Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject four changes make that worth saying. Section 89, on settling a suit outside the court, was replaced outright by Schedule IV to the Mediation Act, 2023. The Supreme Court, by its order of 10 January 2022, excluded 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period of limitation, which is enough to reverse the answer to a problem in this folder, and that answer works both figures so the reader can see why. Adverse possession became a sword as well as a shield in 2019, and it is set in four of these papers. The United Arab Emirates was notified a reciprocating territory under Section 44A in January 2020. One smaller change is noted where it arises: the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 put 'speed post with registration and proof of delivery' in place of 'registered post acknowledgement due' in Section 148A and in Orders V, XXI and XXXIX, from 20 December 2025, one day after the 2025-26 regular paper was sat.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in two sentences each
any Six · 12 Marks
Answer
An ex parte decree is a decree passed in the absence of the defendant. Under Order IX Rule 6(1)(a), where the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, and it is proved that the summons was duly served, the court may order that the suit be heard ex parte and may proceed to pass a decree.
Answer
Explanation I to Order XXXIII Rule 1 provides that a person is an indigent person if he is not possessed of sufficient means, other than property exempt from attachment in execution of a decree and the subject-matter of the suit, to enable him to pay the fee prescribed by law for the plaint in such suit; or, where no such fee is prescribed, if he is not entitled to property worth one thousand rupees, other than that exempt property and the subject-matter of the suit.
Answer
Section 2(j) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that "prescribed period" means the period of limitation computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act. The same clause defines "period of limitation" as the period prescribed for any suit, appeal or application by the Schedule.
Answer
Section 2(2) provides that a decree may be preliminary or final, and that it is preliminary when further proceedings have to be taken before the suit can be completely disposed of. A preliminary decree declares the rights and liabilities of the parties, leaving the actual working out of those rights to a subsequent stage.
Answer
A garnishee is a third person who owes a debt to the judgment-debtor, or who holds money on his account, and who is directed by the executing court to pay that debt into court, or to the decree-holder, in satisfaction of the decree. The procedure is in Order XXI Rule 46 and Rules 46A to 46I. The word comes from the French garnir, to warn.
Answer
Abatement is the termination of a suit or appeal by operation of law where, on the death of a party whose right to sue survives, no application to bring his legal representative on record is made within the time limited by law. Order XXII Rule 3(2) provides that where no such application is made within the time limited, the suit shall abate as against the deceased plaintiff, and Rule 4(3) makes the same provision on the death of a defendant.
Answer
Review is an application to the same court which passed the decree or made the order, by a person considering himself aggrieved, asking that court to reconsider its own decision. Section 114 confers the right and Order XLVII Rule 1 limits it to three grounds: discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after due diligence, was not within the applicant's knowledge or could not be produced by him; a mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; and any other sufficient reason. Article 124 gives thirty days.
Answer
Section 2(10) defines "judgment-debtor" to mean any person against whom a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made.
Answer
Section 2(11) defines "legal representative" to mean a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased, and, where a party sues or is sued in a representative character, the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.
Answer
The object of the Limitation Act, 1963 is to prescribe the period within which an existing right may be enforced in a court, so that stale claims are not agitated, and so that litigation is brought to an end within a reasonable time. It rests on two maxims: interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium, it is in the interest of the State that there should be an end to litigation, and vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt, the law assists the vigilant and not those who sleep over their rights.
Write Short Notes
any Two · 12 Marks
Answer
Section 88 provides that where two or more persons claim adversely to one another the same debt, sum of money or other property, movable or immovable, from another person, who claims no interest therein other than for charges or costs, and who is ready to pay or deliver it to the rightful claimant, that person may institute a suit of interpleader against all the claimants, for the purpose of obtaining a decision as to the person to whom the payment or delivery shall be made and of obtaining indemnity for himself. The proviso bars such a suit where any suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly be decided.
The essential requisites are five:
Order XXXV supplies the procedure.
Rule 1, plaint in interpleader suit. In addition to the ordinary particulars, the plaint shall state that the plaintiff claims no interest in the subject-matter other than for charges or costs; the claims made by the defendants severally; and that there is no collusion between the plaintiff and any of the defendants.
Rule 2, payment of thing claimed into court. Where the thing claimed is capable of being paid into court or placed in its custody, the court may order the plaintiff so to do, and may make his doing so a condition of proceeding.
Rule 3, procedure where the defendant is suing the plaintiff. Where any of the defendants is actually suing the plaintiff in respect of the subject-matter, the court in which that suit is pending shall, on being informed, stay the proceedings in that suit.
Rule 4, procedure at the first hearing. At the first hearing the court may declare that the plaintiff is discharged from all liability to the defendants in respect of the thing claimed, award him his costs, and dismiss him from the suit; or, if it thinks justice requires it, retain all parties until the final disposal. Where the court finds that the admissions of the parties or other evidence enable it to do so, it may adjudicate the title to the thing claimed; or it may direct an issue to be framed and tried, and may make one claimant plaintiff in place of, or in addition to, the original plaintiff.
Rule 5, agents and tenants may not institute interpleader suits. Nothing in this Order shall enable agents to sue their principals, or tenants to sue their landlords, for the purpose of compelling them to interplead with any persons other than persons making claim through such principals or landlords.
Rule 6, charge for the plaintiff's costs. Where the suit is properly instituted, the court may provide for the costs of the original plaintiff by giving him a charge on the thing claimed, or in some other effectual way.
Conclusion. The interpleader suit is the remedy of a stakeholder, not of a claimant. Where the five requisites of section 88 are made out he is discharged at the first hearing under Order XXXV Rule 4, with his costs and with a charge on the thing claimed under Rule 6 if he needs one, and the court then decides the title between the defendants. The proviso to section 88 and the two bars in Rule 5 mark its edges: no interpleader where a pending suit can settle the same rights, and none by an agent against his principal or a tenant against his landlord.
Answer
A counterclaim is a claim by the defendant against the plaintiff, set up in the plaintiff's own suit, which the court tries and decides along with the plaintiff's claim. It was inserted into the Code by the Amendment Act of 1976 as Order VIII Rules 6A to 6G.
Order VIII Rule 6A(1) provides that a defendant in a suit may, in addition to his right of pleading a set-off under Rule 6, set up by way of counterclaim against the claim of the plaintiff any right or claim in respect of a cause of action accruing to him against the plaintiff either before or after the filing of the suit but before the defendant has delivered his defence or before the time limited for delivering his defence has expired, whether the counterclaim is in the nature of a claim for damages or not, provided that the counterclaim shall not exceed the pecuniary limits of the jurisdiction of the court.
Rule 6A(2): such a counterclaim shall have the same effect as a cross-suit, so as to enable the court to pronounce a final judgment in the same suit, both on the original claim and on the counterclaim.
