Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject four changes make that worth saying. Section 89, on settling a suit outside the court, was replaced outright by Schedule IV to the Mediation Act, 2023. The Supreme Court, by its order of 10 January 2022, excluded 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period of limitation, which is enough to reverse the answer to a problem in this folder, and that answer works both figures so the reader can see why. Adverse possession became a sword as well as a shield in 2019, and it is set in four of these papers. The United Arab Emirates was notified a reciprocating territory under Section 44A in January 2020. One smaller change is noted where it arises: the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 put 'speed post with registration and proof of delivery' in place of 'registered post acknowledgement due' in Section 148A and in Orders V, XXI and XXXIX, from 20 December 2025, one day after the 2025-26 regular paper was sat.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in one or two sentences
any 6 · 12 Marks
Answer
Order VI Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 defines pleading to mean plaint or written statement. It is the formal written statement of a party setting out the material facts, and only the material facts, on which that party relies for its claim or its defence.
Answer
Under the proviso to Order XVII Rule 1(1), inserted by the Amendment Act of 1999 and brought into force in 2002, no adjournment shall be granted to a party more than three times during the hearing of the suit. The court may adjourn only if sufficient cause is shown, must record its reasons in writing, and under Rule 1(2) may impose costs occasioned by the adjournment.
Answer
Section 2(i) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that "plaintiff" includes (i) any person from or through whom a plaintiff derives his right to sue, and (ii) any person whose estate is represented by the plaintiff as executor, administrator or other representative. The definition is inclusive: it covers the person who actually files the suit and, in addition, every predecessor in title through whom that person claims.
Answer
A proper party is a person whose presence before the court is not indispensable to the passing of an effective decree, but whose presence enables the court to completely and effectually adjudicate upon and settle all the questions involved in the suit. Order I Rule 10(2) empowers the court to add such a party at any stage, on application or of its own motion.
Answer
Section 46 of the Code defines a precept as an order issued by the court which passed a decree, to another court which would be competent to execute it, asking that court to attach any property of the judgment-debtor lying within its jurisdiction. Its object is to prevent the judgment-debtor from disposing of that property before a formal transfer of the decree can be obtained.
Answer
Under Order IX Rule 13 the court shall set aside an ex parte decree if the defendant satisfies it either that the summons was not duly served, or that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing. The application lies to the court which passed the decree and, under Article 123 of the Limitation Act, 1963, must be made within thirty days of the decree or of the date the defendant had knowledge of it.
Answer
Section 2(j) of the Limitation Act, 1963 defines both. "Period of limitation" means the period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or application by the Schedule. "Prescribed period" means that period of limitation as computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
Answer
A caveat is a caution or warning lodged under section 148A of the Code by a person who apprehends that an application is going to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding to which he is likely to be affected, asking the court not to grant any order on that application without first giving him notice. It remains in force for ninety days from the date it is lodged.
Answer
Cause of action means the bundle of essential facts which it is necessary for the plaintiff to prove before he can succeed, that is, every fact which, if traversed, he would have to establish in order to support his right to the judgment of the court. It is not defined in the Code, but Order VII Rule 1(e) requires the plaint to state the facts constituting the cause of action and when it arose.
Answer
Reference is the power of a subordinate court, under section 113 read with Order XLVI, to state a case and refer it for the opinion of the High Court where it entertains a reasonable doubt on a question of law, and to pass its decree in conformity with that opinion. Under the proviso to section 113 the reference is mandatory where the court doubts the validity of an Act, Ordinance or Regulation and thinks it ultra vires, and no higher court has so declared.
Write short notes on
any 2 · 12 Marks
Answer
An interpleader suit is defined by section 88 and governed by Order XXXV. Where two or more persons claim adversely to one another the same debt, sum of money or other property, movable or immovable, from a person who claims no interest in it other than for charges or costs, and who is ready to deliver it to the rightful claimant, that person may institute a suit of interpleader against all the claimants, so that the court may decide who among them is entitled to it.
The essential requisites are five:
Order XXXV Rule 1 requires the plaint, besides the ordinary particulars, to state that the plaintiff claims no interest other than charges or costs, the claims made by the defendants severally, and that there is no collusion between the plaintiff and any of the defendants. Rule 2 allows the court to order the plaintiff to place the thing in dispute in the custody of the court. Rule 4 allows the court, at the first hearing, to declare that the plaintiff is discharged from all liability, award him his costs and dismiss him from the suit, leaving the claimants to fight it out. Rule 5 bars an interpleader suit by an agent against his principal or by a tenant against his landlord, for the purpose of compelling them to interplead with persons other than those claiming through the principal or landlord.
Conclusion. The interpleader suit exists to protect a person who is caught between two claimants and wants nothing for himself. Where the five requisites of section 88 are made out, the court will discharge him at the first hearing under Order XXXV Rule 4, award him his costs, and go on to decide the title between the claimants, one of whom it may make the plaintiff. The two bars in Rule 5 are the outer limit of the remedy: an agent may not put his principal to proof of title, nor a tenant his landlord.
