is a service provider like any other.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a person who avails of a service for a commercial purpose is not a consumer under section 2(7), and the test is whether the service has a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, judged by the dominant purpose of the transaction; a professional, on the other hand, is not excluded merely because he belongs to a profession subject to its own disciplinary control, so services rendered by doctors, and by other professionals for consideration, fall within section 2(42) unless they are rendered free of charge or under a contract of personal service.

The commercial question: is the complainant a consumer?

The exclusion. Section 2(7) excludes a person who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purpose, and a person who avails of a service for any commercial purpose.

The exception. The Explanation provides that commercial purpose does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment.

The test.

Facts. Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583, decided on 4 April 1995. A small-scale industrial unit bought machinery and complained to a consumer forum.

Held. Whether a purchase is for a commercial purpose is a question of fact in each case. Goods bought and used exclusively for earning a livelihood by self-employment are not for a commercial purpose whatever the size of the machine, and this covers a person who works it himself with or without the help of one or two others; but a purchase for a larger venture run with employed labour and for profit is excluded. The Explanation is clarificatory and applies to pending matters.

Facts. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023. Commercial entities insured their premises and stock, suffered losses in riots, and complained when the insurer repudiated their claims.

Held. The test is whether the service has a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, and the dominant intention or dominant purpose of the transaction must be examined. A contract of insurance is a contract of indemnity whose object is to make good a loss from an unknown or contingent event, not to generate profit, so the complaint had no such nexus and the commercial insured was a consumer.

How to use the two together. Ask what the service was taken for, and whether that purpose is closely and directly tied to earning profit. Buying a machine to run a factory with employees is; insuring the factory against fire is not; buying a machine to work oneself is not.

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The professional question: is the service provider inside the Act?

The rule. A professional is inside. Nothing in the definition of service excludes a person because he belongs to a profession, and the exclusions are only for free service and for a contract of personal service.

Facts. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, decided on 13 November 1995 by three judges. The medical profession argued that it was governed by the Indian Medical Council Act and its own disciplinary bodies, so its services should be outside the consumer law.

Held. The fact that medical practitioners belong to a profession and are subject to the disciplinary control of the Medical Council of India or a State Medical Council does not exclude the services rendered by them from the ambit of the Act. Consultation, diagnosis and treatment are service, except where rendered free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service; and a contract of personal service, being one of master and servant, is different from a contract for personal services, which is not excluded.

Why it matters here. The reasoning applies beyond medicine: a professional's disciplinary code answers to the profession, and the consumer law answers to the client, and the two operate side by side.

The standard applied to a professional

Being inside the Act does not mean being judged harshly. Chapter [Medical Negligence] sets out the standard: a professional is judged by the ordinary competent member of his branch, an error of judgment is not negligence, and a practitioner who follows a practice acceptable to his profession is not liable merely because a better course existed. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, and Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480, are the authorities.

A worked example

Four complainants before a Commission.

A tailor whose new sewing machine fails. He bought it to work himself, so the self-employment exception applies and he is a consumer on Laxmi Engineering Works.

A garment factory with fifty employees whose industrial machine fails. The purchase has a close and direct nexus with profit generation; the factory is not a consumer, and its remedy is a suit.

The same factory, whose fire insurance claim is repudiated. It is a consumer on Harsolia Motors, because an indemnity contract has no such nexus.

A client who says his chartered accountant filed a return late and he was penalised. The accountant is a service provider like any other, on the reasoning of Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha; whether there is a deficiency is judged by the standard of an ordinarily competent member of that profession.

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What it does NOT mean

It does not mean every business is outside the Act. The nexus test decides.

It does not mean a professional is outside the Act. Disciplinary control by a professional body is not an exclusion.

It does not lower the standard for a professional. It is the standard of an ordinarily competent member of the profession.

It does not make the self-employment exception unlimited. A venture run with employed labour for profit is outside it.

Quick revision

  1. Two different questions: is the complainant excluded as commercial, and is the provider excluded as professional?
  2. Section 2(7) excludes resale and commercial purpose; the Explanation saves goods bought and used exclusively to earn a livelihood by self-employment.
  3. Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583: a question of fact; self-employment is generous; a venture with employed labour is excluded.
  4. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, 13 April 2023: the test is a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, judged by the dominant purpose; insurance is indemnity, not profit.
  5. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550: a profession's own disciplinary control does not exclude its services from the Act.
  6. The standard applied to a professional remains that of an ordinarily competent member of the profession.

Test yourself

1. When is a business a consumer under the Act? When the goods or services it obtained were not obtained for a commercial purpose, and the test is whether they have a close and direct nexus with a profit-generating activity, judged by the dominant intention or dominant purpose of the transaction. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Harsolia Motors, decided on 13 April 2023, applied that test to hold that commercial entities insuring their premises and stock were consumers, because a contract of insurance is a contract of indemnity intended to make good a loss and not to generate profit. Laxmi Engineering Works v. P.S.G. Industrial Institute, (1995) 3 SCC 583, adds the other half: whether a purchase is for a commercial purpose is a question of fact, goods bought and used exclusively to earn a livelihood by self-employment are outside the exclusion however large the machine, but a purchase for a venture run with employed labour and for profit is inside it.

2. Are professional services covered by the Act? Yes. Nothing in section 2(42) excludes a service because the person rendering it belongs to a profession; the only exclusions are for a service rendered free of charge and for one rendered under a contract of personal service. In Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, the Supreme Court rejected the argument that medical practitioners were outside the Act because they are subject to the disciplinary control of the Medical Council, holding that consultation, diagnosis and treatment are service, and that a contract of personal service, which requires a relationship of master and servant, is different from a contract for personal services, which is not excluded. The reasoning applies to other professionals as well. Being within the Act does not alter the standard by which a professional is judged, which remains that of an ordinarily competent member of his branch, as Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, holds.

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Chapter Seventy-Five

Medical Services under the Act

Syllabus topic 4.2, "Services: Types of services, Deficiency-meaning, Denial of Services, Commercial & Professional Services, Medical Services."

In one line

Medical treatment for a charge is a service, so a patient may complain to a Consumer Commission instead of suing, unless the treatment was free to everybody or given to an employer.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: in Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha the Supreme Court held that service rendered to a patient by a medical practitioner by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment, medicinal and surgical, falls within the definition of service, except where the doctor renders service free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service; disciplinary control by a Medical Council does not exclude the Act; and where a hospital charges those who can pay and treats the poor free, even the free service is service and its recipient is a consumer.

The leading case, conclusion by conclusion

Facts. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, decided on 13 November 1995 by three judges. The question was whether, and in what circumstances, a medical practitioner, a private hospital or a nursing home renders a service within the consumer law.

Held. The Court's conclusions, in substance:

1. Service rendered to a patient by a medical practitioner, by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment, both medicinal and surgical, is service, except where the doctor renders service free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service.

2. That medical practitioners belong to a profession and are subject to the disciplinary control of the Medical Council of India or a State Medical Council does not exclude their services from the Act.

3. A contract of personal service must be distinguished from a contract for personal services. In the absence of a master and servant relationship between patient and practitioner, the service is under a contract for personal services and is not within the exclusion.

4. The expression "contract of personal service" is not confined to domestic servants; it includes the employment of a medical officer to render medical service to his employer, and such service is outside the Act.

5. Service rendered free of charge by a practitioner attached to a hospital or nursing home, or by a medical officer employed there, where services are rendered free of charge to everybody, is not service; a token registration fee does not alter that.

6. The same is true of a non-Government hospital or nursing home where no charge whatsoever is made from any person and all patients, rich and poor, are treated free.

7. Service at a non-Government hospital or nursing home where charges are payable is service.

8. Service at a non-Government hospital where those who can pay are charged and those who cannot are treated free is service for both classes: the free service is also service and its recipient is a consumer.

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9. Service at a Government hospital, health centre or dispensary where no charge whatsoever is made from anybody and all are treated free is not service, a token registration fee making no difference.

10. Service at a Government hospital where charges are made from those who can pay and others are treated free is service for both classes, on the same reasoning as conclusion 8.

Why it matters here. Those ten conclusions are the whole of the topic, and the pattern in them is simple: payment somewhere in the institution brings everybody inside.

Who may complain

Facts. Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia, AIR 1998 SC 1801, decided on 25 March 1998. A child was admitted to a hospital; a nurse administered an injection prescribed by the resident doctor without the necessary care, and the child suffered cardiac arrest and irreversible brain damage. The parents claimed for the child and for their own mental agony.

Held. Both the child, as the beneficiary of the service, and the parents, who hired it, are consumers, and compensation may be awarded to both: to the child for the injury and to the parents for their mental agony and the cost of caring for him. Negligence was established against the hospital.

Why it matters here. It is the authority for two consumers out of one treatment, and it follows directly from the words of section 2(7), which include a beneficiary who avails the service with the approval of the person who hired it.

What must be proved, and how

The standard is the same as in a civil court, and chapter [Medical Negligence] sets it out: the ordinary competent practitioner of that branch, with an error of judgment not amounting to negligence, on Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, AIR 2005 SC 3180, and Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre, (2010) 3 SCC 480.

Expert evidence is not always necessary.

Facts. V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513, decided on 8 March 2010. A patient was treated for typhoid when she was suffering from malaria, and died; the forums dismissed the complaint for want of expert evidence.

Held. There is no general rule requiring expert evidence in every case of medical negligence. Simple cases are to be decided by the consumer forums on the procedure the Act prescribes; in complicated cases requiring expert evidence, the parties have a right to go to the civil court. The Court also cautioned against deferring too readily to expert evidence.

And negligence per se. Poonam Verma v. Ashwin Patel, AIR 1996 SC 2111, holds that a person registered in one system of medicine who practises another for which he holds no qualification is guilty of negligence per se.

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The reliefs. Section 39 lists what the Commission may order, including compensation for loss or injury due to negligence, punitive damages under the proviso, and costs; chapter [Goods and Defect] sets out the list, and section 38 governs the procedure.

A worked example

Rohit is admitted to a private hospital for an appendix operation, pays the bill, and is discharged with an infection caused by an unsterilised instrument. His wife paid the bill.

Is it a service? Yes, on conclusion 7: a non-Government hospital where charges are payable.

Who may complain? Rohit as the beneficiary and his wife as the person who hired the service, on Spring Meadows.

Is expert evidence necessary? Not necessarily: on V. Kishan Rao, a simple case may be decided on the Act's own procedure, and an unsterilised instrument is close to res ipsa loquitur, as chapter [Res Ipsa Loquitur] shows through Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 2 SCC 634.

What if the hospital were a charity treating everybody free? Then on conclusions 6 and 9 there is no service at all, and Rohit's remedy is a civil suit in negligence.

And if the hospital charged him but treats the poor free? Conclusion 8: both classes are inside the Act.

What it does NOT mean

It does not make every doctor liable for every bad outcome. The standard is unchanged.

It does not exclude a free patient in a paying hospital. Conclusion 8 says the opposite.

It does not require expert evidence in every case. V. Kishan Rao says so.

It does not bar the civil suit. The consumer remedy is additional.

Quick revision

  1. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550: consultation, diagnosis and treatment are service, except when free to everybody or under a contract of personal service.
  2. A contract of personal service needs a master and servant relationship; a contract for personal services does not and is inside the Act.
  3. A token registration fee does not turn free service into service.
  4. Where a hospital charges some and treats others free, both classes are inside the Act.
  5. Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia, AIR 1998 SC 1801: the patient and the person who paid are both consumers, and both may be compensated.
  6. V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513: expert evidence is not required in every case.
  7. Poonam Verma v. Ashwin Patel, AIR 1996 SC 2111: practising a system one is not qualified in is negligence per se.
  8. The standard remains that of the ordinary competent practitioner: Jacob Mathew and Kusum Sharma.
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Test yourself

1. Are medical services within the Consumer Protection Act? Explain with the leading case. Yes, with defined exceptions. In Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha, AIR 1996 SC 550, a Bench of three judges held that service rendered to a patient by a medical practitioner by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment, medicinal and surgical, falls within the definition of service, except where the doctor renders service free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service; that disciplinary control by the Medical Council does not exclude the Act; and that a contract of personal service requires a master and servant relationship and is different from a contract for personal services, so that a medical officer treating his own employer is outside the Act while an ordinary doctor and patient relationship is inside it. Service rendered wholly free of charge, whether in a private or a government hospital, is outside, and a token registration fee does not alter that; but where charges are taken from those who can pay and the poor are treated free, both the paying and the free service are service and both classes of patient are consumers.

2. Who may complain of medical negligence before a Commission? Both the patient and the person who paid for the treatment. Section 2(7) includes as a consumer any beneficiary of a service other than the person who hired it, where the service is availed with his approval, and Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia, AIR 1998 SC 1801, applied that provision to hold that a child injured by a negligently administered injection and his parents who had engaged the hospital were both consumers, and that compensation could be awarded to both: to the child for his injury and to the parents for their mental agony and the cost of caring for him. The practical importance is considerable, since in most Indian families the patient and the payer are different people.

3. Must a complainant produce expert evidence? Not in every case. In V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513, the Supreme Court held that there is no general rule requiring expert evidence in every case of medical negligence: there may be simple cases where it is not required, and those are to be decided by the consumer forums on the procedure prescribed by the Act, while in complicated cases where expert evidence is required the parties have a right to go to the civil court. It also cautioned against courts deferring too readily to expert evidence. The practical result is that a straightforward case, such as an instrument left inside a patient, may be decided summarily, which is what makes the consumer remedy worth having.

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Chapter Seventy-Six

Unfair and Restrictive Trade Practices

Syllabus topic 4.1, "Consumer: Definition; Defect in goods."

In one line

An unfair trade practice is a deceptive way of promoting a sale, a restrictive trade practice manipulates supply or price, and an unfair contract is a one-sided term.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(47) defines an unfair trade practice as a trade practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or the provision of any service, adopts any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice, and enumerates nine heads; section 2(41) defines a restrictive trade practice as one which tends to bring about manipulation of price or its conditions of delivery, or to affect the flow of supplies in the market, so as to impose unjustified costs or restrictions on consumers; and section 2(46) defines an unfair contract as one between a manufacturer, trader or service provider and a consumer having terms which cause a significant change in the consumer's rights.

Unfair trade practice: the nine heads of section 2(47)

1. False statements about goods or services. Falsely representing that goods are of a particular standard, quality, quantity, grade, composition, style or model; that services are of a particular standard, quality or grade; that rebuilt, second-hand, renovated, reconditioned or old goods are new; that goods or services have sponsorship, approval, performance, characteristics, accessories, uses or benefits which they do not have; that the seller has a sponsorship, approval or affiliation which he does not have; a false or misleading representation about the need for or usefulness of goods or services; a warranty or guarantee of performance, efficacy or length of life that is not based on an adequate or proper test, the burden of proving an adequate test lying on the person who raises it; a purported warranty or promise to replace, maintain or repair that is materially misleading or has no reasonable prospect of being carried out; materially misleading the public about the price at which goods are ordinarily sold; and giving false or misleading facts disparaging another's goods, services or trade.

2. Bargain prices. Advertising goods at a bargain price where there is no intention of offering them at that price. The Explanation defines a bargain price as one stated in an advertisement to be a bargain price, or one a reader would reasonably understand to be a bargain price.

3. Gifts, prizes and contests. Offering gifts, prizes or other items with no intention of providing them, or creating the impression that something is free when its cost is covered by the charge; conducting a contest, lottery or game of chance or skill to promote a sale or business interest, except as may be prescribed; and withholding from participants the final results of a scheme.

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4. Non-compliant goods. Permitting the sale of goods known not to comply with the standards prescribed by the competent authority relating to performance, composition, contents, design, construction, finishing or packaging necessary to prevent or reduce the risk of injury.

5. Hoarding and destruction. Permitting the hoarding or destruction of goods, or refusing to sell or provide a service, where that raises or tends to raise the cost of those or similar goods or services.

6. Spurious goods and deceptive services. Manufacturing spurious goods, offering them for sale, or adopting deceptive practices in the provision of services.

7. No bill or receipt. Not issuing a bill, cash memo or receipt for goods sold or services rendered in the prescribed manner.

8. Refusing to take back or withdraw. Refusing, after selling goods or rendering services, to take back or withdraw defective goods or to withdraw or discontinue deficient services and to refund the consideration, if paid, within the period stipulated in the bill, cash memo or receipt or, in the absence of such stipulation, within thirty days.

9. Disclosure of personal information. Disclosing to any other person personal information given in confidence by the consumer, unless the disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any law for the time being in force.

Heads 7, 8 and 9 are new in the Act of 2019, and head 9 is the one nobody expects: passing on a customer's personal information is now an unfair trade practice.

Restrictive trade practice: section 2(41)

A trade practice which tends to bring about manipulation of price or its conditions of delivery, or to affect the flow of supplies in the market, so as to impose unjustified costs or restrictions on consumers, and it includes:

delay beyond the agreed period by a trader in supplying goods or providing services which has led or is likely to lead to a rise in price; and

tie-in arrangements, that is, any trade practice which requires a consumer to buy, hire or avail of goods or services as a condition of buying, hiring or availing of other goods or services.

Unfair contract: section 2(46)

A contract between a manufacturer, trader or service provider on one hand and a consumer on the other, having terms which cause a significant change in the consumer's rights, including terms:

requiring manifestly excessive security deposits for the performance of contractual obligations;

imposing a penalty for breach wholly disproportionate to the loss caused;

refusing to accept early repayment of debts on payment of the applicable penalty;

entitling a party to terminate the contract unilaterally without reasonable cause;

permitting one party to assign the contract to the detriment of the consumer without his consent; and

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imposing on the consumer any unreasonable charge, obligation or condition which puts him at a disadvantage.

The head of unfair contracts is new with the Act of 2019, and it is what allows a Commission to strike at a builder's or a lender's standard form.

The penalty

Section 90 provides for punishment for manufacturing for sale, storing, selling or distributing goods which contain adulterant, and section 91 for spurious goods, and chapter [Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law] works the penal chapter out.

A worked example

A builder advertises flats "starting at 40 lakh" when only one flat is at that price, requires a deposit of ten per cent as "security", reserves the right to cancel the allotment at will, refuses to give a receipt for the booking amount, and gives the buyers' telephone numbers to an interior design firm.

"Starting at 40 lakh" with one flat at the price. A bargain price advertised with no real intention of offering it, and a materially misleading representation about price.

The security deposit. If manifestly excessive, an unfair contract term under section 2(46).

The right to cancel at will. Termination unilaterally without reasonable cause, an unfair contract term.

No receipt. Head 7 of the unfair trade practices.

The telephone numbers. Head 9: disclosure of personal information given in confidence.

And if the builder delays possession so that prices rise, that is a restrictive trade practice under section 2(41) as well as a deficiency in service.

What it does NOT mean

Puffing is not necessarily an unfair trade practice. The heads require falsity, deception or the absence of a proper test.

A hard bargain is not an unfair contract. The term must cause a significant change in the consumer's rights, and the listed examples show the level.

A restrictive trade practice is not the same as an unfair one. The first is about price and supply; the second is about deception in promotion.

These are not only complaints for a consumer. The Central Authority may act on its own, as chapter [The Central Consumer Protection Authority] shows.

Quick revision

  1. Section 2(47): nine heads of unfair trade practice, from false statements to non-issue of a bill and disclosure of personal information.
  2. The burden of proving that a warranty was based on an adequate test lies on the person who says so.
  3. Bargain price, gifts and contests, non-compliant goods, hoarding, spurious goods, no bill, refusal to take back or refund, and disclosure of personal information.
  4. Section 2(41): restrictive trade practice, including delay leading to a rise in price and tie-in arrangements.
  5. Section 2(46): unfair contract, including excessive security deposits, disproportionate penalties, refusal of early repayment, unilateral termination, assignment without consent and unreasonable charges.
  6. Heads 7, 8 and 9 of the unfair trade practices and the whole head of unfair contracts are new with the Act of 2019.
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Test yourself

1. What is an unfair trade practice? Enumerate its heads. Section 2(47) defines it as a trade practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or the provision of any service, adopts any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice, and enumerates nine categories. False statements about the standard, quality or origin of goods or services, about sponsorship or approval, about the need for or usefulness of goods, about warranties not based on adequate tests, about price, and disparaging another's goods. Advertising at a bargain price with no intention of supplying at it. Offering gifts or prizes without intending to give them, conducting promotional contests except as prescribed, and withholding the results of a scheme. Permitting the sale of goods known not to meet prescribed safety standards. Hoarding or destroying goods or refusing to sell so as to raise prices. Manufacturing or selling spurious goods or adopting deceptive practices in services. Not issuing a bill or receipt. Refusing to take back defective goods or withdraw deficient services and refund the consideration within the period stipulated in the bill or, in its absence, within thirty days. And disclosing personal information given in confidence, otherwise than in accordance with any law for the time being in force.

2. Distinguish an unfair trade practice from a restrictive trade practice and an unfair contract. An unfair trade practice under section 2(47) is about the manner of promoting a sale: it requires an unfair method or a deceptive practice, and the nine heads are all forms of misleading or exploiting a buyer. A restrictive trade practice under section 2(41) is about the market: it tends to manipulate price or conditions of delivery, or to affect the flow of supplies, so as to impose unjustified costs or restrictions on consumers, and it expressly includes delay by a trader that leads or is likely to lead to a rise in price and tie-in arrangements requiring a consumer to buy one thing in order to get another. An unfair contract under section 2(46) is about the terms of the bargain: a contract between a business and a consumer containing terms that cause a significant change in the consumer's rights, such as manifestly excessive security deposits, penalties wholly disproportionate to the loss, refusal to accept early repayment, unilateral termination without reasonable cause, assignment without consent, and unreasonable charges or conditions.

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Chapter Seventy-Seven

Misleading Advertisements and the Liability of an Endorser

Syllabus topic 4.2, "Services: Types of services, Deficiency-meaning, Denial of Services, Commercial & Professional Services, Medical Services."

In one line

A false or misleading advertisement may be stopped, and the manufacturer, the endorser and the publisher may all be penalised.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(28) defines a misleading advertisement as one which falsely describes a product or service, gives a false guarantee or is likely to mislead consumers as to its nature, substance, quantity or quality, conveys a representation which would constitute an unfair trade practice if made by the manufacturer or seller, or deliberately conceals important information; section 21 empowers the Central Authority to order that such an advertisement be discontinued or modified and to impose penalties on the manufacturer, the endorser and the publisher; and section 89 makes a false or misleading advertisement prejudicial to the interest of consumers an offence.

The definition: section 2(28)

A misleading advertisement, in relation to any product or service, means an advertisement which:

falsely describes the product or service;

gives a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity or quality of the product or service;

conveys an express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider, would constitute an unfair trade practice; or

deliberately conceals important information.

The fourth limb is the one to remember: concealment is as much an offence as assertion.

What the Central Authority may do: section 21

Sub-section (1): stop or change the advertisement. Where the Central Authority is satisfied after investigation that an advertisement is false or misleading and prejudicial to the interest of any consumer, or is in contravention of consumer rights, it may by order direct the trader, manufacturer, endorser, advertiser or publisher to discontinue the advertisement or to modify it, in the manner and within the time specified.

Sub-section (2): a penalty on the manufacturer or the endorser. It may impose a penalty which may extend to ten lakh rupees, and for every subsequent contravention a penalty which may extend to fifty lakh rupees.

Sub-section (3): a ban on the endorser. Where it deems it necessary, it may prohibit the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making an endorsement of any product or service for a period which may extend to one year, and for every subsequent contravention for a period which may extend to three years.

Sub-section (4): a penalty on the publisher. Where it is satisfied after investigation that a person publishes, or is a party to the publication of, a misleading advertisement, it may impose a penalty which may extend to ten lakh rupees.

Sub-section (5): the endorser's defence. No endorser is liable to a penalty under sub-sections (2) and (3) if he has exercised due diligence to verify the veracity of the claims made in the advertisement about the product or service he endorses.

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Sub-section (6): the publisher's defence. No person is liable to such a penalty if he proves that he published or arranged for publication in the ordinary course of his business; but that defence is not available if he had previous knowledge of the Central Authority's order for withdrawal or modification of the advertisement.

The offence: section 89

Any manufacturer or service provider who causes a false or misleading advertisement to be made which is prejudicial to the interest of consumers is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to two years and with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees; and for every subsequent offence, with imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine which may extend to fifty lakh rupees.

Note the division of labour: section 21 is a penalty imposed by the regulator, section 89 is an offence tried by a court, and a consumer's own remedy for a misleading advertisement is a complaint of an unfair trade practice, with the reliefs in section 39 including a corrective advertisement.

A worked example

A company advertises a health drink claiming it makes children "twice as tall". A well-known actor appears in the advertisement. A newspaper carries it.

Is it misleading? Yes on the first two limbs of section 2(28): it falsely describes the product and is likely to mislead consumers as to its quality; and it would be an unfair trade practice under section 2(47) as a false representation about the benefits of goods and a warranty not based on an adequate test, in which case the burden of proving the test lies on the company.

What may the Central Authority do? Order the advertisement discontinued or modified under section 21(1); impose up to ten lakh rupees on the company and on the actor under section 21(2), and up to fifty lakh for a repeat; prohibit the actor from endorsing anything for up to a year, and up to three years for a repeat, under section 21(3); and impose up to ten lakh rupees on the newspaper under section 21(4).

The actor's defence. Under section 21(5), that he exercised due diligence to verify the veracity of the claims, which in practice means asking for the test data and being able to show that he did.

The newspaper's defence. Under section 21(6), that it published in the ordinary course of business, unless it knew of an order for withdrawal or modification.

The company's criminal liability. Section 89: up to two years and ten lakh rupees, and up to five years and fifty lakh for a subsequent offence.

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And a parent who bought the drink? Complains to the District Commission of an unfair trade practice, and may ask for refund, compensation and a corrective advertisement under section 39.

What it does NOT mean

An endorser is not automatically liable. Due diligence to verify the claims is a defence under section 21(5).

A publisher is not automatically liable. Publication in the ordinary course of business is a defence, unless he knew of the order.

A penalty under section 21 is not a criminal conviction. Section 89 is the offence.

A consumer does not have to wait for the regulator. He may complain of an unfair trade practice himself.

Quick revision

  1. Section 2(28): false description, false guarantee or likely to mislead as to nature, substance, quantity or quality, a representation that would be an unfair trade practice, or deliberate concealment of important information.
  2. Section 21(1): direction to discontinue or modify.
  3. Section 21(2): penalty up to ten lakh rupees on a manufacturer or endorser; up to fifty lakh for a subsequent contravention.
  4. Section 21(3): prohibition on an endorser for up to one year; up to three years for a subsequent contravention.
  5. Section 21(4): penalty up to ten lakh rupees on a publisher.
  6. Section 21(5): the endorser's defence of due diligence to verify the claims.
  7. Section 21(6): the publisher's defence of publication in the ordinary course of business, lost if he knew of the order.
  8. Section 89: imprisonment up to two years and fine up to ten lakh rupees; up to five years and fifty lakh for a subsequent offence.

Test yourself

1. What is a misleading advertisement, and what may the Central Authority do about it? Section 2(28) defines it as an advertisement which falsely describes a product or service, gives a false guarantee to or is likely to mislead consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity or quality of the product or service, conveys an express or implied representation which would constitute an unfair trade practice if made by the manufacturer, seller or service provider, or deliberately conceals important information. Section 21 gives the Central Authority four powers. It may direct the trader, manufacturer, endorser, advertiser or publisher to discontinue or modify the advertisement. It may impose a penalty of up to ten lakh rupees on a manufacturer or endorser, and up to fifty lakh for a subsequent contravention. It may prohibit an endorser from making any endorsement for up to one year, and up to three years for a subsequent contravention. And it may impose a penalty of up to ten lakh rupees on a person who publishes or is party to the publication of a misleading advertisement.

2. Is a celebrity who endorses a product liable, and how may he escape? He may be. Section 21(2) allows the Central Authority to impose a penalty of up to ten lakh rupees on an endorser of a false or misleading advertisement, rising to fifty lakh for a subsequent contravention, and section 21(3) allows it to prohibit him from endorsing any product or service for up to one year, and up to three years for a repeat. His defence is in section 21(5): no endorser is liable to a penalty under sub-sections (2) and (3) if he has exercised due diligence to verify the veracity of the claims made in the advertisement about the product or service he endorses. In practice that means obtaining and checking the material on which the claim rests, and being able to prove that he did so. The provision is new with the Act of 2019 and it is the reason endorsement contracts now carry verification clauses.

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3. Distinguish the penalty under section 21 from the offence under section 89. The penalty under section 21 is imposed by the Central Consumer Protection Authority, a regulator, by order after investigation, and it operates against the manufacturer, the endorser and the publisher, with the figures set out in the section and with statutory defences of due diligence and ordinary-course publication. The offence under section 89 is tried by a criminal court and applies to a manufacturer or service provider who causes a false or misleading advertisement prejudicial to the interest of consumers; the punishment is imprisonment up to two years with fine up to ten lakh rupees, and for a subsequent offence imprisonment up to five years with fine up to fifty lakh rupees. The two are independent, and neither is the consumer's own remedy, which is a complaint of an unfair trade practice with the reliefs in section 39, including a corrective advertisement.

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Chapter Seventy-Eight

Consumer Rights and the Consumer Protection Councils

Syllabus topic 4.3, "Consumer Protection Councils."

In one line

The six consumer rights are declared by the Act, and three tiers of Council exist to advise on promoting and protecting them.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 2(9) declares six consumer rights; sections 3 to 5 establish the Central Consumer Protection Council, an advisory council chaired by the Minister-in-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs, whose object is to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumer rights and which must meet at least once a year; sections 6 and 7 establish the State Councils, and sections 8 and 9 the District Councils chaired by the Collector, each advisory and each required to meet at least twice a year.

The six consumer rights: section 2(9)

1. The right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property.

2. The right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services, so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices.

3. The right to be assured, wherever possible, of access to a variety of goods, products or services at competitive prices.

4. The right to be heard and to be assured that consumers' interests will receive due consideration at appropriate fora.

5. The right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices, restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers.

6. The right to consumer awareness.

These are the rights the whole Act exists to serve, and an answer on any part of Module IV is improved by naming them.

The Central Council: sections 3, 4 and 5

Section 3. The Central Government shall by notification establish the Central Consumer Protection Council, known as the Central Council. It is an advisory council and consists of the Minister-in-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government as Chairperson, and such number of other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed.

Section 4. It shall meet as and when necessary, but at least one meeting shall be held every year, at such time and place as the Chairperson thinks fit, and shall observe such procedure as may be prescribed.

Section 5. Its objects are to render advice on the promotion and protection of the consumers' rights under the Act.

The State Councils: sections 6 and 7

Section 6. Every State Government shall by notification establish a State Consumer Protection Council, known as the State Council, which is an advisory council, with the Minister-in-charge of consumer affairs in the State Government as Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed, including such number of official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed and such number of members from the Central Government as may be prescribed. It shall meet as and when necessary but not less than two meetings shall be held every year.

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Section 7. Its objects are to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumer rights under the Act within the State.

The District Councils: sections 8 and 9

Section 8. The State Government shall by notification establish for every district a District Consumer Protection Council, known as the District Council, which is an advisory council, with the Collector of the district, by whatever name called, as Chairperson, and such number of other official and non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed. It shall meet as and when necessary but not less than two meetings shall be held every year.

Section 9. Its objects are to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumer rights under the Act within the district.

The three tiers compared

Central CouncilState CouncilDistrict Council
Established byThe Central Government, section 3Every State Government, section 6The State Government for every district, section 8
ChairpersonMinister-in-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs, CentreMinister-in-charge of consumer affairs in the StateThe Collector of the district
CharacterAdvisoryAdvisoryAdvisory
MeetingsAt least one a yearAt least two a yearAt least two a year
ObjectAdvice on promotion and protection of consumer rightsThe same, within the StateThe same, within the district

What the Councils cannot do. They cannot hear a complaint, they cannot pass an order against a trader, and they cannot award compensation. Those powers belong to the Commissions in Chapter IV and to the Central Authority in Chapter III.

Rules. Section 102 empowers a State Government to make rules for, among other things, the composition and procedure of the State and District Councils.

A worked example

A district has a serious problem with underweight gas cylinders.

The District Council may consider the problem at one of its meetings, chaired by the Collector, and render advice on promoting and protecting consumer rights in the district. It cannot summon the gas agency or order compensation.

The Central Authority may inquire into the matter of its own motion, order the practice discontinued and impose penalties, as chapter [The Central Consumer Protection Authority] explains.

A consumer whose cylinder was underweight complains to the District Commission and asks for refund and compensation.

The State Council may advise the State Government on the policy question, and the Central Council on the national one.

That division of labour, advise, regulate, adjudicate, is the answer to most questions on this part of the syllabus.

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What it does NOT mean

The Councils are not tribunals. They advise.

The Collector's chairmanship does not make the District Council an executive authority. It is still advisory.

A consumer does not complain to a Council. He complains to a Commission.