Rule 6A(3): the plaintiff shall be at liberty to file a written statement in answer to the counterclaim within such period as the court may fix.
Rule 6A(4): the counterclaim shall be treated as a plaint and governed by the rules applicable to plaints.
Rule 6B requires the defendant, where he seeks to rely on a counterclaim, to state specifically in his written statement that he does so by way of counterclaim.
Rule 6C allows the plaintiff to apply, before issues are settled, for an order that the counterclaim be excluded and disposed of by an independent suit; the court may so order if it thinks fit.
Rule 6D is the practical heart of the Order: if in any case in which the defendant sets up a counterclaim the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed, the counterclaim may nevertheless be proceeded with.
Rule 6E provides that if the plaintiff makes default in putting in a reply to the counterclaim, the court may pronounce judgment against him on the counterclaim or make such other order as it thinks fit.
Rule 6F empowers the court, where the defendant establishes a claim exceeding the plaintiff's, to give judgment for the balance in the defendant's favour.
Rule 6G applies the rules relating to written statements to a written statement filed in answer to a counterclaim.
Conclusion. A counterclaim is not a defence but a cross-suit, and that single fact answers most questions about it. It is treated as a plaint, it carries its own court fee, the plaintiff must answer it, and by Rule 6D it survives the stay, discontinuance or dismissal of the plaintiff's suit, which a set-off never does. Its two limits are equally simple: it must be within the court's pecuniary jurisdiction and it must rest on a cause of action that accrued before the defence was delivered.
Answer
A caveat is a caution or warning lodged with a court by a person who apprehends that an application is going to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted or about to be instituted, in which he is likely to be affected, asking the court not to grant any order on that application without first giving him notice. It is provided for by section 148A, inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976.
Section 148A in its five sub-sections:
(1) Right to lodge a caveat. Where an application is expected to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted, or about to be instituted, in a court, any person claiming a right to appear before the court on the hearing of such application may lodge a caveat in respect thereof.
(2) Notice by the caveator. Where a caveat has been lodged, the person by whom it has been lodged shall serve a notice of the caveat by registered post, acknowledgement due, on the person by whom the application has been or is expected to be made. Since the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, in force from 20 December 2025, the words are "speed post with registration and proof of delivery".
(3) Duty of the court. Where, after a caveat has been lodged, any application is filed in any suit or proceeding, the court shall serve a notice of the application on the caveator.
(4) Duty of the applicant. Where a notice of any caveat has been served on the applicant, he shall forthwith furnish the caveator, at the caveator's expense, with a copy of the application made by him and also with copies of any paper or document which has been, or may be, filed by him in support of the application.
(5) Life of the caveat. Where a caveat has been lodged, it shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged, unless the application referred to in sub-section (1) has been made before the expiry of that period.
Conclusion. A caveat buys one thing and it is worth having: notice. It is preventive, it may be lodged before the application exists, and it may be lodged by anyone claiming a right to appear, party or not. Sub-section (3) puts the duty on the court and sub-section (4) puts the papers in the caveator's hands at his own expense. The one hard edge is ninety days, with no renewal and no extension, so a party who still fears the application must lodge a fresh caveat.
Answer
This is the same question as Q.2 (b). The paper prints "Counter Claim" twice in Q.2, as item (b) and again as item (d), and the Marathi translation prints प्रत्युत्तर दावा twice in the same places. A section that offers "any two of four" therefore offers, in truth, any two of three: Interpleader Suit, Counter Claim and Caveat.
The answer is at Q.2 (b) above, and nothing is added here that is not there: Order VIII Rules 6A to 6G, the counterclaim as a cross-suit under Rule 6A(2), the plaintiff's written statement in answer under Rule 6A(3), exclusion under Rule 6C, survival of the counterclaim under Rule 6D when the plaintiff's suit is stayed, discontinued or dismissed, judgment for the balance under Rule 6F, and the comparison with legal and equitable set-off.
Conclusion. The paper offers this note twice, as item (b) and again as item (d), and there is no difference between them: attempt Counter Claim once and take your second note from Interpleader Suit or Caveat. On the law, the point that carries the marks is that a counterclaim has the effect of a cross-suit and therefore survives the plaintiff's suit under Rule 6D, where a set-off, being only a defence, falls with it.
Answer the following situational based question
any Two · 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the commission wanted is one for local investigation under section 75(b) and Order XXVI Rule 9; the seven kinds of commission in section 75; the powers of a commissioner under Order XXVI Rule 16; that the report is evidence under Rule 10(2); and the tenancy point, that the civil court's jurisdiction may be ousted by the Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, 1948.
(i) The type of commission
The commission that fits these facts is a commission for local investigation, under section 75(b) read with Order XXVI Rule 9.
Order XXVI Rule 9 provides that in any suit in which the court deems a local investigation to be requisite or proper for the purpose of elucidating any matter in dispute, or of ascertaining the market value of any property, or the amount of any mesne profits or damages or annual net profits, the court may issue a commission to such person as it thinks fit, directing him to make the investigation and to report thereon.
Why this is the right one. Shyamlal's suit is for declaration of title and possession of agricultural land which another man has been tilling since 1942. The questions that will decide it are questions of fact on the ground: what land is it, where does it lie, what are its boundaries, who is in actual physical possession of which portion, since when, what is standing on it and what is its extent. None of those can be answered from the record, and all of them can be answered by a person sent to look.
A commission to make a partition under section 75(d) and Rule 13 would follow only if a preliminary decree for partition were passed, which is not this case. A commission to examine a witness under section 75(a) is not what is asked for.
(ii) The relevance of commissions
Section 75 sets out seven purposes for which a court may issue a commission, subject to conditions and limitations prescribed:
(a) to examine any person (Order XXVI Rules 1 to 8);
(b) to make a local investigation (Rule 9);
(c) to examine or adjust accounts (Rules 11 and 12);
(d) to make a partition (Rules 13 and 14);
(e) to hold a scientific, technical or expert investigation (Rule 10A);
(f) to conduct a sale of property which is subject to speedy and natural decay and which it is desirable to sell at once (Rule 10B);
(g) to perform any ministerial act (Rule 10C).
Clauses (e), (f) and (g) were added by the Amendment Act of 1976.
Why commissions matter. A court cannot leave the court house. There are matters which no amount of oral evidence will settle as well as an inspection will: the position of a boundary, the extent of an encroachment, the state of a building, the identity of a field, the amount of mesne profits, the correctness of a running account. A commission lets the court borrow the eyes of a person on the spot without turning the trial into a site visit.