Answer
Summons is the document issued under section 27 and Order V by which the court calls upon the defendant to appear and answer the claim. Order V Rule 1(1) requires it to be issued when a suit is duly instituted, and the defendant to appear and answer the claim and to file his written statement within thirty days from the date of service of summons on him, extendable by the court, for reasons recorded in writing, to not later than ninety days from the date of service.
The modes of service are:
1. Personal or direct service (Rules 10 to 16). The ordinary mode. The summons is delivered or tendered to the defendant in person, or to his authorised agent, and his signature is taken on the original by way of acknowledgment. Rule 15 permits service on an adult member of the family residing with him, but expressly not on a servant. Rule 17 permits affixation on the outer door of the house where the defendant or his agent refuses to sign, or cannot be found after due diligence.
2. Service by the court by post and electronic means (Rule 9). The court may direct service by speed post with registration and proof of delivery, or by an approved courier service, or by fax message or electronic mail service. The words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery" replaced "registered post acknowledgement due" throughout Order V by the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, with effect from 20 December 2025.
3. Service by the plaintiff himself, "dasti" (Rule 9A). The court may, in addition to the ordinary mode, permit the plaintiff to effect service on the defendant personally.
4. Substituted service (Rule 20). Where the court is satisfied that the defendant is keeping out of the way for the purpose of avoiding service, or that for any other reason the summons cannot be served in the ordinary way, it may order service by affixing a copy in some conspicuous place in the court house and on some conspicuous part of the house in which the defendant is known to have last resided or carried on business, or by advertisement in a daily newspaper circulating in that locality. Substituted service so ordered is as effectual as personal service.
5. Service where the defendant resides outside the jurisdiction (Rules 21 to 26). The summons may be sent to the court within whose jurisdiction he resides, or served directly by post; Rules 25 and 26 govern service in a foreign territory and through political agents.
6. Service on special classes of defendant. A prisoner through the officer in charge of the prison (Rule 24); a public officer or a servant of a railway or local authority through the head of the office (Rule 27); a soldier, sailor or airman through his commanding officer (Rule 28); a corporation on the secretary, director or principal officer, or by post to the registered office (Order XXIX Rule 2; Order V Rule 29 is a different thing, the duty of the person to whom a summons is sent under Rules 24, 27 or 28 to return it with an endorsement of service); partners under Order XXX Rule 3.
Conclusion. Every mode in Order V is a different way of proving one thing, that the defendant had a real opportunity to know of the suit, and the Order ranks them accordingly: personal service first, service on an agent or an adult family member next, then affixation, then post or electronic means, and substituted service last of all and only on the court's recorded satisfaction. That ranking matters after the decree as much as before it, because the strength of the service is exactly what an application under Order IX Rule 13 will turn on.
Answer
Adverse possession is possession of immovable property by a person who is not the owner, held openly, peaceably, continuously and as of right, hostile to the true owner and to his knowledge, for the period prescribed by the Limitation Act, 1963, at the end of which the owner's remedy is barred and his title is extinguished.
The provisions are:
Article 65 of the Schedule. A suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be brought within twelve years, and time runs from the date the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff. The burden is thus on the defendant to plead and prove when his possession became adverse.
Article 112. Where the plaintiff is the State, the period is thirty years.
Section 27, extinguishment of right to property. At the determination of the period limited to any person for instituting a suit for possession of any property, his right to such property shall be extinguished. This is the exception to the general rule that limitation bars the remedy and not the right; here it destroys the right as well.
The essentials, remembered as nec vi, nec clam, nec precario, possession not by force, not by stealth and not by permission, are:
Conclusion. Twelve years of possession that is actual, open, hostile to the owner's knowledge and uninterrupted does not merely bar his suit; by section 27 it extinguishes his title, and thirty years is required where the owner is the Government. The claim fails far more often on the quality of the possession than on its length, because permissive possession is never adverse. Since Ravinder Kaur Grewal the possessor who has completed the period holds a title he can enforce as a plaintiff, and not merely a defence.
Answer
Order XXXII Rule 15 provides that Rules 1 to 14 of Order XXXII, so far as they are applicable, shall extend to persons adjudged before or during the pendency of the suit to be of unsound mind, and shall also extend to persons who, though not so adjudged, are found by the court on enquiry to be incapable, by reason of any mental infirmity, of protecting their interests when suing or being sued. In short, the whole machinery built for minors applies to persons of unsound mind.
The scheme that Order XXXII therefore supplies is:
Suit by a person of unsound mind (Rule 1). Every suit by such a person shall be instituted in his name by his next friend. No order of appointment is needed for a next friend; he simply files the suit. Rule 3A protects the resulting decree: no decree passed against a person under disability shall be set aside merely because the next friend or guardian had an interest in the subject-matter adverse to his, unless prejudice has been caused to his interests.
Suit against a person of unsound mind (Rule 3). Where the defendant is of unsound mind, the court, on application and after notice to the person with whom he resides, shall appoint a guardian for the suit, who continues until the disability ceases or until he is removed.
