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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 CPC 2024-25 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

CPC

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9

2024-25 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject four changes make that worth saying. Section 89, on settling a suit outside the court, was replaced outright by Schedule IV to the Mediation Act, 2023. The Supreme Court, by its order of 10 January 2022, excluded 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period of limitation, which is enough to reverse the answer to a problem in this folder, and that answer works both figures so the reader can see why. Adverse possession became a sword as well as a shield in 2019, and it is set in four of these papers. The United Arab Emirates was notified a reciprocating territory under Section 44A in January 2020. One smaller change is noted where it arises: the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 put 'speed post with registration and proof of delivery' in place of 'registered post acknowledgement due' in Section 148A and in Orders V, XXI and XXXIX, from 20 December 2025, one day after the 2025-26 regular paper was sat.

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MarksPage

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: All questions are compulsory. Cite relevant case laws wherever necessary. Figures to the right indicate full marks.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Answer in one or two sentences

any SIX · 12 Marks

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(1)What is the object of the Limitation Act, 1963?[2]

Answer

The object of the Limitation Act, 1963 is to prescribe the period within which an existing right may be enforced in a court, so that stale claims are not agitated and litigation is brought to an end within a reasonable time. It rests on two maxims: interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium, it is in the interest of the State that there be an end to litigation, and vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt, the law assists the vigilant and not those who sleep over their rights.

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(2)Define the term 'Decree'.[2]

Answer

Section 2(2) defines "decree" as the formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit, and it may be either preliminary or final. It is deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question within section 144, but does not include any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order, or any order of dismissal for default.

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(3)Define the word 'Suit'.[2]

Answer

The Code does not define "suit". It is understood as a civil proceeding instituted by the presentation of a plaint, in which a plaintiff seeks the enforcement of a civil right against a defendant. Section 26 provides that every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a plaint or in such other manner as may be prescribed, and section 9 gives the courts jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.

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(4)What is the principle of res-sub judice?[2]

Answer

Res sub judice means "a matter under judicial consideration". Section 10 enacts it: no court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or before the Supreme Court.

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(5)Explain 'set-off'.[2]

Answer

Set-off is the reciprocal acquittal of debts between the plaintiff and the defendant: a claim by the defendant which is set up as a defence against the plaintiff's claim in the same suit, so that the two are adjusted. Order VIII Rule 6 allows a defendant, in a suit for the recovery of money, to claim at the first hearing a set-off of any ascertained sum of money legally recoverable by him from the plaintiff, not exceeding the pecuniary limits of the jurisdiction of the court, where both parties fill the same character as they fill in the plaintiff's suit.

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(6)What is meant by cause of action?[2]

Answer

Cause of action means the bundle of essential facts which the plaintiff must prove in order to succeed, that is, every fact which, if traversed, he would have to establish in order to support his right to the judgment of the court. The Code does not define it, but Order VII Rule 1(e) requires the plaint to state the facts constituting the cause of action and when it arose.

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(7)What is the significance of the 'exhibit' in the context of documentary evidence as per the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?[2]

Answer

An exhibit is a document which has been formally admitted in evidence and marked as such by the court. Its significance is that only an exhibited document forms part of the evidence on which the court may act. Order XIII Rule 4 provides that every document admitted in evidence shall have endorsed on it, in the handwriting of the Judge or under his direction, the number and title of the suit, the name of the person producing it, the date on which it was produced, and a statement of its having been so admitted, and that the endorsement shall be signed or initialled by the Judge.

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(8)Who may lodge a 'Caveat'?[2]

Answer

Section 148A(1) provides that where an application is expected to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted or about to be instituted in a court, any person claiming a right to appear before the court on the hearing of such application may lodge a caveat. He need not already be a party to the suit or proceeding.

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(9)How can res judicata be waived under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?[2]

Answer

Res judicata is a plea for the benefit of a party, and it is waived if it is not taken. Order VIII Rule 2 requires the defendant to raise by his pleading all matters which show the suit not to be maintainable, and a plea of res judicata not so raised, and not raised at the earliest opportunity, is treated as abandoned. Because the bar operates for the benefit of the party in whose favour the earlier decision went, that party may forgo it, expressly or by conduct.