The powers of a commissioner are in Order XXVI Rule 16: he may examine the parties themselves and any witness whom they or any other party may produce, and any other person whom he thinks proper to call upon to give evidence; he may call for and examine documents and other things relevant to the subject of inquiry; and he may, at any reasonable time, enter upon or into any land or building mentioned in the order. Rule 17 provides for compelling attendance, Rule 18 for the parties' appearance before him, and Rule 18A for the commission to form part of the record.
The status of the report. Order XXVI Rule 10(1) requires the commissioner to return the commission with his report and the evidence taken, signed by him. Rule 10(2) is the crucial one: the report of the commissioner and the evidence taken by him shall be evidence in the suit and shall form part of the record. The court or, with its permission, any of the parties may examine the commissioner personally in open court touching any of the matters referred to him or mentioned in his report. Rule 10(3) allows the court, where it is dissatisfied with the proceedings, to direct further inquiry or to issue a fresh commission.
Who bears the cost. The party who applies ordinarily deposits the commissioner's fee and expenses in advance, and the costs abide the result of the suit.
Conclusion. The commission to be issued here is one for local investigation under section 75(b) and Order XXVI Rule 9, because the questions that will decide the suit are questions about the land itself, its identity, boundaries, extent and actual possession, and no oral evidence answers them as well as an inspection. The report and the evidence the commissioner takes are evidence in the suit under Rule 10(2), but he decides nothing. And on these facts the civil court must in any event refer the tenancy question to the Mamlatdar, because section 85 of the Bombay Tenancy Act takes it away from the civil court.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the answer to (i) is no, not as of right; Order XLI Rule 27(1) with all three clauses; Rule 27(2), the duty to record reasons; Rules 28 and 29; and that the discretion is for the court's requirement and not the party's convenience.
(i) Is a party entitled to produce additional evidence in appeal?
No. Not as of right. Order XLI Rule 27(1) opens with the words "the parties to an appeal shall not be entitled to produce additional evidence, whether oral or documentary, in the Appellate Court", and then admits three exceptions.
The rule of general application is in section 107(1)(d) and Order XLI Rule 27: an appeal is a rehearing on the record made in the trial court. The appellate court decides on the evidence which was before the court below. Additional evidence is the exception, and the burden of bringing the case within an exception is on the party who asks.
(ii) When the court may allow it: the three grounds in Order XLI Rule 27(1)
(a) Where the court from whose decree the appeal is preferred has refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted. The appellate court is here correcting a wrong ruling of the trial court on admissibility.
(aa) Where the party seeking to produce additional evidence establishes that, notwithstanding the exercise of due diligence, such evidence was not within his knowledge or could not, after the exercise of due diligence, be produced by him at the time when the decree appealed against was passed. This clause was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976. The test is due diligence, and the burden is squarely on the applicant.
(b) Where the Appellate Court requires any document to be produced or any witness to be examined to enable it to pronounce judgment, or for any other substantial cause. This is the widest of the three and the most misunderstood. It operates where the appellate court itself finds the record insufficient, not where the party finds his own case insufficient.
Rule 27(2) is mandatory and is where marks are most often lost: wherever additional evidence is allowed to be produced by an Appellate Court, the Court shall record the reason for its admission. An order admitting additional evidence without recorded reasons is bad.
Rules 28 and 29 complete the procedure. Where additional evidence is directed to be taken, the Appellate Court may either take such evidence itself, or direct the court from whose decree the appeal is preferred, or any other subordinate court, to take it and send it to the Appellate Court (Rule 28). Where it is taken by another court, that court shall certify the evidence to the Appellate Court, which shall then proceed to determine the appeal (Rule 29). Under Rule 29 the Appellate Court shall specify the points to which the evidence is to be confined, and record those points in its proceedings.
Conclusion. No, a party is not entitled to produce additional evidence in appeal, and Order XLI Rule 27(1) says so in terms before it admits three exceptions. The appellant will succeed only if the trial court wrongly refused the document, or if he can show that despite due diligence it was not within his knowledge and could not be produced, or if the appellate court itself finds it needs the document to pronounce judgment. The requirement is the court's, not the party's, and Rule 27(2) obliges the court to record its reasons for admitting anything.
Answer
Y met with an accident and is seriously injured on 12th November, 2024 a day before his hearing and he is unable to inform his Advocate and hence Ex-parte Decree is passed by the court against Y on 13th November, 2024.
For full marks, cover: the four remedies with their provisions and their limitation periods; that the accident on 12 November is textbook "sufficient cause"; and for (ii), Order IX Rule 8, dismissal of the suit, with the consequence in Order IX Rule 9 that a fresh suit on the same cause of action is barred.
(i) Y's remedies
Four, and Y may pursue more than one.
1. Application to set aside the ex parte decree, Order IX Rule 13. This is his proper remedy. The court shall set aside the decree if he satisfies it that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing. The application lies to the court that passed the decree, and Article 123 of the Limitation Act gives thirty days from the date of the decree, or from when he had knowledge of it where the summons was not duly served.
On these facts the second ground is squarely made out. A serious accident on 12 November 2024, one day before the hearing, which also prevented him from informing his advocate, is a cause for which the defendant cannot be blamed and which genuinely prevented him from appearing. Y should file the application within thirty days, supported by an affidavit and by the medical records, hospital admission papers, discharge summary and, if there is one, the accident report or FIR, and should explain in terms why the advocate could not be reached.
The court will usually set the decree aside on terms as to costs, and will then restore the suit to the file. Y will also need leave to file his written statement, since none was filed.
2. Appeal under section 96(2). An appeal lies from an original decree passed ex parte. The period is thirty days to the District Court under Article 116(b) and ninety days to the High Court under Article 116(a).
3. Review under section 114 read with Order XLVII Rule 1, within thirty days under Article 124, on the ground of discovery of new and important matter, an error apparent on the face of the record, or any other sufficient reason.
4. A suit to set aside the decree on the ground of fraud. Available only where the decree was obtained by fraud, for example by suppressing service. Not available on these facts.
Two decisions. In Bhanu Kumar Jain v. Archana Kumar (2005) 1 SCC 787 the Supreme Court held that a defendant may pursue both the Rule 13 application and a first appeal, but once the application is dismissed on merits he cannot re-agitate the ground of non-appearance in the appeal. In C. Prabhakar Rao v. Sama Mahipal Reddy (2025 INSC 311) it held that condoning delay and setting aside the decree are separate exercises: an order condoning delay does not by itself restore the suit.
(ii) What order if the plaintiff and his advocate were absent and the defendant present?
The mirror image of the case is governed by Order IX Rule 8: where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, the court shall make an order that the suit be dismissed, unless the defendant admits the claim or part of it, in which case the court shall pass a decree against the defendant upon such admission and shall dismiss the suit so far as it relates to the remainder.