Who may be next friend or guardian (Rule 4). Any person of sound mind who has attained majority, whose interest is not adverse to that of the person under disability, and who is not a defendant when he is to be a next friend, nor a plaintiff when he is to be a guardian. A person may not be appointed guardian without his consent in writing.
Rule 5. Every application to the court on behalf of such a person, other than an application under Rule 10(2), shall be made by his next friend or guardian.
Rule 6. The next friend or guardian shall not receive any money or movable property on behalf of the person under disability except with the leave of the court, and shall furnish security.
Rule 7. No agreement or compromise entered into by a next friend or guardian on behalf of such a person shall have effect without the leave of the court, expressly recorded in the proceedings. A compromise without such leave is voidable at his instance.
Rule 15's own consequence: the enquiry into unsoundness is a judicial one. The court is not confined to persons adjudged of unsound mind under the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017; it may hold its own enquiry and find a person incapable of protecting his interests.
Conclusion. Order XXXII does not take away the right of a person of unsound mind to sue or to be sued; it supplies a person to exercise it and then supervises him at the two points where the disabled person is most at risk, the receipt of money under Rule 6 and the compromise of the claim under Rule 7. Rule 15 is what brings the whole of that machinery to bear, and it does so on the court's own enquiry, without waiting for an adjudication of unsoundness elsewhere.
Answer the following with reasons
any 2 · 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: section 17(1)(b) and (d) of the Limitation Act; that time runs from discovery, 25 May 2024, and not from the concealment in 2020; the exercise of reasonable diligence; and the proviso protecting a bona fide purchaser for value without notice.
(a) When limitation commences
Limitation begins to run on 25 May 2024, the date Mr. Gala discovered the concealed document, and not in 2020 when Mr. Gupta concealed it.
The provision is section 17(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963. Where, in the case of any suit or application for which a period of limitation is prescribed by the Act,
the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud or the concealment, or could, with reasonable diligence, have discovered it; and in the case of a concealed document, until he first had the means of producing it or compelling its production.
The facts fit clause (d) exactly: a document necessary to establish Mr. Gala's right to the property was fraudulently concealed from him. They fit clause (b) as well, because what was concealed was the knowledge of the very title on which his suit is founded.
The suit would be one for possession of immovable property based on title, governed by Article 65, twelve years. Reckoned from 25 May 2024, Mr. Gala has until 25 May 2036.
(b) The effect of the provision on computation
Section 17 does not extend or condone a period that has expired. It postpones the starting point. The clock does not stop; it never starts until discovery.
Four points of substance:
The test is discovery or reasonable diligence, whichever is earlier. Mr. Gala cannot sleep on obvious signs and then plead late discovery. If the court finds that a person of ordinary prudence in his position would have discovered the concealment in, say, 2021, time runs from 2021.
The burden lies on the plaintiff. He who invokes section 17 must plead the fraud with particulars, as Order VI Rule 4 requires, and prove both the fraud and the date of discovery. A vague plea of fraud will not shift the starting point.
The fraud must be that of the defendant or his agent, or of a person through whom the defendant claims. Concealment by a stranger does not attract the section.
The proviso protects innocent third parties. Nothing in section 17 enables a suit to be brought to recover property which, in the case of fraud, has been purchased for valuable consideration by a person who was not a party to the fraud and did not at the time of purchase know, or have reason to believe, that any fraud had been committed. So if Mr. Gupta has already sold the property to a bona fide purchaser for value without notice, Mr. Gala's remedy against the property fails and he is left to a personal action against Mr. Gupta.
Conclusion. Limitation begins to run against Mr. Gala on 25 May 2024, the day he discovered the concealed document, and not in 2020 when it was concealed, so a suit for possession under Article 65 is in time until 25 May 2036. He must plead the fraud with particulars and prove the date of discovery, and he will lose the property, though not his personal remedy against Mr. Gupta, if it has by then passed to a purchaser for value who had no notice of the fraud.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that a defamation suit is a suit for compensation for a wrong to the person and is therefore governed by section 19 read with section 20; that Mr. Chetan may sue at Delhi, Bangalore or Calcutta; the illustration to section 19, which is this problem; and that in defamation the wrong is done where the matter is published, not where it is spoken or written.
(a) The cities
Mr. Chetan may file the suit in any one of three cities: Delhi, Bangalore or Calcutta. He has the choice; the defendant does not.
(b) The justification
Section 19 of the Code provides that where a suit is for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable property, and the wrong was done within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, within the local limits of the jurisdiction of another court, the suit may be instituted at the option of the plaintiff in either of the said courts.
Applying it:
Delhi, because that is where the defendant resides. Section 19 gives the plaintiff the court of the defendant's residence as one of his two options, and section 20(a) says the same thing independently.
Bangalore, because that is where part of the wrong was done: the interview was given there and the matter was published there.
Calcutta, because the matter was also published there, and in the law of defamation every publication is a fresh wrong. Publication is the gist of the tort; the same words published in two cities give rise to a cause of action in each. Section 20(c) supports this independently, since a part of the cause of action arose at Calcutta.