The rights in section 2(9) are not directly enforceable as such. They are given effect through the machinery of the Act.

Quick revision

  1. Six rights in section 2(9): safety, information, choice, hearing, redressal and consumer awareness.
  2. Section 3: Central Council, advisory, chaired by the Union Minister-in-charge of consumer affairs.
  3. Section 4: at least one meeting a year. Section 5: object is to render advice on promotion and protection of consumer rights.
  4. Section 6: State Councils, advisory, chaired by the State Minister; at least two meetings a year. Section 7: objects.
  5. Section 8: District Councils, advisory, chaired by the Collector; at least two meetings a year. Section 9: objects.
  6. The Councils advise; the Central Authority regulates; the Commissions adjudicate.
  7. Section 102 gives the State Government rule-making power for the State and District Councils.

Test yourself

1. State the consumer rights recognised by the Act. Section 2(9) recognises six. The right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property. The right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services, so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices. The right to be assured, wherever possible, of access to a variety of goods, products or services at competitive prices. The right to be heard and to be assured that consumers' interests will receive due consideration at appropriate fora. The right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices, restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation. And the right to consumer awareness. They are the standard by which the rest of the Act is to be read, and the objects of all three tiers of Council are expressed as rendering advice on their promotion and protection.

2. Describe the composition and functions of the Consumer Protection Councils. There are three tiers, and all three are advisory. The Central Council, established by the Central Government under section 3, consists of the Minister-in-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government as Chairperson and such other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed; under section 4 it must meet at least once a year, and under section 5 its object is to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumers' rights. The State Councils, established by every State Government under section 6, are chaired by the State Minister-in-charge of consumer affairs and must meet at least twice a year, their objects under section 7 being the same within the State. The District Councils, established by the State Government for every district under section 8, are chaired by the Collector of the district and must also meet at least twice a year, their objects under section 9 being the same within the district. None of them may entertain a complaint, pass an order against a trader or award compensation; those powers belong to the Commissions and to the Central Authority.

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Chapter Seventy-Nine

The Central Consumer Protection Authority

Syllabus topic 4.3, "Consumer Protection Councils."

In one line

The Central Consumer Protection Authority is a regulator that investigates unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements on its own motion, and can order recall, refund and penalties.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 10 establishes the Central Consumer Protection Authority to regulate matters relating to violation of the rights of consumers, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of the public and consumers, and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class; sections 15 and 16 give it an Investigation Wing headed by a Director-General and the assistance of District Collectors; section 18 sets out its powers and functions; sections 19 to 22 give it powers of preliminary inquiry, recall and refund, penalties for misleading advertisements, and search and seizure; and section 24 provides an appeal to the National Commission.

Establishment and composition

Section 10 establishes the Authority, to be known as the Central Consumer Protection Authority, to regulate matters relating to the violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements prejudicial to the interests of the public and consumers, and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. It consists of a Chief Commissioner and such number of other Commissioners as may be prescribed, and its headquarters and regional offices are as notified.

Section 11 provides for the qualifications and method of recruitment of the Chief Commissioner and the Commissioners. Section 12 provides that a vacancy does not invalidate its proceedings. Section 13 allows the appointment of officers, experts and professionals. Section 14 provides for its procedure, and permits it to sit in Benches.

The machinery of investigation

Section 15: the Investigation Wing. The Central Authority shall have an Investigation Wing headed by a Director-General for the purpose of conducting inquiry or investigation, with such number of Additional, Joint, Deputy or Assistant Directors-General as may be required, and those officers have the powers set out in the section, including the power to enter and search premises where a document, record or article is kept, and to seize what is found.

Section 16: the District Collector. The Collector, by whatever name called, may on a complaint or of his own motion inquire into or investigate violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices within his jurisdiction and submit a report to the Central Authority or to the Commissioner of a regional office.

Section 17: complaints to authorities. A complaint relating to a violation of consumer rights or an unfair trade practice may be forwarded, either in writing or in electronic mode, to any of the authorities: the District Collector, the Commissioner of a regional office, or the Central Authority.

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Powers and functions: section 18

The four duties in sub-section (1). The Central Authority shall protect, promote and enforce the rights of consumers as a class and prevent violation of consumer rights; prevent unfair trade practices; ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made of any goods or services; and ensure that no person takes part in the publication of a false or misleading advertisement.

The powers in sub-section (2), exercisable for those purposes, include: to inquire or cause an inquiry or investigation into violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices, either of its own motion or on a complaint received or on the directions of the Central Government; to file complaints before the District, State or National Commission; to intervene in proceedings before them; to review matters relating to and factors inhibiting the enjoyment of consumer rights; to recommend the adoption of international covenants and best practices; to undertake and promote research; to spread consumer awareness; to encourage non-governmental organisations working in the field; to advise the Ministries and Departments of the Central and State Governments on consumer welfare measures; and to issue safety notices to alert consumers against dangerous or unsafe goods and services.

Preliminary inquiry, recall, refund and search

Section 19: preliminary inquiry and reference. On information, a complaint, directions of the Central Government, or of its own motion, the Central Authority may conduct a preliminary inquiry into whether there is a prima facie case of violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practice or false or misleading advertisement prejudicial to the public interest or the interests of consumers; if satisfied that there is, it shall cause an investigation by the Director-General or the District Collector. Where the matter relates to a sector regulated by another regulator, it may refer it to that regulator.

Section 20: recall and reimbursement. Where the Central Authority is satisfied on the basis of investigation that there is sufficient evidence of violation of consumer rights or an unfair trade practice by a person, it may pass such order as may be necessary, including recall of goods or withdrawal of services which are dangerous, hazardous or unsafe; reimbursement of the prices of the goods or services so recalled to the purchasers; and discontinuation of practices which are unfair and prejudicial to consumers' interest. The proviso requires that the person be given an opportunity of being heard before such an order.

Section 21: false or misleading advertisements. Directions to discontinue or modify, penalties on the manufacturer or endorser of up to ten lakh rupees, rising to fifty lakh for a subsequent contravention, a prohibition on an endorser for up to one year, rising to three years, and a penalty of up to ten lakh rupees on a publisher, with the defences of due diligence and ordinary-course publication. Chapter [Misleading Advertisements and the Liability of an Endorser] works it out.

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Section 22: search and seizure. The Director-General or a District Collector may, for the purpose of conducting an investigation, enter any premises and search for and seize any document, record, article or other form of evidence.

Appeal, and the rest of the chapter

Section 23 allows the Central Government to designate any other statutory authority or body to function as the Central Authority. Section 24 provides an appeal to the National Commission against an order of the Central Authority under sections 20 and 21, within thirty days. Sections 25, 26 and 27 deal with grants by the Central Government, accounts and audit, and the furnishing of annual reports. Section 101 contains the Central Government's rule-making power for these provisions.

A worked example

A brand of pressure cookers is found to be exploding, and complaints appear across three States.

Nobody need complain to the Authority. Under section 18(2)(a) it may inquire of its own motion, and under section 19 it may make a preliminary inquiry and direct the Director-General to investigate.

Investigation. The Investigation Wing under section 15, or a District Collector under section 16, may enter and search premises and seize records under section 22.

Orders. Under section 20 the Authority may order the recall of the cookers as unsafe, order reimbursement of the price to every purchaser, and order the manufacturer to discontinue the practice, after hearing him.

Advertising. If the cookers were advertised as safe, section 21 penalties follow against the manufacturer, the endorser and the publisher.

Safety notice. Under section 18(2) the Authority may issue a safety notice alerting consumers.

Individual claims. A consumer who was burned still complains to the District Commission for his own compensation, and the Authority may file a complaint or intervene in it.

Appeal. The manufacturer's appeal against the recall order lies to the National Commission under section 24.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a court. It regulates and penalises; individual compensation is for the Commissions.

It does not need a complainant. It may act of its own motion.

Its orders are not final. Section 24 gives an appeal to the National Commission.

It does not replace other regulators. Section 19 lets it refer a matter to the regulator of that sector.

Quick revision

  1. Section 10: the Central Consumer Protection Authority, to regulate violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, and to protect the rights of consumers as a class.
  2. Sections 11 to 14: qualifications, vacancies, staff and procedure.
  3. Section 15: the Investigation Wing under a Director-General. Section 16: the District Collector. Section 17: where a complaint may be sent, including in electronic mode.
  4. Section 18: four duties, and powers including suo motu inquiry, filing complaints, intervening, research, awareness and safety notices.
  5. Section 19: preliminary inquiry, investigation by the Director-General or Collector, reference to another regulator.
  6. Section 20: recall of unsafe goods, reimbursement of price, discontinuation of unfair practices, after an opportunity of being heard.
  7. Section 21: penalties for false or misleading advertisements.
  8. Section 22: search and seizure. Section 24: appeal to the National Commission within thirty days.
  9. In force from 24 July 2020.
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Test yourself

1. What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority and why was it created? It is the regulator established by section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 to regulate matters relating to the violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of the public and consumers, and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. It was created because the Act of 1986 had no regulator at all: every wrong had to wait for an individual consumer to complain, which meant that a practice affecting thousands of people went unaddressed unless one of them took the trouble to litigate. The Authority acts for consumers as a class, may inquire of its own motion under section 18(2)(a), has its own Investigation Wing under a Director-General under section 15, and may order recall and reimbursement under section 20 and impose advertising penalties under section 21.

2. What powers does the Central Authority have, and what check exists on them? Section 18(1) imposes four duties: to protect, promote and enforce consumer rights as a class, to prevent unfair trade practices, to ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made, and to ensure that nobody takes part in publishing one. Section 18(2) gives it power to inquire or investigate on its own motion, on a complaint or on the Central Government's direction, to file complaints before the Commissions, to intervene in their proceedings, to conduct research and spread awareness, and to issue safety notices. Section 19 allows a preliminary inquiry and an investigation by the Director-General or a District Collector, or a reference to a sectoral regulator. Section 20 allows recall of dangerous goods, reimbursement of their price and discontinuation of unfair practices, after an opportunity of being heard. Section 21 allows penalties for misleading advertisements, and section 22 allows search and seizure. The checks are the hearing required by the proviso to section 20, the statutory defences in section 21, and the appeal to the National Commission under section 24 within thirty days.

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Chapter Eighty

The District Commission

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

The District Commission is the forum where a consumer complaint starts, for claims up to fifty lakh rupees.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: sections 28 to 41 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 establish and regulate the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission; it consists of a President and not less than two members, the number being prescribed in consultation with the Central Government; its pecuniary jurisdiction under section 34(1) read with the Rules of 2021 extends to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed fifty lakh rupees; its territorial jurisdiction under section 34(2) includes the place where the complainant resides or personally works for gain; a complaint may be filed under section 35 by a consumer, a recognised consumer association, one or more consumers on behalf of numerous consumers with permission, or a Government or the Central Authority, and may be filed electronically; and an appeal lies to the State Commission under section 41 within forty-five days, conditional on a deposit of fifty per cent of any amount ordered to be paid.

Establishment and composition

Section 28. The State Government shall establish a District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission in each district, and may establish more than one in a district if it thinks fit. Each Commission consists of a President and not less than two, and not more than such number of, members as may be prescribed in consultation with the Central Government. The Act of 1986 required at least one woman member in terms; the Act of 2019 leaves the composition to the rules, so the requirement is looked for there and not in the section.

Section 29 provides for the qualifications, appointment, method of recruitment, procedure of appointment, term of office, resignation and removal of the President and members, as may be prescribed. Section 30 deals with salaries and conditions of service, section 31 is a transitional provision, section 32 provides that a vacancy is filled by the State Government, and section 33 provides for officers and employees.

Jurisdiction

Pecuniary, section 34(1). The District Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed one crore rupees, with a proviso allowing the Central Government to prescribe such other value as it deems fit. The value prescribed is fifty lakh rupees, by rule 3 of the Rules of 2021.

Note the words "paid as consideration". Under the Act of 1986 the test was the value of the goods or services and the compensation claimed. Under the Act of 2019 it is what the consumer paid, so a claim for a large compensation on a small purchase stays in the District Commission.

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Territorial, section 34(2). A complaint may be instituted where the opposite party or each of them ordinarily resides, carries on business, has a branch office or personally works for gain; or where any of several opposite parties does so, with the permission of the Commission; or where the cause of action wholly or in part arises; or where the complainant resides or personally works for gain.

The last limb is new with the Act of 2019 and it is the most useful provision in the whole Act for an ordinary consumer, because it lets him sue at home instead of at the seller's headquarters.

Section 34(3). The Commission ordinarily functions at the district headquarters and may sit elsewhere in the district as notified.

Who may complain: section 35

(a) The consumer to whom the goods were sold or delivered or agreed to be sold or delivered, or to whom the service was provided or agreed to be provided, or who alleges an unfair trade practice in respect of them.

(b) Any recognised consumer association, whether or not the consumer is a member of it.

(c) One or more consumers, where there are numerous consumers having the same interest, with the permission of the Commission, on behalf of or for the benefit of all consumers so interested.

(d) The Central Government, the Central Authority or the State Government.

And the proviso: the complaint may be filed electronically in the prescribed manner.

Section 36 provides that the proceedings shall be conducted by the President and at least one member, sitting together.

Review and appeal

Section 40: review. The District Commission may review any of its orders if there is an error apparent on the face of the record, either of its own motion or on an application made by a party within thirty days.

This is new. Under the Act of 1986 the district forum had no power of review at all, and an order containing an obvious mistake had to be appealed.

Section 41: appeal. Any person aggrieved by an order of the District Commission may appeal to the State Commission on the grounds of facts or law, within forty-five days of the order, in the prescribed form and manner. The State Commission may entertain a late appeal on sufficient cause. No appeal by a person required to pay any amount is entertained unless he has deposited fifty per cent of that amount, and no appeal lies from an order recording a settlement through mediation under section 81(1).

A worked example

Rajesh, who lives in Nashik, buys a television for Rs. 60,000 from a shop in Mumbai whose head office is in Delhi. It fails in a week and the shop refuses to replace it. He claims Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 5,00,000 as compensation for harassment.

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Which Commission? The District Commission: the value paid as consideration is Rs. 60,000, well within fifty lakh, and the large compensation claimed does not raise the forum, because section 34(1) speaks of the value paid as consideration.

Where? At Nashik, where he resides, under section 34(2)(d); or at Mumbai where the cause of action arose; or at Delhi where the opposite party has its office.

How? Electronically, under the proviso to section 35(1).

If a hundred buyers of the same model are affected? One or more of them may complain on behalf of all, with the Commission's permission, under section 35(1)(c); or a recognised consumer association may complain under clause (b); or the Central Authority under clause (d).

If the Commission makes an obvious arithmetical error? Review under section 40 within thirty days.

If the shop wants to appeal? To the State Commission within forty-five days under section 41, and it must first deposit fifty per cent of whatever it was ordered to pay.

What it does NOT mean

The compensation claimed does not decide the forum. The consideration paid does.

A complainant is not confined to the seller's place. He may sue where he resides or works.

A review is not an appeal. It is confined to an error apparent on the face of the record.

An appeal is not free. Fifty per cent of the amount ordered must be deposited.

Quick revision

  1. Section 28: a District Commission in each district, and more than one if the State Government thinks fit; a President and not less than two members, the maximum being prescribed in consultation with the Central Government.
  2. Section 34(1): pecuniary jurisdiction up to one crore as printed, but fifty lakh as prescribed by G.S.R. 912(E) of 30 December 2021.
  3. The test is the value of the goods or services paid as consideration, not the compensation claimed.
  4. Section 34(2): territorial jurisdiction, including where the complainant resides or personally works for gain.
  5. Section 35: who may complain, including a recognised consumer association whether or not the consumer is a member, a representative complaint with permission, and the Governments and the Central Authority; electronic filing is permitted.
  6. Section 36: the President and at least one member sit together.
  7. Section 40: review for an error apparent on the face of the record, within thirty days.
  8. Section 41: appeal to the State Commission on facts or law within forty-five days, with a deposit of fifty per cent of the amount ordered, and no appeal from a mediation settlement under section 81(1).
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Test yourself

1. What is the jurisdiction of the District Commission? Pecuniary jurisdiction under section 34(1) extends to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed the prescribed amount. The section prints one crore rupees, but its proviso allows the Central Government to prescribe another value, and rule 3 of the Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules 2021, notified by G.S.R. 912(E) of 30 December 2021, prescribes fifty lakh rupees, which is the figure in force. The test is what the consumer paid, not what he claims, which is a change from the Act of 1986 where the compensation claimed was added in. Territorial jurisdiction under section 34(2) covers the place where the opposite party resides, carries on business, has a branch office or personally works for gain, the place where any one of several opposite parties does so with the Commission's permission, the place where the cause of action wholly or in part arises, and the place where the complainant resides or personally works for gain.

2. Who may file a complaint before a District Commission, and how? Section 35(1) allows four classes to complain: the consumer to whom the goods were sold or delivered or agreed to be sold or delivered, or to whom the service was provided or agreed to be provided, or who alleges an unfair trade practice in respect of them; any recognised consumer association, whether or not the consumer concerned is a member of it; one or more consumers, where there are numerous consumers having the same interest, with the permission of the Commission, on behalf of or for the benefit of all of them; and the Central Government, the Central Authority or the State Government. The proviso allows the complaint to be filed electronically in the prescribed manner, and section 36 requires the proceedings to be conducted by the President and at least one member sitting together.

3. What are the powers of review and appeal against an order of the District Commission? Section 40 gives the District Commission a power of review, which the Act of 1986 did not: it may review any of its orders if there is an error apparent on the face of the record, either of its own motion or on an application by a party made within thirty days. Section 41 provides an appeal to the State Commission, available to any person aggrieved, on grounds of facts or of law, within forty-five days of the order, in the prescribed form and manner, and the State Commission may condone delay on sufficient cause. Two conditions matter: an appellant who has been ordered to pay any amount must first deposit fifty per cent of it, and no appeal lies against an order recording a settlement reached in mediation under section 81(1).

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Chapter Eighty-One

How a Complaint Is Decided

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

The complaint is sent to the other side, who has thirty days to answer, goods may be tested in a laboratory, the case is heard on affidavits, and the order is enforced like a court decree.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: on admission the Commission refers a copy of the complaint to the opposite party within twenty-one days, directing him to give his version within thirty days, extendable by not more than fifteen days; where the complaint alleges a defect that cannot be determined without analysis, a sealed sample is sent to an appropriate laboratory which must report within forty-five days, the complainant depositing the fee, and the parties may object to the report; every complaint is heard on affidavit and documentary evidence, and is to be decided as far as possible within three months, or five months where a laboratory analysis is required.

The steps, in order

1. Admission, and mediation. Section 37 allows the Commission, at the first hearing after admission or at any later stage, if it appears that there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to both parties, to direct them to give their consent to have the dispute settled by mediation within five days, and to refer the matter to mediation. Chapter [Mediation under the Act] works that out.

2. Notice to the opposite party. Under section 38(2)(a) the Commission refers a copy of the admitted complaint to the opposite party within twenty-one days of admission, directing him to give his version within thirty days, extendable by not more than fifteen days.

3. If he denies, disputes or does nothing. The Commission proceeds to settle the dispute in the manner set out in the section.

4. Testing the goods. Where the complaint alleges a defect which cannot be determined without proper analysis or test, the Commission obtains a sample from the complainant, seals and authenticates it, and refers it to an appropriate laboratory, which must report within forty-five days or such extended period as the Commission grants. The complainant deposits the fee, which the Commission remits to the laboratory. The report goes to the opposite party with the Commission's remarks, and if either party disputes the findings or the methods, it must submit written objections. Both sides are then heard on the report.

5. Where testing is impossible, or the complaint is about services. Under section 38(3) the Commission refers the complaint for a version within thirty days, extendable by fifteen, and then decides on the evidence brought by both sides, or ex parte on the complainant's evidence if the opposite party does nothing, and it decides on merits if the complainant fails to appear.

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How a Complaint Is Decided

6. Electronic service providers. Section 38(4) allows the Commission to require an electronic service provider to produce information, documents or records.

7. Natural justice. Section 38(5) provides that proceedings complying with the procedure in sub-sections (2) and (3) shall not be called in question in any court on the ground that the principles of natural justice have not been complied with.

8. Evidence. Section 38(6): every complaint is heard on the basis of affidavit and documentary evidence; on an application for hearing or examination of parties in person or by video conferencing, the Commission may allow it for sufficient cause recorded in writing.

9. Time. Section 38(7): every complaint is to be disposed of as expeditiously as possible, with an endeavour to decide it within three months from the date of receipt of notice by the opposite party where no analysis or testing of commodities is required, and within five months where it is.

10. The order. Section 39 lists the reliefs, which chapter [Goods and Defect] sets out.

Limitation: section 69

Two years. No Commission shall admit a complaint unless it is filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen.

Condonation. A complaint may be entertained after that period if the complainant satisfies the Commission that he had sufficient cause for not filing within it, provided the Commission records its reasons for condoning the delay.

After the order: sections 70 to 73

Section 70: administrative control. The National Commission has authority to lay down adequate standards, to monitor the functioning of the State Commissions and District Commissions, and to require them to furnish periodical returns, and a State Commission has similar control over the District Commissions in the State.

Section 71: enforcement. Every order made by a District Commission, State Commission or the National Commission shall be enforced by it in the same manner as if it were a decree made by a court in a suit before it, and the provisions of Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 apply, subject to modifications.

Section 72: penalty for non-compliance. Whoever fails to comply with an order made by a Commission shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than one month, which may extend to three years, or with fine not less than twenty-five thousand rupees, which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.

Section 73: appeal against a section 72 order. An appeal lies against an order of a District Commission under section 72 to the State Commission, and against an order of the State Commission to the National Commission, within thirty days.

A worked example

Sameer files a complaint on 1 March about a refrigerator bought on 1 February which does not cool.

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Admission and mediation. The Commission may ask both sides whether they consent to mediation, and refer the dispute if they do.

Notice. A copy goes to the seller within twenty-one days of admission; he has thirty days to reply, extendable by fifteen.

Testing. If the fault requires analysis, the Commission takes a sample, seals it, sends it to an appropriate laboratory which must report in forty-five days, and Sameer deposits the fee. Both sides may object in writing to the report.

Hearing. On affidavits and documents; oral examination or video conferencing only on an application, for sufficient cause recorded in writing.

Time. Five months is the target where the laboratory is involved, three months where it is not.

Order. Under section 39, replacement, refund with interest, compensation, and costs.

If the seller ignores the order. Section 71 allows the Commission to execute it as a decree under Order XXI, and section 72 makes non-compliance punishable with imprisonment of not less than a month and up to three years, or fine of not less than twenty-five thousand and up to one lakh rupees, or both, with an appeal under section 73.

And if Sameer had waited until 2029 to complain? Section 69 bars it, unless he shows sufficient cause and the Commission records its reasons for condoning the delay.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a full trial. Affidavits and documents are the rule; oral evidence is the exception.

Testing is not always required. Only where the defect cannot otherwise be determined.

The time limits are not mandatory in the sense of ousting jurisdiction. They are targets the Act directs the Commission to endeavour to meet.

Non-compliance with an order is not a mere civil default. Section 72 makes it punishable with imprisonment.

Quick revision

  1. Section 37: reference to mediation where elements of a settlement exist, consent within five days.
  2. Section 38(2): copy to the opposite party within twenty-one days; version within thirty days, extendable by fifteen.
  3. Section 38(2)(c) to (g): sealed sample to an appropriate laboratory, report within forty-five days, fee deposited by the complainant, objections in writing, both sides heard.
  4. Section 38(3): services and untestable goods, decided on evidence or ex parte, and on merits if the complainant does not appear.
  5. Section 38(5): a proceeding following the statutory procedure cannot be attacked for want of natural justice.
  6. Section 38(6): affidavit and documentary evidence, with in-person or video hearing on sufficient cause.
  7. Section 38(7): three months, or five months where testing is needed.
  8. Section 69: two years from the cause of action, condonable for sufficient cause recorded in writing.
  9. Sections 70 to 73: administrative control, enforcement as a decree under Order XXI, imprisonment of one month to three years or fine of twenty-five thousand to one lakh rupees for non-compliance, and an appeal within thirty days.
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Test yourself

1. Describe the procedure followed by a District Commission on admission of a complaint. Under section 37 the Commission may first ask whether there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to both parties and, on their consent given within five days, refer the dispute to mediation. Where it proceeds, section 38(2) requires a copy of the admitted complaint to be sent to the opposite party within twenty-one days, directing him to give his version within thirty days, extendable by not more than fifteen. If he denies or disputes the allegations or does nothing, the Commission proceeds. Where the complaint alleges a defect in goods which cannot be determined without analysis, a sample is obtained from the complainant, sealed and authenticated, and referred to an appropriate laboratory which must report within forty-five days, the complainant depositing the fee; the report goes to the parties, who may file written objections, and both are heard. Where the goods cannot be tested, or the complaint concerns services, section 38(3) allows the Commission to decide on the evidence of both sides, or ex parte where the opposite party does not respond, or on merits where the complainant does not appear. Hearings are on affidavit and documentary evidence under section 38(6), and the target for disposal under section 38(7) is three months, or five where testing is required.

2. What is the period of limitation, and can it be extended? Section 69(1) provides that no District Commission, State Commission or the National Commission shall admit a complaint unless it is filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen. Section 69(2) allows a complaint to be entertained after that period if the complainant satisfies the Commission that he had sufficient cause for not filing it within time, and the proviso requires the Commission to record its reasons for condoning the delay. The provision is therefore stricter in form than the general law, since the bar is on admission, and more flexible in substance than a bare limitation, since sufficient cause is a question of fact and the requirement of recorded reasons is a discipline on the Commission rather than a bar on the consumer.

3. How is an order of a Commission enforced? Section 71 provides that every order made by a District Commission, a State Commission or the National Commission shall be enforced by it in the same manner as if it were a decree made by a court in a suit before it, and that the provisions of Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 apply with modifications. Beyond execution, section 72 makes non-compliance an offence: whoever fails to comply with an order is punishable with imprisonment for not less than one month, extending to three years, or with fine of not less than twenty-five thousand rupees, extending to one lakh rupees, or with both. Section 73 gives an appeal against an order under section 72, from the District Commission to the State Commission and from the State Commission to the National Commission, within thirty days. Section 70 adds administrative control, the National Commission monitoring the State and District Commissions and each State Commission monitoring the District Commissions in its State.

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Chapter Eighty-Two

The State Commission

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

The State Commission hears complaints between fifty lakh and two crore rupees, appeals from the District Commissions, and revisions from them.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 42 establishes a State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission in every State, consisting of a President and not less than four members; section 47 gives it original jurisdiction over complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the prescribed lower limit but not the upper, appellate jurisdiction over the District Commissions in the State, and revisional jurisdiction to call for the records of a District Commission which has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity; section 50 gives a power of review for an error apparent on the face of the record; and section 51 provides an appeal to the National Commission within thirty days, conditional on a deposit of fifty per cent of any amount ordered.

Establishment and composition

Section 42. The State Government shall establish a State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, to be known as the State Commission, and may establish regional Benches. It consists of a President and not less than four, and not more than such number of, members as may be prescribed in consultation with the Central Government.

Sections 43 to 46 deal with qualifications and method of recruitment, salaries and conditions of service, transitional provisions, and vacancies. Sections 48 and 49 deal with the transfer of cases and with officers and employees.

The three jurisdictions: section 47

Original. Complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the lower prescribed limit but does not exceed the upper one. As printed, one crore to ten crore; as prescribed, fifty lakh to two crore. Complaints against unfair contracts where the value paid as consideration does not exceed ten crore rupees are also original jurisdiction.

Appellate. Appeals against the orders of any District Commission within the State.

Revisional. Power to call for the records of, and pass appropriate orders in, any consumer dispute pending before or decided by a District Commission within the State, where it appears that the District Commission has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or has failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or has acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity.

The three revisional grounds are worth learning word for word, because they are the same three that govern the National Commission's revisional power under section 58(1)(b), and a question on judicial control of the Commissions is answered by them.

Benches. Section 47(2) allows the jurisdiction to be exercised by Benches constituted by the President, the senior-most member presiding, and section 47(3) provides for differences of opinion to be decided by the majority, with a reference to the President where the members are equally divided.

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Review and appeal

Section 50: review. The State Commission may review any of its orders if there is an error apparent on the face of the record, of its own motion or on an application by a party within thirty days.

Section 51: appeal. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the State Commission in the exercise of its original jurisdiction, that is, under sub-clause (i) or (ii) of clause (a) of section 47(1), may appeal to the National Commission within thirty days, in the prescribed form and manner. The National Commission shall not entertain a late appeal unless satisfied of sufficient cause. An appellant required to pay any amount must deposit fifty per cent of it.

Note two contrasts with the District Commission. The appeal period is thirty days here and forty-five days from a District Commission under section 41. And the appeal lies only from the State Commission's original orders, not from its appellate orders; against those the remedy is revision by the National Commission under section 58(1)(b), or a writ petition, as chapter [Judicial Review of the Consumer Commissions] explains.

Section 52: hearing of appeal. An appeal is to be heard as expeditiously as possible, with an endeavour to dispose of it within ninety days of admission, and an adjournment may be granted only for reasons recorded in writing.

A worked example

A builder is ordered by a District Commission to refund Rs. 30 lakh with interest.

The builder's appeal lies to the State Commission under section 41, within forty-five days, and he must first deposit fifty per cent of the amount ordered.

A buyer whose flat cost Rs. 90 lakh files his complaint in the State Commission itself, because the consideration exceeds fifty lakh and does not exceed two crore.

A buyer whose agreement contains a clause allowing the builder to cancel at will may complain of an unfair contract; where the consideration does not exceed ten crore, that complaint too is within the State Commission's original jurisdiction.

If the District Commission had decided a complaint worth three crore, it would have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, and the State Commission may call for the record and set the order aside in revision.

If the State Commission makes an obvious error in the figures, review under section 50 within thirty days.

If the State Commission decides the ninety lakh complaint against the buyer, his appeal lies to the National Commission under section 51 within thirty days, with the fifty per cent deposit if he has been ordered to pay.

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What it does NOT mean

The State Commission is not only an appellate body. It has original, appellate and revisional jurisdiction.

An appeal does not lie from every order. Section 51 covers orders in original jurisdiction.

Review is not a rehearing. It is confined to an error apparent on the face of the record.

The printed figures are not the operative ones.

Quick revision

  1. Section 42: a State Commission in every State, a President and not less than four members, with regional Benches possible.
  2. Section 47(1)(a)(i): original jurisdiction, printed as one crore to ten crore, prescribed as fifty lakh to two crore.
  3. Section 47(1)(a)(ii): unfair contracts where the consideration does not exceed ten crore.
  4. Section 47(1)(a)(iii): appeals from District Commissions in the State.
  5. Section 47(1)(b): revision on three grounds, jurisdiction not vested, failure to exercise jurisdiction, and illegality or material irregularity.
  6. Section 50: review for an error apparent on the face of the record, within thirty days.
  7. Section 51: appeal to the National Commission within thirty days from orders in original jurisdiction, with a fifty per cent deposit.
  8. Section 52: appeals to be decided within ninety days as far as possible.

Test yourself

1. What is the jurisdiction of the State Commission? Threefold. Original jurisdiction under section 47(1)(a)(i) over complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the lower prescribed limit but does not exceed the upper one, the section printing one crore to ten crore and rule 4 of the Rules of 2021 prescribing fifty lakh to two crore, and under sub-clause (ii) over complaints against unfair contracts where the consideration does not exceed ten crore rupees. Appellate jurisdiction under sub-clause (iii) over the orders of any District Commission within the State. And revisional jurisdiction under clause (b) to call for the records of and pass orders in any dispute pending before or decided by a District Commission in the State, where that Commission has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, has failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or has acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity. Its jurisdiction may be exercised by Benches, the senior-most member presiding.

2. Compare the appeal from a District Commission with the appeal from a State Commission. An appeal from a District Commission lies to the State Commission under section 41, on grounds of fact or law, within forty-five days, and the State Commission may condone delay for sufficient cause; an appellant ordered to pay must deposit fifty per cent of the amount, and no appeal lies from an order recording a mediation settlement under section 81(1). An appeal from a State Commission lies to the National Commission under section 51, but only against orders made in the exercise of its original jurisdiction under sub-clause (i) or (ii) of section 47(1)(a), within thirty days, again subject to condonation for sufficient cause and to a deposit of fifty per cent. The consequence is that an order made by a State Commission in appeal is not itself appealable: the remedy against it is the National Commission's revisional power under section 58(1)(b), or a petition under article 226 or 227.