The consequence is severe and is the point of the question. Order IX Rule 9(1) provides that where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Rule 8, the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action. He may apply for an order setting aside the dismissal, and if he satisfies the court that there was sufficient cause for his non-appearance, the court shall set aside the dismissal and appoint a day for proceeding with the suit. Article 122 of the Limitation Act gives thirty days for that application.
So the contrast between the two sides of Order IX is worth stating expressly:
| Who is absent | Rule | Order made | Remedy | Period |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Defendant | Order IX Rule 6(1)(a) | Suit heard ex parte and decree passed | Order IX Rule 13, set aside | 30 days, Article 123 |
| Plaintiff | Order IX Rule 8 | Suit dismissed | Order IX Rule 9, set aside dismissal | 30 days, Article 122 |
| Both | Order IX Rule 3 | Suit dismissed | Order IX Rule 4, fresh suit or set aside | 30 days, Article 122 |
Conclusion. Y's remedy is an application under Order IX Rule 13 within thirty days of the decree, and on these facts the second ground is squarely made out: an accident on 12 November that also prevented him from reaching his advocate is a cause he cannot be blamed for. He must prove it with the hospital record, the doctor's certificate and his advocate's affidavit rather than assert it, and should expect terms as to costs. Had the positions been reversed, the answer is different in kind: the suit would have been dismissed under Rule 8, and Rule 9(1) would have barred a fresh one.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Order XXXII Rule 12 and the position where a defendant sued as a minor has in fact attained majority; that a misdescription is an irregularity, not a nullity, and Order I Rule 9 and section 99; the distinction from a decree passed against a real minor with no guardian appointed; and Rule 3A, which requires prejudice to be shown.
(i) What Mr. Shah should do
Three steps, in this order.
Step 1. Apply to the court that passed the decree to have the guardian for the suit discharged and to be permitted to proceed in his own name. The relevant provision is Order XXXII Rule 12, read with the court's power under Rule 11 to discharge a guardian. Rule 12 provides that a minor plaintiff or applicant, on attaining majority, shall elect whether to proceed with the suit or to abandon it, and requires him to apply for an order discharging the next friend; the analogous course is followed where a defendant sued as a minor is found to have been a major. The affidavit should exhibit his proof of age, ordinarily the school leaving certificate, birth certificate or Aadhaar record.
Step 2. Where a decree has already been passed, apply to have it set aside. The application is made to the court which passed the decree, and the grounds available to him are these:
Order IX Rule 13, if he never appeared and the decree is ex parte, on the ground that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, within thirty days under Article 123. His ignorance that a suit was being defended for him by a guardian is capable of amounting to sufficient cause.
Order XXXII Rule 14, which allows a person on attaining majority to apply that a decree or order passed against him be set aside on the ground of the gross negligence or misconduct of his next friend or guardian for the suit. That is his direct statutory route, and it is the one the question is aimed at.
Appeal under section 96, and review under section 114, remain open on the ordinary conditions.
Step 3. Show prejudice. This is the requirement he must be ready to meet, and it is explained in (ii).
(ii) Can he challenge the decree merely because he was wrongly described?
No, not on the misdescription alone. He must show that the misdescription caused him prejudice.
Three provisions decide it.
Order XXXII Rule 3A(1): no decree passed against a minor shall be set aside merely on the ground that the next friend or guardian for the suit of the minor had an interest in the subject-matter of the suit adverse to that of the minor, unless prejudice has thereby been occasioned to the interests of the minor. The Code's own approach to defects in the representation of a minor is thus that prejudice, not the defect, is the test.
Order I Rule 9: no suit shall be defeated by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, and the court may deal with the matter in controversy so far as regards the rights and interests of the parties actually before it.
Section 99: no decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded, in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the court. The proviso takes non-joinder of a necessary party out of that protection.
Applying them: Mr. Shah was the right person, he was before the court, and the suit was against him. What was wrong was the description of his status and the consequent appointment of a guardian for the suit who did not need to be appointed. That is an irregularity in the proceedings, and it does not touch the jurisdiction of the court or the merits.
So the question becomes: was he in fact prejudiced? He will succeed if he can show, for instance, that the guardian failed to file a written statement, or did not lead evidence, or admitted a fact he would have denied, or compromised without leave, and that a defence genuinely open to him was lost. He will fail if the guardian defended competently and the case was decided on its merits.
Conclusion. Mr. Shah should apply to have the guardian discharged and, the decree having been passed, to have it set aside, his direct route being Order XXXII Rule 14 and, if the decree was ex parte, Order IX Rule 13 within thirty days. But he cannot succeed on the misdescription alone. Order XXXII Rule 3A, Order I Rule 9 and section 99 all point one way: this is an irregularity in the proceedings, not a defect of jurisdiction, and he must show prejudice, which means showing what defence the guardian lost him.
Answer the following in detail
any Two · 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: section 2(17) and the kinds of mortgage under section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act; Order XXXIV rule by rule, foreclosure, sale and redemption; the preliminary and final decree scheme and the six month period; Rule 5's right to pay at any time before confirmation of sale; Rule 14 on the bar to bringing a mortgaged property to sale otherwise than by a mortgage suit; and the limitation Articles 61, 62 and 63.
I. The setting
Section 2(17) of the Code defines a "public officer", not a mortgage; the substantive law of mortgages is in sections 58 to 104 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and the procedure for enforcing a mortgage is in Order XXXIV of the Code, containing fifteen rules.
Section 58(a) TPA defines a mortgage as the transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, an existing or future debt, or the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability. The six kinds are: simple, mortgage by conditional sale, usufructuary, English, mortgage by deposit of title deeds (equitable), and anomalous.
The three remedies of a mortgagee, and which suit corresponds to which:
| Remedy | Available to | Order XXXIV Rules |
|---|---|---|
| Foreclosure | Mortgagee by conditional sale and anomalous mortgagee | Rules 2 and 3 |
| Sale | Simple, English and equitable mortgagee | Rules 4 and 5 |
| Redemption (the mortgagor's remedy) | Mortgagor | Rules 7 and 8 |
II. Parties and the plaint
Rule 1, parties to suits for foreclosure, sale and redemption. Subject to the provisions of the Code, all persons having an interest either in the mortgage-security or in the right of redemption shall be joined as parties to any suit relating to the mortgage. The Explanation provides that a puisne mortgagee may sue for sale without making the prior mortgagee a party, and a prior mortgagee need not be joined in a suit to redeem a subsequent mortgage.
Order IV Rule 1 and Order VII govern the plaint generally; the plaint must state the mortgage, the sum due, and the relief claimed.
III. Foreclosure: Rules 2 and 3
Rule 2, preliminary decree in a foreclosure suit. In a suit for foreclosure, if the plaintiff succeeds, the court shall pass a preliminary decree ordering that an account be taken of what is due to the plaintiff on the date of the decree for principal, interest, costs, charges and expenses, and declaring the amount so due; and directing that if the defendant pays into court the amount so found due on or before a day fixed by the court, not being less than six months from the date on which the court confirms and countersigns the account, the plaintiff shall deliver up the documents, retransfer the property and, if necessary, put the defendant in possession; but that if payment is not so made, the defendant shall be debarred from all right to redeem the property.