Section 19 carries an illustration that is this problem almost word for word:
A, residing in Delhi, beats B in Calcutta. B may sue A either in Calcutta or in Delhi.
Substitute defamation for battery and the answer follows. The second illustration, where A residing in Delhi publishes in Calcutta statements defamatory of B, is closer still and gives B the same choice.
Conclusion. Mr. Chetan may sue at Delhi, Bangalore or Calcutta, and the choice is his alone. Delhi because Mr. Arun resides there, Bangalore because the interview was given and published there, and Calcutta because the matter was published there as well and in defamation every publication is a fresh wrong. He must sue within one year of publication under Article 75, and in a court competent in value, and Mr. Arun must object to the place of suing at or before the settlement of issues or lose the point.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the answer is no, the second suit is barred; Order II Rule 1 and Rule 2(1), (2) and (3); the illustration to Order II Rule 2, which is this problem; the distinction between omitting a portion of a claim, governed by Rule 2(2) with no leave exception, and omitting a relief, governed by Rule 2(3) where leave is available.
(a) Can he file a fresh suit?
No. Mr. Vinod cannot sue for the arrears of 2022 and 2023 after the suit for 2024 has been decreed. He omitted a portion of his claim, and by Order II Rule 2(2) he shall not afterwards sue for the portion so omitted. Note that Rule 2(2) carries no leave exception: leave of the court appears only in Rule 2(3), which governs omitted reliefs, not an omitted portion of a claim.
(b) Why Order II Rule 2 bars it
Order II Rule 1 states the principle: every suit shall as far as practicable be framed so as to afford ground for a final decision upon the subjects in dispute and to prevent further litigation concerning them.
Order II Rule 2 then enforces it in three sub-rules:
Rule 2(1). Every suit shall include the whole of the claim which the plaintiff is entitled to make in respect of the cause of action; but he may relinquish any portion of his claim in order to bring the suit within the jurisdiction of any court.
Rule 2(2). Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes, any portion of his claim, he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished.
Rule 2(3). A person entitled to more than one relief in respect of the same cause of action may sue for all or any of them; but if he omits, except with the leave of the court, to sue for all such reliefs, he shall not afterwards sue for any relief so omitted.
The Order carries an illustration that is this problem exactly:
A lets a house to B at a yearly rent of Rs. 1,200. The rent for the whole of the years 1905, 1906 and 1907 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 1908 only for the rent due for 1906. A shall not afterwards sue B for the rent due for 1905 or 1907.
Change the years and the figure and the case is decided.
The reason the rule applies is that the arrears arise from one cause of action, the single tenancy and the obligation to pay rent under it. They are not three causes of action but one claim in three parts. The rule bites on a portion of a claim omitted from a suit on one cause of action; it does not compel a plaintiff to join distinct causes of action.
How Mr. Vinod could have saved himself. Three ways, all closed to him now:
Conclusion. No. The arrears for 2022, 2023 and 2024 are one claim on one cause of action, and by omitting part of it without the leave of the court Mr. Vinod is barred by Order II Rule 2(2) from suing for the rest. He should have sued for all three years together, or obtained leave before he filed. The bar is a rule of procedure and it would apply even if the earlier arrears were within time, which under Article 52 they largely are not.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the Bangalore suit is not to be tried and will be stayed, not dismissed; section 10 and the difference between stay and dismissal; the five conditions; and section 151, under which the Bangalore court could consolidate or the Mumbai court could restrain.
(a) Is the Bangalore suit maintainable?
The Bangalore suit is not to be proceeded with. It will be stayed under section 10 of the Code.
State the distinction precisely, because the marks are in it. Section 10 does not bar the institution of the second suit and does not make it void. It bars the trial: "No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties." The plaint at Bangalore is validly presented and validly registered; what the Bangalore court must do is stay its hand until the Mumbai suit is decided.
Mrs. Jyoti's application should therefore be for a stay of the Bangalore suit, not for its dismissal or for rejection of the plaint.
(b) The conditions for res sub judice
Five, all of which must be satisfied:
Applied to the facts, all five are satisfied and the Bangalore suit must be stayed.
Conclusion. The Bangalore suit is not maintainable in the sense that it cannot be tried, and the order the court will make is a stay under section 10, not a dismissal and not a rejection of the plaint. All five conditions are satisfied here, and the fact that Mr. Prasanna is the plaintiff at Bangalore and the defendant at Mumbai makes no difference. The cleaner course, since each party has a claim on the same facts, is a transfer under section 25 and a single consolidated trial.
Answer the following in detail
any 2 · 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: Order VII Rules 14 to 18 and Order VIII Rules 1A to 1C for production with the pleadings; Order XIII Rules 1 to 11 for production at the hearing, admission, endorsement, impounding, return and rejection; section 151 and the Evidence Act's insufficiently-stamped document rule; and the consequence in Order VII Rule 14(3) that a document not produced with the plaint shall not be received in evidence without leave.
Documents pass through a civil suit in three stages, and the Code deals with each separately: production, admission and impounding, and return.