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(10)Who may apply for restitution?[2]

Answer

Section 144(1) provides that where and in so far as a decree or an order is varied or reversed in any appeal, revision or other proceeding, or is set aside or modified in any suit instituted for the purpose, the court which passed the decree or order shall, on the application of any party entitled to any benefit by way of restitution or otherwise, cause such restitution to be made as will, so far as may be, place the parties in the position which they would have occupied but for such decree or order.

So the applicant is any party entitled to a benefit by way of restitution, that is, the party against whom the decree was executed and who has lost something under it, and his legal representatives and transferees.

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Q.2

Write short notes on

any TWO · 12 Marks

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(1)Expiry Period of Limitation when Court is closed[6]

Answer

Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides:

Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day when the court re-opens.

Explanation. A court shall be deemed to be closed on any day within the meaning of this section if during any part of its normal working hours it remains closed on that day.

The principle is the maxim lex non cogit ad impossibilia, the law does not compel a man to do that which he cannot do. A litigant who has the whole prescribed period cannot be penalised for failing to file on a day when no court was open to receive his papers.

Five points of substance:

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1. It applies to a suit as well as to an appeal or an application. That is what distinguishes section 4 from section 5, which permits condonation of delay only for appeals and applications, and expressly not for suits nor for applications under Order XXI of the Code. Section 4 is one of the few provisions in the Act that can save a plaintiff whose suit falls due on the last day.

2. It operates on the prescribed period, not on the period of limitation. By section 2(j) the prescribed period is the Schedule period as computed under the Act, so all the exclusions and extensions are applied first, and section 4 then asks whether the resulting last day is a closed day.

3. It extends the time for doing the act, not the period of limitation itself. The period remains what the Schedule prescribes; the section only allows the filing to be made on the reopening day. Where some other consequence turns on the date of expiry rather than on the date of filing, that consequence is unaffected.

4. The Explanation covers partial closure. A court that sits for part of its normal working hours and then rises, for a bandh, a strike, a condolence reference or a local holiday, is closed for the whole day for the purposes of the section.

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5. It does not help where the period expired earlier. If limitation ran out on a Saturday and the court was closed on the following Monday, section 4 gives nothing: the expiry itself must fall on a closed day.

Conclusion. Section 4 of the Limitation Act answers a narrow question completely: where the prescribed period expires on a day the court is closed, the proceeding may be brought on the day it reopens, and by the Explanation a court closed for any part of its working hours is closed for the whole day. Two limits define it. It does not help where the period expired earlier, because the expiry itself must fall on a closed day. And it applies to a suit, which section 5 does not, which is why it matters more than its length suggests.

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(2)Notice under Section 80 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908[6]

Answer

Section 80(1) provides that, save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), no suit shall be instituted against the Government, including the Government of a State, or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done by such public officer in his official capacity, until the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered to, or left at the office of, the officer named in the section, and the plaint shall contain a statement that such a notice has been so delivered or left.

Who the notice must be served on:

Suit againstNotice to
The Central Government, except where it relates to a railwayA Secretary to that Government
The Central Government where it relates to a railwayThe General Manager of that railway
The Government of the State of Jammu and KashmirThe Chief Secretary to that Government, or any other officer authorised in that behalf
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Suit againstNotice to
Any other State GovernmentA Secretary to that Government or the Collector of the district
A public officerThat public officer

What the notice must state. The name, description and place of residence of the plaintiff, the cause of action, and the relief which he claims.

Section 80(2), the exception for urgent relief. A suit to obtain an urgent or immediate relief against the Government or a public officer may be instituted, with the leave of the court, without serving the notice; but the court shall not grant relief in the suit, whether interim or otherwise, except after giving the Government or the public officer a reasonable opportunity of showing cause. The proviso: if, after hearing the parties, the court is satisfied that no urgent or immediate relief need be granted, it shall return the plaint for presentation after complying with sub-section (1).