Rule 3, final decree in a foreclosure suit. Where payment is made, the court shall pass a final decree ordering the plaintiff to deliver up the documents and retransfer the property. Where payment is not made, the plaintiff may apply for a final decree for foreclosure, and the court shall pass a decree that the defendant and all persons claiming through him be debarred absolutely from all right to redeem the mortgaged property. Sub-rule (2) allows the court, on good cause shown and on such terms as it thinks fit, to extend the time fixed for payment.
IV. Sale: Rules 4 and 5
Rule 4, preliminary decree in a suit for sale. The court shall pass a preliminary decree in the same terms as in Rule 2, but providing that in default of payment the mortgaged property, or a sufficient part of it, shall be sold and the proceeds applied in payment of what is found due.
Rule 5, final decree in a suit for sale. Where before a final decree debarring the defendant from all right to redeem has been passed, or before the confirmation of a sale held in pursuance of a final decree passed under sub-rule (3), the defendant makes payment into court of all amounts due, the court shall pass a final decree directing the plaintiff to deliver up the documents and retransfer the property. Where payment is not made, the plaintiff may apply for a final decree and the property shall be sold.
Rule 5 gives the mortgagor a right that survives the decree: he may pay up at any time until the sale is actually confirmed. That is the practical difference between foreclosure and sale, and it should be stated.
V. Redemption: Rules 7, 8 and 8A
Rule 7, preliminary decree in a redemption suit. In a suit for redemption, if the plaintiff succeeds, the court shall pass a preliminary decree ordering an account to be taken and directing that on payment by the plaintiff of the amount found due, on or before a day fixed, not less than six months from the confirmation of the account, the defendant shall deliver up the documents, retransfer the property and, if necessary, put the plaintiff in possession.
Rule 8, final decree in a redemption suit. Where payment is made, the court shall pass a final decree ordering the defendant to deliver up the documents and retransfer the property; where the property is in the defendant's possession, to put the plaintiff in possession; and where necessary, to account for the surplus receipts. Where payment is not made, and the mortgage is by conditional sale or anomalous, the court shall pass a decree debarring the plaintiff from all right to redeem; and where the mortgage is a simple, English or equitable one, the court shall pass a decree for sale.
Rule 8A deals with the recovery of a balance due on a mortgage where the net proceeds of the sale are insufficient: the court may, if the balance is legally recoverable otherwise than out of the property sold, pass a decree for that balance against the defendant personally.
VI. The remaining rules
Rule 6 provides that where the net proceeds are insufficient, the court may, if the balance is legally recoverable from the defendant otherwise than out of the property sold, pass a decree for the balance.
Rule 9 deals with a decree in a suit for redemption of one of several mortgages.
Rule 10 provides for costs of the mortgagee subsequent to the decree, added to the mortgage money.
Rule 11 governs the payment of interest: interest up to the date fixed for payment on the principal at the rate payable on the principal, or, where no rate is fixed, at nine per cent per annum, and on the aggregate of the costs, charges and expenses at nine per cent per annum.
Rule 12 governs sale of the property subject to a prior mortgage.
Rule 13 provides for the application of the proceeds: first, the expenses of the sale; second, what is due to the plaintiff on the mortgage; third, subsequent mortgagees; and the residue to the person entitled.
Rule 14 is the most examined rule in the Order. Where a mortgagee has obtained a decree for the payment of money in satisfaction of a claim arising under the mortgage, he shall not be entitled to bring the mortgaged property to sale otherwise than by instituting a suit for sale in enforcement of the mortgage. Sub-rule (2) saves a suit brought by a mortgagee to obtain a decree for sale.
Rule 15 applies the Order, so far as may be, to a charge within the meaning of section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act.
VII. Limitation
| Article | Suit | Period | Time runs from |
|---|---|---|---|
| 61(a) | By a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged | Thirty years | When the right to redeem or to recover possession accrues |
| 62 | To enforce payment of money secured by a mortgage or otherwise charged upon immovable property | Twelve years | When the money sued for becomes due |
| Article | Suit | Period | Time runs from |
|---|---|---|---|
| 63(a) | By a mortgagee for foreclosure | Thirty years | When the money secured by the mortgage becomes due |
| 63(b) | By a mortgagee for possession of immovable property mortgaged | Twelve years | When the mortgagee becomes entitled to possession |
The asymmetry is deliberate: the mortgagor gets thirty years to redeem, because the right of redemption is jealously protected, and the maxim is "once a mortgage, always a mortgage"; a clog on the equity of redemption is void.
The cases to cite. Jayasingh Dnyanu Mhoprekar v. Krishna Babaji Patil, (1985) 4 SCC 162, is the governing principle behind the whole Order: the right of redemption is an incident of the mortgage and cannot be clogged, and it can be extinguished only in a manner known to law, that is by act of parties, by a decree of the court, or by statute. That is why Order XXXIV builds every mortgage suit around a preliminary decree that gives the mortgagor a period to redeem before a final decree can follow.
Conclusion. A mortgage suit is worked out in two decrees, and the shape is the same whichever remedy is sought: a preliminary decree that takes the account, declares the sum due and fixes a day not less than six months ahead, and a final decree that either restores the property on payment or forecloses or sells. Which remedy is available depends on the kind of mortgage, and the mortgagor's position is protected throughout, by thirty years to redeem under Article 61(a), by the right under Rule 5 to pay until the sale is confirmed, and by Rule 14, which stops the mortgagee reaching the security except by a mortgage suit.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and nature of an appeal; sections 96 to 99A and 107; the four situations in which no first appeal lies; Order XLI rule by rule, memorandum, stay, ex parte hearing, cross-objections, additional evidence and the powers under Rule 33; and the limitation Articles 116 and 117.
I. Meaning and nature
An appeal is the judicial examination by a higher court of the decision of a subordinate court, at the instance of a party aggrieved by it. The word is not defined in the Code. An appeal from an original decree is called a first appeal, and the law is in sections 96 to 99A and Order XLI.
Three propositions about its nature, each worth a line:
An appeal is a creature of statute. There is no inherent right of appeal; it exists only where a statute gives it.
An appeal is a continuation of the suit. The proceedings are a rehearing, and the appellate court has, by section 107(2), the same powers and performs as nearly as may be the same duties as a court of original jurisdiction.
The right of appeal is a substantive right which vests in a party on the date the suit is instituted, and it is not taken away by a later amendment unless the amendment says so expressly or by necessary implication.