I. Production with the pleadings
Order VII Rule 14 governs the plaintiff. Where he sues upon a document, or relies on a document in his possession or power as evidence in support of his claim, he shall enter it in a list and produce it in court when the plaint is presented, and shall at the same time deliver the document and a copy to be filed with the plaint. Rule 14(2) covers a document not in his possession or power: he shall state, wherever possible, in whose possession or power it is, and file a copy.
Rule 14(3) is the sanction and the most examinable line in the group: a document which ought to be produced in court by the plaintiff when the plaint is presented, and which is not so produced, shall not, without the leave of the court, be received in evidence on his behalf at the hearing of the suit.
Rule 17 allows the court to receive documents at a later stage on good cause shown.
Rule 18 was omitted by the Amendment Act of 1999 with effect from 1 July 2002; do not cite it.
Order VIII Rules 1A to 1C put the defendant under the same discipline. Rule 1A(1): where the defendant bases his defence upon a document, or relies on it, he shall enter it in a list and produce it with the written statement. Rule 1A(3): a document not so produced shall not be received in evidence on his behalf without the leave of the court. Rule 1A(4) saves three cases from the bar: a document produced for cross-examination of the plaintiff's witnesses, a document handed to a witness merely to refresh his memory, and a document produced in reply to the plaintiff's case.
II. Production at the hearing: Order XIII
Rule 1. The parties shall produce, at or before the settlement of issues, all the documentary evidence in original where the copies have been filed with the pleadings. Sub-rule (3) exempts documents produced for cross-examination or to refresh a witness's memory.
Rule 3. The court may at any stage reject any document which it considers irrelevant or otherwise inadmissible, recording its reasons.
Rule 4, endorsement on documents admitted in evidence. Every document admitted in evidence shall have endorsed on it, in the handwriting of the Judge or under his direction, the number and title of the suit, the name of the person producing it, the date on which it was produced, and a statement of its having been so admitted; and the endorsement shall be signed or initialled by the Judge. This endorsement is what makes an exhibit an exhibit.
Rule 5 deals with endorsement on entries in books, accounts and records, and Rule 6 with the recording of a document rejected as inadmissible, with the ground of rejection.
III. Impounding: Order XIII Rule 8
The court may, if it sees sufficient cause, direct any document or book produced before it in any suit to be impounded and kept in the custody of an officer of the court, for such period and subject to such conditions as it thinks fit.
The commonest occasion for impounding is an insufficiently stamped instrument. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, an instrument not duly stamped is inadmissible in evidence, and section 33 of that Act obliges the court to impound it; it may be admitted on payment of the duty and the penalty under section 35. A document suspected of being forged or fabricated may also be impounded so that it is available for prosecution.
IV. Return of documents: Order XIII Rules 7, 9, 10 and 11
Rule 7. Documents admitted in evidence form part of the record and are placed with it; documents rejected as inadmissible are returned to the person producing them.
Rule 9, return of admitted documents. Any person, whether a party or not, desirous of receiving back a document produced by him and placed on the record shall, after the suit has been disposed of, be entitled to receive it back, provided that where the document is one upon which a suit has been founded, or which has been used as evidence of the truth of its contents, it shall not be delivered until the time for appeal has elapsed, or until the appeal has been disposed of. A copy is substituted on the record, and a receipt is taken.
Rule 10, court may send for records of its own or another court. The court may of its own motion, or on the application of a party, send for the record of any other suit or proceeding and inspect it, subject to the objections of the court whose record is called for.
Rule 11. The provisions on documents apply, so far as may be, to material objects produced in evidence.
The cases to cite. Avinash Kumar Chauhan v. Vijay Krishna Mishra, (2009) 2 SCC 532, is the case on impounding: where a document is insufficiently stamped, the court is bound to impound it under section 33 of the Indian Stamp Act and cannot admit it in evidence until the duty and penalty are paid, and the objection may be taken at any stage. Bipin Shantilal Panchal v. State of Gujarat, (2001) 3 SCC 1, is the procedural counterpart: objections to the admissibility of a document should ordinarily be marked and deferred to the judgment stage rather than tried as they arise, so that the trial is not derailed.
Conclusion. The three stages answer three different needs: production fixes each side's documentary case before the trial begins, admission and endorsement decide what the court may act on, and return restores to the owner what the record no longer needs. The sanction that makes the scheme work is a single sentence, in Order VII Rule 14(3) and Order VIII Rule 1A(3): a document that ought to have been produced and was not is not received in evidence without the leave of the court.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the three maxims; section 11 quoted in substance; the six conditions; all eight Explanations, with I, IV, VI and VIII named; constructive res judicata; res judicata between co-defendants; and the four situations in which it does not apply.
Res judicata means "a matter already adjudged". The doctrine bars the re-trial of an issue which has been heard and finally decided by a competent court in a former suit between the same parties. It is enacted in section 11 of the Code, but it is wider than the section and applies to writ petitions, execution proceedings and other proceedings as a matter of public policy.
The three maxims on which it rests:
The first protects the individual; the second and third protect the State and the finality of judgments.