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Chapter Eighty-Three

The National Commission

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

The National Commission hears complaints above two crore rupees, appeals from the State Commissions and from the Central Authority, and revisions, and an appeal from it lies to the Supreme Court.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is set up by section 53 and manned under section 54 by a President with a minimum of four members. Section 58 confers four jurisdictions on it, original above the prescribed value, original over unfair contracts above ten crore rupees, appellate from the State Commissions and from the Central Authority, and revisional over the State Commissions on the three grounds already learnt for section 47(1)(b). Section 60 empowers it to review its own orders, and section 67 carries a further appeal to the Supreme Court, limited to orders in original jurisdiction, to be filed in thirty days and preceded by a deposit of half of whatever the appellant was ordered to pay.

Establishment and composition

Section 53. The Central Government shall establish the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, known as the National Commission. It ordinarily functions in the National Capital Region and may sit elsewhere as notified, and the Central Government may establish regional Benches.

Section 54. Its strength is a President together with a minimum of four members, the maximum being left to the rules.

Sections 55 to 57 deal with qualifications, appointment and conditions of service, with vacancies, and with officers and employees. Sections 59, 61 to 66 deal with the procedure applicable, its powers, the finality of orders, and connected matters.

The four jurisdictions: section 58

Original. Complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the prescribed amount, printed as ten crore rupees and prescribed as two crore; and complaints against unfair contracts where the value paid as consideration exceeds ten crore rupees.

Appellate over the State Commissions. Appeals against the orders of any State Commission.

Appellate over the regulator. Appeals against the orders of the Central Authority, which section 24 provides for, within thirty days.

Revisional. The records of any dispute pending before or already decided by a State Commission may be sent for, and such order made on them as the case requires, on the same three grounds that section 47(1)(b) gives a State Commission over a District Commission and which chapter [The State Commission] sets out word for word: jurisdiction assumed without authority, jurisdiction refused when it existed, or jurisdiction used illegally or with material irregularity.

Benches. By section 58(2) the President may constitute Benches to exercise these jurisdictions, the seniormost member of a Bench taking the chair, and section 58(3) says what happens when the members of a Bench differ.

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Review, administrative control and appeal

Section 60: review. An order of the National Commission may be reopened by the Commission itself where the record discloses an error apparent on its face, either suo motu or at the instance of a party who applies in thirty days.

Under the Act of 1986 the National Commission had no general power of review, and the Supreme Court so held; the Act of 2019 gives all three Commissions the power, in sections 40, 50 and 60. That is a change worth stating in an answer.

Section 70: administrative control. The National Commission has authority to lay down adequate standards, to monitor the functioning of the State and District Commissions and to require periodical returns from them, which chapter [How a Complaint Is Decided] notes.

Section 67: appeal to the Supreme Court. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the National Commission in exercise of its original jurisdiction, under sub-clause (i) or (ii) of clause (a) of section 58(1), may appeal to the Supreme Court within thirty days. The Supreme Court may entertain a late appeal for sufficient cause, and an appellant required to pay any amount must first deposit fifty per cent of it.

So the statutory appeal to the Supreme Court is available only against what the National Commission decides at first instance. Where it has acted as an appellate or revisional forum, the dissatisfied party must fall back on the constitutional remedies, special leave under article 136 or a writ under article 226 or 227; chapter [Judicial Review of the Consumer Commissions] works those out.

Section 68: finality. Every order of a District Commission, State Commission or the National Commission is final if no appeal has been preferred against it under the Act.

The three tiers at a glance

District CommissionState CommissionNational Commission
Established byState Government, section 28State Government, section 42Central Government, section 53
CompositionPresident and not less than two membersPresident and not less than four membersPresident and not less than four members
Original jurisdiction, as prescribedUp to fifty lakhAbove fifty lakh to two croreAbove two crore
Unfair contractsNot conferredUp to ten croreAbove ten crore
Appeals fromNot applicableDistrict Commissions in the StateState Commissions, and the Central Authority
Revision overNot applicableDistrict CommissionsState Commissions
ReviewSection 40Section 50Section 60
Appeal lies toState Commission, forty-five days, section 41National Commission, thirty days, section 51Supreme Court, thirty days, section 67
Deposit to appealFifty per centFifty per centFifty per cent

A worked example

A buyer pays Rs. 3 crore for a commercial building sold as residential.

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Where does he complain? The National Commission, since the consideration exceeds two crore.

If the builder loses and wants to appeal? To the Supreme Court under section 67 within thirty days, after depositing fifty per cent of what he was ordered to pay.

If instead the buyer had paid Rs. 1 crore, he would go to the State Commission; an appeal from its order would lie to the National Commission under section 51; and from the National Commission's appellate order there would be no appeal under section 67, so the remedy would be a petition under article 136 or a writ petition.

If a State Commission decides a complaint worth five crore, it has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, and the National Commission may act in revision under section 58(1)(b).

If the Central Authority orders a recall against the builder, his appeal lies to the National Commission under section 24, within thirty days.

What it does NOT mean

Not every order of the National Commission is appealable to the Supreme Court. Only orders in original jurisdiction under section 67.

The National Commission is not only a court. Section 70 gives it administrative control over the other Commissions.

Review is not new to Indian consumer law by accident. The Act of 2019 conferred it deliberately, in sections 40, 50 and 60.

The printed figure of ten crore is not the operative one.

Quick revision

  1. Section 53: the National Commission, ordinarily in the National Capital Region, with regional Benches possible.
  2. Section 54: a President and not less than four members.
  3. Section 58(1)(a)(i): original jurisdiction above ten crore as printed, above two crore as prescribed; (ii) unfair contracts above ten crore; (iii) appeals from State Commissions; (iv) appeals from the Central Authority.
  4. Section 58(1)(b): revision over State Commissions on the three grounds.
  5. Section 60: review for an error apparent on the face of the record within thirty days; sections 40 and 50 give the same power to the other two Commissions.
  6. Section 67: appeal to the Supreme Court within thirty days from orders in original jurisdiction, with a fifty per cent deposit.
  7. Section 68: an order is final if no appeal is preferred under the Act.
  8. Section 70: administrative control over the State and District Commissions.

Test yourself

1. What is the jurisdiction of the National Commission? Fourfold under section 58(1). Original jurisdiction over complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the prescribed amount, the section printing ten crore rupees and rule 5 of the Rules of 2021 prescribing two crore, and over complaints against unfair contracts where the consideration exceeds ten crore rupees. Appellate jurisdiction over the orders of any State Commission. Appellate jurisdiction over the orders of the Central Authority, which section 24 provides for within thirty days. And revisional jurisdiction to call for the records of and pass orders in any dispute pending before or decided by a State Commission which has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity. Its jurisdiction may be exercised by Benches constituted by the President, the senior-most member presiding.

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2. What appeals lie under the Act, and on what conditions? From a District Commission to the State Commission under section 41, on facts or law, within forty-five days. From a State Commission to the National Commission under section 51, but only against orders in its original jurisdiction, within thirty days. From the Central Authority to the National Commission under section 24, within thirty days. And from the National Commission to the Supreme Court under section 67, again only against orders in original jurisdiction, within thirty days. In each case delay may be condoned for sufficient cause, and in each case an appellant who has been ordered to pay any amount must first deposit fifty per cent of it. No appeal lies from an order recording a mediation settlement under section 81(1), and by section 68 an order is final if no appeal is preferred under the Act.

3. What is the significance of the power of review in the Act of 2019? Under the Act of 1986 the Commissions had no general power to review their own orders, so an order containing an obvious mistake, an arithmetical slip or an error apparent on the record, could be corrected only by appeal, which cost the parties time and money and clogged the higher fora. The Act of 2019 confers the power expressly at all three levels: section 40 on the District Commission, section 50 on the State Commission and section 60 on the National Commission, in each case where there is an error apparent on the face of the record, exercisable of the Commission's own motion or on an application by a party made within thirty days. It is not a rehearing, and it cannot be used to reargue the merits; its value is that a plain error can be put right by the forum that made it.

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Chapter Eighty-Four

Mediation under the Act

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

A Commission may send a consumer dispute to a mediator attached to it, and if the parties settle, the Commission records the settlement and disposes of the case.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: section 37 empowers a Commission, at the first hearing after admission or at any later stage, where it appears that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, to direct them to give their written consent within five days to have the dispute settled by mediation, and to refer the matter within five days of receiving that consent; Chapter V, sections 74 to 81, provides for consumer mediation cells attached to each Commission, the empanelment and nomination of mediators, their duty to disclose conflicts, the procedure, the settlement and the recording of it.

The reference: section 37

When. At the first hearing of the complaint after its admission, or at any later stage.

On what footing. Where it appears to the Commission that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, except in such cases as may be prescribed.

How. It directs the parties to give in writing, within five days, their consent to have the dispute settled by mediation.

Then. Where the parties agree and give written consent, the Commission shall within five days of receipt of that consent refer the matter for mediation, and Chapter V applies.

Mediation is consensual. The Commission may propose it; it cannot compel a settlement, and if consent is not given the complaint proceeds under section 38.

The machinery: Chapter V

Section 74: consumer mediation cells. The State Government shall establish a consumer mediation cell attached to each District Commission and to the State Commission of that State, and the Central Government shall establish one attached to the National Commission and to each of its regional Benches.

Section 75: empanelment of mediators. The National Commission or the State Commission shall prepare a panel of mediators, and the qualifications, experience, procedure for empanelment, the term and the fees are as prescribed.

Section 76: nomination from the panel. The Commission nominates a mediator from the panel.

Section 77: the mediator's duty to disclose. He must disclose any personal, professional or financial interest in the outcome, any circumstance giving rise to a justifiable doubt as to his independence or impartiality, and any other fact likely to create a doubt.

Section 78: replacement. Where such facts appear, or a party objects on that ground, the Commission replaces the mediator.

Section 79: the procedure. Mediation is held in the consumer mediation cell attached to the Commission, and the mediator conducts it in the prescribed manner, hearing the parties, examining the issues, and communicating his view.

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The outcome: sections 80 and 81

Section 80: settlement. If an agreement is reached on all the issues, or on only some of them, the terms are reduced to writing and signed by the parties or their authorised representatives. The mediator prepares a settlement report and forwards the signed agreement with it to the Commission. Where no agreement is reached within the specified time, or the mediator is of opinion that settlement is not possible, he prepares his report accordingly and submits it.

Section 81: recording the settlement. Within seven days of receipt of the settlement report, the Commission passes a suitable order recording the settlement and disposes of the matter. Where the dispute is settled only in part, it records the settlement of the issues settled and continues to hear the rest.

And the consequence that matters most. The third proviso to section 41 provides that no appeal shall lie from an order passed under section 81(1) pursuant to a settlement by mediation under section 80. A settlement recorded by the Commission therefore ends the case.

Why it was put in

Three reasons, and an examiner likes them.

Speed. Section 38(7) sets a target of three months for a complaint; a mediated settlement can end it in weeks.

Suitability. Most consumer disputes are about money and performance, and both are negotiable.

Finality. Because an order recording the settlement is not appealable, mediation removes the second and third rounds of litigation, which is where the delay in consumer cases actually lies.

A worked example

A buyer complains that a car dealer delivered a vehicle with a defective gearbox and refuses to replace it.

At the first hearing the Commission sees that the dealer is willing to repair and the buyer is willing to accept a repair with an extended warranty. Elements of a settlement exist, so it directs the parties to give written consent within five days.

They consent. Within five days of receiving the consent the Commission refers the matter to the consumer mediation cell attached to it and nominates a mediator from the panel.

The mediator discloses that he has done work for the dealer's group in the past; the buyer objects; the Commission replaces him under section 78.

They settle on a replacement gearbox, an extended warranty and Rs. 20,000 towards costs. The terms are reduced to writing and signed, and the mediator sends the agreement with his report.

Within seven days the Commission passes an order recording the settlement and disposes of the complaint.

The dealer later regrets the bargain. No appeal lies, by the third proviso to section 41.

And if they had settled only the gearbox and not the costs? Section 81(2): the Commission records the settlement on that issue and continues to hear the rest.

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What it does NOT mean

Mediation is not compulsory. Consent in writing is required.

The mediator does not decide. He assists the parties to agree.

A failed mediation does not end the complaint. The mediator reports the failure and the Commission proceeds under section 38.

A recorded settlement is not appealable. That is the point of it.

Quick revision

  1. Section 37: reference to mediation at the first hearing or later, where elements of a settlement exist; written consent within five days; reference within five days of consent.
  2. Section 74: consumer mediation cells attached to the District, State and National Commissions and the regional Benches.
  3. Section 75: panels of mediators prepared by the National or State Commission. Section 76: nomination from the panel.
  4. Section 77: the mediator's duty to disclose interests and circumstances raising justifiable doubts. Section 78: replacement.
  5. Section 79: mediation is held in the cell attached to the Commission.
  6. Section 80: settlement in whole or in part reduced to writing and signed; the mediator's report; a report of failure where no agreement is reached.
  7. Section 81: the Commission records the settlement within seven days and disposes of the matter; a partial settlement is recorded and the rest heard.
  8. Third proviso to section 41: no appeal lies from an order recording a mediation settlement.

Test yourself

1. How does a consumer dispute go to mediation, and what happens afterwards? Under section 37, at the first hearing after admission or at any later stage, if it appears to the Commission that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, and the case is not one excepted by the rules, it may direct them to give their consent in writing within five days to have the dispute settled by mediation; where they consent, it refers the matter within five days of receiving the consent, and Chapter V applies. The mediation is held in the consumer mediation cell attached to the Commission under section 79, before a mediator nominated from a panel under sections 75 and 76, who must disclose any interest or circumstance raising a justifiable doubt about his impartiality under section 77 and may be replaced under section 78. If the parties agree, wholly or partly, section 80 requires the terms to be reduced to writing and signed and the mediator to send the agreement with a settlement report; section 81 requires the Commission, within seven days, to pass an order recording the settlement and dispose of the matter, or, where only part is settled, to record that part and continue hearing the rest. If no agreement is reached the mediator reports the failure and the complaint proceeds under section 38.

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2. Why is an order recording a mediation settlement not appealable? Because the third proviso to section 41 says so in terms: no appeal lies from an order passed under section 81(1) by a District Commission pursuant to a settlement by mediation under section 80. The reason is that the order does not decide anything; it records what the parties themselves agreed, so there is no adjudication to appeal against, and permitting an appeal would destroy the value of mediation by adding the very rounds of litigation it was meant to remove. It follows that a party should be as careful in mediation as at a hearing, and that the mediator's duty of disclosure under section 77, and the power of replacement under section 78, are the safeguards that make the finality acceptable.

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Chapter Eighty-Five

Product Liability

Syllabus topic 4.1, "Consumer: Definition; Defect in goods."

In one line

A manufacturer, a service provider and a seller may each be made to compensate a person harmed by a defective product, and the manufacturer cannot escape by proving he was not negligent.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: Chapter VI of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 applies to every claim for compensation under a product liability action for harm caused by a defective product, and section 83 allows such an action against a product manufacturer, a product service provider or a product seller.

Then, taking each in turn: section 84 makes a manufacturer liable on five grounds, and provides expressly that he is liable even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty.

Section 85 makes a service provider liable on four grounds.

Section 86 makes a seller who is not the manufacturer liable on five grounds, and section 87 provides the exceptions.

The vocabulary

Product liability means the responsibility of a product manufacturer, seller or service provider to compensate for harm caused to a consumer by a defective product or a deficiency in services relating to it.

Product liability action is a complaint by a person before a Commission for that compensation.

Manufacturer is defined by section 2(24) as a person who makes any goods or parts of them; or assembles any goods or parts made by others; or puts, or causes to be put, his own mark on goods made by another person. The third limb is the one worth remembering: a trader who buys goods from a factory and sells them under his own brand is a manufacturer for this Act, and cannot answer a consumer by saying he only sold them.

Harm, in relation to a product liability action, covers damage to property other than the product itself, personal injury, illness or death, mental agony or emotional distress accompanying personal injury or damage to property, and loss of consortium or services, but not harm to the product itself, damage to property on account of a breach of warranty conditions, or commercial or economic loss including loss of profits.

Who may be made liable, and on what grounds

Section 84: the product manufacturer. He is liable if:

(a) the product contains a manufacturing defect;

(b) the product is defective in design;

(c) there is a deviation from manufacturing specifications;

(d) the product does not conform to the express warranty; or

(e) the product fails to contain adequate instructions of correct usage to prevent harm, or a warning about improper or incorrect usage.

And sub-section (2) is the heart of the chapter: a product manufacturer is liable even if he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product. That is liability without fault, stated in a statute.

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Section 85: the product service provider. He is liable if the service was faulty, imperfect, deficient or inadequate in quality, nature or manner of performance as required by law or by contract; or there was an act of omission or commission or negligence or conscious withholding of information which caused harm; or he did not issue adequate instructions or warnings to prevent harm; or the service did not conform to the express warranty or the terms of the contract.

Section 86: the product seller who is not the manufacturer. He is liable if he exercised substantial control over the designing, testing, manufacturing, packaging or labelling of the product that caused harm; or he altered or modified the product and that was a substantial factor in causing the harm; or he made an express warranty of his own, independent of the manufacturer's, and the product failed to conform to it; or the identity of the manufacturer is not known, or is known but process cannot be served on him, or he is not subject to Indian law, or an order cannot be enforced against him; or he failed to exercise reasonable care in assembling, inspecting or maintaining the product, or did not pass on the manufacturer's warnings or instructions, and that failure was the proximate cause of the harm.

The exceptions: section 87

Against the seller. No product liability action lies against a product seller if, at the time of harm, the product was misused, altered or modified.

Against the manufacturer, in warning cases. In an action based on the failure to provide adequate warnings or instructions, the manufacturer is not liable where the product was purchased by an employer for use at the workplace and warnings or instructions were given to the employer; where the product was sold as a component or material for use in another product and the necessary warnings were given to the purchaser of the component; where the product was legally meant to be used or dispensed only by or under the supervision of an expert and the manufacturer employed reasonable means to give the warnings to that expert; or where the complainant, while using the product, was under the influence of alcohol or a prescription drug not prescribed by a medical practitioner.

And two more. A manufacturer is not liable for failing to warn about a danger that is obvious or commonly known to the user, or which the user ought to have known taking into account the characteristics of the product.

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Product liability against the ordinary law

A claim in negligenceA product liability action
What must be provedDuty, breach and damageOne of the statutory grounds
FaultEssentialSection 84(2): not a defence for a manufacturer
ForumCivil courtA Consumer Commission
Who may be suedThe person at faultManufacturer, service provider and seller, on their own grounds
Harm coveredAs at common lawAs defined, excluding harm to the product itself and pure economic loss

A worked example

A pressure cooker explodes and injures Vidya in her kitchen, ruining the kitchen as well.

Against the manufacturer. A product liability action under section 84 on the ground of a manufacturing defect, or defective design, or the absence of adequate instructions or warnings. It is no answer that he was not negligent, because of section 84(2).

Against the shop that sold it. Under section 86 only if one of its five grounds is made out, for example that it altered the cooker, gave its own warranty, failed to pass on the manufacturer's warnings, or that the manufacturer cannot be identified or reached.

Against the service centre that serviced it badly, under section 85.

What can she recover? Compensation for her injury, for the damage to the kitchen, and for the mental agony accompanying them. Not the value of the cooker itself, which is harm to the product, and not lost profits.

If she had removed the safety valve herself, section 87(1) protects the seller, because the product was altered at the time of harm.

And if the explosion happened at her employer's canteen, and the manufacturer had given the warnings to the employer, section 87(2)(a) protects the manufacturer in a warning-based claim.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a claim for the product itself. Harm excludes damage to the product, and the remedy for that is a defect complaint under section 39.

It is not confined to manufacturers. Service providers and sellers have their own grounds.

A seller is not liable merely because he sold the thing. Section 86 requires one of five grounds.

It does not cover commercial or economic loss. Loss of profits is excluded.

Quick revision

  1. Chapter VI, sections 82 to 87, is new with the Act of 2019.
  2. Section 83: an action lies against a product manufacturer, a product service provider or a product seller.
  3. Section 84: five grounds against a manufacturer, and sub-section (2) makes him liable even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty.
  4. Section 85: four grounds against a service provider.
  5. Section 86: five grounds against a seller who is not the manufacturer, including that the manufacturer cannot be identified or reached.
  6. Section 87: no action against a seller where the product was misused, altered or modified; and the warning exceptions for workplace purchases, components, expert-supervised products, and a complainant under the influence of alcohol or an unprescribed drug; no duty to warn of obvious or commonly known dangers.
  7. Harm excludes damage to the product itself and commercial or economic loss.
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Test yourself

1. What is a product liability action, and against whom does it lie? It is a complaint before a Consumer Commission for compensation for harm caused by a defective product or by a deficiency in services relating to it, and Chapter VI of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 governs it. Section 83 allows it against a product manufacturer, a product service provider or a product seller. A manufacturer is liable under section 84 where the product contains a manufacturing defect, is defective in design, deviates from manufacturing specifications, does not conform to the express warranty, or fails to contain adequate instructions of correct usage or a warning against improper usage; and section 84(2) provides that he is liable even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty. A service provider is liable under section 85 where the service was faulty, imperfect, deficient or inadequate, where there was an act of omission or commission or negligence or conscious withholding of information causing harm, where adequate instructions or warnings were not issued, or where the service did not conform to the express warranty or the contract. A seller who is not the manufacturer is liable under section 86 on five grounds, including substantial control over design or manufacture, alteration of the product, his own express warranty, the manufacturer being unidentifiable or unreachable, and a failure of reasonable care in assembling, inspecting or maintaining the product or in passing on warnings.

2. What are the exceptions to a product liability action? Section 87 provides them. No action lies against a product seller if, at the time of the harm, the product was misused, altered or modified. In an action based on a failure to provide adequate warnings or instructions, the manufacturer is not liable where the product was purchased by an employer for use at the workplace and warnings were given to the employer; where it was sold as a component or material for use in another product and the necessary warnings were given to the purchaser of the component; where the product was legally meant to be used or dispensed only by or under the supervision of an expert and the manufacturer used reasonable means to warn that expert; or where the complainant, while using the product, was under the influence of alcohol or of a prescription drug not prescribed by a medical practitioner. A manufacturer is also not liable for failing to warn of a danger which is obvious or commonly known, or which the user ought to have known having regard to the characteristics of the product.

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Chapter Eighty-Six

Offences and Penalties under the Consumer Law

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

The Act punishes disobedience of the regulator, misleading advertisements, and the manufacture or sale of adulterated or spurious goods, with punishment rising to life imprisonment where a consumer dies.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: Chapter VII of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 creates the offences; section 88 punishes non-compliance with a direction of the Central Authority, section 89 a false or misleading advertisement, section 90 the manufacture, storage, sale, distribution or import of goods containing an adulterant, and section 91 the same acts in relation to spurious goods, the punishment in the last two graded by the harm caused and rising to imprisonment for life where a consumer dies; section 92 requires a complaint by the Central Authority or an officer authorised by it before a court takes cognizance, section 93 punishes a vexatious search, and section 96 allows compounding of offences under sections 88 and 89.

The offences

Section 88: disobeying the Central Authority. Whoever fails to comply with a direction of the Central Authority is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to twenty lakh rupees, or with both.

Section 89: false or misleading advertisement. Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to ten lakh rupees; for a subsequent offence, imprisonment up to five years and fine up to fifty lakh rupees. Chapter [Misleading Advertisements and the Liability of an Endorser] works it out.

Section 90: adulterated goods. Whoever, by himself or through another, manufactures for sale, stores, sells, distributes or imports any product containing an adulterant is punishable:

(a) where the act does not result in injury, with imprisonment up to six months and fine up to one lakh rupees;

(b) where it causes injury not amounting to grievous hurt, with imprisonment up to one year and fine up to three lakh rupees;

(c) where it causes grievous hurt, with imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees;

(d) where it results in death, with imprisonment of not less than seven years, which may extend to imprisonment for life, and fine of not less than ten lakh rupees.

Sub-section (2): the offences in clauses (c) and (d) are cognizable and non-bailable.

Sub-section (3): besides the punishment, the court may, on a first conviction, suspend any licence issued to the person under any law for up to two years, and on a second or subsequent conviction, cancel it.

Section 91: spurious goods. The same three grades for injury, grievous hurt and death, with the same penalties as clauses (b), (c) and (d) of section 90, spurious goods being goods falsely claimed to be genuine under section 2(43).

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Procedure and protection

Section 92: cognizance. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under sections 88 and 89 except on a complaint in writing made by the Central Authority or any officer authorised by it.

Section 93: vexatious search. The Director-General or any other officer exercising powers under section 22 who knows there are no reasonable grounds for doing so and searches or causes a search to be made is punishable with imprisonment up to one year or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both.

Section 95: public servants. The Presidents and members of the Commissions, the Chief Commissioner and Commissioners of the Central Authority and certain officers are deemed public servants.

Section 96: compounding. An offence punishable under sections 88 and 89 may be compounded, either before or after the institution of prosecution, by the Central Authority on payment of such amount as may be prescribed; where an offence has been compounded, no prosecution shall be instituted for the same offence, and a person who does not comply with the compounding order is liable to pay a further sum.

Section 98: good faith. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding lies against the Presidents, members, officers or employees for anything done in good faith under the Act.

E-commerce and the machinery sections

Section 94: e-commerce and direct selling. For the purposes of preventing unfair trade practices in e-commerce and direct selling and protecting the interest and rights of consumers, the Central Government may take such measures in the manner as may be prescribed. This is the provision under which the e-commerce rules are made, and it is the Act's only direct handle on online selling.

Section 97 and 99. The Central Government's power to give directions, and connected provisions.

Section 100: not in derogation. The provisions of the Act are in addition to and not in derogation of any other law for the time being in force. That is the section which lets a consumer sue in a civil court as well, and it is the basis on which State of Karnataka v. Vishwabharathi House Building Co-operative Society, (2003) 2 SCC 412, upheld the Act, and on which Emaar MGF Land Ltd v. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751, held that a consumer complaint is not to be referred to arbitration.

Sections 101 to 105. Rule-making by the Central Government, by the State Governments, regulations by the National Commission and by the Central Authority, and the laying of rules and regulations before Parliament.

A worked example

A trader sells packaged spices adulterated with a colouring agent. Two customers fall ill, one seriously, and one dies.

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The offence. Section 90, on three different grades depending on the consumer: up to six months and one lakh where there is no injury; up to one year and three lakh for injury not amounting to grievous hurt; up to seven years and five lakh for grievous hurt; and not less than seven years, extending to life, with a fine of not less than ten lakh, for the death.

Arrest. The grievous hurt and death offences are cognizable and non-bailable under section 90(2).

The licence. On a first conviction the court may suspend his food licence for up to two years, and on a second cancel it, under section 90(3).

If the spices had been passed off as a well-known brand, section 91 would apply as well, spurious goods being goods falsely claimed to be genuine.

If the Central Authority had ordered him to stop and he continued, section 88 gives up to six months or twenty lakh rupees or both, and only the Central Authority or its authorised officer may complain, under section 92.

And the customers' own claims? Compensation before a Consumer Commission, and a product liability action under Chapter VI, since section 100 keeps every other remedy alive.

What it does NOT mean

These punishments are not awarded by the Commissions. They are offences tried by criminal courts; the Commissions award compensation and may punish non-compliance with their own orders under section 72.

Not every offence may be compounded. Section 96 covers sections 88 and 89 only.

A private person cannot prosecute under sections 88 and 89. Section 92 requires a complaint by the Central Authority or an authorised officer.

The Act does not displace other laws. Section 100 says it is in addition to them.

Quick revision

  1. Section 88: non-compliance with a direction of the Central Authority, up to six months or twenty lakh rupees or both.
  2. Section 89: false or misleading advertisement, up to two years and ten lakh rupees; five years and fifty lakh for a subsequent offence.
  3. Section 90: adulterated goods, graded from six months and one lakh where there is no injury to not less than seven years extending to life and not less than ten lakh where a consumer dies.
  4. Section 90(2): the grievous hurt and death offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Section 90(3): suspension of licence up to two years on a first conviction, cancellation on a second.
  5. Section 91: spurious goods, on the same graded scale.
  6. Section 92: cognizance only on a complaint by the Central Authority or an authorised officer.
  7. Section 93: vexatious search, up to one year or ten thousand rupees or both.
  8. Section 96: compounding of offences under sections 88 and 89.
  9. Section 94: measures to prevent unfair trade practices in e-commerce and direct selling, as prescribed.
  10. Section 100: the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.
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Test yourself

1. What are the offences under the Consumer Protection Act 2019 and their punishments? Section 88 punishes failure to comply with a direction of the Central Authority with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to twenty lakh rupees or both. Section 89 punishes a manufacturer or service provider who causes a false or misleading advertisement prejudicial to the interest of consumers with imprisonment up to two years and fine up to ten lakh rupees, and for a subsequent offence up to five years and fifty lakh rupees. Section 90 punishes the manufacture for sale, storage, sale, distribution or import of a product containing an adulterant on a graded scale: up to six months and one lakh rupees where no injury results; up to one year and three lakh where injury not amounting to grievous hurt is caused; up to seven years and five lakh for grievous hurt; and not less than seven years, extending to imprisonment for life, with fine of not less than ten lakh rupees, where a consumer dies. The last two are cognizable and non-bailable, and the court may suspend the offender's licence for up to two years on a first conviction and cancel it on a second. Section 91 applies the same graded scale to spurious goods, and section 93 punishes a vexatious search.

2. Who may prosecute, and can these offences be compounded? Section 92 provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence under sections 88 and 89 except on a complaint in writing made by the Central Authority or by an officer authorised by it, so a private consumer cannot set those prosecutions in motion; his own remedy is a complaint for compensation before a Commission, and a product liability action where the harm was caused by a defective product. Section 96 allows an offence punishable under sections 88 and 89 to be compounded, either before or after the institution of prosecution, by the Central Authority on payment of the prescribed amount, and where an offence has been compounded no prosecution shall be instituted for the same offence; a person who fails to comply with a compounding order is liable to pay a further sum. The offences under sections 90 and 91, which involve adulterated and spurious goods, are not within the compounding provision.

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Chapter Eighty-Seven

Judicial Review of the Consumer Commissions

Syllabus topic 4.4, "Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies: District Commission, State Commission & National Commission, Judicial Review."

In one line

A High Court may correct a Commission under articles 226 and 227, the Supreme Court hears appeals from the National Commission's original orders, and neither an arbitration clause nor a special statute keeps a consumer out.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the orders of the Consumer Commissions are subject to the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under article 226 and their power of superintendence under article 227, and to the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under section 67 in respect of the National Commission's original orders and under article 136 otherwise; within the Act the control is exercised by appeal, by the revisional powers in sections 47(1)(b) and 58(1)(b) and by the power of review; and the Supreme Court has held that the consumer remedy is an additional remedy which is not displaced by an arbitration clause or by the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act 2016.

The controls inside the Act

Appeal. From the District Commission to the State Commission under section 41, from the State Commission's original orders to the National Commission under section 51, from the Central Authority to the National Commission under section 24, and from the National Commission's original orders to the Supreme Court under section 67.

Revision. A State Commission may call for the record of a District Commission, and the National Commission that of a State Commission, where it has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity: sections 47(1)(b) and 58(1)(b).

Review. For an error apparent on the face of the record: sections 40, 50 and 60.

Administrative control. Section 70: the National Commission monitors the State and District Commissions, and a State Commission the District Commissions in its State.

The controls outside the Act

Article 227. A High Court has power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction, and a Consumer Commission is such a tribunal.

Article 226. A writ petition lies against an order of a Commission, though it is not entertained as a matter of course where the Act provides an appeal, because an alternative remedy is a discretionary bar.

Article 136. Special leave to appeal to the Supreme Court, which is the route where section 67 does not apply, that is, against the National Commission's appellate and revisional orders.

Say in an answer that the existence of a statutory appeal does not oust the constitutional jurisdiction; it only makes a court slow to exercise it.

The Act's own validity

Facts. State of Karnataka v. Vishwabharathi House Building Co-operative Society, (2003) 2 SCC 412, decided on 17 January 2003. The constitutional validity of the Consumer Protection Act 1986 was challenged on the grounds that its fora exercised judicial power without judicial members of adequate standing, that their summary procedure denied a fair hearing, and that they encroached on the jurisdiction of the civil courts.

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Held. The Act was valid. It was enacted to provide a cheap, speedy and efficacious remedy; the remedy it gives is in addition to and not in derogation of other remedies; the procedure is summary but not unfair, since complicated questions may be left to a civil court; and a statute is not to be struck down as ultra vires or unworkable merely because its procedure differs from that of the ordinary courts.

Why it matters here. It is the answer to any question asking whether the Commissions may decide disputes at all.

Can a consumer be kept out? Two lines of cases

An arbitration clause does not oust the Commission.

Facts. Emaar MGF Land Ltd v. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751, decided on 10 December 2018. Flat buyers complained of delay, and the builder applied to refer the disputes to arbitration under the arbitration clauses in the buyers' agreements.

Held. A complaint before a consumer forum is not liable to be referred to arbitration merely because the agreement contains an arbitration clause. The consumer remedy is an additional special remedy created by statute for a class of persons, and the arbitration remedy is barred by implication for such disputes. Where a person entitled to that special remedy does not opt for it and is party to an arbitration agreement, there is no bar to arbitration.