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Section 80(3), the bar on technical objections. No suit instituted against the Government or against a public officer shall be dismissed merely by reason of any error or defect in the notice, if in such notice the name, description and residence of the plaintiff have been so given as to enable the appropriate authority or the public officer to identify the person serving the notice, and such notice had been delivered or left at the proper office, and the cause of action and the relief claimed have been substantially indicated. This sub-section was inserted in 1976.

Conclusion. Section 80 is mandatory and its object is practical rather than formal: the Government is given two months to reconsider before it is sued. A plaint that neither pleads the notice nor carries leave under sub-section (2) is liable to be rejected under Order VII Rule 11(d). What softens the rule is sub-section (3), under which a defect in the notice does not defeat the suit if the plaintiff was identifiable and the cause of action and the relief were substantially indicated, and section 15(2) of the Limitation Act, which gives the two months back.

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(3)Foreign Award[6]

Answer

A foreign award is an arbitral award made outside India in a commercial dispute, which is recognised and enforced in India under Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The Code of Civil Procedure is engaged because, once such an award is held enforceable, it is deemed to be a decree of the court and is executed under Order XXI.

The two Chapters of Part II:

Chapter I, the New York Convention awards, sections 44 to 52. Section 44 defines a foreign award as an arbitral award on differences between persons arising out of legal relationships, whether contractual or not, considered as commercial under the law in force in India, made on or after 11 October 1960, (a) in pursuance of an agreement in writing for arbitration to which the New York Convention applies, and (b) in one of such territories as the Central Government, being satisfied that reciprocal provisions have been made, may by notification declare to be territories to which the Convention applies.

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Chapter II, the Geneva Convention awards, sections 53 to 60, does the same for awards under the Geneva Protocol of 1923 and the Geneva Convention of 1927, and applies only where the New York Convention does not.

The essentials of a foreign award under section 44 are therefore four: the award must arise out of a commercial legal relationship; it must be made in pursuance of a written arbitration agreement; the New York Convention must apply to that agreement; and the award must be made in a notified reciprocating territory.

Enforcement: sections 47 to 49.

Section 47 requires the party applying for enforcement to produce, at the time of the application, (a) the original award or a duly authenticated copy; (b) the original arbitration agreement or a duly certified copy; and (c) such evidence as may be necessary to prove that the award is a foreign award. Where the award or agreement is in a foreign language, a certified translation must be produced.

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Section 48, conditions for enforcement. Enforcement may be refused only on the grounds there set out, at the request of the party against whom it is invoked, on proof that: the parties were under some incapacity, or the agreement is not valid under the law to which the parties have subjected it; the party was not given proper notice of the appointment of the arbitrator or of the proceedings, or was otherwise unable to present his case; the award deals with a difference not contemplated by or not falling within the terms of the submission, or contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the submission; the composition of the arbitral authority or the arbitral procedure was not in accordance with the agreement or with the law of the country where the arbitration took place; or the award has not yet become binding, or has been set aside or suspended by a competent authority of the country in which it was made. Enforcement may also be refused if the court finds that the subject-matter is not capable of settlement by arbitration under Indian law, or that enforcement would be contrary to the public policy of India.

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Explanation 1 to section 48(2), as substituted in 2015, confines public policy to three cases: the award was induced or affected by fraud or corruption; it is in contravention with the fundamental policy of Indian law; or it is in conflict with the most basic notions of morality or justice. Explanation 2 makes clear that the test of a contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law shall not entail a review on the merits of the dispute.

Section 49, the link with the Code. Where the Court is satisfied that the foreign award is enforceable under this Chapter, the award shall be deemed to be a decree of that Court. From that moment it is executed exactly as an Indian decree: application under Order XXI Rule 11, and the modes in section 51.

Conclusion. A foreign award is enforced in India on a narrow and closed set of grounds. The applicant produces the award, the agreement and the proof under section 47; enforcement may be refused only on the grounds in section 48, of which public policy is now confined by the Explanation to fraud, the fundamental policy of Indian law and the basic notions of morality or justice, and never entails a review on the merits. Once the court holds it enforceable, section 49 deems it a decree, and from that moment it is executed exactly like any Indian decree, under Order XXI.