Section 11 in substance
No court shall try any suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, in a court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised, and has been heard and finally decided by such court.
The six conditions
The eight Explanations
Explanation I. "Former suit" means a suit which has been decided prior to the suit in question, whether or not it was instituted prior to it. Order of decision, not order of filing.
Explanation II. The competence of the court is to be determined irrespective of any provision as to a right of appeal from the decision of that court.
Explanation III. The matter must have been alleged by one party and either denied or admitted, expressly or impliedly, by the other.
Explanation IV, constructive res judicata. Any matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit shall be deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in that suit. This is the most important of the eight and is dealt with separately below.
Explanation V. Any relief claimed in the plaint which is not expressly granted by the decree shall, for the purposes of the section, be deemed to have been refused.
Explanation VI, representative suits. Where persons litigate bona fide in respect of a public right or a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, all persons interested in that right shall, for the purposes of this section, be deemed to claim under the persons so litigating.
Explanation VII. The section applies to proceedings for the execution of a decree, and references to suits, issues and decisions are to be construed as references to execution proceedings, questions arising in them, and their determination.
Explanation VIII. An issue heard and finally decided by a court of limited jurisdiction competent to decide that issue shall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit, notwithstanding that that court of limited jurisdiction was not competent to try the subsequent suit. This was added in 1976 and it reverses the earlier position on decisions of courts of limited jurisdiction, for example small cause courts on questions of title.
Constructive res judicata
Explanation IV extends the bar from what was decided to what should have been raised. A defendant who had a defence available and did not plead it cannot raise it in a later suit; a plaintiff who had a ground of attack and did not take it cannot take it later.
The leading illustration is State of Uttar Pradesh v. Nawab Hussain (AIR 1977 SC 1680). A sub-inspector dismissed from service challenged his dismissal by writ petition on one ground, failed, and then filed a suit raising a different ground, that he had been dismissed by an officer subordinate to the appointing authority. The Supreme Court held the suit barred by constructive res judicata: the ground was available and ought to have been taken in the writ petition.
Res judicata between co-defendants
An adjudication operates as res judicata between co-defendants if four conditions are satisfied: there was a conflict of interest between them; it was necessary to decide that conflict in order to give the plaintiff the relief he claimed; the question was finally decided; and the co-defendants were necessary or proper parties in the former suit.
Where res judicata does not apply
A decision on a pure question of law does not operate as res judicata in a suit on a different cause of action, and a decision on a question of law that is later held erroneous by a superior court does not bind.
A judgment obtained by fraud or collusion is a nullity and no bar. Fraud vitiates the most solemn proceeding.
A decision by a court without jurisdiction cannot found the plea, subject to Explanation VIII for courts of limited jurisdiction.
A dismissal in default, a withdrawal, or a compromise decree is not a decision on merits and does not operate as res judicata, though a compromise decree may found an estoppel by agreement. Similarly a dismissal in limine of a writ petition without reasons.
Conclusion. Res judicata is the price the law charges for finality, and it is charged in the public interest as much as in the successful party's. It bars not only what was decided but, through Explanation IV, what ought to have been raised, and by Explanation VIII it reaches the decisions of courts of limited jurisdiction. Its limits are as important as its reach: it does not apply to a decision obtained by fraud, to one given without jurisdiction, or to a dismissal that was never on the merits.
Answer
For full marks, cover: sections 6, 7, 8 and 9 and how the four fit together; that section 8 is a proviso to sections 6 and 7 and not an independent rule; the three recognised disabilities; that the disability must exist at the time the cause of action accrues; and the illustrations to section 6.
The principle
The Limitation Act requires a person to sue within a fixed time or lose his remedy. That is unjust if he is legally incapable of suing at all. Sections 6 to 9 deal with the position of a person who is under a disability, and they do so by extending the time, not by stopping the clock in the ordinary sense.
Section 6, legal disability
Where a person entitled to institute a suit or make an application for the execution of a decree is, at the time from which the period of limitation is to be reckoned, a minor, or insane, or an idiot, he may institute the suit or make the application within the same period after the disability has ceased, as would otherwise have been allowed from the time prescribed in the third column of the Schedule.
Sub-section (2): where such a person is, at the time the cause accrues, affected by two such disabilities, or where before his disability has ceased he is affected by another disability, he may sue within the same period after both disabilities have ceased.
Sub-section (3): where the disability continues up to the death of that person, his legal representative may sue within the same period after the death.
Sub-section (4): where the legal representative is himself under a disability at the death, sub-sections (1) and (2) apply to him.
Sub-section (5): where a person under disability dies after the disability ceases but within the extended period, his legal representative gets what remains of that period.
The illustrations to section 6 are printed in the bare Act and should be reproduced:
(a) The right to sue for the hire of a boat accrues to A during his minority. He attains majority four years after such accruing. He may institute his suit at any time within three years from the date of his attaining majority.
(b) A right to sue accrues to Z during his minority. After the accrual, but while Z is still a minor, he becomes insane. Time runs against Z from the date when his insanity and minority cease.