Nor does a special statute for the sector.

Facts. Imperia Structures Ltd v. Anil Patni, (2020) 10 SCC 783, decided on 2 November 2020. Allottees complained of delay after the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act 2016 came into force, and the builder argued that section 79 of that Act barred the consumer fora.

Held. Section 79 does not in any way bar a Commission or Forum under the consumer law from entertaining a complaint. The proviso to section 71(1) of the Real Estate Act entitles a complainant who had begun proceedings under the consumer law to withdraw them with permission and apply to the adjudicating officer; it gives an option and does not compel withdrawal, and that Act creates no mechanism for transferring pending consumer proceedings.

And an unfair clause in the contract does not bind the consumer.

Facts. Ireo Grace Realtech Pvt. Ltd v. Abhishek Khanna, (2021) 3 SCC 241, decided on 11 January 2021. Apartment buyers complained of long delay; the developer relied on the terms of the buyer's agreement, which gave it wide rights of extension and termination while confining the buyer to a small compensation.

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Held. The terms were wholly one-sided and unfair; incorporating such clauses is an unfair trade practice; and the developer cannot compel the buyers to be bound by them. The Court noted that the Act of 2019 expressly recognises the power to declare unfair contractual terms null and void, and that this is a statutory recognition of a power implicit under the Act of 1986. The buyers who did not wish to wait were entitled to refund with interest.

And the section that ties them together. Section 100 of the Act of 2019 provides that its provisions are in addition to and not in derogation of any other law for the time being in force, and Neena Aneja v. Jai Prakash Associates Ltd, decided on 16 March 2021, shows the same approach to the transition from the old Act: proceedings begun under the Act of 1986 continue where they were filed.

A worked example

A builder loses before the State Commission in appeal and wants to challenge the order.

An appeal under section 51? No: that lies only against the State Commission's original orders.

Revision to the National Commission under section 58(1)(b)? Yes, if the State Commission exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one, or acted illegally or with material irregularity.

A writ petition under article 226 or 227? Available, but a High Court will ask why the statutory route was not used.

An arbitration clause in the buyer's agreement? No answer at all, on Emaar MGF Land Ltd v. Aftab Singh.

The Real Estate Act? No bar either, on Imperia Structures Ltd v. Anil Patni.

The one-sided clauses in the agreement? Not binding, on Ireo Grace Realtech Pvt. Ltd v. Abhishek Khanna.

What it does NOT mean

A writ petition is not an appeal. It corrects jurisdictional error and gross illegality, not every mistake.

A statutory appeal does not oust article 226. It makes the court reluctant, not powerless.

Arbitration is not always excluded. A consumer who chooses not to use the special remedy may be referred to arbitration.

The Commissions are not outside the Constitution. They are tribunals subject to articles 226, 227 and 136.

Quick revision

  1. Inside the Act: appeal under sections 41, 51, 24 and 67; revision under sections 47(1)(b) and 58(1)(b); review under sections 40, 50 and 60; administrative control under section 70.
  2. Outside: article 227 superintendence, article 226 writ jurisdiction, article 136 special leave.
  3. State of Karnataka v. Vishwabharathi House Building Co-operative Society, (2003) 2 SCC 412: the Act is valid; the remedy is additional; the summary procedure is not unfair.
  4. Emaar MGF Land Ltd v. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751: an arbitration clause does not send a consumer complaint to arbitration.
  5. Imperia Structures Ltd v. Anil Patni, (2020) 10 SCC 783: section 79 of the Real Estate Act does not bar the consumer fora.
  6. Ireo Grace Realtech Pvt. Ltd v. Abhishek Khanna, (2021) 3 SCC 241: one-sided clauses are an unfair trade practice and do not bind the buyer.
  7. Section 100: the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.
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Test yourself

1. How are the orders of the Consumer Commissions controlled? Within the Act, by appeal, revision, review and administrative control: an appeal from the District Commission to the State Commission under section 41, from the State Commission's original orders to the National Commission under section 51, from the Central Authority to the National Commission under section 24, and from the National Commission's original orders to the Supreme Court under section 67; a revisional power in sections 47(1)(b) and 58(1)(b) where the lower Commission has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity; a power of review for an error apparent on the face of the record under sections 40, 50 and 60; and administrative control by the National Commission and the State Commissions under section 70. Outside the Act, a Commission is a tribunal subject to the superintendence of the High Court under article 227 and to its writ jurisdiction under article 226, and to special leave under article 136, though a court is slow to entertain a petition where the Act provides an appeal.

2. Can a consumer be compelled to go to arbitration, or to another statutory authority? No, on the authority of two decisions. In Emaar MGF Land Ltd v. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751, the Supreme Court held that a complaint before a consumer forum is not liable to be referred to arbitration merely because the agreement contains an arbitration clause, since the consumer remedy is an additional special remedy created by statute for a class of persons and the arbitration remedy is barred by implication for such disputes; it added that a person who does not opt for the special remedy may still be sent to arbitration. In Imperia Structures Ltd v. Anil Patni, (2020) 10 SCC 783, the Court held that section 79 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act 2016 does not bar a consumer forum, that the proviso to section 71(1) of that Act gives an allottee an option to withdraw and go to the adjudicating officer rather than an obligation, and that the Act creates no mechanism for transferring pending consumer proceedings. Section 100 of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 supplies the principle: the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.

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3. Is the consumer forum's summary procedure constitutionally valid? Yes. In State of Karnataka v. Vishwabharathi House Building Co-operative Society, (2003) 2 SCC 412, the constitutional validity of the Act of 1986 was challenged on the grounds that its fora exercised judicial power without judicial members of adequate standing, that their summary procedure denied a fair hearing and that they encroached on the jurisdiction of the civil courts. The Supreme Court upheld the Act, holding that it was enacted to give a cheap, speedy and efficacious remedy, that the remedy is in addition to and not in derogation of other remedies, that the summary procedure is not unfair because complicated questions may be left to a civil court, and that a statute is not to be struck down as ultra vires or unworkable merely because its procedure differs from that of the ordinary courts. The same approach explains V. Kishan Rao v. Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital, (2010) 5 SCC 513, which holds that simple cases may be decided on the Act's own procedure while complicated ones may go to the civil court.

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Chapter Eighty-Eight

The Motor Vehicles Act 1988: Scheme and Definitions

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

The Motor Vehicles Act 1988 governs everything about vehicles on Indian roads, and three of its chapters govern compensation for accidents.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, Act 59 of 1988, consolidates and amends the law relating to motor vehicles; for this syllabus the operative parts are Chapter XI, insurance of motor vehicles against third party risks, sections 145 to 164D as substituted with effect from 1 April 2022, and Chapter XII, Claims Tribunals, sections 165 to 176; the definitions in section 2 supply the words a claim turns on, and Chapter X, which contained the old no-fault liability in sections 140 to 144, stands omitted.

The plan of the Act

ChapterSectionsSubject
I1 to 2BPreliminary, definitions, e-carts and e-rickshaws, promotion of innovation
II3 to 28Licensing of drivers of motor vehicles
III29 to 38Licensing of conductors of stage carriages
IV39 to 65Registration of motor vehicles
V66 to 96Control of transport vehicles by permits
VI97 to 108Special provisions relating to State transport undertakings
VII109 to 111Construction, equipment and maintenance of motor vehicles
VIII112 to 138Control of traffic
IX139Motor vehicles temporarily leaving or visiting India
X140 to 144Liability without fault in certain cases: OMITTED with effect from 1 April 2022
XI145 to 164DInsurance of motor vehicles against third party risks
XII165 to 176Claims Tribunals
XIII177 to 210DOffences, penalties and procedure
XIV211 to 217AMiscellaneous

Chapters XI and XII are worked in full in the eight chapters that follow. Chapters I to IX, XIII and XIV are covered, section by section but briefly, in the five chapters at the end of this book, because the Act is the boundary of the syllabus even where MU's labels do not reach it.

The definitions a claim turns on

"Motor vehicle" or "vehicle", section 2(28). Any mechanically propelled vehicle adapted for use upon roads, whether the power of propulsion is transmitted from an external or an internal source, including a chassis to which a body has not been attached and a trailer; but not a vehicle running upon fixed rails, a vehicle of a special type adapted for use only in a factory or other enclosed premises, or a vehicle having less than four wheels fitted with an engine of a capacity not exceeding the limit the section states.

The words "adapted for use upon roads" have generated much of the litigation, because a machine designed for another purpose may still be a motor vehicle if it can be and is used on a road.

"Owner", section 2(30). The person in whose name the motor vehicle stands registered; where that person is a minor, the guardian; and where the vehicle is the subject of a hire-purchase, lease or hypothecation agreement, the person in possession under that agreement.

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That last limb decides many claims: the financier in whose name the vehicle stands is not the owner for this purpose if the vehicle is in the possession of a hire-purchaser.

"Driver", section 2(9). Includes, in relation to a motor vehicle drawn by another motor vehicle, the person who acts as a steersman of the drawn vehicle.

"Public place", section 2(34). A road, street, way or other place, whether a thoroughfare or not, to which the public have a right of access, and includes any place or stand at which passengers are picked up or set down by a stage carriage.

"Public service vehicle", section 2(35). Any motor vehicle used or adapted to be used for the carriage of passengers for hire or reward, including a maxicab, a motorcab, a contract carriage and a stage carriage.

"Goods carriage", section 2(14). Any motor vehicle constructed or adapted for use solely for the carriage of goods, or any motor vehicle not so constructed or adapted when used for the carriage of goods.

"Permit", section 2(31), and "prescribed", section 2(32), carry their ordinary statutory meanings.

Sections 2A and 2B. Section 2A applies the Act to e-carts and e-rickshaws with the modifications it states, and section 2B requires the Central Government to promote innovation, including the issue of exemptions for testing and research.

Why the definitions matter

A claim before a Claims Tribunal exists only where there was an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle. Each of the words is a definition, and each has been litigated: whether the machine was a motor vehicle, whether it was being used, whether the place was a public place, and who the owner was for the purpose of liability.

Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, decided on 17 July 1991, is the case on how widely "arising out of the use of a motor vehicle" is read, and chapter [What a Motor Accident Claim Is] works it out.

A worked example

Five machines, and whether the Act applies.

A car on a highway. Plainly a motor vehicle in a public place.

A crane working inside a factory yard and never taken on a road. Excluded by section 2(28), which takes out a vehicle of a special type adapted for use only in a factory or other enclosed premises.

A tractor with a trailer on a village road. A motor vehicle, and the trailer is expressly included.

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A goods lorry on hire purchase, registered in the financier's name and driven by the hirer. The owner for the purposes of the Act is the person in possession under the hire-purchase agreement, by section 2(30).

A tram running on fixed rails. Excluded.

What it does NOT mean

Chapter X is not the law. Sections 140 to 144 stand omitted since 1 April 2022.

The registered owner is not always the owner. A hire-purchaser in possession is.

A private compound is not necessarily outside. "Public place" turns on the public's right of access, not on ownership.

Not every machine on wheels is a motor vehicle. Section 2(28) excludes rail vehicles, factory-only vehicles and small engine capacities.

Quick revision

  1. Act 59 of 1988; the operative parts for this syllabus are Chapters XI and XII.
  2. Chapter X, sections 140 to 144, was omitted with effect from 1 April 2022 by section 50 of the amending Act of 2019, notified by S.O. 859(E).
  3. Chapter XI, sections 145 to 164D, was substituted whole with effect from the same date.
  4. Section 2(28): motor vehicle, including a chassis and a trailer, excluding rail vehicles, factory-only vehicles and vehicles below the stated engine capacity.
  5. Section 2(30): owner is the registered person, the guardian of a minor, or the person in possession under a hire-purchase, lease or hypothecation agreement.
  6. Section 2(34): public place is a place to which the public have a right of access, including a stage carriage stand.
  7. Sections 2(9), 2(14), 2(31), 2(32) and 2(35) supply driver, goods carriage, permit, prescribed and public service vehicle.
  8. Sections 2A and 2B deal with e-carts and e-rickshaws and with the promotion of innovation.

Test yourself

1. What are the parts of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 that matter to a claim for compensation, and what changed in 2022? Chapter XI, on insurance against third party risks, and Chapter XII, on Claims Tribunals, together with the definitions in section 2. The change is fundamental. S.O. 859(E) of 25 February 2022, made under section 1(2) of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019, appointed 1 April 2022 for sections 50 to 57 and 93 of that Act. In consequence Chapter X, which contained the old no-fault liability in sections 140 to 144, stands omitted; the whole of Chapter XI was substituted, so that sections 145 to 164 are new and sections 164A to 164D were added; section 165 now refers to section 164; section 166 acquired a six-month limitation in sub-section (3) and a new sub-section (5); section 169 acquired the powers of a civil court in execution; section 173 raised the appeal threshold to one lakh rupees; and the Second Schedule was omitted. Neither the consolidation on India Code nor any textbook printed before 2022 shows these changes.

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2. Define motor vehicle, owner and public place, and explain why each matters. Section 2(28) defines a motor vehicle as any mechanically propelled vehicle adapted for use upon roads, whether the power is transmitted from an external or internal source, including a chassis without a body and a trailer, but excluding a vehicle running on fixed rails, a vehicle of a special type adapted for use only in a factory or other enclosed premises, and a vehicle with fewer than four wheels below the stated engine capacity; it matters because the Tribunal's jurisdiction depends on the accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle. Section 2(30) defines owner as the person in whose name the vehicle is registered, the guardian where that person is a minor, and, where the vehicle is subject to a hire-purchase, lease or hypothecation agreement, the person in possession under that agreement; it matters because liability and the insurer's obligations attach to the owner, and a financier in whose name the vehicle stands is not the owner if a hire-purchaser holds it. Section 2(34) defines a public place as a road, street, way or other place, whether a thoroughfare or not, to which the public have a right of access, including a stage carriage stand; it matters because the obligation to insure under section 146 applies to use in a public place.

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Chapter Eighty-Nine

What a Motor Accident Claim Is

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

A motor accident claim is a statutory claim for compensation before a Tribunal, arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, and it has replaced the ordinary civil suit.

In the wording a student can write in an exam: a claim for compensation for an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle is made to a Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal constituted under section 165, and by section 175 no civil court has jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to such a claim where a Tribunal has been constituted for that area; the claim may be founded on fault, that is, on the negligence of the driver, or on the statutory no-fault provision, and the expression "arising out of the use of a motor vehicle" is construed widely.

The three ways compensation is claimed

1. On proof of fault. The ordinary claim: the claimant proves that the driver was negligent, and the owner is vicariously liable, and the insurer must satisfy the award. This is the route to full compensation, assessed as "just compensation" under section 168.

2. Without proof of fault. The statutory no-fault claim, now section 164, which gives fixed sums for death and grievous hurt with no inquiry into negligence at all. Chapter [Liability without Fault] works it out.

3. Where the vehicle is never identified. The hit and run scheme, sections 161 to 163, worked in chapter [Hit and Run, and the Golden Hour].

The bar on the civil court

Section 175 provides that where a Claims Tribunal has been constituted for any area, no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to any claim for compensation which may be adjudicated upon by the Tribunal for that area, and no injunction in respect of any action taken or to be taken by or before the Tribunal in respect of such a claim shall be granted by a civil court.

So the Tribunal is not an alternative to the civil court; where it exists, it is the only forum.

"Arising out of the use of a motor vehicle"

This is the phrase that decides jurisdiction, and it is read widely.

Facts. Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, (1991) 3 SCC 530, decided on 17 July 1991. A petrol tanker collided with a truck, went off the road and overturned. About four hours later the petrol that had leaked caught fire and exploded, killing and injuring a large number of people who had gathered near the tanker, many of them collecting the leaking petrol.

Held. The expression "arising out of the use of a motor vehicle" is wider than "caused by" the vehicle, and covers an accident having a causal relation with the use of the vehicle even where it occurs some time after the vehicle has come to rest. The explosion and fire were part of the same incident as the collision and overturning, so the claims arose out of the use of the tanker.

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Why it matters here. It is the case to cite whenever the vehicle was stationary, or the harm followed at an interval, and it explains why claims for injuries caused while loading, unloading or repairing a vehicle have been entertained.

Fault, no fault, and strict liability

Two judgments a generation apart show how the basis of the claim moved.

Facts. Minu B. Mehta v. Balkrishna Ramchandra Nayan, AIR 1977 SC 1248, decided on 28 January 1977. It was argued that an owner, and through him the insurer, should be liable for an accident on a public place without proof of negligence.

Held. Proof of negligence is necessary before the owner or the insurer can be held liable in the ordinary fault jurisdiction; liability without proof of negligence could not be imposed by the courts, and it was for Parliament to create it, which it later did to a limited extent by the no-fault provisions.

Facts. Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, decided on 3 January 2001. The Tribunal found neither rashness nor negligence and dismissed the claim, while directing payment of the fixed no-fault amount then provided.

Held. A claim may be maintained before a Claims Tribunal on the basis of the rule of strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher, so that even without negligence a victim of an accident occurring while a motor vehicle was in use is entitled to compensation unless one of the recognised exceptions to that rule applies. The Court distinguished the statutory no-fault liability, a fixed amount payable even where an exception would apply, from strict liability at common law, and noted that the no-fault amount is deducted from the final award.

Why they matter here. Together they show the three bases a claimant may put forward: negligence, strict liability at common law, and the statutory no-fault provision, with the last two independent of proof of fault.

A worked example

A lorry parked on a slope without its handbrake rolls down and injures Firoz two hours later.

Is it an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle? Yes, on Shivaji Dayanu Patil: the phrase is wider than "caused by", and covers harm with a causal relation to the use of the vehicle even after it has come to rest.

Where does he claim? Before the Claims Tribunal for the area, and by section 175 no civil court may entertain the question.

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On what basis? Negligence of the driver in parking; strict liability on Kaushnuma Begum; and the fixed no-fault amount under section 164 without proving anything about fault.

What if the lorry had been jacked up in a workshop and fell on a mechanic? Still capable of arising out of the use of the vehicle, on the reasoning of Shivaji Dayanu Patil, and the Tribunal would decide it.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a civil suit. Section 175 excludes the civil court where a Tribunal exists.

It does not always require negligence. Section 164 dispenses with it, and Kaushnuma Begum allows strict liability.

"Use" is not confined to driving. A stationary vehicle may still be in use.

The no-fault amount is not additional to the award. It is deducted from the final compensation.

Quick revision

  1. Three routes: fault, statutory no fault under section 164, and the hit and run scheme.
  2. Section 165: the Tribunal. Section 175: the bar on civil courts where a Tribunal exists, and no injunction against its proceedings.
  3. Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, (1991) 3 SCC 530: "arising out of the use" is wider than "caused by" and covers harm hours after the vehicle came to rest.
  4. Minu B. Mehta v. Balkrishna Ramchandra Nayan, AIR 1977 SC 1248: proof of negligence is necessary in the fault jurisdiction, and liability without fault is for Parliament to create.
  5. Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9: strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher may be relied on before a Tribunal, subject to the recognised exceptions.
  6. The statutory no-fault amount is deducted from the final award.

Test yourself

1. What is a motor accident claim, and where is it made? It is a claim for compensation in respect of an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, made to a Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal constituted under section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988. By section 175, where such a Tribunal has been constituted for an area, no civil court has jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to a claim which the Tribunal may adjudicate, and no civil court may grant an injunction in respect of any action taken or to be taken by or before the Tribunal. The claim may be put on three bases: the negligence of the driver, for which the owner is vicariously liable and which yields just compensation under section 168; the statutory no-fault provision in section 164, which requires no proof of wrongful act, neglect or default; and, on the authority of Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, the rule of strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher, subject to its recognised exceptions.

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What a Motor Accident Claim Is

2. How widely is "arising out of the use of a motor vehicle" construed? Very widely. In Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, (1991) 3 SCC 530, a petrol tanker collided with a truck and overturned; about four hours later the leaked petrol caught fire and exploded, killing and injuring many people who had gathered around it. The Supreme Court held that the expression is wider than an accident caused by the vehicle, that it covers an accident having a causal relation with the use of the vehicle even where it occurs some time after the vehicle has come to rest, and that the explosion was part of the same incident as the collision. The consequence is that a stationary vehicle may still be in use, and claims arising during loading, unloading and repair have been entertained on the same reasoning.

3. Is proof of negligence necessary in a motor accident claim? It depends on the basis of the claim. In the ordinary fault jurisdiction it is, and Minu B. Mehta v. Balkrishna Ramchandra Nayan, AIR 1977 SC 1248, held that proof of negligence is necessary before the owner or the insurer can be made liable, and that liability without proof of negligence was for Parliament and not for the courts to create. Parliament has since created it: section 164, in force from 1 April 2022, gives five lakh rupees for death and two and a half lakh for grievous hurt and provides that the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Independently, Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, held that a claimant may invoke the strict liability rule in Rylands v. Fletcher before a Tribunal, so that even without negligence compensation is payable unless one of the recognised exceptions applies, the statutory no-fault amount being deducted from the final award.

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Chapter Ninety

Claims Tribunals: Constitution and Jurisdiction

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

A Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal is a State-constituted tribunal, manned by judges, with the powers of a civil court and a summary procedure, and where one exists it takes the place of the civil court.

Section 165: who constitutes it, and for what

Who. A State Government, by notification in the Official Gazette.

How many. One or more Tribunals, for such area as the notification specifies. Where two or more are constituted for one area, the State Government may by general or special order regulate the distribution of business among them, sub-section (4).

For what. Adjudicating upon claims for compensation in respect of

  • accidents involving the death of persons arising out of the use of motor vehicles,
  • accidents involving bodily injury to persons so arising,
  • damage to any property of a third party so arising,
  • or both.

The Explanation. It declares, for the removal of doubts, that the expression covers claims for compensation under section 164. Before 1 April 2022 it read "section 140 and section 163A"; section 52 of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 substituted the new reference, and it came into force with the rest of the new Chapter XI.

The Explanation exists because a no-fault claim is not a claim in tort at all: without it, a Tribunal set up to adjudicate claims arising out of accidents might have been said to have no jurisdiction over a claim that does not depend on anybody's fault.

Who sits on it

Sub-section (2). As many members as the State Government thinks fit; where there are two or more, one is appointed Chairman.

Sub-section (3): the qualification. A person is not qualified unless they

  • are, or have been, a Judge of a High Court, or
  • are, or have been, a District Judge, or
  • are qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court or as a District Judge.

Every qualification is judicial. This is the answer to the objection that compensation for a road accident has been taken away from the courts: it has been given to a judge, sitting under a different name and a shorter procedure.

Section 169: procedure and powers

Sub-section (1): summary procedure. In holding an inquiry under section 168 the Tribunal may, subject to the rules, follow such summary procedure as it thinks fit. It is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure.

Sub-section (2): the powers of a civil court. For taking evidence on oath, enforcing the attendance of witnesses, and compelling the discovery and production of documents and material objects, and for such other purposes as may be prescribed. And the Tribunal is deemed to be a civil court for all the purposes of section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, that is, for prosecuting offences against its own process, such as false evidence before it.

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Sub-section (3): assessors. The Tribunal may choose one or more persons possessing special knowledge of a matter relevant to the inquiry to assist it.

Sub-section (4): execution. Inserted by section 55 of the amending Act with effect from 1 April 2022. For enforcing its award the Tribunal has all the powers of a civil court in the execution of a decree under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, as if the award were a decree for money passed by such a court in a civil suit.

Sub-section (4) is the practical half of the reform. Until 2022 an award had to be taken to the Collector under section 174 to be recovered as an arrear of land revenue; the Tribunal may now execute its own award.

Section 167: one Act or the other, not both

Where the death of or bodily injury to a person gives rise to a claim under this Act and also under the Workmen's Compensation Act 1923, the person entitled to compensation may claim under either but not under both. The choice is the claimant's, and it is exercised once.

The 1923 Act was renamed the Employee's Compensation Act by an amendment of 2009, and the wage-earner who is knocked down while at work is the person to whom section 167 speaks. Section 167 is expressed to be without prejudice to Chapter X, which no longer exists; the reference is a piece of the old Act that the 2019 amendments did not tidy away.

Section 175: the bar on the civil court

Where a Claims Tribunal has been constituted for an area,

  • no civil court has jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to any claim for compensation which may be adjudicated upon by that Tribunal, and
  • no civil court may grant an injunction in respect of any action taken or to be taken by or before the Tribunal in respect of such a claim.

Two limits worth noticing. The bar operates only where a Tribunal has been constituted for the area, and only over claims the Tribunal may itself adjudicate. A claim for damage to the claimant's own vehicle against their own insurer, for instance, is a claim on a contract of insurance and not a third-party claim for compensation arising out of an accident.

A worked example

A State notifies one Tribunal for a district and, a year later, a second for the same district.

Is the second valid? Yes. Section 165(1) allows one or more Tribunals for an area, and section 165(4) lets the State Government regulate the distribution of business between them by general or special order.

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Can a retired civil judge be appointed? No, unless they are or have been a District Judge, or are qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge. Section 165(3) is exhaustive.

A witness lies on oath before the Tribunal. Can he be prosecuted? Yes. Section 169(2) deems the Tribunal a civil court for all the purposes of section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, which is the machinery for a complaint in respect of offences against public justice.

The award is not paid. Must the claimant go to the Collector? No longer necessarily. Since 1 April 2022 section 169(4) gives the Tribunal the powers of a civil court executing a money decree; section 174 and the Collector remain available as well.

What it does NOT mean

The Tribunal is not a department of government. Its members are judges by qualification.

Summary procedure does not mean no procedure. Section 169(1) is subject to the rules made by the State Government under section 176, and the rules prescribe the form of the application, the procedure at the inquiry and the powers exercisable.

The bar in section 175 is not a general ouster of civil courts. It bites only where a Tribunal exists for the area and only over what the Tribunal may adjudicate.

Section 167 is not a bar to claiming. It is a bar to claiming twice.

Quick revision

  1. Section 165: a State Government constitutes one or more Claims Tribunals by notification, for an area, to adjudicate claims for death, bodily injury or third-party property damage arising out of the use of motor vehicles.
  2. The Explanation to section 165 now refers to section 164, substituted with effect from 1 April 2022.
  3. Section 165(3): High Court Judge, District Judge, or qualified for either.
  4. Section 169: summary procedure; powers of a civil court for evidence, witnesses and documents; deemed a civil court for section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973; assessors under (3); and since 1 April 2022 full execution powers under (4).
  5. Section 167: compensation may be claimed under this Act or under the Workmen's Compensation Act 1923, but not under both.
  6. Section 175: where a Tribunal exists for an area, no civil court may entertain the question and no civil court may injunct the Tribunal.

Test yourself

1. Describe the constitution and jurisdiction of a Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal. A State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute one or more Motor Accidents Claims Tribunals for such area as the notification specifies, for the purpose of adjudicating upon claims for compensation in respect of accidents involving the death of, or bodily injury to, persons arising out of the use of motor vehicles, or damage to any property of a third party so arising, or both: section 165(1). The Explanation declares that this includes claims for compensation under section 164, the no-fault provision in force since 1 April 2022. A Tribunal consists of as many members as the State Government thinks fit, one of whom is Chairman where there are two or more, and no person is qualified for appointment unless they are or have been a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge, or are qualified for appointment as either: section 165(2) and (3). Where two or more Tribunals sit in one area the State Government may regulate the distribution of business between them: section 165(4).

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2. What is the effect of section 175? Section 175 provides that where a Claims Tribunal has been constituted for an area, no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to any claim for compensation which may be adjudicated upon by the Tribunal for that area, and no injunction in respect of any action taken or to be taken by or before the Tribunal in respect of such a claim shall be granted by a civil court. The effect is that the Tribunal is not an additional forum but the only one: a suit for damages for a motor accident does not lie in a district court where a Tribunal has been notified for that district. Two limits follow from the words used. The bar depends on a Tribunal having been constituted for the area, and it extends only to claims which the Tribunal itself may adjudicate, so that a dispute of another character, such as one on a contract of own-damage insurance, is unaffected.

3. What procedure does a Claims Tribunal follow, and what powers does it have? By section 169(1) the Tribunal may, subject to the rules made by the State Government under section 176, follow such summary procedure as it thinks fit, and it is therefore not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure. By section 169(2) it has all the powers of a civil court for taking evidence on oath, enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the discovery and production of documents and material objects, and it is deemed a civil court for all the purposes of section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973. By section 169(3) it may choose persons with special knowledge to assist it in the inquiry. By section 169(4), inserted with effect from 1 April 2022, it has for the enforcement of its award all the powers of a civil court executing a money decree under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, which is a considerable advance on the older route of a certificate to the Collector under section 174.

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Chapter Ninety-One

The Application for Compensation

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

Section 166 says who may apply, to which Tribunal, and by when; and since 1 April 2022 the police report of the accident is itself treated as an application.

Who may apply: section 166(1)

  • (a) the person who has sustained the injury;
  • (b) the owner of the property;
  • (c) where death has resulted, all or any of the legal representatives of the deceased;
  • (d) any agent duly authorised by the injured person or by all or any of the legal representatives.

First proviso. Where all the legal representatives have not joined, the application shall be made on behalf of or for the benefit of all of them, and those who have not joined shall be impleaded as respondents.

So a claim by one heir is not a claim for that heir alone. The Act keeps the whole family before the Tribunal even when only one of them has come to it.

"Legal representatives" is read widely

Facts. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, decided on 11 May 1987. A boy was knocked down and killed by a bus of the Corporation. His brothers applied to the Tribunal as his heirs and legal representatives. The Corporation argued that only the wife, husband, parent and child named in the Fatal Accidents Act 1855 could claim, and that the Motor Vehicles Act provisions were merely procedural.

Held. The brother of a person who dies in a motor accident may maintain a claim petition if he is a legal representative; every legal representative who suffers on account of the death should have a remedy; and the Tribunal's task is to determine what compensation appears to it to be just and to specify the persons to whom it is payable.

Why it matters here. It settles that the class of claimants under section 166 is not the class in the Act of 1855. The point is worked out in chapter [Death and the Fatal Accidents Act 1855].

And a legal representative who is not a dependant. In Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, a married daughter claimed the fixed no-fault amount for her father's death and was met with the objection that she was not dependent on him. The Court held that a legal representative who is not a dependant may still be a beneficiary, because the statutory liability is for a fixed and crystallised amount which forms part of the estate, and that "legal representative", undefined in the Act, is to be given a wide meaning.

The second proviso: accepting section 164 ends the petition

Inserted by section 53 of the amending Act, in force from 1 April 2022:

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where a person accepts compensation under section 164 in accordance with the procedure provided under section 149, his claims petition before the Claims Tribunal shall lapse.

What this means in practice. Section 164 gives five lakh rupees for death and two and a half lakh for grievous hurt without proof of fault. Section 149 obliges the insurer to offer settlement on the accident information report. A claimant who takes that offer has settled; the pending petition falls away. A claimant who thinks the true loss is larger does not accept, and litigates for just compensation under section 168.

To which Tribunal, and in what form: section 166(2)

At the option of the claimant, to the Tribunal

  • having jurisdiction over the area in which the accident occurred, or
  • within whose local limits the claimant resides or carries on business, or
  • within whose local limits the defendant resides,

and in such form and with such particulars as may be prescribed by rules under section 176. The old proviso, which required a statement where no claim under the repealed section 140 was made, was omitted with effect from 1 April 2022.

Three fora, and the choice belongs to the claimant. An injured migrant worker treated in his home State need not travel back to the district of the accident.

By when: section 166(3)

No application for compensation shall be entertained unless it is made within six months of the occurrence of the accident.

This sub-section was inserted by section 53 of the amending Act and came into force on 1 April 2022. The history matters, because most textbooks a student will pick up were written in the gap:

PeriodThe position
Until 14 November 1994The Act prescribed a period, in a sub-section (3) since repealed
14 November 1994 to 31 March 2022Sub-section (3) stood omitted, and the Act prescribed no period at all
From 1 April 2022Six months from the occurrence of the accident

Note what the new sub-section does not contain: any power to condone delay. Contrast section 173(1), where the second proviso lets the High Court entertain a late appeal for sufficient cause.

The police report is an application: sections 159 and 166(4)

Section 159. The police officer shall, during the investigation, prepare an accident information report to facilitate the settlement of the claim, in such form and manner and containing such particulars as may be prescribed, within three months, and submit it to the Claims Tribunal and to such other agency as may be prescribed.

Section 166(4). The Claims Tribunal shall treat any report of accidents forwarded to it under section 159 as an application for compensation under this Act. Before 1 April 2022 the cross-reference was to section 158(6).

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This is the most student-friendly provision in the Chapter. A family that never files anything still has a claim before the Tribunal, because the police report is deemed to be the application.

Survival of the claim: section 166(5)

Inserted with effect from 1 April 2022. Notwithstanding anything in this Act or any other law, the right of a person to claim compensation for injury in an accident shall, upon the death of the person injured, survive to their legal representatives, irrespective of whether the cause of death is relatable to or had any nexus with the injury or not.