II. Who may appeal, and from what: sections 96 to 99A
Section 96(1). Save where otherwise expressly provided, an appeal shall lie from every decree passed by any court exercising original jurisdiction to the court authorised to hear appeals from the decisions of such court.
Section 96(2). An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.
Section 96(3). No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. A consent decree is a contract with the imprimatur of the court, and a party cannot appeal against his own agreement.
Section 96(4), inserted in 1976: no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
Who may appeal. A party to the suit who is adversely affected by the decree; a person claiming under such a party, such as a transferee or a legal representative; and any other person aggrieved, with the leave of the appellate court, where he is bound by the decree or prejudicially affected by it.
Section 97 provides that where a party aggrieved by a preliminary decree does not appeal from it, he shall be precluded from disputing its correctness in any appeal preferred from the final decree.
Section 98 governs the decision where the appeal is heard by two or more Judges: where they are equally divided, the decree of the lower court is confirmed, unless the case is referred to a larger Bench.
Section 99 is the rule against interference for technicalities: no decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded, in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action, or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the court. The proviso excludes non-joinder of a necessary party. Section 99A applies the same rule to orders under section 47.
III. Order XLI: the procedure
Rule 1, form of appeal. Every appeal shall be preferred in the form of a memorandum signed by the appellant or his pleader and presented to the court, and the memorandum shall be accompanied by a copy of the judgment. It shall set forth, concisely and under distinct heads, the grounds of objection to the decree appealed from, without any argument or narrative, and the grounds shall be numbered consecutively.
Rule 2 provides that the appellant shall not, except by leave of the court, urge or be heard in support of any ground of objection not set forth in the memorandum, but the appellate court shall not rest its decision on any other ground unless the party affected has had sufficient opportunity of contesting the case on that ground.
Rule 3 empowers the court to reject or return the memorandum where it is not drawn up in the prescribed manner, and Rule 3A requires an appeal presented after the period of limitation to be accompanied by an application supported by an affidavit showing sufficient cause for the delay.
Rule 5, stay of proceedings and of execution. An appeal shall not operate as a stay of proceedings under a decree or order appealed from except so far as the Appellate Court may order, nor shall execution of a decree be stayed by reason only of an appeal having been preferred. The court may, for sufficient cause, order a stay, and sub-rule (3) requires it to be satisfied that substantial loss may result to the applicant unless the order is made, that the application has been made without unreasonable delay, and that security has been given by the applicant for the due performance of the decree.
Rules 9 to 12 govern registration of the appeal and the day for hearing; Rule 11 allows summary dismissal after hearing the appellant, without sending notice to the respondent; Rule 12 requires notice of the day fixed for hearing to be served on the respondent.
Rule 17, dismissal for the appellant's default. Where on the day fixed the appellant does not appear, the court may dismiss the appeal. The Explanation, added in 1976, is important: nothing in this rule shall be construed as empowering the court to dismiss the appeal on the merits.
Rule 19 allows the appellant to apply for readmission of an appeal dismissed for default on showing sufficient cause.
Rule 21, rehearing of an appeal heard ex parte. Where an appeal is heard ex parte and judgment is pronounced against the respondent, he may apply to the Appellate Court to rehear the appeal, and if he satisfies the court that the notice was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, the court shall rehear the appeal on such terms as to costs or otherwise as it thinks fit.
Rule 22, cross-objections. Any respondent, though he may not have appealed from any part of the decree, may not only support the decree on any of the grounds decided against him in the court below, but may also file cross-objections to the decree, within one month from the date of service on him of notice of the day fixed for hearing the appeal, or within such further time as the court may see fit to allow. The cross-objection is in the form of a memorandum and is dealt with as if it were an appeal, and sub-rule (4) provides that where the original appeal is withdrawn or dismissed for default, the cross-objection may nevertheless be heard and determined.
Rule 23, remand. Where the court from whose decree the appeal is preferred has disposed of the suit upon a preliminary point and the decree is reversed in appeal, the Appellate Court may remand the case. Rule 23A extends the power to a case disposed of otherwise than on a preliminary point, where a retrial is considered necessary. Rule 24 allows the Appellate Court to determine the case finally where the evidence on the record is sufficient. Rule 25 allows it to frame issues and refer them for trial to the court below.
Rule 27, additional evidence. The parties shall not be entitled to produce additional evidence, whether oral or documentary, in the Appellate Court, except in three cases: (a) where the court below refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted; (aa) where the party establishes that, notwithstanding the exercise of due diligence, the evidence was not within his knowledge or could not be produced by him at the time the decree was passed; or (b) where the Appellate Court requires any document to be produced or any witness to be examined to enable it to pronounce judgment, or for any other substantial cause. Sub-rule (2) requires the court to record the reason for its admission.
Rules 30 to 34, judgment and decree. Rule 31 requires the judgment of the Appellate Court to state the points for determination, the decision thereon, the reasons for the decision, and, where the decree is reversed or varied, the relief to which the appellant is entitled. Rule 32 sets out what the appellate decree may direct.
Rule 33, power of the Appellate Court. The Appellate Court shall have power to pass any decree and make any order which ought to have been passed or made, and to pass or make such further or other decree or order as the case may require, and this power may be exercised notwithstanding that the appeal is as to part only of the decree, and notwithstanding that the respondent or any of the respondents may not have filed any appeal or objection. This is the widest power in the Order and exists so that the appellate court is not compelled to leave an injustice standing merely because the party who suffered it did not appeal.
IV. Limitation
Article 116(a): appeal under the Code to a High Court from any decree or order, ninety days from the date of the decree or order.
Article 116(b): appeal to any other court, thirty days.
Article 117: appeal from a decree or order of a High Court to the same court, thirty days.
Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act excludes the day of pronouncement and the time requisite for obtaining copies of the decree and the judgment. Section 5 allows condonation of delay on sufficient cause, and Order XLI Rule 3A governs the application.
The cases to cite. Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari, (2001) 3 SCC 179, states the duty of the first appellate court: it is a court of both fact and law, its judgment must reflect a conscious application of mind and must record findings supported by reasons on all the issues arising with the contentions of both sides, and it cannot simply affirm the trial court. Madhukar v. Sangram, (2001) 4 SCC 756, is to the same effect: sitting as a court of first appeal, it is the duty of the High Court to deal with all the issues and the evidence.
Conclusion. A first appeal is a rehearing on the record, on fact as well as law, and the appellate court is the last court of fact. That is why Order XLI Rule 31 obliges it to state the points for determination, the decision and the reasons, and why a judgment that does not is set aside. Two provisions do most of the work in practice: Rule 22, under which a respondent who has not appealed may still file cross-objections within one month and have them heard even if the appeal is withdrawn, and Rule 33, under which the court may pass any decree the case requires, in favour of a party who never appealed at all.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and the classification, prohibitory and mandatory, temporary and perpetual; that the substantive law is sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and the procedure sections 94(c) and 95 and Order XXXIX of the Code; Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 verbatim; the three tests; Rules 3, 3A, 4 and 5; and the consequence of disobedience under Rule 2A.