(c) A right to sue accrues to X during his minority. X dies before attaining majority and is succeeded by Y, his minor son. Time runs against Y from the date of his attaining majority.
Section 7, disability of one of several persons
Where one of several persons jointly entitled to institute a suit or make an application is under a disability, and a discharge can be given without the concurrence of that person, time runs against them all; but where no such discharge can be given, time will not run against any of them until one of them becomes capable of giving a discharge without the concurrence of the others, or until the disability ceases.
The two Explanations decide the practical case. Explanation I: this section applies to a manager of a Hindu undivided family governed by the Mitakshara law, so that where the manager can give a discharge without the concurrence of the minor coparceners, time runs against them all. Explanation II: where a guardian has been appointed to the property of a minor, and that guardian can give a discharge without the court's concurrence, time runs against the minor.
Section 8, special exception
Nothing in sections 6 or 7 applies to suits to enforce rights of pre-emption, or shall be deemed to extend, for more than three years from the cessation of the disability or the death of the person affected, the period within which any suit must be instituted or application made.
This is the section students most often get wrong. Section 8 is not a separate rule of disability; it is a ceiling on sections 6 and 7. A minor entitled to file a suit for possession under Article 65, twelve years, does not get twelve years after majority; he gets whichever is shorter, the balance of the twelve years or three years from attaining majority, and never more than three from the cessation of the disability. Where the ordinary period is short, section 6 gives him the full ordinary period after majority; where it is long, section 8 caps him at three years.
Section 9, continuous running of time
Where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it. The proviso saves one case: where letters of administration to the estate of a creditor have been granted to his debtor, the running of the period for a suit to recover the debt shall be suspended while the administration continues.
The rule is absolute. If the cause of action accrued while the plaintiff was of full age and sound mind, and he afterwards becomes insane, time keeps running. The disability must exist at the moment the cause of action accrues or it is worth nothing.
The cases to cite. Darshan Singh v. Gurdev Singh, (1994) 6 SCC 585, is the authority on how sections 6 and 8 work together: section 6 is an enabling provision that does not by itself extend the period, and section 8 is the controlling one, so that the outer limit is three years from the cessation of the disability and never more. Take care not to confuse it with Darshan Singh v. Gujjar Singh, (2002) 2 SCC 62, which is an adverse possession case between co-sharers.
Conclusion. The four sections work as one scheme and are misread when they are read apart. Section 6 extends the time for a person who is a minor, insane or an idiot at the moment the cause of action accrues; section 7 decides whether that extension is available where several are jointly entitled; section 8 caps whatever they give at three years from the cessation of the disability; and section 9 makes any disability arising afterwards worth nothing at all. A guardian or next friend may always sue at once under Order XXXII, and where he does, the ordinary period applies.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning of execution and section 51 with its five clauses and the proviso; the courts by which a decree may be executed under sections 38 and 39; each mode in turn with its Order XXI rules; sections 55 to 59 on arrest and detention; sections 60 to 64 on attachment with the section 60 proviso list; and Order XXI Rules 64 to 73 on sale.
Meaning
Execution is the enforcement of a decree by the judicial process, by which the decree-holder compels the judgment-debtor to obey the decree and obtains the fruits of his litigation. The term is not defined in the Code. Sections 36 to 74 and Order XXI, the longest Order in the Code with 106 rules, contain the law.
Which court executes: sections 38 and 39
By section 38, a decree may be executed either by the court which passed it or by the court to which it is sent for execution. By section 39, the court which passed the decree may, on the application of the decree-holder, transfer it for execution to another competent court where the judgment-debtor resides or carries on business, or where his property is situated, or for any other sufficient reason recorded in writing. Section 39(4), added by the Amendment Act of 2002, provides that the court which passed the decree cannot execute it against a person or property outside its own jurisdiction. Section 46 allows a precept, an interim attachment by another court for two months, pending transfer.
Section 51, powers of the court to enforce execution
Subject to such conditions and limitations as may be prescribed, the court may, on the application of the decree-holder, order execution of the decree:
(a) by delivery of any property specifically decreed;
(b) by attachment and sale, or by sale without attachment, of any property;
(c) by arrest and detention in prison for such period not exceeding the period specified in section 58, where arrest and detention is permissible under that section;
(d) by appointing a receiver; or
(e) in such other manner as the nature of the relief granted may require.
The proviso to section 51 is essential. Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be committed to prison, the court, for reasons recorded in writing, is satisfied that the judgment-debtor, with the object or effect of obstructing or delaying execution, is likely to abscond or leave the local limits, or has after the institution of the suit dishonestly transferred, concealed or removed any part of his property, or has committed any other act of bad faith in relation to his property; or that he has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay the amount and refuses or neglects to pay; or that the decree is for a sum for which he was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account.
The modes in detail
1. Delivery of property (section 51(a); Order XXI Rules 35, 36 and 79 to 81). Where the decree is for specific movable property, Rule 31 provides for execution by seizure and delivery, or by detention, or by attachment of property. Where it is for immovable property, Rule 35 provides for delivery of possession, by removing any person bound by the decree who refuses to vacate, if necessary by breaking open a lock with the help of a police officer. Rule 36 provides for symbolic possession where the property is in the occupancy of a tenant not bound to vacate.