It abolishes a familiar unfairness. An injured claimant who died of an unrelated illness while the petition crawled on used to leave the petition to fail; now it survives.

The papers: sections 158 and 160

Section 158(1). A driver in a public place must, on being required by an authorised police officer in uniform, produce the certificate of insurance, the certificate of registration, the pollution under control certificate, the driving licence, and, for a transport vehicle, the certificate of fitness under section 56 and the permit, and any certificate of exemption.

Section 158(2). Where an accident involving death or bodily injury occurs and the driver does not produce them at the time, the driver or the owner shall produce them at the police station where the driver makes the report required by section 134.

Section 158(3). No conviction for failure to produce if the certificate is produced within seven days at the police station specified, subject to a proviso for transport vehicles.

Section 158(4) and (5). The owner must give information required for determining whether the vehicle was being driven in contravention of section 146, that is, uninsured; and "produce the certificate of insurance" means production for examination of the certificate or other prescribed evidence.

Section 160. A registering authority or the officer in charge of a police station must, on being required by a person who alleges entitlement to claim compensation, or by an insurer against whom a claim has been made, and on payment of the prescribed fee, furnish the identification marks and other particulars of the vehicle, the name and address of the person who was using it at the time of the accident or was injured by it, and the property damaged.

Section 160 is how a claimant who has only a registration number finds out whom to sue and who insured them.

A worked example

A pedestrian in Nashik is knocked down on 2 May and dies on 5 May, leaving a widow, a minor son and a married daughter. The married daughter alone comes to a lawyer in Pune, where she lives.

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May she apply alone? Yes, under section 166(1)(c), all or any of the legal representatives may apply; but by the first proviso her application must be made on behalf of or for the benefit of all, and the widow and the son must be impleaded as respondents.

Where? At her option: Nashik, where the accident occurred, or Pune, where she resides, or where the defendant resides. Section 166(2).

By when? Within six months of the occurrence of the accident, that is by 2 November, under section 166(3), which contains no power to condone delay.

What if nobody files anything? The police officer's accident information report, prepared during the investigation and submitted to the Tribunal within three months under section 159, is treated by section 166(4) as an application for compensation.

She does not know who owned the bus. Section 160: on payment of the prescribed fee the registering authority or the officer in charge of the police station must furnish the particulars of the vehicle and the name and address of the person using it.

The insurer offers five lakh under section 164 and she takes it. By the second proviso to section 166(1) the claims petition lapses.

What it does NOT mean

Legal representative does not mean dependant. Manjuri Bera.

The six-month bar is not the old law. For twenty-seven years there was none, and books written in that period say so.

Section 166(4) does not make the police report an award. It makes it an application; the Tribunal still holds the inquiry under section 168.

Section 158 is not part of the claim machinery alone. It is a policing provision whose by-product is a record of the papers of the vehicle.

Quick revision

  1. Section 166(1): injured person, owner of property, all or any legal representatives on death, or a duly authorised agent; non-joining representatives are impleaded as respondents.
  2. Second proviso to section 166(1), from 1 April 2022: accepting compensation under section 164 through the section 149 procedure makes the petition lapse.
  3. Section 166(2): claimant's option of three fora, accident, claimant's residence or business, defendant's residence.
  4. Section 166(3), from 1 April 2022: six months from the accident, with no power to condone.
  5. Section 166(4): a section 159 police report is treated as an application. Section 159: within three months, in the prescribed form, to the Tribunal.
  6. Section 166(5): the injured person's claim survives to the legal representatives even if death is unconnected with the injury.
  7. Section 160: particulars of the vehicle and its user, on payment of the prescribed fee.
  8. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690: a brother may claim as a legal representative; Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643: a legal representative who is not a dependant may still take the fixed statutory amount.
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Test yourself

1. Who may apply for compensation under section 166, and to which Tribunal? By section 166(1) an application may be made by the person who sustained the injury, by the owner of the property damaged, by all or any of the legal representatives where death has resulted, or by an agent duly authorised by the injured person or by the legal representatives. Where all the legal representatives have not joined, the first proviso requires the application to be made on behalf of or for the benefit of all, and those not joining to be impleaded as respondents. The class of legal representatives is read widely: in Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, the brothers of a boy killed by a bus were held entitled to maintain the petition, the Court holding that every legal representative who suffers on account of the death should have a remedy; and in Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, a married daughter who was not a dependant was held entitled to the fixed statutory amount, which forms part of the estate. By section 166(2) the application is made, at the claimant's option, to the Tribunal for the area where the accident occurred, or where the claimant resides or carries on business, or where the defendant resides.

2. What is the period of limitation for a motor accident claim? Six months from the occurrence of the accident, under section 166(3), which was inserted by section 53 of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 and brought into force on 1 April 2022 by S.O. 859(E) of 25 February 2022. The provision is important precisely because it changed the law: an earlier sub-section (3) was omitted with effect from 14 November 1994, and from that date until 31 March 2022 the Act prescribed no period of limitation for a claim at all, so that a claim could be made years after the accident. The new sub-section is expressed as a bar on entertaining the application and contains no power to condone delay, which may be contrasted with the second proviso to section 173(1), under which the High Court may entertain a late appeal if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause.

3. How does a claim reach the Tribunal without the family filing anything? Through sections 159 and 166(4). Section 159 requires the police officer, during the investigation, to prepare an accident information report to facilitate the settlement of the claim, in such form and manner and containing such particulars as may be prescribed, within three months, and to submit it to the Claims Tribunal and to such other agency as may be prescribed. Section 166(4) then provides that the Claims Tribunal shall treat any report forwarded to it under section 159 as an application for compensation under the Act. The cross-reference was changed from section 158(6) to section 159 with effect from 1 April 2022. Once the report is before the Tribunal the ordinary machinery follows: notice to the insurer, an inquiry under section 168, and an award of just compensation. Section 160 supports the same object by obliging a registering authority or an officer in charge of a police station, on payment of the prescribed fee, to furnish the particulars of the vehicle and of the person who was using it.

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Chapter Ninety-Two

The Award of the Claims Tribunal

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

The Tribunal gives notice to the insurer, hears the parties, holds an inquiry, and makes an award of the compensation that appears to it to be just, saying who must pay it and to whom.

Section 168(1): the four things an award must do

On receipt of an application under section 166 the Tribunal shall, after giving notice of the application to the insurer and after giving the parties including the insurer an opportunity of being heard, hold an inquiry into the claim and, subject to the provisions of section 163, may make an award

  1. determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just,
  2. specifying the person or persons to whom compensation shall be paid, and
  3. specifying the amount which shall be paid by the insurer, or the owner, or the driver of the vehicle involved, or by all or any of them.

The proviso, which sent a claim under the old section 140 to be disposed of under the repealed Chapter X, was omitted with effect from 1 April 2022, and the reference in the opening words was changed from section 162 to section 163 by section 54 of the amending Act.

The new cross-reference is not a technicality. Section 163 requires the Tribunal, before awarding compensation, to verify whether hit and run compensation under section 161 has already been paid or applied for, and to direct a refund of so much of the award as equals what was paid.

"Just" is the whole standard. The Act does not say "damages", and it does not adopt the measure of the Fatal Accidents Act 1855. In Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, the Supreme Court described the Tribunal's task as determining what compensation appears to it to be just and specifying the persons to whom it is payable. How that figure is worked out is chapter [Computing Just Compensation].

Section 168(2) and (3): copies and deposit

(2) Copies. The Tribunal shall arrange to deliver copies of the award to the parties concerned expeditiously and in any case within fifteen days from the date of the award.

(3) Deposit. The person required to pay shall, within thirty days of the date of announcing the award, deposit the entire amount awarded in such manner as the Tribunal may direct.

Thirty days from announcing, not from receiving the copy. The two periods run from different events and a student who confuses them will get the sequence wrong.

Section 170: letting the insurer fight the whole case

Ordinarily the insurer may resist a claim only on the limited statutory grounds, which are worked out in chapter [The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover]. Section 170 is the exception. Where in the course of an inquiry the Tribunal is satisfied that

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  • (a) there is collusion between the person making the claim and the person against whom it is made, or
  • (b) the person against whom the claim is made has failed to contest the claim,

it may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, direct that the insurer who may be liable be impleaded as a party, and the insurer so impleaded then has, without prejudice to the limited statutory defences, the right to contest the claim on all or any of the grounds available to the person against whom the claim has been made.

The cross-reference in section 170 was changed from section 149 to section 150 with effect from 1 April 2022, because the substituted Chapter XI moved the insurer's duty to satisfy awards from one number to the other.

Three conditions, and all three are read strictly: one of the two situations must exist, the Tribunal must be satisfied of it, and the reasons must be recorded in writing. Without a section 170 order the insurer is confined to its own defences and cannot argue, for example, that the driver was not negligent at all.

The Tribunal may also decide insurer against insured

Facts. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, decided on 5 January 2004. A group of appeals in which insurers sought to escape liability to third parties because the driver had no licence, or a fake or invalid one, or was disqualified.

Held, on the Tribunal's powers. The Tribunal's jurisdiction is not confined to the claim between the claimants on one side and the insured, insurer and driver on the other. In deciding whether a defence is available to the insurer, the Tribunal necessarily has the power to decide disputes between the insurer and the insured, and that decision is enforceable and executable in the same manner as an award under section 174. Where the insurer proves its defence, the Tribunal may direct that the insurer, having had to pay the third party, be reimbursed by the insured; if the insured does not deposit that amount within thirty days under section 168(3), it is recovered as an arrear of land revenue on a certificate under section 174.

Why it matters here. It is the authority for the familiar direction to "pay and recover", and it locates that direction in the Tribunal's own award rather than in a separate suit. The defences themselves are chapter [The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover].

Section 171: interest

Where a Tribunal allows a claim, it may direct that in addition to the amount of compensation, simple interest shall also be paid, at such rate and from such date not earlier than the date of making the claim as it may specify.

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Three limits are on the face of the section: the interest is simple, the rate is left to the Tribunal, and the starting date cannot be earlier than the date of the claim. In Erudhaya Priya v. State Express Transport Corporation Ltd, decided on 27 July 2020, the Supreme Court allowed interest at nine per cent, and in Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, at the same rate.

Section 172: compensatory costs

The Tribunal may, for reasons recorded in writing, order special costs by way of compensation where it is satisfied that

  • (a) the policy of insurance is void because it was obtained by representation of a fact which was false in any material particular, or
  • (b) any party or insurer has put forward a false or vexatious claim or defence.

The costs are payable by the party guilty of the misrepresentation or by the party who put forward the claim or defence, to the insurer or to the party against whom it was put forward.

(2) No order for special costs may exceed one thousand rupees. (3) The order does not exempt anyone from criminal liability for the misrepresentation, claim or defence. (4) The amount awarded is taken into account in any subsequent suit for damages in respect of the same misrepresentation, claim or defence.

The cap of one thousand rupees has never been raised, and it is one of the small places where the Act shows its age. The 2019 amendments raised the appeal threshold in section 173(2) tenfold and left section 172(2) exactly where it was.

A worked example

A widow claims against an owner and his insurer. The owner does not appear at all, and the Tribunal notices that the claim petition and the owner's written statement use the same language.

What may the Tribunal do? Both limbs of section 170 are attracted, collusion and failure to contest. It may, recording its reasons in writing, direct the insurer to be impleaded, whereupon the insurer may contest the claim on every ground available to the owner, including that the driver was not negligent.

The award is announced on 1 March and the copy reaches the parties on 20 March. When must the amount be deposited? Within thirty days of 1 March, under section 168(3). The delay in delivery breaches section 168(2), which requires copies within fifteen days, but it does not extend the time to deposit.

From when may interest run? From a date not earlier than the date of making the claim, section 171, and it must be simple interest.

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The insurer pleads that the policy was obtained on a false statement about the vehicle, and fails. If the Tribunal finds the defence false or vexatious it may award special costs under section 172, but not more than one thousand rupees.

The family had already received hit and run compensation. Section 168(1) is subject to section 163, so the Tribunal must verify that and direct a refund to the insurer of so much of the award as equals what was paid.

What it does NOT mean

An award is not a decree on pleadings. Section 168(1) requires an inquiry, and section 169(1) makes it summary but real.

Notice to the insurer is not a formality. The section requires notice of the application to the insurer and an opportunity of being heard to the parties including the insurer, before the inquiry.

Section 170 is not the insurer's right. It is a power of the Tribunal, exercisable only in the two situations and only with reasons recorded in writing.

Interest is not compound, and not from the date of the accident. Section 171 says simple, and not earlier than the date of making the claim.

Quick revision

  1. Section 168(1): notice to the insurer, opportunity to be heard, inquiry, and an award that fixes just compensation, the persons to be paid and who must pay; subject to section 163 since 1 April 2022.
  2. Section 168(2): copies within fifteen days. Section 168(3): deposit within thirty days of announcement.
  3. Section 170: collusion or failure to contest, reasons in writing, and the insurer may then contest on all grounds available to the person against whom the claim is made; the internal reference is now to section 150.
  4. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297: the Tribunal may decide the dispute between insurer and insured and direct reimbursement, recoverable under section 174.
  5. Section 171: simple interest, at such rate and from a date not earlier than the date of making the claim.
  6. Section 172: special costs for a policy obtained by material misrepresentation or a false or vexatious claim or defence, capped at one thousand rupees, with no exemption from criminal liability.

Test yourself

1. What must a Claims Tribunal do before and when making an award? Section 168(1) requires the Tribunal, on receipt of an application under section 166, to give notice of the application to the insurer and to give the parties, including the insurer, an opportunity of being heard, and then to hold an inquiry into the claim. Subject to section 163, which deals with the refund of hit and run compensation already paid under section 161, it may make an award determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just, specifying the person or persons to whom compensation is to be paid, and specifying the amount to be paid by the insurer or the owner or the driver of the vehicle involved, or by all or any of them. By section 168(2) copies of the award must be delivered to the parties expeditiously and in any case within fifteen days of the date of the award, and by section 168(3) the person required to pay must deposit the entire amount within thirty days of the date on which the award was announced, in the manner the Tribunal directs. The standard of a just award, and the identification of those to whom it is payable, were described in these terms by the Supreme Court in Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690.

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2. When may an insurer be impleaded under section 170, and what follows? Section 170 applies where, in the course of an inquiry, the Tribunal is satisfied either that there is collusion between the person making the claim and the person against whom it is made, or that the person against whom the claim is made has failed to contest it. In either case the Tribunal may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, direct that the insurer who may be liable in respect of the claim be impleaded as a party; and the insurer so impleaded then has, without prejudice to the limited statutory defences now contained in section 150(2), the right to contest the claim on all or any of the grounds available to the person against whom the claim has been made. The provision matters because without such an order the insurer cannot dispute negligence or quantum at large. The Tribunal's powers in this area were considered in National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, where it was held that the Tribunal may also decide disputes between the insurer and the insured in the course of adjudicating the claim, and may direct that an insurer who has satisfied the award be reimbursed by the insured, that direction being enforceable through section 174.

3. What are the provisions as to interest and costs? Section 171 provides that where a Tribunal allows a claim it may direct that, in addition to the compensation, simple interest be paid at such rate and from such date, not earlier than the date of making the claim, as it may specify. The rate is a matter for the Tribunal; nine per cent was allowed by the Supreme Court in Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, and again in Erudhaya Priya v. State Express Transport Corporation Ltd, decided on 27 July 2020. Section 172 empowers the Tribunal, for reasons recorded in writing, to order special costs by way of compensation where the policy of insurance is void because it was obtained by representation of a fact false in a material particular, or where a party or insurer has put forward a false or vexatious claim or defence. Such costs may not exceed one thousand rupees, they do not exempt the person from criminal liability in respect of the same misrepresentation, claim or defence, and the amount is taken into account in any subsequent suit for damages on the same matter.

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Chapter Ninety-Three

Computing Just Compensation

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

Income, plus future prospects, less the deceased's own living expenses, multiplied by a multiplier fixed by age, plus fixed sums for loss of estate, consortium and funeral expenses.

The Act says only that the compensation must be "just", section 168(1). Everything else in this chapter is judge-made, and it is judge-made for a reason a student should be able to state: the Second Schedule, which once supplied a statutory table, was omitted with effect from 1 April 2022, and long before that the Supreme Court had found that Tribunals were reaching wildly different figures on similar facts.

The formula

Step 1. Take the actual income of the deceased, less income tax. Step 2. Add a percentage for future prospects, fixed by age and by the nature of the employment. Step 3. Deduct the personal and living expenses of the deceased, as a fraction fixed by the number of dependants. Step 4. What remains is the multiplicand, the annual loss of dependency. Step 5. Multiply by the multiplier for the age of the deceased. Step 6. Add the conventional heads: loss of estate, loss of consortium, funeral expenses.

Step 2: future prospects

Facts. Sarla Verma v. Delhi Transport Corporation, (2009) 6 SCC 121, decided on 15 April 2009. The dependants of a man killed in a motor accident; the Tribunal and the High Court differed on income, deduction and multiplier, and the Court took the occasion to standardise all three.

Held. The starting point is actual income less income tax. As a rule of thumb, fifty per cent of the actual salary is added for future prospects where the deceased had a permanent job and was below forty; thirty per cent where the age was forty to fifty; and nothing where the age was above fifty.

Facts. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Pranay Sethi, (2017) 16 SCC 680, decided on 31 October 2017. A Constitution Bench of five judges, constituted to settle a conflict on whether future prospects could be added for a deceased who was self-employed or on a fixed salary, and on the figures under the conventional heads.

Held. The table below, and the conventional-head figures set out further down.

The deceasedBelow 4040 to 5050 to 60
Had a permanent jobadd 50%add 30%add 15%
Self-employed or on a fixed salaryadd 40%add 25%add 10%

"Actual salary" means actual salary less tax; "established income" means income minus the tax component.

Pranay Sethi did two things at once. It extended future prospects to the self-employed and the fixed-salary earner, who had earlier been denied them altogether, and it filled the gap above fifty that Sarla Verma had left at nothing.

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Step 3: the deduction for personal and living expenses

Laid down in Sarla Verma and expressly approved in Pranay Sethi:

The deceasedDeduct
Married, dependants 2 to 3one-third
Married, dependants 4 to 6one-fourth
Married, dependants more than 6one-fifth
Bachelor, claimants the parentsnormally one-half

For a bachelor the Court explained the different principle: a bachelor tends to spend more on himself, he may marry shortly and cut his contribution to parents and siblings, and, subject to evidence to the contrary, the father is likely to have his own income and is not treated as a dependant, so the mother alone is counted.

Step 5: the multiplier

The Table in Sarla Verma, adopted in Pranay Sethi, with the age of the deceased as the basis:

Age of the deceasedMultiplier
15 to 20, and 21 to 2518
26 to 3017
31 to 3516
36 to 4015
41 to 4514
46 to 5013
51 to 5511
56 to 609
61 to 657
66 to 705

It begins at eighteen, falls by one unit for every five years down to thirteen, and then by two units for every five years. The multiplier is not the number of years of service left before retirement; Sarla Verma was decided precisely because Tribunals were doing that, one of them using twenty-two.

Step 6: the conventional heads

Pranay Sethi fixed reasonable figures:

  • loss of estate, fifteen thousand rupees;
  • loss of consortium, forty thousand rupees;
  • funeral expenses, fifteen thousand rupees;

and directed that these amounts "should be enhanced at the rate of 10% in every three years". The judgment is of 31 October 2017, so the first enhancement fell due three years later, and the figures a Tribunal uses today are the enhanced ones.

Consortium is wider than a widow's claim.

Facts. Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram, decided on 18 September 2018. An insurer challenged the heads on which the parents of a person killed in a motor accident had been compensated, including loss of consortium.

Held. Consortium is a compendious term encompassing spousal consortium, the right of a spouse to the company and affection of the other; parental consortium, granted to a child on the premature death of a parent; and filial consortium, the right of parents to the company and affection of a child. Parents who lose a child may therefore be compensated for filial consortium, and forty thousand rupees was awarded on that head to each of the two parents.

Injury cases: the same method, different heads

Facts. Erudhaya Priya v. State Express Transport Corporation Ltd, decided on 27 July 2020. The appellant was injured on 16 August 2011 while travelling in a State transport bus, suffered multiple fractures, was hospitalised on eight occasions over about a year and a half, and was certified as permanently disabled to the extent of 31.1 per cent of the whole body.

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Held. A victim who suffers a permanent or temporary disability is entitled to compensation covering, among others, the pain, suffering and trauma resulting from the accident; loss of income including future income; the inability to lead a normal life together with its amenities; medical expenses including future expenses; and loss of expectation of life. The multiplier method applies to quantify the loss of income from a permanent disability, and the principles as to future prospects apply to a disabled claimant as they do in a death case, so fifty per cent was added on that account. Interest was allowed at nine per cent.

For injury, the loss of earning power is worked as annual income, times the multiplier, times the percentage of permanent disability, and the non-pecuniary heads are then added.

A worked example

Rukhsana's husband, aged 38, was killed. He held a permanent job at thirty thousand rupees a month, below the taxable range. His dependants are his widow, two children and his mother, four in all.

Step 1. Annual income: 30,000 times 12 equals 3,60,000. Step 2. Permanent job, below 40, so add 50 per cent, that is 1,80,000. Income becomes 5,40,000. Step 3. Four dependants, so deduct one-fourth. 5,40,000 less 1,35,000 equals 4,05,000. Step 4. The multiplicand is 4,05,000. Step 5. Age 38 falls in the band 36 to 40, so the multiplier is 15. Loss of dependency is 4,05,000 times 15, that is 60,75,000. Step 6. Add the conventional heads of loss of estate, loss of consortium and funeral expenses at the Pranay Sethi figures as enhanced, consortium being available to the widow and, on Magma General, to the children as parental consortium.

And interest. Under section 171, simple interest at such rate and from such date not earlier than the date of making the claim as the Tribunal specifies.

Change one fact. If he had been self-employed at the same income, step 2 would be 40 per cent, not 50. If he had been 52, step 2 would be 15 per cent and the multiplier 11.

What it does NOT mean

The Second Schedule is not the law. It was omitted with effect from 1 April 2022, and even before that Sarla Verma held that for a claim under section 166 the Davies method applies, not the Schedule.

The multiplier is not years to retirement. It is the figure in the Table for the age of the deceased.

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Future prospects are not confined to salaried people. Pranay Sethi settled that the self-employed and the fixed-salary earner get them too.

Consortium is not only a spouse's. Magma General: parental and filial consortium as well.

These are not the figures under section 164. Section 164 gives a fixed five lakh for death and two and a half lakh for grievous hurt without proof of fault, and what is paid under it is set off. This chapter is the fault jurisdiction.

Quick revision

  1. Section 168(1): the only statutory standard is compensation that appears to the Tribunal to be just.
  2. Sarla Verma v. Delhi Transport Corporation, (2009) 6 SCC 121: income less tax; the standard deductions of one-third, one-fourth and one-fifth by number of dependants, one-half for a bachelor; and the multiplier Table.
  3. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Pranay Sethi, (2017) 16 SCC 680, Constitution Bench: future prospects of 50, 30 and 15 per cent for a permanent job and 40, 25 and 10 per cent for the self-employed or fixed-salary earner, by the age bands below 40, 40 to 50 and 50 to 60.
  4. Conventional heads: loss of estate fifteen thousand, loss of consortium forty thousand, funeral expenses fifteen thousand, enhanced by ten per cent every three years from 31 October 2017.
  5. Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram: consortium is spousal, parental and filial; forty thousand rupees each to two parents.
  6. Erudhaya Priya v. State Express Transport Corporation Ltd: in injury cases the heads are pain and suffering, loss of income including future income, loss of amenities, medical expenses including future ones, and loss of expectation of life; the multiplier method and future prospects apply.

Test yourself

1. How is compensation computed in a claim for death in a motor accident? Section 168(1) requires only that the compensation be just, and the method has been supplied by the Supreme Court. In Sarla Verma v. Delhi Transport Corporation, (2009) 6 SCC 121, the Court took the actual income of the deceased less income tax as the starting point, added a percentage for future prospects, deducted the personal and living expenses of the deceased to arrive at the annual loss of dependency, and applied a multiplier fixed by the age of the deceased, beginning at eighteen for ages fifteen to twenty-five, falling by one unit every five years to thirteen for ages forty-six to fifty and then by two units every five years. The deduction is one-third where a married deceased left two or three dependants, one-fourth for four to six, one-fifth for more than six, and normally one-half for a bachelor. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Pranay Sethi, (2017) 16 SCC 680, a Constitution Bench settled the addition for future prospects at fifty, thirty and fifteen per cent for a deceased in a permanent job aged below forty, forty to fifty and fifty to sixty, and at forty, twenty-five and ten per cent of the established income for one who was self-employed or on a fixed salary; and it approved the Sarla Verma deductions and multiplier Table. To the loss of dependency are added the conventional heads.

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2. What are the conventional heads, and what is loss of consortium? Pranay Sethi fixed reasonable figures on the conventional heads of loss of estate, loss of consortium and funeral expenses at fifteen thousand, forty thousand and fifteen thousand rupees respectively, and directed that these be enhanced at the rate of ten per cent every three years, so that the sums a Tribunal applies today are higher than the figures in the judgment of 31 October 2017. Loss of consortium is not confined to a surviving spouse. In Magma General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Nanu Ram, decided on 18 September 2018, the Court explained that consortium is a compendious term encompassing spousal consortium, the right of a husband or wife to the company and affection of the other; parental consortium, granted to a child on the premature death of a parent; and filial consortium, the right of parents to the company and affection of their child. On that footing it awarded forty thousand rupees to each of the two parents of the deceased for loss of filial consortium.

3. How is compensation assessed where the victim survives with a permanent disability? By the same method, adapted. In Erudhaya Priya v. State Express Transport Corporation Ltd, decided on 27 July 2020, the appellant suffered multiple fractures in a bus accident, was hospitalised on eight occasions over about a year and a half, and was certified as 31.1 per cent permanently disabled. The Court held that the award to a victim of permanent or temporary disability must cover the pain, suffering and trauma resulting from the accident, loss of income including future income, the inability to lead a normal life with its amenities, medical expenses including those to be incurred in future, and loss of expectation of life. It held that the multiplier method is the logically sound and legally established way to quantify loss of income from permanent disability, and that the principles of future prospects apply to such a claimant as they do to a death case, adding fifty per cent on that account. Loss of earning power is therefore computed as the annual income, with future prospects, multiplied by the multiplier and by the percentage of permanent disability, with the non-pecuniary heads added; interest was allowed at nine per cent.

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Chapter Ninety-Four

Appeal, Recovery and Rules

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

Ninety days to the High Court, with a deposit if you are the one who must pay and a floor of one lakh rupees on what is worth appealing; and an unpaid award is recovered as an arrear of land revenue.

Section 173: appeal to the High Court

Who and when. Any person aggrieved by an award of a Claims Tribunal may, within ninety days from the date of the award, prefer an appeal to the High Court. There is no intermediate appeal and no appeal to a district court.

First proviso: the deposit. No appeal by the person who is required to pay any amount in terms of the award shall be entertained by the High Court unless he has deposited with it twenty-five thousand rupees or fifty per cent of the amount so awarded, whichever is less, in the manner directed by the High Court.

Note who the proviso binds. A claimant appealing for more compensation deposits nothing. Only the person ordered to pay must deposit, and the sum is capped, so on a large award the deposit is twenty-five thousand rupees.

Second proviso: delay. The High Court may entertain the appeal after the ninety days if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from preferring it in time.

Compare section 166(3). The limitation for the claim itself, six months, carries no power to condone; the limitation for the appeal does.

Sub-section (2): the floor. No appeal lies if the amount in dispute in the appeal is less than one lakh rupees. The figure was "ten thousand rupees" until section 57 of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 substituted "one lakh", in force from 1 April 2022.

Read the words: it is the amount in dispute in the appeal, not the amount of the award. An award of eight lakh appealed on a point worth sixty thousand rupees is below the floor.

Section 174: recovery as an arrear of land revenue

Where any amount is due from any person under an award, the Claims Tribunal may, on an application made to it by the person entitled to the amount, issue a certificate for the amount to the Collector, and the Collector shall proceed to recover it in the same manner as an arrear of land revenue.

Two routes since 1 April 2022. Section 169(4), inserted by section 55 of the amending Act, gives the Tribunal, for the enforcement of its award, all the powers of a civil court in the execution of a money decree under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908. Section 174 was not repealed, so the claimant now has a choice: execution by the Tribunal itself, or a certificate to the Collector.

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Section 174 also runs the other way. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the Supreme Court held that where the insurer proves its defence, the Tribunal may direct that the insurer, having had to satisfy the third party's award, be reimbursed by the insured; and that if the insured does not deposit that amount within the thirty days allowed by section 168(3), it is recoverable from him on a certificate to the Collector under section 174, as an arrear of land revenue.

Section 176: the State Government's rules

A State Government may make rules for carrying into effect sections 165 to 174, and in particular for

  • (a) the form of the application for compensation, the particulars it may contain, and the fees;
  • (b) the procedure to be followed by a Claims Tribunal in holding an inquiry;
  • (c) the powers vested in a civil court which may be exercised by a Claims Tribunal;
  • (d) the form and manner of an appeal against an award, and the fees; and
  • (e) any other matter which is to be, or may be, prescribed.

This is why section 166(2) can say the application shall be "in such form and contain such particulars as may be prescribed", and why section 169(1) makes summary procedure "subject to any rules that may be made in this behalf". The detail of practice before a Tribunal is in the State rules, not in the Act.

Section 176 covers sections 165 to 174 only. Rules for the compulsory insurance and no-fault Chapter are made by the Central Government under section 164C and by the State Government under section 164D.

A worked example

A Tribunal awards Rukhsana six lakh rupees against an owner and his insurer on 1 March.

The insurer wants to appeal the whole award. To the High Court, within ninety days of 1 March, and because it is a person required to pay it must deposit twenty-five thousand rupees or fifty per cent of six lakh, whichever is less: twenty-five thousand rupees.

Rukhsana wants to appeal for more. Same forum, same ninety days, no deposit; the first proviso binds only the person required to pay.

The insurer wants to dispute only an item of eighty thousand rupees. No appeal lies. Section 173(2) bars an appeal where the amount in dispute in the appeal is less than one lakh rupees.

The appeal is filed on the hundredth day. The High Court may entertain it under the second proviso if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause.

Nobody pays. Rukhsana may apply to the Tribunal, which since 1 April 2022 may execute the award itself under section 169(4), or may issue a certificate to the Collector under section 174 for recovery as an arrear of land revenue.

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Which form must her appeal be in? The form prescribed by the State rules made under section 176(d).

What it does NOT mean

The floor is not a floor on the award. It is on the amount in dispute in the appeal.

The deposit is not the whole award. It is the lesser of twenty-five thousand rupees and half the award.

Ninety days is not extendable as of right. The second proviso requires the High Court to be satisfied of sufficient cause.

A certificate to the Collector is not the only remedy any more. Section 169(4) has given the Tribunal execution powers of its own.

Quick revision

  1. Section 173(1): ninety days from the date of the award, appeal to the High Court.
  2. First proviso: the person required to pay must deposit twenty-five thousand rupees or fifty per cent of the award, whichever is less.
  3. Second proviso: delay may be condoned for sufficient cause; contrast section 166(3), which has no such power.
  4. Section 173(2): no appeal where the amount in dispute in the appeal is less than one lakh rupees, raised from ten thousand with effect from 1 April 2022.
  5. Section 174: on the application of the person entitled, the Tribunal certifies the amount to the Collector, who recovers it as an arrear of land revenue; and since 1 April 2022 section 169(4) also lets the Tribunal execute its own award.
  6. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297: reimbursement by the insured to the insurer is recovered the same way if not deposited within thirty days under section 168(3).
  7. Section 176: State rules for sections 165 to 174, covering the form of application, the procedure, the civil court powers exercisable, and appeals.

Test yourself

1. State the provisions as to appeal against an award of a Claims Tribunal. By section 173(1) any person aggrieved by an award may, within ninety days from the date of the award, prefer an appeal to the High Court. The first proviso bars the High Court from entertaining an appeal by the person who is required to pay any amount in terms of the award unless he has deposited with the High Court twenty-five thousand rupees or fifty per cent of the amount awarded, whichever is less, in the manner directed by the High Court; a claimant appealing for enhancement is therefore not required to deposit anything. The second proviso permits the High Court to entertain an appeal after the ninety days if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from preferring it in time, which may be contrasted with section 166(3), where the six-month bar on the claim itself carries no power of condonation. By section 173(2) no appeal lies if the amount in dispute in the appeal is less than one lakh rupees, a figure raised from ten thousand rupees by section 57 of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 with effect from 1 April 2022.