I. Definition
An injunction is a judicial process by which a party is ordered to refrain from doing, or to do, a particular act or thing. It is a preventive relief, granted at the discretion of the court, and it operates in personam, that is, against the person of the party enjoined.
The classification:
By what it commands:
Prohibitory, restraining the doing of a wrongful act. This is the ordinary form.
Mandatory, under section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, compelling the performance of a certain act, where it is necessary to prevent the breach of an obligation and the erring party can be compelled to undo what he has done.
By how long it lasts:
Temporary or interim, which continues until a specified time or until further order of the court, may be granted at any stage of a suit, and is regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure.
Perpetual or permanent, which can be granted only by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit, whereby the defendant is perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
That division is enacted in section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, and section 37(1) expressly says that temporary injunctions are regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
A caution on section numbers. Some papers in this subject refer to "temporary injunction under section 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure". That is a misdescription. Section 37 of the Code defines "the court which passed a decree"; it has nothing to do with injunctions. The provision meant is section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, and within the Code the relevant provisions are section 94(c), section 95 and Order XXXIX.
II. The provisions in the Code
Section 94(c): in order to prevent the ends of justice from being defeated, the court may, if it is so prescribed, grant a temporary injunction and, in case of disobedience, commit the person guilty thereof to the civil prison and order that his property be attached and sold.
Section 95: where, in a suit in which an injunction has been granted, it appears to the court that there were no sufficient grounds for granting it, or the suit is dismissed and it appears that there was no reasonable or probable ground for instituting it, the court may, on the defendant's application, award reasonable compensation not exceeding the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court.
III. Order XXXIX: the grounds
Rule 1, cases in which a temporary injunction may be granted. Where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise:
(a) that any property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party to the suit, or wrongfully sold in execution of a decree; or
(b) that the defendant threatens, or intends, to remove or dispose of his property with a view to defrauding his creditors; or
(c) that the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit,
the court may by order grant a temporary injunction to restrain such act, or make such other order for the purpose of staying and preventing the wasting, damaging, alienation, sale, removal or disposition of the property or dispossession of the plaintiff, or otherwise causing injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit, as the court thinks fit, until the disposal of the suit or until further orders.
Clause (c) was added by the Amendment Act of 1976, and it is the clause under which most injunctions are now granted.
Rule 2, injunction to restrain repetition or continuance of breach. In any suit for restraining the defendant from committing a breach of contract or other injury of any kind, whether compensation is claimed in the suit or not, the plaintiff may, at any time after the commencement of the suit, and either before or after judgment, apply to the court for a temporary injunction to restrain the defendant from committing the breach of contract or injury complained of, or any breach of contract or injury of a like kind arising out of the same contract or relating to the same property or right.
IV. The three tests
Rules 1 and 2 state the occasions; the conditions on which the discretion is exercised are settled by the courts and are three. All three must be satisfied; failure on any one is fatal.
1. A prima facie case. The applicant must show that there is a serious question to be tried and that on the material before the court there is a probability of his being entitled to the relief he asks. He need not prove his case; he must show that it is not frivolous and that it raises a triable issue.
2. The balance of convenience. The court must be satisfied that the inconvenience or injury likely to be caused to the applicant by refusing the injunction is greater than that likely to be caused to the opposite party by granting it. It is a comparison, and the phrase is really the balance of inconvenience.
3. Irreparable injury. The applicant must show that he is likely to suffer an injury which cannot be adequately compensated in money. Where damages are an adequate remedy, an injunction is refused.
Two further considerations always operate: the applicant must come with clean hands, having made a full and frank disclosure, since the relief is equitable and discretionary; and he must come promptly, since delay, acquiescence and laches defeat an equitable claim.
Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act lists the cases in which an injunction cannot be granted, and they should be named: to restrain a person from prosecuting a pending judicial proceeding, unless to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings; to restrain a proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought; to restrain a person from applying to a legislative body; to restrain the institution or prosecution of a proceeding in a criminal matter; to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced; to prevent, on the ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance; to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced; where equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding; where the conduct of the plaintiff or his agents disentitles him to the assistance of the court; and where the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
V. Procedure: Rules 3 to 5
Rule 3, before granting an injunction the court shall give notice of the application to the opposite party, except where it appears that the object of granting the injunction would be defeated by the delay. Where an ex parte injunction is granted, the court shall record the reasons for its opinion that the object would be defeated by delay, and shall require the applicant, on the same day or the next day, to deliver to the opposite party a copy of the application, the affidavit and the plaint, and to file an affidavit of such delivery.
Rule 3A, inserted in 1976 and mandatory in form: where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party, the court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application within thirty days from the date on which the injunction was granted, and where it is unable to do so, it shall record its reasons for such inability.
Rule 4, order for injunction may be discharged, varied or set aside on application made by any party dissatisfied with it. The proviso empowers the court to set aside an ex parte injunction where the applicant has knowingly made a false or misleading statement in relation to a material particular, unless the court considers it not necessary to do so in the interests of justice.
Rule 5 provides that an injunction directed to a corporation is binding not only on the corporation itself but also on all members and officers of the corporation whose personal action it seeks to restrain.
Rule 2A, consequence of disobedience or breach. In the case of disobedience of an injunction granted under Rule 1 or Rule 2, or of a breach of any of the terms on which it was granted, the court may order the property of the person guilty of such disobedience or breach to be attached, and may also order such person to be detained in the civil prison for a term not exceeding three months, unless in the meantime the court directs his release. No attachment shall remain in force for more than one year, at the end of which time, if the disobedience or breach continues, the property attached may be sold and the court may award such compensation as it thinks fit out of the proceeds.
The cases to cite. Dalpat Kumar v. Prahlad Singh, (1992) 1 SCC 719, is the case this question is set to elicit, and it is what the three tests come from: a prima facie case means a serious question to be tried, not a certainty of success; irreparable injury means injury that cannot be adequately compensated in money; and balance of convenience means the comparative mischief of granting against refusing. All three must be satisfied together. Wander Ltd. v. Antox India (P) Ltd., 1990 Supp SCC 727, adds that the discretion is the trial court's and an appellate court will not reassess the material afresh, and Gujarat Bottling Co. v. Coca Cola Co., (1995) 5 SCC 545, that the relief is equitable, so conduct, delay and acquiescence all count against the applicant.