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(4)Interpleader Suit[6]

Answer

Section 88 provides that where two or more persons claim adversely to one another the same debt, sum of money or other property, movable or immovable, from another person, who claims no interest therein other than for charges or costs, and who is ready to pay or deliver it to the rightful claimant, that person may institute a suit of interpleader against all the claimants, for the purpose of obtaining a decision as to the person to whom the payment or delivery shall be made, and of obtaining indemnity for himself. The proviso bars such a suit where any suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly be decided.

The five requisites:

  1. There must be a debt, sum of money or other property, movable or immovable, in dispute.
  2. Two or more persons must claim it adversely to one another.
  3. The person from whom it is claimed must claim no interest in it other than for charges or costs.
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  1. He must be ready and willing to pay or deliver it to the rightful claimant.
  2. There must be no pending suit in which the rights of the claimants can properly be decided.

Order XXXV, the procedure:

Rule 1, the plaint must state, in addition to the ordinary particulars, that the plaintiff claims no interest in the subject-matter other than charges or costs; the claims made by the defendants severally; and that there is no collusion between the plaintiff and any of the defendants.

Rule 2 empowers the court to order the plaintiff to place the thing claimed in the custody of the court, and to make his doing so a condition of proceeding.

Rule 3 requires a court in which one of the defendants is actually suing the plaintiff over the same subject-matter to stay that suit on being informed.

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Rule 4, the first hearing. The court may declare the plaintiff discharged from all liability, award him his costs and dismiss him from the suit; or may retain all parties until the final disposal. Where the admissions or other evidence enable it to do so, it may adjudicate the title; otherwise it may direct an issue to be framed and tried, and may make one claimant plaintiff in place of or in addition to the original plaintiff.

Rule 5 bars an interpleader suit by an agent against his principal, or by a tenant against his landlord, to compel them to interplead with persons other than those claiming through them.

Rule 6 allows the court to provide for the original plaintiff's costs by giving him a charge on the thing claimed.

Conclusion. The interpleader suit is the remedy of a person who holds something two other people want and who wants none of it himself. Where the five requisites of section 88 are made out, Order XXXV Rule 4 lets the court discharge him at the first hearing with his costs, and then decide the title between the claimants. The proviso to section 88 and the two bars in Rule 5 are the limits: no interpleader where a pending suit can decide the same rights, and none by an agent against his principal or a tenant against his landlord.

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Q.3

Solve with reasons

any TWO · 12 Marks

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(1)Rahul is a tenant who has been living in a rental property owned by Priya for the past five years. In January 2022, Priya served Rahul with a notice to vacate the property, claiming that he had not paid rent for the last three months.[6]

  • (a) Can Priya file a fresh suit against Rahul for eviction in January 2023, considering the dismissal of her previous case in November 2022? Justify.
  • (b) What is the significance of the bar of limitation in this case, and how does it apply to Priya's ability to file a new suit?

Answer

Rahul denied this claim, stating he had made all payments and had receipts to prove it. However, Priya initiated eviction proceedings against him in March 2022.

After several hearings, Priya failed to appear in court, and the case was dismissed in November 2022. In January 2023, Priya decided to file a fresh suit against Rahul for eviction, claiming the same grounds.

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For full marks, cover: that the answer to (a) is no, and the bar is Order IX Rule 9(1), not limitation; that her remedy was an application to set aside the dismissal within thirty days under Article 122; the distinction from a Rule 3 dismissal; and for (b), the true significance of limitation here, which is that by January 2023 that thirty day window had closed.

(a) Can Priya file a fresh suit?

No. She is precluded from doing so.

Order IX Rule 8 applies to the dismissal of November 2022: where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, the court shall make an order that the suit be dismissed, unless the defendant admits the claim or part of it. That is what happened: Priya failed to appear and the case was dismissed.