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2. How is an award enforced? Two ways since 1 April 2022. Section 168(3) requires the person liable to deposit the entire amount awarded within thirty days of the announcement of the award. If he does not, section 174 allows the Tribunal, on an application by the person entitled to the amount, to issue a certificate for that amount to the Collector, who then proceeds to recover it in the same manner as an arrear of land revenue. In addition, section 169(4), inserted by section 55 of the amending Act, gives the Tribunal for the enforcement of its award all the powers of a civil court in the execution of a decree under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, as if the award were a money decree passed by such a court. The machinery of section 174 also runs from insured to insurer: in National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the Supreme Court held that where the Tribunal directs that an insurer who has satisfied a third party's award be reimbursed by the insured, and the insured does not deposit that amount within thirty days, it is recoverable on a certificate to the Collector as an arrear of land revenue.

3. What rules may a State Government make under section 176? Section 176 empowers a State Government to make rules for the purpose of carrying into effect the provisions of sections 165 to 174, that is, the whole of the Claims Tribunal Chapter down to recovery. In particular the rules may provide for the form of the application for claims for compensation, the particulars it may contain and the fees payable in respect of such applications; the procedure to be followed by a Claims Tribunal in holding an inquiry under the Chapter; the powers vested in a civil court which may be exercised by a Claims Tribunal; the form and manner in which, and the fees on payment of which, an appeal may be preferred against an award; and any other matter which is to be or may be prescribed. The rules matter because the Act itself is deliberately skeletal on procedure: section 166(2) requires the application to be in the prescribed form, and section 169(1) permits summary procedure only subject to the rules. Rules for the insurance and no-fault Chapter are made separately, by the Central Government under section 164C and by the State Government under section 164D.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ninety-Five

Liability without Fault

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

For death or grievous hurt in a motor accident the owner or the insurer must pay five lakh or two and a half lakh rupees, and the claimant need not plead or prove that anybody was at fault.

Read the numbers of the sections before the words. Almost every textbook and every past paper on this subject calls this "section 140". Section 140 was repealed with effect from 1 April 2022, along with the whole of Chapter X and with sections 163A and 163B and the Second Schedule. The provision in force is section 164, and the section that used to bear that number, the Central Government's rule-making power, is now section 164C. This chapter states the law as it is and then states the law as it was, because a student must be able to read both the syllabus and the old judgments.

The law in force: section 164

Sub-section (1). Notwithstanding anything in this Act or any other law or instrument having the force of law, the owner of the motor vehicle or the authorised insurer shall be liable to pay, in the case of death or grievous hurt due to any accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, a compensation of

  • five lakh rupees in the case of death,
  • two and a half lakh rupees in the case of grievous hurt,

to the legal heirs or the victim, as the case may be.

Sub-section (2). In any claim under sub-section (1) the claimant shall not be required to plead or establish that the death or grievous hurt was due to any wrongful act or neglect or default of the owner of the vehicle, or of the vehicle concerned, or of any other person.

Sub-section (3). Where compensation has been paid under any other law for the time being in force in respect of the same death or grievous hurt, that amount shall be reduced from the amount payable under this section.

Three changes from the old law worth marking. The trigger is now grievous hurt and not "permanent disablement"; the sums are ten times what they were; and both the owner and the authorised insurer are named as liable.

How it reaches the claimant. Section 149 obliges the insurer to offer settlement on the accident information report prepared by the police under section 159, and by the second proviso to section 166(1) a claimant who accepts compensation under section 164 through that procedure has his claims petition before the Tribunal lapse. A claimant who wants more litigates for just compensation instead, and what has been paid is set off.

Section 164A: interim relief

The Central Government may make schemes for the provision of interim relief to claimants praying for compensation under Chapter XI. A scheme so made must also provide the procedure to recover the funds disbursed under it from the owner of the motor vehicle out of whose use the claim arose, or from such other sources as may be prescribed.

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Interim relief is a loan against the eventual award, not a gift: the section requires the recovery machinery to be built into the scheme.

Section 164B: the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund

Constituted by the Central Government, and credited with payments notified and approved by the Central Government, grants or loans from the Central Government, the balance of the old fund created under the scheme framed under the former section 163, and any other prescribed source.

Purpose, sub-section (2). Providing compulsory insurance cover to all road users in the territory of India.

Utilisation, sub-section (3). Treatment of persons injured in road accidents under the section 162 scheme; compensation to the representatives of a person who died in a hit and run motor accident, and to a person grievously hurt in one, under the section 161 schemes; and compensation to such other persons as may be prescribed.

Set-off, sub-section (5). Where an amount has been paid out of the Fund for treatment, the same amount is deductible from the claim the person receives from the insurance company.

Accountability, sub-sections (6) to (10). Managed by an authority or agency specified by the Central Government having regard to its knowledge of insurance business and its capability to manage funds; accounts maintained in the prescribed form in consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General; audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General; and the certified accounts with the audit report laid before each House of Parliament.

Sub-section (11). Any scheme framed under the old section 163(3) stands discontinued, and all rights and liabilities accruing under it are met out of the Fund.

And in the rules. The Central Motor Vehicles (Motor Vehicle Accident Fund) Rules 2022, G.S.R. 162(E) of 25 February 2022, in force from 1 April 2022, constitute the Fund in three accounts, the Account for Insured Vehicles, the Account for Uninsured Vehicles or Hit and Run Motor Accident, and the Hit and Run Compensation Account, and vest its administration in a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund Trust whose trustees are officers of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the Ministry of Finance, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the General Insurance Council.

The old law, which the syllabus and the papers still name

Section 140, Chapter X. Where death or permanent disablement resulted from an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, the owner, or owners jointly and severally, were liable to a fixed sum of fifty thousand rupees for death and twenty-five thousand for permanent disablement; the claimant did not have to plead and establish wrongful act, neglect or default, sub-section (3); and the claim was not to be defeated by any wrongful act, neglect or default of the victim, nor the quantum reduced by the victim's share in the responsibility, sub-section (4).

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Section 141. The right under section 140 was in addition to any other right to claim on the principle of fault; the no-fault claim was to be disposed of first; and where the same person was liable on both, he paid the no-fault sum and only so much of the fault compensation as exceeded it.

Section 142. Defined permanent disablement: permanent privation of the sight of either eye or the hearing of either ear, or privation of any member or joint; destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint; or permanent disfiguration of the head or face.

Section 143. Applied the Chapter to claims for the same death or permanent disablement under the Workmen's Compensation Act 1923.

Section 144. Gave the Chapter overriding effect over any other provision of the Act or any other law.

Section 163A. Compensation on a structured formula basis, as indicated in the Second Schedule, payable by the owner or the authorised insurer, again with no need to plead or establish fault, and with power in the Central Government to amend the Schedule for the cost of living.

Section 163B. A person entitled to claim under both section 140 and section 163A had to file under one and not both.

All of these, and the Second Schedule, went on 1 April 2022. A student who cites section 140 for the current no-fault liability, or the Second Schedule for the figures, is citing repealed law.

What the courts made of no-fault liability

Facts. Minu B. Mehta v. Balkrishna Ramchandra Nayan, AIR 1977 SC 1248, decided on 28 January 1977, before any no-fault provision existed. It was argued that an owner should be liable without proof of negligence.

Held. Proof of negligence is necessary before the owner or the insurer can be held liable, and liability without proof of negligence was for Parliament, not the courts, to create.

Facts. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690. Brothers of a boy killed by a bus claimed as legal representatives.

Held. Besides settling who may claim, the Court held that the no-fault provision then in force was a departure from the common law rule that negligence must be established, and that a pedestrian injured or killed without negligence on his part should recover.

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Facts. Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, (1991) 3 SCC 530. A petrol tanker overturned and, about four hours later, the leaked petrol exploded.

Held. "Arising out of the use of a motor vehicle" is wider than "caused by" the vehicle, and the no-fault provision applied to the explosion.

Facts. Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643. A married daughter, not dependent on her father, claimed the fixed no-fault amount for his death.

Held. A legal representative who is not a dependant may still be a beneficiary: the statutory liability is for a fixed and crystallised amount which forms part of the estate of the deceased, and the legal representative who inherits the estate takes it.

Facts. Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9. The Tribunal found no negligence and dismissed the claim while directing payment of the fixed no-fault amount.

Held. A Tribunal may award on the rule of strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher even where negligence is not proved, subject to the recognised exceptions; the Court distinguished statutory no-fault liability, a fixed amount payable even where an exception to the rule applies, from strict liability at common law, and noted that the no-fault amount is deducted from the final award.

Put the last two together and the character of no-fault liability appears. It is not a species of tort: it is a fixed statutory sum, part of the estate, payable without inquiry into anyone's conduct, and set off against whatever the fault jurisdiction eventually gives.

A worked example

A motorcyclist is killed in 2026 in a collision with a truck. The truck driver was not negligent; the motorcyclist himself misjudged a turn. He leaves a widow and a married sister.

Is anything payable without proof of fault? Yes. Section 164: five lakh rupees for death, payable by the owner of the truck or its authorised insurer, and by sub-section (2) the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default.

Does the deceased's own carelessness defeat it? No. Section 164 makes no inquiry into fault at all, on either side.

May the married sister claim? If she is a legal representative, yes, on the reasoning of Manjuri Bera: the fixed amount is part of the estate, and dependency is not the test.

The widow also sues for just compensation and is awarded thirty lakh. The five lakh already paid is set off; that is how Kaushnuma Begum treated the no-fault payment.

The family had already received a sum under another statute. Section 164(3) requires that amount to be reduced from what is payable under section 164.

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What if the same accident had happened in 2019? Section 140: fifty thousand rupees for death, and only for death or permanent disablement, with the option of a structured claim under section 163A on the Second Schedule.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a claim in tort. No duty, no breach, no causation of fault.

It is not confined to dependants. Manjuri Bera.

It is not additional to the award. It is set off.

It is not section 140. That section, the whole of Chapter X, sections 163A and 163B and the Second Schedule were repealed with effect from 1 April 2022.

It is not the only route to compensation without proving negligence. Kaushnuma Begum keeps the common law rule of strict liability available before a Tribunal.

Quick revision

  1. Section 164(1): five lakh rupees for death, two and a half lakh for grievous hurt, payable by the owner or the authorised insurer.
  2. Section 164(2): no need to plead or establish wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 164(3): compensation paid under any other law is reduced from it.
  3. Section 164A: Central Government schemes for interim relief, with recovery from the owner built in.
  4. Section 164B: the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, for compulsory insurance cover to all road users, used for treatment under section 162 and hit and run compensation under section 161, audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General and laid before Parliament; the Fund Rules of 2022 divide it into three accounts under a Trust.
  5. The old law: sections 140 to 144 with fifty thousand and twenty-five thousand rupees for death and permanent disablement, section 142's definition of permanent disablement, section 141's priority and set-off, section 144's overriding effect, and sections 163A and 163B with the Second Schedule. All repealed with effect from 1 April 2022.
  6. Minu B. Mehta: at common law negligence had to be proved. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai: the no-fault provision departs from that rule. Manjuri Bera: a fixed and crystallised amount forming part of the estate. Kaushnuma Begum: strict liability survives alongside it, and the no-fault sum is deducted from the final award.

Test yourself

1. Explain the principle of liability without fault under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 as it stands today. Section 164, in force from 1 April 2022, provides that notwithstanding anything in the Act or any other law, the owner of the motor vehicle or the authorised insurer shall be liable to pay, in the case of death or grievous hurt due to an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, a fixed compensation of five lakh rupees for death and two and a half lakh rupees for grievous hurt, to the legal heirs or to the victim as the case may be. By sub-section (2) the claimant is not required to plead or establish that the death or grievous hurt was due to any wrongful act, neglect or default of the owner, of the vehicle or of any other person; the liability therefore attaches on proof of the accident, the use of the vehicle and the consequence alone. By sub-section (3) compensation already paid under any other law is reduced from the amount payable. The character of such liability was explained in Manjuri Bera v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd, (2007) 10 SCC 643, as a statutory liability for a fixed and crystallised amount which forms part of the estate of the deceased, so that a legal representative who is not a dependant may receive it, and in Kaushnuma Begum v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd, (2001) 2 SCC 9, as distinct from strict liability at common law and as deductible from the final award.

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2. Trace the history of no-fault liability under the Act. Until 1988 the position was that stated in Minu B. Mehta v. Balkrishna Ramchandra Nayan, AIR 1977 SC 1248, that proof of negligence was necessary before an owner or insurer could be made liable, and that liability without fault was for Parliament to create. Parliament created it in Chapter X of the Act of 1988. Section 140 made the owner liable for a fixed sum on death or permanent disablement arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, raised in 1994 to fifty thousand and twenty-five thousand rupees; sub-section (3) dispensed with pleading and proof of fault and sub-section (4) prevented the claim being defeated or reduced by the victim's own fault. Section 141 made the right additional to the fault claim, required it to be disposed of first, and set it off against the fault award; section 142 defined permanent disablement; section 143 extended the Chapter to claims under the Workmen's Compensation Act 1923; and section 144 gave the Chapter overriding effect. In 1994 section 163A added compensation on a structured formula basis under the Second Schedule, again without proof of fault, and section 163B required a claimant entitled under both to choose one.

The Supreme Court described the departure from the common law in Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, and gave the trigger a wide reading in Shivaji Dayanu Patil v. Vatschala Uttam More, (1991) 3 SCC 530. The whole of Chapter X, sections 163A and 163B and the Second Schedule were repealed with effect from 1 April 2022 by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 as brought into force by S.O. 859(E) of 25 February 2022, and section 164 took their place.

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3. What is the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund? It is a fund constituted by the Central Government under section 164B, credited with payments notified and approved by the Central Government, grants and loans from it, the balance of the fund created under the scheme framed under the former section 163, and any other prescribed source. Sub-section (2) states its purpose as providing compulsory insurance cover to all road users in the territory of India.

By sub-section (3) it is utilised for the treatment of persons injured in road accidents under the scheme framed under section 162, for compensation to the representatives of a person who died in a hit and run motor accident and to a person grievously hurt in one under the schemes framed under section 161, and for compensation to such other persons as may be prescribed; and by sub-section (5) an amount paid out of the Fund for treatment is deducted from the claim the person receives from the insurance company. The Fund is managed by an agency specified by the Central Government, its accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General and laid, with the audit report, before each House of Parliament, and the old scheme under section 163 stands discontinued with its rights and liabilities met out of the Fund.

The Central Motor Vehicles (Motor Vehicle Accident Fund) Rules 2022, in force from 1 April 2022, divide the Fund into an Account for Insured Vehicles, an Account for Uninsured Vehicles or Hit and Run Motor Accident and a Hit and Run Compensation Account, administered by a Trust of officers of the concerned Ministries and the General Insurance Council.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ninety-Six

Hit and Run, and the Golden Hour

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

Where the vehicle cannot be identified the State pays fixed compensation through a revenue officer, not through a Tribunal; and every insurer must fund cashless treatment in the first hour after the injury.

What a hit and run motor accident is

Section 145(d) defines it: an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle or motor vehicles the identity whereof cannot be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts for the purpose.

Two words carry the definition. The vehicle, not the driver, must be unidentified; and reasonable efforts must have been made. A vehicle that speeds away but is traced by its number is not a hit and run case, and the ordinary claim before the Tribunal lies.

Section 161: what is paid, and by whom

Sub-section (1). Notwithstanding anything in any other law or instrument having the force of law, the Central Government shall provide for paying compensation in respect of the death of, or grievous hurt to, persons resulting from hit and run motor accidents.

Sub-section (2): the figures.

ForFixed sum
Deathtwo lakh rupees, or such higher amount as the Central Government may prescribe
Grievous hurtfifty thousand rupees, or such higher amount as prescribed

Sub-section (3): the scheme. The Central Government may by notification make a scheme specifying how it is administered, by the Central Government or the General Insurance Council; the form, manner and time for applications; the officers or authorities to whom applications may be made; the procedure for considering and passing orders; and all connected matters.

Sub-section (4): what a scheme may provide. Interim relief of such sum as the Central Government may prescribe; that contravention of the scheme is punishable with imprisonment up to two years, or fine not less than twenty-five thousand and up to five lakh rupees, or both; and delegation of powers with the Central Government's prior written approval.

The Scheme of 2022

The Compensation to Victims of Hit and Run Motor Accidents Scheme 2022 was made under section 161, in supersession of the Solatium Scheme 1989, and came into force on 1 April 2022.

Who decides.

  • Claims Enquiry Officer: the Sub-Divisional Officer, Tehsildar, or other officer in charge of the revenue sub-division of a taluka, or an officer of that rank specified by the State Government.
  • Claims Settlement Commissioner: the District Magistrate, Deputy Commissioner, Collector or other officer in charge of a revenue district, appointed as such by the State Government.

The steps.

  1. The applicant submits Form I, including by electronic means, with any hospital claim under the cashless treatment scheme and the undertaking in Form IV, to the Claims Enquiry Officer of the sub-division or taluka in which the accident took place.
  2. That officer obtains the First Accident Report and, where relevant, the post mortem report, holds an enquiry, and submits a report in Form II to the Claims Settlement Commissioner as early as possible and within one month of receiving the application; a report returned for further enquiry is resubmitted within fifteen days.
  3. The Claims Settlement Commissioner sanctions the claim as far as possible within fifteen days of receiving the report, communicating the sanction in Form III, and deducts what the hospital has claimed for treatment.
  4. The General Insurance Council makes e-payment to the claimant's bank account within fifteen days of the sanction order, extendable by a further thirty days for reasons recorded in writing.
  5. If the Claims Enquiry Officer does not accept the grounds advanced, he must record a speaking order and communicate the reasons.
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Notice the forum. A hit and run claim is decided by revenue officers on a paper enquiry, not by a Claims Tribunal on an inquiry under section 168. There is nobody to sue, so there is no lis, and the Act sends the claim to the district administration instead.

Section 162: the golden hour

"Golden hour" is defined in section 2(12A), inserted with effect from 1 September 2019, as the time period lasting one hour following a traumatic injury during which there is the highest likelihood of preventing death by providing prompt medical care.

Sub-section (1). Notwithstanding the General Insurance Companies (Nationalisation) Act 1972 or any other law, the insurance companies carrying on general insurance business in India shall provide for the treatment of road accident victims, including during the golden hour, in accordance with the Act and the schemes made under it.

Sub-section (2). The Central Government shall make a scheme for the cashless treatment of victims of accidents during the golden hour, and the scheme may contain provisions for the creation of a fund for such treatment.

This is the one place in the Act that treats the accident as a medical emergency rather than as a dispute about money. It does not depend on who was at fault, on whether the vehicle was insured, or on whether the vehicle was identified.

Where the money sits. The Central Motor Vehicles (Motor Vehicle Accident Fund) Rules 2022 divide the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund into an Account for Insured Vehicles, an Account for Uninsured Vehicles or Hit and Run Motor Accident, both for cashless treatment under the section 162 scheme, and a Hit and Run Compensation Account for compensation under section 161.

Section 163: no double recovery

Sub-section (1). Payment under section 161 is subject to the condition that if any other compensation, or any amount in lieu of or in satisfaction of a claim for compensation, is awarded or paid for the same death or grievous hurt under any other provision of this Act or any other law or otherwise, so much of it as equals what was paid under section 161 shall be refunded to the insurer.

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Sub-section (2). Before awarding compensation for an accident involving death or bodily injury arising out of the use of a motor vehicle under any provision other than section 161 or any other law, the Claims Tribunal, court or other authority shall verify whether compensation has already been paid under section 161 or an application is pending, and shall

  • (a) if it has been paid, direct the person liable under its award to refund the required amount to the insurer;
  • (b) if an application is pending, forward the particulars of the compensation awarded to the insurer.

Explanation. An application under section 161 is deemed pending, if it has been rejected, till the date of rejection, and in any other case till the date compensation is paid in pursuance of it.

This is the section 168(1) now speaks of, "subject to the provisions of section 163". Before 1 April 2022 the same duty sat in section 162 and the cross-reference in section 168 was to that number.

Sections 164C and 164D: the rules

Section 164C. The Central Government may make rules to carry out Chapter XI, including the form of the accident information report under section 159 and the time and manner of submitting it, the form for information under section 160, the higher amount of compensation for death under section 161(2)(a), the sum payable as interim relief under section 161(4)(a), the procedure for payment of compensation under section 164(1), the sources for the section 164A scheme, and the income, beneficiaries, maximum liability and management criteria for the Fund under section 164B.

Section 164D. The State Government may make rules for the rest of the Chapter, other than the matters specified in section 164C, including the other authority under section 147(5).

The division is worth a line in an answer: the insurance and compensation Chapter is centrally administered, so the Centre makes its rules, while the Claims Tribunal Chapter is run by the States, so section 176 gives the State the rules for sections 165 to 174.

A worked example

Bhaskar is knocked down at night by a truck that does not stop and is never traced, and dies in hospital two days later.

Where does the family apply? Not to the Claims Tribunal. In Form I to the Claims Enquiry Officer of the sub-division or taluka in which the accident took place, under the Scheme of 2022.

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How much? Two lakh rupees for death under section 161(2)(a), or such higher amount as the Central Government has prescribed.

How long should it take? A Form II report within one month, sanction within fifteen days of that report, and payment by the General Insurance Council within fifteen days of the sanction order, extendable by thirty days for reasons recorded.

Who paid for the emergency surgery? The cashless treatment scheme under section 162, funded from the Account for Uninsured Vehicles or Hit and Run Motor Accident; and the Claims Settlement Commissioner deducts the hospital's claim from the compensation sanctioned.

A year later the truck is traced and the Tribunal awards eighteen lakh. By section 163(2)(a) the Tribunal must first verify what was paid under section 161, and direct the person liable under its award to refund that amount to the insurer.

And if the vehicle had been traced from the start? Then it is not a hit and run motor accident at all, section 145(d), and the ordinary claim under section 166 lies, with the fixed sum under section 164 available without proof of fault.

What it does NOT mean

It is not a claim against anybody. There is no identified owner, driver or insurer; the money comes from the Fund.

It is not decided by a Tribunal. Revenue officers decide it under the Scheme.

The golden hour scheme is not limited to hit and run cases. Section 162 covers road accident victims generally, and the Fund has a separate account for insured vehicles.

The hit and run sum is not extra. Section 163 requires it to be refunded out of any later award.

The identity of the driver is not the test. Section 145(d) speaks of the identity of the vehicle.

Quick revision

  1. Section 145(d): a hit and run motor accident is one where the identity of the vehicle cannot be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts.
  2. Section 161: two lakh rupees for death, fifty thousand for grievous hurt, or higher sums as prescribed, under a scheme made by the Central Government; contravention of the scheme is punishable with up to two years' imprisonment, or fine of twenty-five thousand to five lakh rupees, or both.
  3. The Compensation to Victims of Hit and Run Motor Accidents Scheme 2022, in force from 1 April 2022, supersedes the Solatium Scheme 1989: Form I to the Claims Enquiry Officer, Form II report within a month, sanction in Form III within fifteen days, e-payment by the General Insurance Council within fifteen days.
  4. Section 2(12A): the golden hour is the hour following a traumatic injury during which there is the highest likelihood of preventing death by prompt medical care.
  5. Section 162: insurers must provide for treatment including during the golden hour, and the Central Government shall make a cashless treatment scheme which may create a fund.
  6. Section 163: the section 161 payment is refundable to the insurer out of any later compensation, and a Tribunal must verify and direct the refund before awarding.
  7. Sections 164C and 164D: Central and State rules for Chapter XI; contrast section 176, which gives the State the rules for sections 165 to 174.
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Test yourself

1. What compensation is payable where the vehicle causing the accident cannot be identified? A hit and run motor accident is defined by section 145(d) as an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle or motor vehicles the identity whereof cannot be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts. Section 161 requires the Central Government to provide for paying compensation in respect of death or grievous hurt resulting from such accidents, and fixes the sums at two lakh rupees for death and fifty thousand rupees for grievous hurt, or such higher amounts as the Central Government may prescribe. The machinery is a scheme under section 161(3), which may be administered by the Central Government or the General Insurance Council, and which may provide for interim relief, for punishment of its contravention with imprisonment up to two years or fine between twenty-five thousand and five lakh rupees or both, and for delegation of functions.

The scheme in force is the Compensation to Victims of Hit and Run Motor Accidents Scheme 2022, made in supersession of the Solatium Scheme 1989 and effective from 1 April 2022. Under it the claim is made in Form I to the Claims Enquiry Officer, a Sub-Divisional Officer or Tehsildar of the sub-division where the accident took place, who enquires and reports in Form II within a month to the Claims Settlement Commissioner, the District Magistrate or Collector, who sanctions within fifteen days in Form III, whereupon the General Insurance Council pays electronically within fifteen days.

2. What is the golden hour, and what does the Act require in respect of it? Section 2(12A), inserted with effect from 1 September 2019, defines the golden hour as the time period lasting one hour following a traumatic injury during which there is the highest likelihood of preventing death by providing prompt medical care. Section 162(1) provides that, notwithstanding the General Insurance Companies (Nationalisation) Act 1972 or any other law, the insurance companies carrying on general insurance business in India shall provide for the treatment of road accident victims, including during the golden hour, in accordance with the Act and the schemes made under it; and section 162(2) requires the Central Government to make a scheme for the cashless treatment of victims during the golden hour, which may contain provisions for the creation of a fund for such treatment. The Central Motor Vehicles (Motor Vehicle Accident Fund) Rules 2022 give effect to this by dividing the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund into an Account for Insured Vehicles and an Account for Uninsured Vehicles or Hit and Run Motor Accident, both for cashless treatment under section 162, besides a Hit and Run Compensation Account for compensation under section 161. The obligation does not depend on fault, on the vehicle being insured, or on the vehicle being identified.

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3. What happens if a hit and run victim is later compensated by a Claims Tribunal? Section 163 prevents double recovery. By sub-section (1) the payment of compensation under section 161 is subject to the condition that if any other compensation, or any amount in lieu of or by way of satisfaction of a claim for compensation, is awarded or paid in respect of the same death or grievous hurt under any other provision of the Act or any other law or otherwise, so much of it as equals the amount paid under section 161 shall be refunded to the insurer. By sub-section (2) the Claims Tribunal, court or other authority must, before awarding compensation for an accident involving death or bodily injury arising out of the use of a motor vehicle, verify whether compensation has already been paid under section 161 or whether an application is pending; if it has been paid, it must direct the person liable under its award to refund the amount to the insurer, and if an application is pending, it must forward the particulars of its award to the insurer. The Explanation provides that an application is deemed pending, if rejected, till the date of rejection, and otherwise till the date of payment. This is the section to which section 168(1) is now expressly made subject.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ninety-Seven

Compulsory Third-Party Insurance

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

No motor vehicle may be used in a public place unless a policy is in force covering death, bodily injury and third-party property damage arising out of its use, and the certificate of insurance binds the insurer even where the policy does not.

Why the Chapter exists

An award against a driver who has nothing is a piece of paper. The whole architecture of Chapter XI is designed so that there is always somebody solvent behind the wheel. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the Supreme Court put it in a sentence a student should be able to reproduce: the Chapter providing compulsory insurance of vehicles against third-party risks is a social welfare legislation to extend relief by compensation to victims of accidents caused by the use of motor vehicles, and its provisions must be interpreted so as to effectuate that object.

Section 145: the definitions that matter

  • "authorised insurer": an insurer carrying on general insurance business in India and registered by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, and any Government insurance fund authorised under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act 1972.
  • "certificate of insurance": a certificate issued by an authorised insurer under section 147, including a cover note complying with the prescribed requirements.
  • "grievous hurt": the same meaning as in section 320 of the Indian Penal Code.
  • "hit and run motor accident": worked in chapter [Hit and Run, and the Golden Hour].
  • "property": includes roads, bridges, culverts, causeways, trees, posts, milestones, and the baggage of passengers and goods carried in any motor vehicle.
  • "third party": includes the Government, the driver and any other co-worker on a transport vehicle.

The last definition is the one examiners like. The driver of the vehicle is, for this Chapter, a third party.

The reference to section 320 of the Indian Penal Code has not been updated: since 1 July 2024 grievous hurt is defined by section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, and section 8(1) of that Sanhita provides that a reference in any other law to a repealed provision is to be construed as a reference to the corresponding provision of the Sanhita.

Section 146: the prohibition

Sub-section (1). No person shall use, except as a passenger, or cause or allow any other person to use, a motor vehicle in a public place, unless there is in force, in relation to that use, a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the Chapter.

Proviso. A vehicle carrying, or meant to carry, dangerous or hazardous goods must also have a policy under the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, which is chapter [The Public Liability Insurance Act 1991].

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Explanation. A person driving merely as a paid employee does not contravene the sub-section unless he knows or has reason to believe that there is no such policy in force.

Sub-section (2): what is outside it. Vehicles owned by the Central Government or a State Government and used for purposes not connected with any commercial enterprise.

Sub-section (3): what may be exempted. By order of the appropriate Government: government vehicles used for a commercial enterprise, vehicles of a local authority, and vehicles of a State Transport Undertaking, but only if that authority has established and maintains a fund in the prescribed manner.

The proviso to sub-section (3) is the point of principle. The State may go without insurance only if it has set aside its own money to pay claims. Nobody is allowed to be simply uninsured.

Section 147: what the policy must cover

Sub-section (1). A complying policy must be issued by an authorised insurer and must insure the person or classes of persons specified in it

  • (b)(i) against any liability incurred in respect of the death of or bodily injury to any person, including the owner of goods or his authorised representative carried in the vehicle, or damage to any property of a third party, caused by or arising out of the use of the vehicle in a public place; and
  • (b)(ii) against the death of or bodily injury to any passenger of a transport vehicle, except gratuitous passengers of a goods vehicle, so caused.

The Explanation. Death, bodily injury or property damage is deemed to have been caused by or to have arisen out of the use of a vehicle in a public place even though the person or property was not in a public place at the time, if the act or omission which led to the accident occurred in a public place.

A lorry driven carelessly on the road that crashes through a wall into a house injures somebody who was never in a public place at all; the Explanation puts that case squarely inside the policy.

Sub-section (2): the premium. Notwithstanding any other law, for third-party insurance relating to death or grievous hurt the Central Government shall prescribe a base premium and the liability of the insurer in relation to that premium, in consultation with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

Sub-section (3): the certificate. A policy is of no effect for the purposes of the Chapter unless and until the insurer issues, in favour of the person by whom it is effected, a certificate of insurance in the prescribed form containing the prescribed particulars of any condition subject to which it is issued.

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Sub-section (4): policies issued before the amendment continue on their existing terms, and the Act applies to them as if it had not been amended.

Sub-section (5): cover notes. Where a cover note is not followed by a policy within the specified time, the insurer must notify the registering authority, or such other authority as the State Government prescribes, within seven days of the expiry of the cover note's validity.

Sub-section (6): the indemnity. Notwithstanding any other law, an insurer issuing a policy under this section shall be liable to indemnify the person or classes of persons specified in the policy in respect of any liability which the policy purports to cover.

Section 148: vehicles from reciprocating countries

Where, under an arrangement between India and a reciprocating country, a vehicle registered in that country operates on a route or in an area common to the two, and a policy complying with that country's law of insurance is in force, the policy is effective throughout that route or area as if it complied with this Chapter, notwithstanding section 147 but subject to rules made under section 164B.

Section 156: the certificate governs

Where an insurer has issued a certificate of insurance,

  • (a) so long as the policy described in the certificate has not been issued, the insurer is, as between himself and any person except the insured, deemed to have issued a policy conforming in all respects with the description and particulars in the certificate; and
  • (b) where the policy has been issued but its actual terms are less favourable to persons claiming under it than the particulars stated in the certificate, the policy is, as between the insurer and any person except the insured, deemed to conform to the certificate.

This is the provision that makes the certificate, the small paper in the vehicle, the operative document for a third party. The insurer cannot tell an injured stranger that the real policy was narrower than the certificate said.

Notice the words "except the insured" in both clauses. As between insurer and insured the true policy governs; the deeming operates only in favour of third parties.

Section 157: transfer with the vehicle

Sub-section (1). Where the person in whose favour the certificate was issued transfers the ownership of the vehicle together with the policy, the certificate and the policy are deemed to have been transferred to the transferee with effect from the date of transfer. The Explanation clarifies that the deemed transfer includes the rights and liabilities under the certificate and the policy.

Sub-section (2). The transferee must apply to the insurer in the prescribed form within fourteen days of the transfer for the necessary changes, and the insurer shall make them.

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Compulsory insurance follows the vehicle, not the paperwork. A buyer who has not yet done the formalities is nevertheless covered for third-party risks from the date of transfer.

A worked example

Firdaus buys a second-hand goods vehicle on 1 June and forgets to tell the insurer. On 10 June his paid driver, who had no reason to think the vehicle uninsured, knocks down a pedestrian on a highway; a fragment of the load flies off and damages a boundary wall of a house set back from the road.

Is there cover? Yes. By section 157(1) the certificate and policy are deemed transferred to Firdaus from 1 June, with the rights and liabilities; the fourteen-day application under section 157(2) is a duty, not a condition of cover.

Is the pedestrian covered? Yes, section 147(1)(b)(i): death of or bodily injury to any person caused by or arising out of the use of the vehicle in a public place.