2. Attachment and sale of property (section 51(b); sections 60 to 64; Order XXI Rules 41 to 57 and 64 to 73).
Section 60(1) makes liable to attachment and sale all saleable property, movable or immovable, belonging to the judgment-debtor or over which he has a disposing power which he may exercise for his own benefit.
The proviso to section 60(1) exempts, among others: the necessary wearing apparel, cooking vessels, beds and bedding of the judgment-debtor, his wife and children, and such personal ornaments as, in accordance with religious usage, cannot be parted with by any woman; tools of artisans and, where the judgment-debtor is an agriculturist, his implements of husbandry, cattle and seed-grain; houses and other buildings belonging to an agriculturist, a labourer or a domestic servant and occupied by him; books of account; a mere right to sue for damages; any right of personal service; stipends and gratuities allowed to pensioners of the Government; wages of labourers and domestic servants; salary to the extent of the first one thousand rupees and two-thirds of the remainder in execution of any decree other than a decree for maintenance, the figure of one thousand rupees having been substituted for the earlier four hundred by the Amendment Act of 1999; and an expectancy of succession by survivorship or other merely contingent or possible right or interest.
Section 64 makes a private transfer or delivery of attached property void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment, which is the reason attachment is worth obtaining early. Sub-section (2), added in 2002, saves a transfer made in pursuance of a contract entered into and registered before the attachment.
Order XXI Rule 54 governs attachment of immovable property, by an order prohibiting the judgment-debtor from transferring or charging it, proclaimed and affixed on the property and in the court house. Rules 43 to 53 govern attachment of movables, of negotiable instruments, of property in the custody of a court, of a decree, and of a share in movables.
Sale is governed by Rules 64 to 73. Rule 64 empowers the court to order the sale of attached property. Rule 66 requires a proclamation of sale stating the time and place, the property, the revenue assessed, any encumbrance, and the amount to be recovered. Rule 68 prescribes the interval: no sale without the judgment-debtor's consent shall take place until fifteen days have elapsed for immovable property, or seven days for movable property, from the date of the proclamation. Rule 72 bars the decree-holder from bidding without the express permission of the court. Rules 89, 90 and 91 allow the sale to be set aside on deposit, for material irregularity or fraud, and on the ground that the judgment-debtor had no saleable interest.
3. Arrest and detention in civil prison (section 51(c); sections 55 to 59; Order XXI Rules 30, 37 to 40).
Section 55 governs the manner of arrest: no dwelling house shall be entered after sunset or before sunrise, no outer door broken open unless the dwelling house is in the occupancy of the judgment-debtor and he refuses access, and where the room is occupied by a woman who by custom does not appear in public, reasonable time and facility must be given to her to withdraw.
Section 56 is absolute: the court shall not order the arrest or detention in civil prison of a woman in execution of a decree for the payment of money.
Section 58 fixes the period of detention: where the decree is for the payment of a sum exceeding five thousand rupees, up to three months; where it exceeds two thousand but does not exceed five thousand rupees, up to six weeks; and no order of detention shall be made where the decretal amount does not exceed two thousand rupees. Sub-section (2) preserves the debt: release does not discharge the judgment-debtor from his liability.
Section 59 requires release on the ground of illness.
Order XXI Rule 37 requires the court, instead of issuing a warrant at once, ordinarily to issue a notice to show cause why he should not be committed to prison.
The constitutional overlay: in Jolly George Verghese v. Bank of Cochin (AIR 1980 SC 470) the Supreme Court read section 51 with Article 11 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and Article 21, and held that mere inability to pay is not a ground for imprisonment; there must be an element of bad faith beyond mere indifference to pay, some element of deliberate refusal despite the means.
4. Appointment of a receiver (section 51(d); Order XL). Equitable execution. The court appoints a receiver over the judgment-debtor's property, who realises the income and applies it towards the decree. It is resorted to where attachment and sale would be inadequate or wasteful, for example where the property is an income-yielding business.
5. Any other manner the relief requires (section 51(e)). The residuary clause. It covers partition of an estate under section 54 by the Collector where the decree is for partition of an undivided estate assessed to land revenue; execution of a decree for specific performance by the court executing the conveyance under Order XXI Rule 34 if the judgment-debtor does not; execution of a decree for an injunction or specific performance by detention or attachment under Order XXI Rule 32; and execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights under Rule 32, which may be enforced by attachment of property but not by detention.
Conclusion. Section 51 gives the decree-holder five modes and the choice among them is his to ask for, but the court's to allow, and he may pursue the person and the property of the judgment-debtor at the same time. Attachment and sale is the ordinary route and the section 60 exemptions are its real boundary. Detention is the last resort, hedged by the proviso to section 51, by section 56 in the case of a woman and by the periods in section 58, and after Jolly George Verghese it is not available against a man who simply cannot pay.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 CPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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