Conclusion. An injunction is preventive relief granted in the court's discretion, and the discretion is exercised on three tests together: a prima facie case, the balance of convenience, and irreparable injury not compensable in money. Failure on any one is fatal, and delay or want of candour will defeat an applicant who satisfies all three. The Code then hedges the order about: reasons must be recorded for granting it without notice, an ex parte injunction must be disposed of within thirty days, and disobedience is met by attachment and up to three months in the civil prison.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the object and the maxims; section 3 and the duty of the court; the rule that limitation bars the remedy and not the right, with section 27 and section 25(3) of the Contract Act as the two qualifications; the structure of the Act and the Schedule; the computation machinery grouped; and section 29(2) on special and local laws.
I. The object
The Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes the period within which an existing right may be enforced in a court of law. It does not create rights and it does not take them away; it limits the time within which the assistance of a court may be claimed.
Two maxims state the policy:
Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium : it is in the interest of the State that there should be an end to litigation.
Vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt : the law assists the vigilant and not those who sleep over their rights.
Four purposes follow: to prevent the trial of stale claims, where evidence has perished and memories have faded; to give quiet of title and security to long possession; to compel diligence in the pursuit of remedies; and to give certainty and finality to transactions and to judicial decisions.
The Act is described as a statute of repose, of peace and of limitation.
II. The cardinal rule: section 3
Section 3(1) is the foundation: subject to the provisions contained in sections 4 to 24 (inclusive), every suit instituted, appeal preferred, and application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence.
Three propositions follow, and each should be stated.
Limitation is a duty of the court, not merely a plea of the party. A court must dismiss a time-barred suit even if the defendant does not plead limitation, does not appear, or expressly waives it. Contrast Order VIII Rule 2, which requires every other ground of defence to be specially pleaded, and section 3 of the Code, which does not.
Section 3(2) tells you when a suit, appeal or application is "instituted", "preferred" or "made": a suit is instituted in an ordinary case when the plaint is presented to the proper officer; in the case of a pauper, when his application for leave to sue as such is made; and in the case of a claim against a company being wound up by the court, when the claimant first sends in his claim to the official liquidator.
The provisions the section is "subject to" are sections 4 to 24, which are the computation machinery, and it is only after they are applied that the "prescribed period" is known.
III. The rule that limitation bars the remedy, not the right
This is the single most examined proposition in the subject.
The general rule. The expiry of the period of limitation destroys the remedy but leaves the right alive. The debt is not paid, the obligation is not discharged, the title is not lost. What is lost is the ability to sue upon it.
Four consequences of the rule, which are the proof of it:
A time-barred debt may be recovered without suit. A creditor who lawfully obtains possession of a pledged article, or who exercises a lien, or to whom the debtor voluntarily pays, may retain the payment; the debtor cannot recover it back on the ground that the debt was time-barred.
A time-barred debt is good consideration for a fresh promise. Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 makes an agreement without consideration valid where it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits. Section 29(1) of the Limitation Act expressly preserves section 25 of the Contract Act.
A time-barred debt may be set off, in some circumstances, and may be proved in the administration of an estate in certain cases.
Limitation is procedural, so the law in force on the date of the suit applies, subject to any transitional provision, and a change in the period does not revive a claim already barred.
The two qualifications:
Section 27, extinguishment of right to property. At the determination of the period hereby limited to any person for instituting a suit for possession of any property, his right to such property shall be extinguished. Here the Act does destroy the right, and that is the foundation of adverse possession under Article 65 (twelve years) and Article 112 (thirty years where the plaintiff is the Government).
Section 25, acquisition of easements by prescription. Where the access and use of light or air to a building, or a way, watercourse or use of water or other easement, has been peaceably enjoyed as an easement and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right becomes absolute and indefeasible; and where the property belongs to the Government, the period is thirty years. Sub-section (2) requires the period of twenty years to be one ending within two years next before the institution of the suit in which the claim is contested. Here the Act creates a right rather than destroying a remedy.
IV. The structure of the Act and of the Schedule
The Act has 32 sections in five Parts and a Schedule in three Divisions:
First Division, Suits, Articles 1 to 113, arranged in ten Parts by subject matter, with Article 113 as the residuary: any suit for which no period is provided elsewhere, three years, from when the right to sue accrues.
Second Division, Appeals, Articles 114 to 117.
Third Division, Applications, Articles 118 to 137, with Article 137 as the residuary: any other application for which no period is provided elsewhere, three years, from when the right to apply accrues.
Each Article has three columns: the description of the suit, appeal or application; the period of limitation; and the time from which the period begins to run. The third column is as important as the second, and an answer that quotes a period without its starting point is incomplete.
The outer periods are worth knowing as a set: thirty years is the longest (Articles 61, 63(a), 111, 112); twelve years for possession of immovable property and for execution of a decree; three years for most contract and tort claims; and thirty days for most applications under the Code.
V. The computation machinery, grouped
| Group | Sections | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Extension | 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 | Court closed on the last day; condonation of delay for appeals and applications; legal disability, with a three year cap |
| Exclusion | 12, 13, 14, 15 | Days are taken out: the first day, time for copies, time in a wrong court, time under a stay or a statutory notice |
| Postponement | 16, 17 | The period has not begun: death before the right accrues; fraud, concealment and mistake |
| Fresh start | 18, 19, 20 | Acknowledgment in writing, and part payment, before the period expires, start it again |
| Group | Sections | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Continuing wrongs | 22 | A fresh period at every moment the breach or tort continues |
| Absolute rule | 9 | Once time begins to run, no subsequent disability stops it |
VI. Special and local laws: section 29(2)
Where a special or local law prescribes a period of limitation different from that prescribed by the Schedule, section 3 applies as if that period were the period prescribed by the Schedule, and sections 4 to 24 apply only in so far as, and to the extent to which, they are not expressly excluded by that special or local law. This is how the Act interacts with, for example, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The cases to cite. Collector, Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Mst. Katiji, (1987) 2 SCC 107, is the liberal pole: substantial justice is to be preferred to technical considerations, and refusing to condone can throw a meritorious matter out at the threshold. Basawaraj v. Special Land Acquisition Officer, (2013) 14 SCC 81, is the strict pole: sufficient cause is a condition precedent, and the court has no power to condone on equitable grounds where it is not shown. N. Balakrishnan v. M. Krishnamurthy, (1998) 7 SCC 123, reconciles them: the length of the delay is immaterial, the acceptability of the explanation is the only criterion.
Conclusion. The Limitation Act does not create or destroy rights; it fixes the time within which a court will help you enforce them, and the maxim behind it is that the law assists the vigilant. Section 3 makes that a duty of the court rather than a plea of the party. The general rule is that limitation bars the remedy and not the right, which is why a written promise to pay a time-barred debt is enforceable under section 25(3) of the Contract Act; and the two exceptions, section 27 and section 25, are the places where the Act does touch the right, by extinguishing a title and by creating an easement.
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This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 CPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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