Is the wall covered? Yes. It is damage to the property of a third party, and by the Explanation to section 147(1) it does not matter that the wall was not in a public place, because the act or omission that led to the accident occurred in one.

Is the driver liable to prosecution for using an uninsured vehicle? On these facts no: the Explanation to section 146(1) protects a person driving merely as a paid employee unless he knows or has reason to believe there is no policy in force.

The insurer says the actual policy excluded goods vehicles of this weight, though the certificate did not. As against the pedestrian and the householder, section 156(b) deems the policy to conform to the certificate.

Suppose the vehicle carried hazardous chemicals. The proviso to section 146(1) requires a policy under the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 as well.

What it does NOT mean

It is not comprehensive insurance. The Chapter compels cover of third-party risks; damage to the insured's own vehicle is a matter of contract.

The driver is not outside the cover as a stranger. Section 145(i) includes the driver and co-workers on a transport vehicle in "third party".

Government vehicles are not automatically exempt. Only non-commercial use is outside section 146(1), and an exemption for commercial use requires a fund.

A gratuitous passenger in a goods vehicle is not within the compulsory cover. Section 147(1)(b)(ii) expressly excepts them.

The certificate does not bind as against the insured. Section 156 operates "as between himself and any other person except the insured".

Quick revision

  1. Section 146(1): no use of a motor vehicle in a public place without a policy complying with the Chapter; a paid employee is excused unless he knows or has reason to believe there is none; hazardous goods also need a Public Liability Insurance Act policy.
  2. Section 146(2) and (3): non-commercial government vehicles are outside; local authorities, State Transport Undertakings and commercially used government vehicles may be exempted only against an established fund.
  3. Section 147(1): death or bodily injury to any person and damage to third-party property; passengers of a transport vehicle except gratuitous passengers of a goods vehicle; the Explanation covers a victim who was not in a public place if the act or omission was.
  4. Section 147(2), (3), (5) and (6): base premium prescribed by the Central Government with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority; a certificate of insurance is essential; cover-note lapse to be notified in seven days; the insurer is liable to indemnify what the policy purports to cover.
  5. Section 148: a policy from a reciprocating country is effective on the common route or area.
  6. Section 156: as against everyone except the insured, the certificate governs, both where no policy has issued and where the policy is less favourable.
  7. Section 157: certificate and policy pass with the vehicle on transfer, with rights and liabilities; the transferee applies within fourteen days.
  8. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297: the Chapter is social welfare legislation and is to be interpreted to effectuate its object.
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Test yourself

1. State the requirement of compulsory insurance and what a complying policy must cover. Section 146(1) forbids any person to use, except as a passenger, or to cause or allow another to use, a motor vehicle in a public place unless there is in force in relation to that use a policy of insurance complying with Chapter XI; a vehicle carrying or meant to carry dangerous or hazardous goods must also be insured under the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991. A person driving merely as a paid employee does not contravene the sub-section unless he knows or has reason to believe that no policy is in force. Vehicles of the Central or a State Government used for purposes unconnected with any commercial enterprise are outside the sub-section, and the appropriate Government may exempt government vehicles used commercially, vehicles of a local authority and those of a State Transport Undertaking, but only where that authority has established and maintains a fund in the prescribed manner.

By section 147(1) a complying policy must be issued by an authorised insurer and must insure against liability for the death of or bodily injury to any person, including the owner of goods or his representative carried in the vehicle, and against damage to any property of a third party, caused by or arising out of the use of the vehicle in a public place, and against the death of or bodily injury to any passenger of a transport vehicle other than a gratuitous passenger of a goods vehicle. The Explanation deems the injury or damage to have arisen out of such use even though the victim or property was not in a public place, provided the act or omission which led to the accident occurred in one.

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2. What is the effect of a certificate of insurance? By section 147(3) a policy has no effect for the purposes of the Chapter unless and until the insurer issues a certificate of insurance in the prescribed form in favour of the person effecting the policy. Section 156 then gives the certificate an operative force of its own as against third parties. Where the policy described in the certificate has not yet been issued, the insurer is, as between himself and any person except the insured, deemed to have issued a policy conforming in all respects with the description and particulars stated in the certificate. Where the policy has been issued but its actual terms are less favourable to persons claiming under or by virtue of it, against the insurer directly or through the insured, than the particulars stated in the certificate, the policy is likewise deemed, as against everyone except the insured, to conform to the certificate. The result is that the injured stranger may rely on the certificate as it stands; the insurer's remedy for any discrepancy lies only against its own insured.

3. What happens to the insurance when the vehicle is sold? Section 157(1) provides that where the person in whose favour the certificate of insurance was issued transfers the ownership of the motor vehicle together with the policy relating to it, the certificate and the policy described in it are deemed to have been transferred in favour of the transferee with effect from the date of transfer, and the Explanation clarifies that the deemed transfer includes the transfer of the rights and liabilities under the certificate and the policy. Section 157(2) requires the transferee to apply to the insurer within fourteen days of the transfer, in the prescribed form, for the necessary changes in regard to the fact of the transfer, and obliges the insurer to make them. The deeming provision protects the victim of an accident that occurs in the interval before the paperwork catches up, which is consistent with the description of the Chapter in National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, as social welfare legislation to be interpreted so as to effectuate the object of extending relief by compensation to the victims of accidents.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ninety-Eight

The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

In one line

The insurer must offer settlement within thirty days, must satisfy the award even if it could have avoided the policy, may resist only on a closed list of grounds, and if it proves one of them it still pays the victim and recovers from the insured.

The numbers moved. Until 31 March 2022 the insurer's duty to satisfy awards, and the list of defences, were section 149, and every judgment before that date says so. Since 1 April 2022 they are section 150, and section 149 is the new provision on settlement. Section 170 was amended to follow the change. When you read Swaran Singh speaking of section 149(2), read section 150(2).

Section 149: settlement, in thirty days

(1) On receiving information of the accident, from the claimant, through the accident information report under section 159, or otherwise, the insurance company shall designate an officer to settle the claims relating to that accident.

(2) The designated officer may make an offer to the claimant for settlement before the Claims Tribunal, giving such details, within thirty days, and following such procedure as the Central Government may prescribe.

(3) If the claimant

  • accepts the offer, the Claims Tribunal records the settlement, the claim is deemed settled by consent, and the insurance company pays within a maximum of thirty days from the date of receipt of the record of settlement;
  • rejects it, the Claims Tribunal fixes a date of hearing to adjudicate the claim on merits.

Section 149 is the hinge of the 2022 reform. Read it with the second proviso to section 166(1), by which a claimant who accepts compensation under section 164 through this procedure has his claims petition lapse, and with section 153(2), by which the Tribunal must satisfy itself that a settlement is bona fide, was not made under undue influence, and follows the section 164 schedule.

Section 150: the duty to satisfy awards

Sub-section (1). Where a certificate of insurance has been issued under section 147(3) and a judgment or award is obtained against a person insured by the policy, in respect of a liability required to be covered under section 147(1)(b) and covered by the terms of the policy, or under section 164, then notwithstanding that the insurer may be entitled to avoid or cancel, or has avoided or cancelled, the policy, the insurer shall pay to the person entitled to the benefit of the award any sum not exceeding the sum assured, as if that person were the decree holder, together with costs and interest.

"Notwithstanding that the insurer may be entitled to avoid or cancel the policy" is the heart of compulsory insurance. As between insurer and insured the policy may be worthless; as against the victim it still pays.

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Sub-section (2): notice, and the closed list of defences. No sum is payable unless the insurer had notice through the court or Tribunal of the bringing of the proceedings, and nothing is payable while execution is stayed pending appeal. An insurer so noticed is entitled to be made a party and to defend only on these grounds:

(a) breach of a specified condition of the policy, being a condition

  • (i) excluding use of the vehicle (A) for hire or reward where the vehicle was not covered by a permit to ply for hire or reward, (B) for organised racing and speed testing, (C) for a purpose not allowed by the permit, in the case of a transport vehicle, or (D) without a side-car attached, in the case of a two-wheeled vehicle;
  • (ii) excluding driving by a named person, by a person not duly licensed, by a person disqualified during the period of disqualification, or driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs as laid down in section 185;
  • (iii) excluding liability for injury caused or contributed to by conditions of war, civil war, riot or civil commotion;

(b) that the policy is void because it was obtained by non-disclosure of a material fact or by representation of a fact false in a material particular; or

(c) non-receipt of premium as required by section 64VB of the Insurance Act 1938.

Sub-section (4): everything else is of no effect. So much of the policy as purports to restrict the insurance by reference to any condition other than those in sub-section (2) is, as respects the liabilities required to be covered by section 147(1)(b), of no effect.

Sub-section (5). A noticed insurer cannot avoid liability otherwise than in the manner provided by sub-section (2).

Sub-section (6). If the claimant does not know which company insured the vehicle, it is the duty of the owner to tell the Tribunal or court whether the vehicle was insured on the date of the accident and, if so, with which company.

Sub-section (3). A judgment from a court in a reciprocating country, conclusive under section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, is satisfied in the same way, on similar notice.

The Explanation defines "award" as an award of the Claims Tribunal under section 168; "liability covered by the terms of the policy" as the liability covered, or which would be covered but for the insurer's entitlement to avoid or cancel; and "material fact" and "material particular" as a fact or particular of such a nature as to influence the judgment of a prudent insurer in deciding whether to take the risk and at what premium and on what conditions.

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What the defences are worth: Swaran Singh

Facts. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, decided on 5 January 2004. A group of appeals in which insurers sought to avoid liability to third parties because the driver held no licence, or a fake or invalid licence, or was disqualified.

Held.

  1. The Chapter is social welfare legislation and must be interpreted to effectuate its object of relief to victims.
  2. The mere absence, fakeness or invalidity of a licence, or disqualification, is not in itself a defence. The insurer must prove that the insured committed the breach, that is, that the owner was negligent and failed to exercise reasonable care in seeing that the vehicle was driven by a duly licensed driver.
  3. The burden of proof is on the insurer, and no general criteria can be laid down for discharging it; it turns on the facts of each case.
  4. Even a proved breach does not avail unless it is so fundamental as to have contributed to the cause of the accident; Tribunals apply the rule of main purpose and the concept of fundamental breach.
  5. Where the vehicle was driven by a person holding a learner's licence, the insurer is liable to satisfy the decree.
  6. The Tribunal may decide disputes between insurer and insured in the same proceeding, and its decision is enforceable like an award.
  7. Where the insurer proves its defence, the Tribunal may direct that the insurer, having paid the third party, be reimbursed by the insured; if the insured does not deposit that sum within the thirty days allowed by section 168(3), it is recovered as an arrear of land revenue on a certificate under section 174.

Point 7 is what practitioners call "pay and recover". The victim is never made to bear the consequence of a quarrel between the owner and his insurer; the insurer pays first and recovers afterwards.

Section 170 again: when the insurer may fight everything

Outside section 150(2) the insurer has no general right to dispute negligence or quantum. Section 170 is the exception: where the Tribunal is satisfied of collusion between the claimant and the person against whom the claim is made, or that that person has failed to contest, it may, for reasons recorded in writing, implead the insurer, who then has the right to contest on all or any of the grounds available to the person against whom the claim is made. The cross-reference in section 170 was changed from section 149 to section 150 with effect from 1 April 2022. The provision is worked out in chapter [The Award of the Claims Tribunal].

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Sections 151 to 155: the insolvency group

Section 151. Where an insured person becomes insolvent, or makes a composition or arrangement with creditors, or, being a company, goes into winding up or has a receiver or manager appointed or a floating charge enforced, then whether the liability was incurred before or after that event, the insured's rights against the insurer are transferred to and vest in the third party to whom the liability was incurred.

Section 152: duty to give information. (1) A person against whom a claim is made in respect of a section 147(1)(b) liability shall not, on demand, refuse to say whether he was insured, or would have been insured but for the insurer's avoidance or cancellation, nor refuse to give the particulars specified in the certificate of insurance. (2) On insolvency, death, or winding up, the insolvent, the personal representative, the company, the official assignee, receiver, trustee, liquidator or person in possession must give a claimant the information reasonably required to find out whether rights have vested in him under section 151 and to enforce them; and any term of a contract of insurance which purports to avoid the contract, alter the parties' rights, or prohibit the giving of that information is of no effect. (3) An insurer against whom rights may have been transferred is under the same duty. (4) The duty includes allowing contracts of insurance, premium receipts and other relevant documents to be inspected and copied.

Section 153: settlements. (1) No settlement by an insurer of a claim which might be made by a third party in respect of a section 147(1)(b) liability is valid unless the third party is a party to it. (2) The Claims Tribunal shall ensure that the settlement is bona fide, was not made under undue influence, and that compensation follows the payment schedule in section 164(1). (3) After insolvency or winding up, no agreement, waiver, assignment, disposition or payment between insurer and insured can defeat the rights transferred to the third party.

Section 154. For sections 151 to 153, "liabilities to third parties" does not include a person's liability as insurer under some other policy; and those sections do not apply where a company is wound up voluntarily merely for reconstruction or amalgamation.

Section 155. Notwithstanding section 306 of the Indian Succession Act 1925, the death of the person in whose favour a certificate of insurance was issued, occurring after the event giving rise to a claim, is not a bar to the survival of the cause of action against his estate or against the insurer.

Sections 151 to 155 exist for one reason: the victim's remedy must not depend on the solvency, the candour or the survival of the person who was insured.

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The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover

A worked example

Zubeda is knocked down by a taxi. The taxi's driver holds a licence that turns out to be forged. The insurer, noticed by the Tribunal, is made a party and pleads breach of the licence condition.

Must the insurer pay? On Swaran Singh, the fake licence is not by itself a defence. The insurer must prove that the owner was negligent and failed to take reasonable care to see that the driver was duly licensed, and the burden is on the insurer.

It proves exactly that. Even then it must show the breach was so fundamental as to have contributed to the accident. If it succeeds, the Tribunal may still direct it to satisfy the award and recover from the owner, that recovery being enforceable under section 174 if not deposited within thirty days under section 168(3).

The insurer says the policy excluded night driving. Ineffective. Section 150(4): a restriction by reference to any condition outside the sub-section (2) list is of no effect as against the compulsory cover.

The owner is adjudicated insolvent before the award. Section 151 transfers his rights against the insurer to Zubeda; and by section 152 the official assignee must give her the information she needs, notwithstanding any term of the policy to the contrary.

The insurer quietly settles with the owner for a small sum. Section 153(1): a settlement of a claim which might be made by a third party is not valid unless the third party is a party to it.

The owner dies while the petition is pending. Section 155: his death after the event does not bar the survival of the cause of action against his estate or against the insurer.

The insurer's designated officer offers a settlement. Section 149(2): within thirty days, before the Tribunal. If Zubeda accepts, the Tribunal records it, the claim is settled by consent, and payment follows within thirty days; if she rejects it, the Tribunal fixes a hearing on merits.

What it does NOT mean

The insurer is not free to plead anything. Section 150(2) is a closed list and section 150(4) strikes down other restrictions.

Avoiding the policy does not defeat the victim. Section 150(1) says the insurer pays notwithstanding avoidance or cancellation.

A defence proved is not the end of the victim's money. Swaran Singh: pay first, recover from the insured.

Notice is not optional. No sum is payable under section 150(1) unless the insurer had notice through the court or Tribunal of the bringing of the proceedings.

Section 149 is not the old section 149. It is the new settlement provision; the old one is now section 150.

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Quick revision

  1. Section 149: designate an officer, offer settlement before the Tribunal within thirty days, acceptance is a consent settlement paid within thirty days, rejection means a hearing on merits.
  2. Section 150(1): the insurer satisfies the award as if the claimant were the decree holder, notwithstanding that it could have avoided or cancelled the policy, up to the sum assured with costs and interest, including an award under section 164.
  3. Section 150(2): notice through the court or Tribunal, and then only the listed defences: specified policy conditions as to use, driver and war risks; a policy void for non-disclosure or false material particular; and non-receipt of premium under section 64VB of the Insurance Act 1938.
  4. Section 150(4) and (5): other restrictions are of no effect and no other route to avoid liability is open. Section 150(6): the owner must disclose the insurer.
  5. National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297: the breach must be the insured's, proved by the insurer, and fundamental enough to have contributed to the accident; a learner's licence does not defeat the claim; and the Tribunal may order the insurer to pay and recover from the insured.
  6. Section 170: on collusion or failure to contest, and for reasons recorded in writing, the insurer may be impleaded and may then contest on every ground available to the person against whom the claim is made.
  7. Sections 151 to 155: the insured's rights vest in the third party on insolvency; information must be given and documents produced; a settlement without the third party is invalid; and the death of the insured does not bar the cause of action.

Test yourself

1. What is the duty of an insurer to satisfy an award, and on what grounds may it defend? Section 150(1) provides that where a certificate of insurance has been issued under section 147(3) and a judgment or award is obtained against a person insured by the policy in respect of a liability required to be covered by section 147(1)(b) and covered by the terms of the policy, or under section 164, the insurer shall pay the person entitled to the benefit of the award, as if that person were the decree holder, any sum not exceeding the sum assured, with costs and interest, notwithstanding that the insurer may be entitled to avoid or cancel, or has avoided or cancelled, the policy. Nothing is payable unless the insurer had notice through the court or Claims Tribunal of the bringing of the proceedings, and an insurer so noticed is entitled to be made a party and to defend only on the grounds in section 150(2): breach of a specified condition of the policy excluding certain uses of the vehicle, excluding driving by a named person, by an unlicensed or disqualified person or under the influence of alcohol or drugs, or excluding war and riot risks; that the policy is void for non-disclosure of a material fact or a materially false representation; or non-receipt of premium under section 64VB of the Insurance Act 1938. By section 150(4) any other restriction in the policy is of no effect as respects the compulsory cover, and by section 150(5) the insurer may not avoid liability in any other manner.

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2. Explain "pay and recover" and the decision in Swaran Singh. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, insurers sought to escape liability because the drivers of the insured vehicles were unlicensed, held fake licences or were disqualified. The Supreme Court held that the Chapter is social welfare legislation to be interpreted so as to effectuate the object of compensating victims; that the mere absence, fakeness or invalidity of the licence, or the driver's disqualification, is not by itself a defence; that the insurer must prove a breach by the insured, namely that the owner was negligent and failed to exercise reasonable care in seeing that the vehicle was driven by a duly licensed driver, the burden being on the insurer; and that even a proved breach does not avail unless it is so fundamental as to have contributed to the cause of the accident, the Tribunals applying the rule of main purpose. Where the driver held a learner's licence the insurer remains liable. The Court further held that the Tribunal may decide the dispute between insurer and insured in the same proceeding, and that where the insurer establishes its defence the Tribunal may nevertheless direct it to satisfy the third party's award and be reimbursed by the insured, that amount being recoverable as an arrear of land revenue on a certificate under section 174 if not deposited within the thirty days allowed by section 168(3). That direction is what is meant by "pay and recover".

3. How does the Act protect a third party where the insured becomes insolvent or dies? By a group of sections which detach the victim's remedy from the fortunes of the insured. Section 151 provides that where the insured becomes insolvent, makes a composition or arrangement with creditors, or, being a company, has a winding-up order made or a voluntary winding-up resolution passed, or a receiver or manager appointed, or a floating charge enforced, the insured's rights against the insurer in respect of the liability are transferred to and vest in the third party to whom the liability was incurred.

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The Insurer: Duties, Defences and Pay and Recover

Section 152 obliges the person against whom the claim is made to say whether he was insured and to give the particulars in the certificate, and obliges the insolvent, the personal representative, the company or the officer in charge to give a claimant the information needed to ascertain and enforce rights vested by section 151, striking down any term of the policy that purports to prevent this and extending the duty to inspection and copying of documents. Section 153 makes a settlement by an insurer invalid unless the third party is a party to it, requires the Tribunal to be satisfied that it is bona fide, free of undue influence and in accordance with the section 164 schedule, and prevents any post-insolvency agreement or payment from defeating the transferred rights.

Section 155 provides that, notwithstanding section 306 of the Indian Succession Act 1925, the death of the person in whose favour the certificate was issued, occurring after the event giving rise to the claim, is no bar to the survival of the cause of action against his estate or against the insurer.

Contents This chapter on its own page

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Chapter Ninety-Nine

The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act I: Licensing

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

Why these five chapters exist

The syllabus examines one part of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988: motor accident claims and Claims Tribunals. The Act has two hundred and seventeen sections, and the rest of it is the regulatory law of the road. This chapter and the four that follow set out what those sections do, in outline, so that a student who is asked "what else is in this Act" has an answer, and so that a student who meets one of these numbers in a judgment knows where it sits.

These five chapters state the arrangement and effect of the sections as they appear in the official consolidation of the Act. The provisions rewritten with effect from 1 April 2022, that is Chapters X, XI and parts of XII, are worked out in full in the chapters before this one.

What Chapter II is for

Sections 3 to 28 answer one question: who may drive, and on what authority. It matters for this subject because a breach of these provisions is what an insurer usually pleads under section 150(2)(a)(ii), and because the licensing standard is part of the standard of care in negligence.

The obligation and the age limits

Section 3. No person shall drive a motor vehicle in a public place unless he holds an effective driving licence authorising him to drive that vehicle; and no person shall drive a transport vehicle, other than a motor cab or motor cycle hired for his own use or rented under a scheme under section 75(2), unless the licence specifically entitles him to do so.

Section 4: age.

VehicleMinimum age
Motor vehicle generallyeighteen years
A motor cycle with engine capacity not exceeding 50ccsixteen years
A transport vehicle, subject to section 18twenty years

No learner's or driving licence may be issued for a class of vehicle the applicant is not eligible to drive under this section.

Section 5: the owner's own duty. No owner or person in charge shall cause or permit a person who does not satisfy section 3 or section 4 to drive the vehicle.

Section 5 is the provision behind National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297. The insurer's defence is not that the driver was unlicensed but that the owner permitted him to drive, and that is why the Supreme Court required proof that the owner failed to take reasonable care.

Getting and keeping a licence

  • Section 6. One driving licence only, apart from a learner's licence or a licence under section 18; a licence may not be lent.
  • Section 7. A learner's licence for a transport vehicle requires a light motor vehicle licence held for at least one year, except for an e-cart or e-rickshaw; a person under eighteen needs the written consent of the person having his care for a motor cycle without gear.
  • Sections 8 and 9. Grant of the learner's licence and of the driving licence, on application to a licensing authority of the State where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business, or where the driving school under section 12 is situated.
  • Section 10. The form and contents of licences, and the classes of vehicle.
  • Section 11. Additions to a licence.
  • Section 12. Licensing and regulation of driving schools.
  • Sections 13 to 15. The extent of effectiveness of a licence, its currency, and its renewal.
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The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act I: Licensing

Losing a licence

  • Sections 16 and 17. Revocation on the ground of disease or disability, and appeals against orders refusing or revoking.
  • Section 18. Licences to drive vehicles belonging to the Central Government.
  • Section 19. The power of the licensing authority to disqualify a person from holding a licence, or to revoke it.
  • Section 20. The power of a court to disqualify.
  • Sections 21 and 22. Suspension of a licence in certain cases, and suspension or cancellation on conviction.
  • Section 23. The effect of a disqualification order.
  • Sections 24 and 25. Endorsement on a licence, and the transfer of an endorsement and issue of a licence free from endorsement.

Sections 19 to 25 are the reason section 150(2)(a)(ii) speaks of a person "disqualified for holding or obtaining a driving licence during the period of disqualification". Disqualification is an event with a beginning and an end, recorded on the licence.

Records and rules

  • Section 26. Maintenance of State Registers of Driving Licences, so that a disqualification in one district is known in another.
  • Section 27. Rules by the Central Government.
  • Section 28. Rules by the State Government.

Where this touches the claim

In the insurer's defence. Section 150(2)(a)(ii) allows a policy condition excluding driving by a person not duly licensed, or disqualified. Swaran Singh requires the insurer to prove a breach by the insured and one fundamental enough to have contributed to the accident, and holds that a learner's licence does not defeat the third party's claim.

In negligence. Driving without the licence the law requires is evidence to be weighed with the rest; it is not, by itself, proof that the driving caused the harm.

In the criminal provisions. Section 181 punishes driving in contravention of section 3 or section 4, and section 180 punishes allowing an unauthorised person to drive; these are in chapter [The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act V: Offences and Miscellaneous].

A worked example

Sudhir, aged seventeen, rides his uncle's 150cc motor cycle to college with the uncle's knowledge and knocks down a pedestrian.

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The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act I: Licensing

Has an offence been committed under Chapter II? Yes, two. Sudhir contravenes section 4(1), because he is under eighteen and the machine is not a motor cycle of engine capacity not exceeding 50cc; and the uncle contravenes section 5, which forbids an owner or person in charge to cause or permit a person who does not satisfy section 3 or section 4 to drive.

Does that defeat the pedestrian's claim? No. The claim lies under section 166 against the owner and the insurer, and the fixed sum under section 164 is payable without proof of fault at all.

Can the insurer refuse to pay? Only within section 150(2)(a)(ii), and on National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, it must prove that the owner was negligent and failed to take reasonable care to see that the vehicle was driven by a duly licensed driver, and that the breach was fundamental enough to have contributed to the accident. On these facts the uncle knew, so the insurer may well succeed; and even then the Tribunal may direct it to pay the pedestrian and recover from the uncle.

What if Sudhir had held a learner's licence? Swaran Singh holds that the insurer remains liable to satisfy the decree where the vehicle was driven on a learner's licence.

Quick revision

  1. Section 3: an effective driving licence for the class of vehicle, and a specific entitlement for a transport vehicle.
  2. Section 4: eighteen generally, sixteen for a motor cycle not exceeding 50cc, twenty for a transport vehicle subject to section 18.
  3. Section 5: the owner or person in charge must not cause or permit an ineligible person to drive; this is the section the insurer's licence defence really turns on.
  4. Sections 6 to 15: one licence, learner's licences, grant, form, additions, driving schools, effectiveness, currency and renewal.
  5. Sections 16 to 25: revocation for disease or disability, appeals, disqualification by the licensing authority and by a court, suspension, cancellation on conviction, effect of disqualification, and endorsements.
  6. Sections 26 to 28: State Registers of Driving Licences, and rule-making by the Central and State Governments.

Test yourself

1. What does Chapter II of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 provide, and why does it matter to a motor accident claim? Chapter II, sections 3 to 28, governs the licensing of drivers. Section 3 forbids driving a motor vehicle in a public place without an effective driving licence authorising the driving of that vehicle, and requires a specific entitlement on the licence for a transport vehicle other than a motor cab or motor cycle hired for the driver's own use or rented under a scheme under section 75(2). Section 4 fixes the age limits: eighteen years generally, sixteen for a motor cycle with engine capacity not exceeding 50cc, and twenty for a transport vehicle subject to section 18. Section 5 places a duty on the owner or person in charge not to cause or permit an ineligible person to drive. Sections 6 to 15 deal with the holding, grant, form, currency and renewal of licences and with driving schools; sections 16 to 25 with revocation for disease or disability, appeals, disqualification by the licensing authority and by a court, suspension, cancellation on conviction and endorsements; and sections 26 to 28 with the State Registers of Driving Licences and rule-making.

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It matters to a claim because section 150(2)(a)(ii) permits an insurer to rely on a policy condition excluding driving by a person not duly licensed or disqualified. In National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the Supreme Court held that the mere absence, fakeness or invalidity of a licence is not by itself a defence: the insurer must prove a breach by the insured, namely that the owner failed to exercise reasonable care in seeing that the vehicle was driven by a duly licensed driver, and the breach must be so fundamental as to have contributed to the accident. Where the driver held a learner's licence the insurer remains liable.

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Chapter

The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act II: Conductors and Registration

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

Two chapters of the Act in one

Chapter III, sections 29 to 38, licenses the conductor of a stage carriage. Chapter IV, sections 39 to 65, registers the vehicle. Chapter II licensed the driver; between them the three chapters make sure that every vehicle on the road, and every person in charge of it, is identified on a public record.

Chapter III: the conductor's licence

  • Section 29. No person shall act as a conductor of a stage carriage unless he holds an effective conductor's licence authorising him to do so, and no person shall employ or permit an unlicensed person to act as one. A State Government may prescribe conditions on which this does not apply to a driver performing a conductor's functions, or to a person employed as a conductor for not more than one month.
  • Section 30. Grant of the licence.
  • Section 31. Disqualifications for its grant.
  • Section 32. Revocation on the ground of disease or disability.
  • Section 33. Orders refusing a licence, and appeals.
  • Sections 34 and 35. Power of the licensing authority, and of a court, to disqualify.
  • Section 36. Certain provisions of Chapter II apply to a conductor's licence.
  • Section 37. Savings.
  • Section 38. Rules by the State Government.

Why an Act about compensation should license a conductor becomes clear in section 145(i) of the insurance Chapter, which includes "any other co-worker on a transport vehicle" in the definition of a third party. The conductor is both a regulated person and, if injured, a claimant.

Chapter IV: registration of the vehicle

The obligation.

  • Section 39. No person shall drive, and no owner shall cause or permit the driving of, a motor vehicle in any public place or in any other place unless it is registered under the Chapter, its certificate of registration has not been suspended or cancelled, and it carries a registration mark displayed in the prescribed manner. A vehicle in the possession of a dealer is excepted on the prescribed conditions.
  • Sections 40 and 41. Where registration is to be made, and how.
  • Section 42. Special provision for the vehicles of diplomatic officers.
  • Section 43. Temporary registration.
  • Section 44. Production of the vehicle at the time of registration.
  • Section 45. Refusal of registration or of renewal of the certificate.

Moving, selling, altering.

  • Section 46. Registration is effective throughout India.
  • Sections 47 to 49. Assignment of a new registration mark on removal to another State, the no objection certificate, and change of residence or place of business.
  • Section 50. Transfer of ownership, and the duties of transferor and transferee to report it.
  • Section 51. Vehicles subject to a hire-purchase, lease or hypothecation agreement.
  • Section 52. Alteration in a motor vehicle, including alterations for a person with a physical defect or disability, which is how the definition of an "adapted vehicle" in section 2(1) works.
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Ending or suspending registration.

  • Sections 53 and 54. Suspension of registration where the vehicle is in an unsafe condition or fails to comply with the Act, and cancellation of a suspended registration.
  • Section 55. Cancellation of registration, including where the vehicle has been destroyed or permanently rendered incapable of use.
  • Section 56. Certificate of fitness of transport vehicles. This is the certificate section 158(1)(e) requires a driver to produce.
  • Section 57. Appeals.
  • Sections 58 and 59. Special provisions for transport vehicles, and the power to fix the age limit of a motor vehicle.
  • Section 60. Registration of vehicles belonging to the Central Government.
  • Section 61. Application of the Chapter to trailers.

Records and rules.

  • Section 62. Information about stolen and recovered vehicles, furnished by the police to the State Transport Authority.
  • Section 63. Maintenance of State Registers of Motor Vehicles.
  • Sections 64 and 65. Rules by the Central and the State Government.

Where this touches the claim

Finding the defendant. Section 160 obliges a registering authority or the officer in charge of a police station to furnish, on payment of the prescribed fee, the identification marks and other particulars of the vehicle and the name and address of the person using it. That information exists because of sections 41, 50 and 63.

Who is the owner. Liability under sections 164 and 166 attaches to the owner, and ownership is what the register records; section 50 is the section under which it changes.

Insurance follows the vehicle. Section 157 deems the certificate of insurance and the policy transferred with the ownership of the vehicle, with rights and liabilities, and requires the transferee to apply to the insurer within fourteen days.

Fitness and unsafe vehicles. Sections 53, 55 and 56 supply the standard against which a claim that the vehicle itself was unroadworthy is judged, and section 190 makes using a vehicle in an unsafe condition an offence.

A worked example

Nandita buys a car in March and pays for it, but the transfer of ownership is not reported. In July the car, driven by her, injures a cyclist.

Whose name is in the register? The seller's, because section 50 requires the transfer to be reported and the certificate of registration amended, and until then the record is unchanged.

Whom does the cyclist sue? The owner, and the register is only evidence of who that is; section 160 lets him obtain the particulars of the vehicle and of the person who was using it at the time.

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Is the car insured for him? Yes. By section 157(1) the certificate of insurance and the policy are deemed transferred to Nandita from the date of transfer, with the rights and liabilities, and section 157(2)'s fourteen-day application is a duty rather than a condition of cover.

The car had failed its fitness test the previous year and its registration had been suspended. Then it should not have been driven at all: section 39 forbids driving a vehicle whose certificate of registration has been suspended, and using a vehicle in an unsafe condition is an offence under section 190.

Quick revision

  1. Section 29: no person may act as conductor of a stage carriage without an effective conductor's licence, and none may be employed without one; sections 30 to 38 deal with grant, disqualification, revocation, appeals and rules.
  2. Section 39: no unregistered vehicle may be driven, or caused or permitted to be driven, in any public place or in any other place, and its certificate of registration must be neither suspended nor cancelled.
  3. Sections 40 to 45: where and how registration is made, temporary registration, production of the vehicle, and refusal.
  4. Sections 46 to 52: registration effective throughout India, new registration marks on removal, no objection certificates, change of residence, transfer of ownership, hire-purchase endorsements, and alterations.
  5. Sections 53 to 61: suspension and cancellation, certificates of fitness for transport vehicles, appeals, age limits and trailers.
  6. Sections 62 to 65: stolen and recovered vehicles, State Registers of Motor Vehicles, and rules by the Central and State Governments.

Test yourself

1. Outline the scheme of registration of motor vehicles, and explain its bearing on a claim for compensation. Chapter IV, sections 39 to 65, forbids any person to drive, and any owner to cause or permit the driving of, a motor vehicle in any public place or in any other place unless it is registered under the Chapter, its certificate of registration stands unsuspended and uncancelled, and it carries a registration mark displayed in the prescribed manner, a vehicle in a dealer's possession being excepted. Sections 40 to 45 provide where and how registration is to be made, for temporary registration, for the production of the vehicle and for refusal of registration or renewal. Section 46 makes registration effective throughout India, and sections 47 to 49 deal with a new registration mark on removal to another State, the no objection certificate and change of residence or place of business. Section 50 governs the transfer of ownership, section 51 vehicles held under hire-purchase, lease or hypothecation, and section 52 alterations to a vehicle, including those made for a person with a physical disability. Sections 53 to 55 provide for suspension and cancellation of registration, section 56 for the certificate of fitness of transport vehicles, and sections 58 to 61 for special provisions as to transport vehicles, the age limit of vehicles, Government vehicles and trailers. Sections 62 and 63 provide for information about stolen and recovered vehicles and for State Registers of Motor Vehicles.

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The bearing on a claim is practical. Liability under sections 164 and 166 falls on the owner, and the register is what identifies him; section 160 allows a claimant who has only a registration number to obtain the particulars of the vehicle and of the person using it; section 157 makes the certificate of insurance and the policy pass with the ownership of the vehicle; and the fitness provisions supply the measure of a complaint that the vehicle was unroadworthy.

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Chapter -One

The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act III: Permits and State Undertakings

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

Two chapters of the Act in one

Chapter V, sections 66 to 96, controls transport vehicles: nobody may carry passengers or goods for hire or reward without a permit. Chapter VI, sections 97 to 108, is the special law of State transport undertakings, under which a State may take a route or an area for its own buses.

Chapter V: permits

Section 66: the obligation. No owner of a motor vehicle shall use, or permit the use of, the vehicle as a transport vehicle in any public place, whether or not it is actually carrying passengers or goods, except in accordance with the conditions of a permit granted or countersigned by a Regional or State Transport Authority or a prescribed authority. Provisos let a stage carriage permit authorise use as a contract carriage, and in stated circumstances as a goods carriage.

  • Section 66A. National Transportation Policy, to be developed and implemented by the Central Government.
  • Section 66B. No bar against permit holders applying for and holding licences under schemes.
  • Section 67. Power of the State Government to control road transport.
  • Section 68. Transport Authorities: the State Transport Authority and Regional Transport Authorities.

Applying and granting.

  • Section 69. General provision as to applications for permits.
  • Sections 70 to 72. Stage carriage permits: application, the Regional Transport Authority's procedure, and grant.
  • Sections 73 and 74. Contract carriage permits: application and grant.
  • Section 75. Scheme for the renting of motor cabs, the scheme referred to in section 3(1).
  • Section 76. Private service vehicle permits.
  • Sections 77 to 79. Goods carriage permits: application, consideration and grant.
  • Section 80. Procedure in applying for and granting permits.

Living with a permit.

  • Section 81. Duration and renewal.
  • Section 82. Transfer of a permit.
  • Section 83. Replacement of vehicles.
  • Section 84. General conditions attaching to all permits.
  • Section 85. General form of permits.
  • Section 86. Cancellation and suspension of permits.
  • Section 87. Temporary permits.
  • Section 88. Validation of permits for use outside the region in which granted, including national and inter-State permits.
  • Section 88A. Power of the Central Government to make schemes for national, multimodal and inter-State transport of passengers and goods.

Disputes, drivers and jurisdiction.

  • Sections 89 and 90. Appeals and revision.
  • Section 91. Restriction of hours of work of drivers.
  • Section 92. Voidance of contracts restrictive of liability.
  • Section 93. An agent, canvasser or aggregator must obtain a licence.
  • Section 94. Bar on jurisdiction of civil courts over matters the Transport Authorities may decide.
  • Sections 95 and 96. Rules by the State Government.

Two of these matter directly to this subject. Section 91 limits driving hours, and a breach of it is the sort of fact on which negligence against an employer is built. Section 92 voids a contract by which a passenger or goods owner purports to give up the liability of the carrier, which is why a bus ticket cannot exclude liability for injury.

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And note section 150(2)(a)(i)(A) and (C): an insurer may plead a policy condition excluding use for hire or reward where the vehicle had no permit to ply for hire or reward, or use for a purpose not allowed by the permit. Chapter V is where those permits come from.

Chapter VI: State transport undertakings

  • Section 97. "Road transport service" means a service of motor vehicles carrying passengers or goods or both by road for hire or reward.
  • Section 98. The Chapter overrides Chapter V and any other law or instrument inconsistent with it.
  • Section 99. Where a State Government is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest, for an efficient, adequate, economical and properly co-ordinated road transport service, a proposal may be prepared and published in respect of road transport services generally or of a particular class.
  • Section 100. Objections to the proposal, and their consideration.
  • Section 101. Operation of additional services by a State transport undertaking in certain circumstances.
  • Section 102. Cancellation or modification of a scheme.
  • Section 103. Issue of permits to State transport undertakings.
  • Section 104. Restriction on the grant of permits in respect of a notified area or notified route.
  • Section 105. Principles and method of determining compensation and its payment.
  • Section 106. Disposal of articles found in vehicles.
  • Sections 107 and 108. Rules by the State Government, and certain of its powers exercisable by the Central Government.

The nationalisation scheme in sections 99 to 104 is why so many motor accident claims in the reports are against a State Road Transport Corporation. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai, AIR 1987 SC 1690, is one such claim, and it is the case that settled how widely "legal representative" is read under section 166.

Where this touches the claim

Vicarious liability. A State transport undertaking is an employer, and the ordinary principles of chapter [Vicarious Liability of the State] and chapter [Course of Employment] apply to it.

The insurer's defence. Use without a permit, or contrary to the permit, is a listed ground under section 150(2)(a)(i); but on National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the insurer must still prove a breach by the insured, fundamental enough to have contributed to the accident.

No contracting out. Section 92 voids contracts restrictive of liability, and section 147(1)(b)(ii) compels cover for passengers of a transport vehicle other than gratuitous passengers of a goods vehicle.

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A worked example

Ganesh owns a private car covered by an ordinary private-car policy. He begins carrying passengers for a fare on a fixed route, and one of them is injured in a collision.

Has he contravened Chapter V? Yes. Section 66(1) forbids the owner of a motor vehicle to use it, or permit its use, as a transport vehicle in any public place except in accordance with the conditions of a permit granted or countersigned by a Regional or State Transport Authority.

Can the passenger claim? Yes, before the Claims Tribunal under section 166, and the fixed sum under section 164 is payable without proof of fault.

Can the insurer avoid liability? It may plead the condition allowed by section 150(2)(a)(i)(A), excluding use for hire or reward where the vehicle was not covered by a permit to ply for hire or reward. On National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, it must prove the breach was the insured's and fundamental enough to have contributed to the accident, and the Tribunal may still direct it to pay the passenger and recover from Ganesh.

Could Ganesh's ticket have said that he accepts no liability? No. Section 92 voids contracts restrictive of liability.

And if the route had been notified for a State transport undertaking? Section 104 restricts the grant of permits in respect of a notified area or notified route, so no permit could have been granted to him for it at all.

Quick revision

  1. Section 66: no use of a vehicle as a transport vehicle in a public place except under a permit granted or countersigned by a Regional or State Transport Authority.
  2. Sections 68 to 80: the Transport Authorities and the applications for and grant of stage carriage, contract carriage, private service vehicle and goods carriage permits, with the motor cab rental scheme in section 75.
  3. Sections 81 to 88A: duration, renewal, transfer, replacement, general conditions, form, cancellation and suspension, temporary permits, validation outside the region, and Central Government schemes for national, multimodal and inter-State transport.
  4. Sections 89 to 96: appeals and revision, hours of work of drivers, voidance of contracts restrictive of liability, licensing of agents, canvassers and aggregators, the bar on civil courts, and State rules.
  5. Section 97: road transport service means carriage of passengers or goods by road for hire or reward. Section 98: the Chapter overrides Chapter V.
  6. Sections 99 to 105: publication of a proposal, objections, additional services, cancellation or modification of a scheme, permits to the undertaking, restriction of permits on a notified route or area, and compensation.
  7. Sections 106 to 108: articles found in vehicles, State rules, and certain powers exercisable by the Central Government.
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Test yourself

1. What is the scheme of control of transport vehicles under Chapter V, and how does it bear on an insurer's defence? Section 66 provides that no owner of a motor vehicle shall use, or permit the use of, the vehicle as a transport vehicle in any public place, whether or not it is actually carrying passengers or goods, save in accordance with the conditions of a permit granted or countersigned by a Regional or State Transport Authority or a prescribed authority; provisos allow a stage carriage permit to authorise use as a contract carriage and, in stated circumstances, as a goods carriage. Sections 68 to 80 constitute the Transport Authorities and provide for applications for and the grant of stage carriage, contract carriage, private service vehicle and goods carriage permits; sections 81 to 88A for duration, renewal, transfer, replacement, general conditions, form, cancellation, suspension, temporary permits, validation outside the region of grant, and Central Government schemes for national, multimodal and inter-State transport; and sections 89 to 96 for appeals and revision, restriction of the hours of work of drivers, voidance of contracts restrictive of liability, the licensing of agents, canvassers and aggregators, the bar on the jurisdiction of civil courts, and State rules.

The bearing on a claim is through section 150(2)(a)(i), which permits an insurer to rely on a policy condition excluding the use of the vehicle for hire or reward where the vehicle was not covered by a permit to ply for hire or reward, or for a purpose not allowed by the permit in the case of a transport vehicle. Even then, on National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh, (2004) 3 SCC 297, the insurer must prove a breach by the insured and one so fundamental as to have contributed to the cause of the accident, and it may in any event be directed to satisfy the award and recover from the insured.

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Chapter -Two

The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act IV: Construction, Traffic and Foreign Vehicles

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

Three chapters of the Act in one

Chapter VII, sections 109 to 111, is about the vehicle: how it must be built and kept. Chapter VIII, sections 112 to 138, is about the road: speed, weight, signs, signals, helmets and what a driver must do when an accident happens. Chapter IX, section 139, is about vehicles temporarily leaving or visiting India.

Of all the sections outside the claims machinery, the ones in this chapter come closest to the law of tort, because they state, in statutory form, a good deal of what a reasonable driver is expected to do.

Chapter VII: construction and maintenance

  • Section 109. General provision regarding the construction and maintenance of vehicles: every vehicle must be so constructed and maintained as to be at all times under the effective control of the person driving it.
  • Section 110. Rules by the Central Government on construction, equipment and maintenance, including brakes, lights, emission standards, safety glass and much else.
  • Section 111. Rules by the State Government.

Chapter VIII: control of traffic

Speed, weight and use.

  • Section 112. Limits of speed.
  • Section 113. Limits of weight and limitations on use.
  • Section 114. Power to have a vehicle weighed.
  • Section 115. Power to restrict the use of vehicles on specified roads.

Signs and places.

  • Section 116. Power to erect traffic signs.
  • Section 117. Parking places and halting stations.
  • Section 118. Driving regulations, made by the Central Government.
  • Section 119. Duty to obey traffic signs.

On the vehicle.

  • Section 120. Vehicles with left hand control.
  • Section 121. Signals and signalling devices.
  • Section 122. Leaving a vehicle in a dangerous position.
  • Section 123. Riding on the running board, and the like.
  • Section 124. Prohibition against travelling without a pass or ticket.
  • Section 125. Obstruction of the driver.
  • Section 126. Stationary vehicles.
  • Section 127. Removal of motor vehicles abandoned or left unattended in a public place.

Safety of riders.

  • Section 128. Safety measures for drivers and pillion riders.
  • Section 129. Wearing of protective headgear.
  • Section 130. Duty to produce the licence and the certificate of registration.
  • Section 131. Duty of the driver to take precautions at an unguarded railway level crossing.

When something happens.

  • Section 132. Duty of the driver to stop in certain cases.
  • Section 133. Duty of the owner to give information.
  • Section 134. Duty of the driver in case of accident and injury to a person.
  • Section 134A. Protection of Good Samaritans.
  • Section 135. Schemes to be framed for the investigation of accident cases and for wayside amenities.
  • Section 136. Inspection of a vehicle involved in an accident.
  • Sections 137 and 138. Rules by the Central and State Governments.
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Section 134 in full, because it is examinable

Where a person is injured or the property of a third party is damaged in an accident in which a motor vehicle is involved, the driver or other person in charge shall

  • (a) unless it is not practicable on account of mob fury or any other reason beyond his control, take all reasonable steps to secure medical attention for the injured person by conveying him to the nearest medical practitioner or hospital, unless the injured person or, if a minor, his guardian desires otherwise; and it is the duty of every registered medical practitioner or the doctor on duty immediately to attend to the injured person and render medical aid or treatment without waiting for any procedural formalities;
  • (b) give on demand by a police officer any information required, or, if no police officer is present, report the circumstances of the occurrence, including the reason for not securing medical attention, at the nearest police station as soon as possible and in any case within twenty-four hours;
  • (c) give the insurer who issued the certificate of insurance, in writing, the policy number and period of validity, the date, time and place of the accident, the particulars of the persons injured or killed, and the name of the driver and the particulars of his driving licence.

Explanation. "Driver" here includes the owner of the vehicle.

Clause (a) is the statutory answer to the hospital that refuses to treat an accident victim until a police case is registered. Read it with section 162, which requires insurers to provide for treatment during the golden hour, and with section 2(12A), which defines that hour.

Section 134A: the Good Samaritan

Inserted by the amending Act of 2019 and in force from 1 October 2020.

(1) A Good Samaritan shall not be liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of the victim of an accident involving a motor vehicle, where the injury or death resulted from the Good Samaritan's negligence in acting or failing to act while rendering emergency medical or non-medical care or assistance.

(2) The Central Government may make rules for the procedure for questioning or examining a Good Samaritan, for the disclosure of his personal information, and related matters.

Explanation. A "Good Samaritan" is a person who, in good faith, voluntarily and without expectation of any reward or compensation, renders emergency medical or non-medical care or assistance at the scene of an accident to the victim, or transports the victim to hospital.

For a student of torts this is a statutory immunity carved out of the ordinary law of negligence, and it is worth comparing with the general defences in chapter [General Defences I] and with the position of a rescuer. The bystander who drags an injured motorcyclist off the road and worsens a spinal injury commits, on ordinary principles, a breach of a duty of care; section 134A removes the liability, because the alternative is that nobody stops.

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Chapter IX: vehicles temporarily leaving or visiting India

Section 139. Power of the Central Government to make rules for vehicles temporarily leaving or visiting India, including the documents such vehicles must carry. Section 148 depends on this Chapter, in providing that a policy from a reciprocating country is effective on a common route or area.

Where this touches the claim

Evidence of negligence. A breach of sections 112, 113, 119, 122, 128, 129 or 131 is evidence to be weighed in deciding whether the driver failed in the standard of care; it is not conclusive, and the causal link must still be shown.

Building the claim. Sections 134(b) and (c), 135 and 136 are what produce the accident record: the police report under section 159, the inspection of the vehicle, and the intimation to the insurer, which section 149 then uses to make an offer of settlement.

Immunity. Section 134A protects the person who helps.

A worked example

A car knocks down Aarti at night. The driver stops, but a crowd gathers and turns hostile, and he drives away. A passer-by lifts Aarti into an autorickshaw and takes her to hospital, where the movement worsens a spinal injury. The hospital asks for a police paper before treating her.

Was the driver bound to take her to hospital? Section 134(a) requires him to take all reasonable steps to secure medical attention by conveying her to the nearest medical practitioner or hospital, unless it is not practicable on account of mob fury or any other reason beyond his control. Mob fury is the express exception, so on these facts he is excused from clause (a).

Is he excused from everything? No. He must still report the circumstances of the occurrence, including why he could not secure medical attention, at the nearest police station as soon as possible and in any case within twenty-four hours, section 134(b); and give the insurer the written information required by section 134(c). Failure is an offence under section 187.

May the hospital wait for the paperwork? No. Section 134(a) makes it the duty of every registered medical practitioner or the doctor on duty immediately to attend to the injured person and render medical aid or treatment without waiting for any procedural formalities, and section 162 requires insurers to provide for treatment including during the golden hour defined in section 2(12A).

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Is the passer-by liable for the worsened injury? No. Section 134A protects a Good Samaritan, that is, a person who in good faith, voluntarily and without expectation of reward renders emergency care at the scene or transports the victim to hospital, from any civil or criminal action for injury or death resulting from his negligence in acting or failing to act.

Quick revision

  1. Section 109: vehicles must be constructed and maintained so as to be at all times under the effective control of the driver; sections 110 and 111 give the rule-making powers.
  2. Sections 112 to 119: speed and weight limits, weighing, restriction of use, traffic signs, parking places, driving regulations and the duty to obey signs.
  3. Sections 120 to 127: left hand control, signals, leaving a vehicle in a dangerous position, riding on the running board, travelling without a ticket, obstruction of the driver, stationary vehicles and removal of abandoned vehicles.
  4. Sections 128 to 131: safety measures for drivers and pillion riders, protective headgear, production of licence and certificate of registration, and precautions at an unguarded railway level crossing.
  5. Section 134: secure medical attention unless prevented by mob fury or a reason beyond control, the doctor's duty to treat without procedural formalities, report to the police within twenty-four hours, and written information to the insurer; "driver" includes the owner.
  6. Section 134A, in force from 1 October 2020: no civil or criminal action against a Good Samaritan, who is a person acting in good faith, voluntarily and without expectation of reward.
  7. Sections 135 to 139: schemes for the investigation of accidents and wayside amenities, inspection of the vehicle involved, rules, and vehicles temporarily leaving or visiting India.

Test yourself

1. What are the duties of a driver when an accident occurs, and what protection is given to a person who helps? Section 134 provides that where any person is injured, or the property of a third party is damaged, as a result of an accident in which a motor vehicle is involved, the driver or other person in charge must, unless it is not practicable on account of mob fury or any other reason beyond his control, take all reasonable steps to secure medical attention for the injured person by conveying him to the nearest medical practitioner or hospital, unless the injured person or his guardian desires otherwise; and it is made the duty of every registered medical practitioner or doctor on duty immediately to attend to the injured person and render medical aid or treatment without waiting for any procedural formalities. He must give any information demanded by a police officer or, if none is present, report the circumstances of the occurrence, including any reason for not securing medical attention, at the nearest police station as soon as possible and in any case within twenty-four hours. He must also give the insurer who issued the certificate of insurance written information of the policy number and its validity, the date, time and place of the accident, the particulars of those injured or killed, and the name of the driver and particulars of his licence. The Explanation includes the owner within "driver".

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Section 134A, in force from 1 October 2020, provides that a Good Samaritan shall not be liable for any civil or criminal action for injury to or the death of a victim of a motor accident where that resulted from the Good Samaritan's negligence in acting or failing to act while rendering emergency medical or non-medical care or assistance; a Good Samaritan is a person who in good faith, voluntarily and without expectation of any reward or compensation renders such care at the scene of an accident or transports the victim to hospital. The Central Government may make rules for the procedure for questioning such a person and for the disclosure of his personal information.

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Chapter -Three

The Rest of the Motor Vehicles Act V: Offences and Miscellaneous

Syllabus topic 4.5, "Motor Vehicles Act, 1988- Motor Accidents Claims- Claims Tribunals."

Two chapters of the Act in one

Chapter XIII, sections 177 to 210D, is the criminal law of the road: what is punishable, by how much, and by what procedure. Chapter XIV, sections 211 to 217A, is the miscellaneous Chapter, which includes the repeal of the Act of 1939.

Keep the two jurisdictions apart. A conviction under Chapter XIII does not compensate anybody, and an award under Chapter XII does not punish anybody. A driver may be acquitted of rash driving and still be found negligent by a Claims Tribunal, because the standards of proof differ.

The shape of Chapter XIII

The general provisions.

  • Section 177. Punishment where no other penalty is provided: fine of five hundred rupees for a first offence and one thousand five hundred rupees for a subsequent one, both raised by the amending Act of 2019.
  • Section 177A. Contravention of the driving regulations made under section 118: fine of not less than five hundred and up to one thousand rupees.
  • Section 199B. The fines in the Act may be increased annually on 1 April by up to ten per cent, as notified by the Central Government.

Section 199B is the answer to the question a student always asks about penal figures in an old statute. Parliament built inflation into the Act rather than leaving the fines to decay.

Offences about licences and authority.

  • Section 178. Travelling without a pass or ticket; dereliction of duty by a conductor; refusal to ply a contract carriage.
  • Section 179. Disobedience of orders, obstruction and refusal of information: two thousand rupees.
  • Section 180. Allowing an unauthorised person to drive: five thousand rupees.
  • Section 181. Driving in contravention of section 3 or section 4, that is, without a licence or under age: five thousand rupees.
  • Section 182. Offences relating to licences: ten thousand rupees.
  • Sections 182A and 182B. Offences relating to the construction, maintenance, sale and alteration of vehicles and components, and contravention of section 62A.

Offences about the driving itself.

  • Section 183. Driving at excessive speed, now including causing an employee or a person under one's control to do so, with fines graded by class of vehicle.
  • Section 184. Dangerous driving, extended in 2019 to driving which causes a sense of alarm or distress to the occupants of the vehicle, other road users and persons near roads, and punishable on a first offence with imprisonment of six months to one year, or a fine of one thousand to five thousand rupees, or both, and on a subsequent offence with a fine of ten thousand rupees. An Explanation lists conduct that amounts to dangerous driving, beginning with jumping a red light.
  • Section 185. Drunken driving, or driving under the influence of drugs: a fine of ten thousand rupees, and of fifteen thousand for a subsequent offence.
  • Section 186. Driving when mentally or physically unfit.
  • Section 187. Offences relating to an accident, that is, breach of the duties in sections 132(1), 133 and 134: imprisonment up to six months or a fine of five thousand rupees for a first offence, and up to one year or ten thousand rupees for a subsequent one.
  • Section 188. Abetment of certain offences.
  • Section 189. Racing and trials of speed on a public place without the written consent of the State Government.
  • Section 190. Using a vehicle in an unsafe condition.
  • Sections 192 and 192A. Using a vehicle without registration, and without a permit.
  • Section 193. Agents and canvassers without proper authority.
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Offences about loads, passengers and safety.

  • Section 194. Driving a vehicle exceeding the permissible weight.
  • Section 194A. Carriage of excess passengers.
  • Section 194B. Use of safety belts and the seating of children.
  • Section 194C. Safety measures for motor cycle drivers and pillion riders.
  • Section 194D. Not wearing protective headgear.
  • Section 194E. Failure to allow free passage to emergency vehicles.
  • Section 194F. Use of horns, and silence zones.
  • Section 196. Driving an uninsured vehicle: for a first offence imprisonment up to three months, or a fine of two thousand rupees, or both; for a subsequent offence imprisonment up to three months, or a fine of four thousand rupees, or both.

Section 196 is the criminal sanction behind section 146. Compulsory insurance is enforced twice over: by the offence, and by the rule in section 150(1) that the insurer pays the victim even where it could have avoided the policy.

Offences by others.

  • Sections 197 and 198. Taking a vehicle without authority, and unauthorised interference with a vehicle.
  • Section 198A. Failure to comply with standards for road design, construction and maintenance. A designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for the design, construction or maintenance of the safety standards of a road must follow the standards prescribed by the Central Government; and where such a failure results in death or disability, it is punishable with a fine up to one lakh rupees, which is to be paid to the Fund constituted under section 164B.
  • Section 199. Offences by companies.
  • Section 199A. Offences by juveniles. The guardian of the juvenile or the owner of the vehicle is deemed guilty and punished accordingly, unless he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence; the court presumes that the vehicle was used with his consent. In addition, the guardian or owner is punishable with imprisonment up to three years and a fine of twenty-five thousand rupees. The registration of the vehicle is cancelled for twelve months, and the juvenile is not eligible for a licence until the age of twenty-five. Sub-sections (1) and (2) do not apply where the juvenile held a learner's or driving licence and was operating a vehicle he was licensed to operate.
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Section 198A is worth a sentence in any answer on the modern Act. It is the first time the Act treats the road itself as a possible cause of an accident and makes the person responsible for it pay, and the money goes to the Fund that compensates victims.

Procedure.

  • Section 200. Composition of certain offences.
  • Section 201. Penalty for causing obstruction to the free flow of traffic.
  • Section 202. Power to arrest without warrant.
  • Section 203. Breath tests.
  • Section 204. Laboratory test: a person arrested under section 203 may be required to give a specimen of blood to a registered medical practitioner where the breath-testing device indicated alcohol or the person refused the breath test, with a proviso that a female's specimen be taken only in the presence of a female where the practitioner is male.
  • Section 205. Presumption of unfitness to drive.
  • Sections 206 and 207. Power of a police officer to impound documents, and to detain vehicles used without a certificate of registration, permit and the like.
  • Sections 208 and 209. Summary disposal of cases, and restriction on conviction.
  • Section 210. Courts to send intimation about convictions, which feeds the registers under sections 26 and 63.
  • Section 210A. Power of a State Government to increase penalties.
  • Section 210B. Penalty for an offence committed by an enforcing authority, which is punished at twice the penalty for the same offence by another person.
  • Section 210C. Rules by the Central Government, including design, construction and maintenance standards for national highways and the factors a court takes into account under section 198A(3).
  • Section 210D. Rules by the State Government for this Chapter.

Chapter XIV: miscellaneous

  • Section 211. Power to levy a fee.
  • Section 211A. Use of electronic forms and documents.
  • Section 212. Publication, commencement and laying of rules and notifications. This is the section under which the commencement notification S.O. 859(E) of 25 February 2022, which brought the new Chapter XI into force on 1 April 2022, was issued and laid.
  • Section 213. Appointment of motor vehicles officers.
  • Section 214. Effect of appeal and revision on orders passed by the original authority.
  • Section 215. Road Safety Councils and Committees.
  • Section 215A. Power of the Central and State Governments to delegate.
  • Section 215B. The National Road Safety Board, constituted by the Central Government by notification, to advise on all aspects of road safety and traffic management, including standards of design, construction and maintenance of vehicles and safety equipment, registration and licensing, and related matters.
  • Sections 215C and 215D. Rules by the Central and State Governments.
  • Section 216. Power to remove difficulties.
  • Section 217. Repeal and savings: the Motor Vehicles Act 1939 is repealed, with the usual saving of things done under it.
  • Section 217A. Renewal of permits, driving licences and registrations granted under the Act of 1939.
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Where this touches the claim

Different jurisdictions, same facts. A prosecution under section 184 and a claim under section 166 may arise from one accident. The Tribunal is not bound by the result of the prosecution, and it applies the civil standard.

Section 187 and the duties in section 134. The driver who does not take the injured person to hospital or does not report within twenty-four hours commits an offence; and the same failure is a fact the Tribunal may weigh.

Section 196 and the uninsured vehicle. The offence does not help the victim directly; the compensation comes from section 164, from the Fund under section 164B, or from the owner.

Section 198A and the Fund. The fine on a defaulting road contractor is paid into the same Fund out of which hit and run compensation and cashless treatment are met.

A worked example

Late one night an uninsured van, driven by its owner Pravin after drinking, jumps a red light and injures Meher. He is prosecuted and she claims before the Tribunal.

What offences? Section 185, drunken driving, a fine of ten thousand rupees, and fifteen thousand for a subsequent offence. Section 184, dangerous driving, of which jumping a red light is the first item in the Explanation, punishable on a first offence with imprisonment of six months to one year, or a fine of one thousand to five thousand rupees, or both. Section 196, driving uninsured, punishable for a first offence with imprisonment up to three months, or a fine of two thousand rupees, or both.

How is the alcohol proved? By a breath test under section 203 and, if the device indicates alcohol or he refuses the breath test, a laboratory test on a specimen of blood under section 204, with the presumption of unfitness in section 205.

Does the prosecution compensate Meher? No. She must claim under section 166, and the Tribunal decides on the civil standard, so an acquittal would not answer her claim.

Who pays her? There is no insurer, so the owner does; the fixed sum under section 164 is payable by the owner without proof of fault, and the Fund under section 164B pays for cashless treatment under the section 162 scheme, deductible under section 164B(5) from any claim she receives from an insurance company.

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Suppose the junction was badly designed by the road contractor. Section 198A punishes a designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire whose failure to follow the prescribed standards results in death or disability with a fine up to one lakh rupees, paid to the Fund under section 164B.

Quick revision

  1. Section 177: five hundred rupees for a first offence, one thousand five hundred for a subsequent one, where no other penalty is provided; section 199B allows an annual increase of up to ten per cent on 1 April.
  2. Sections 179 to 182: two thousand for disobedience, five thousand for allowing an unauthorised person to drive, five thousand for driving without a licence or under age, ten thousand for offences relating to licences.
  3. Section 184: dangerous driving, now including driving that causes alarm or distress, with six months to one year or one thousand to five thousand rupees for a first offence and ten thousand for a subsequent one. Section 185: ten thousand for drunken driving, fifteen thousand for a repeat.
  4. Section 187: breach of the accident duties in sections 132(1), 133 and 134, punishable with up to six months or five thousand rupees, and up to one year or ten thousand for a subsequent offence.
  5. Section 196: driving uninsured, two thousand rupees for a first offence and four thousand for a subsequent one, with imprisonment up to three months in each case.
  6. Section 198A: the road authority or contractor whose failure to follow prescribed standards results in death or disability is fined up to one lakh rupees, paid to the Fund under section 164B. Section 199A: the guardian or owner is deemed guilty of a juvenile's offence, with three years and twenty-five thousand rupees, cancellation of registration for twelve months and no licence for the juvenile until twenty-five.
  7. Sections 200 to 210D: composition under section 200, arrest without warrant under section 202, breath tests under section 203 and the laboratory test under section 204, the presumption of unfitness under section 205, impounding and detention under sections 206 and 207, summary disposal under section 208, intimation of convictions under section 210, higher penalties under section 210A, the doubled penalty on an enforcing authority under section 210B, and rules under sections 210C and 210D.
  8. Chapter XIV: fees, electronic documents, publication and commencement of rules under section 212, motor vehicles officers, Road Safety Councils, the National Road Safety Board under section 215B, removal of difficulties, and the repeal of the Act of 1939 by section 217.

Test yourself

1. Give an account of the offences and penalties under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, and explain how they stand in relation to a claim for compensation. Chapter XIII, sections 177 to 210D, contains the penal provisions.

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Section 177 is the general provision, punishing a contravention for which no other penalty is provided with a fine of five hundred rupees for a first and one thousand five hundred rupees for a subsequent offence, and section 199B permits the fines in the Act to be increased annually by up to ten per cent on 1 April. Sections 179 to 182 punish disobedience of orders, allowing an unauthorised person to drive, driving without a licence or under age, and offences relating to licences, with fines of two thousand, five thousand, five thousand and ten thousand rupees respectively. Section 184 punishes dangerous driving, which since 2019 includes driving that causes a sense of alarm or distress to occupants, other road users and persons near roads, with imprisonment of six months to one year or a fine of one thousand to five thousand rupees for a first offence and ten thousand rupees for a subsequent one; section 185 punishes drunken driving with ten thousand rupees and fifteen thousand for a repeat; section 187 punishes breach of the accident duties in sections 132(1), 133 and 134; and section 196 punishes driving an uninsured vehicle.

Sections 198A and 199A are notable additions, the first fining a road authority or contractor up to one lakh rupees, payable to the Fund under section 164B, where a failure to follow prescribed road standards results in death or disability, and the second making the guardian or owner liable for a juvenile's offence. Sections 200 to 210D provide the procedure, including composition under section 200, arrest without warrant under section 202, breath tests under section 203 and the laboratory test under section 204, the presumption of unfitness under section 205, impounding of documents under section 206, detention of vehicles under section 207 and summary disposal under section 208, with section 210A allowing a State to increase penalties and section 210B punishing an offence committed by an enforcing authority.

The relation to a claim is one of separation. A prosecution punishes; a claim compensates. The Claims Tribunal decides on the civil standard and is not bound by the outcome of a prosecution arising from the same accident, so that an acquittal of rash driving does not answer a finding of negligence, and a conviction does not by itself establish the quantum of loss.

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