Order IX Rule 9(1) states the consequence, and it is the answer to the question:

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Where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under rule 8, the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action. But he may apply for an order to set the dismissal aside, and if he satisfies the court that there was sufficient cause for his non-appearance when the suit was called on for hearing, the court shall make an order setting aside the dismissal upon such terms as to costs or otherwise as it thinks fit, and shall appoint a day for proceeding with the suit.

So Priya had exactly one route, and it was not a fresh suit. She had to apply to the same court to set aside the dismissal, showing sufficient cause for her absence. Article 122 of the Limitation Act gives thirty days from the date of the dismissal for that application, which on these facts expired around December 2022.

Order IX Rule 9(2) adds a procedural safeguard: no order shall be made under sub-rule (1) unless notice of the application has been served on the opposite party.

(b) The significance of the bar of limitation here

This is where the question is subtler than it looks, and the answer should say so plainly.

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The bar that defeats Priya is not the Limitation Act at all; it is Order IX Rule 9(1). Even if the eviction claim were well within time, and it is, the fresh suit would be barred. The suit was instituted in March 2022 on a cause of action arising in January 2022, so no Article of the Schedule stands in her way in January 2023.

Limitation matters at one point only, and it is decisive: the thirty days under Article 122 for the application to set aside the dismissal. By January 2023 that period had run out. She would therefore have to file the restoration application together with an application under section 5 of the Limitation Act for condonation of the delay, supported by an affidavit showing sufficient cause both for the original non-appearance and for the delay in applying. Section 5 is available to her because this is an application, not a suit, and it is not an application under Order XXI.

Two further points on the facts:

Sufficient cause for the non-appearance has to be shown separately from the delay. Following C. Prabhakar Rao v. Sama Mahipal Reddy (2025 INSC 311) on the parallel Order IX Rule 13 application, condoning the delay and setting aside the dismissal are separate exercises requiring separate findings. An order condoning her delay would not by itself restore the suit.

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The cause of action must be the same for Rule 9 to bite. If, since November 2022, fresh rent has fallen due and remained unpaid, or a fresh notice to quit has been given and the tenancy determined afresh, that is a new cause of action, and a suit on it is not barred by Rule 9. The rule bars a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action, no more. On the facts as stated, Priya intends to sue "claiming the same grounds", so the bar applies.

Conclusion. No. Priya's suit was dismissed under Order IX Rule 8 because she did not appear, and Order IX Rule 9(1) precludes a fresh suit on the same cause of action. The bar is not the Limitation Act, which would not have stopped her; it is the Code. Her one route was an application to the same court to set the dismissal aside on sufficient cause, and Article 122 gave her thirty days, which had run out before January 2023. She may still apply, but only with an application under section 5 explaining both the absence and the delay.

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(2)In a civil suit regarding a breach of contract, Plaintiff A files a suit against Defendant B in the District Court for recovery of a sum of Rs. 1,00,000. The court issues a summons to Defendant B to appear on a specified date. However, Defendant B fails to appear in court on that date without any valid reason.[6]

  • (a) What are the consequences of Defendant B's non-appearance in this case?
  • (b) Can Defendant B appeal the court's decision after the ruling has been made in favour of Plaintiff A? Explain.

Answer

The court proceeds to hear the case in the absence of Defendant B and ultimately rules in favour of Plaintiff A.

For full marks, cover: Order IX Rule 6(1)(a) and that an ex parte decree is still a decree on merits; the four remedies; that the answer to (b) is yes, section 96(2); and the crucial fact that on these facts B has no valid reason, so Order IX Rule 13 will fail him and the appeal is his real remedy.

(a) The consequences of B's non-appearance

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The suit is heard ex parte and a decree is passed against him. Order IX Rule 6(1)(a) provides that where the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, then if it is proved that the summons was duly served, the court may make an order that the suit be heard ex parte. That is what the court did.

Four consequences follow, and they should be listed.

1. He loses the right to contest. No written statement having been filed, Order VIII Rule 10 empowers the court to pronounce judgment against him, or to make such order in relation to the suit as it thinks fit.

2. The plaintiff must still prove his case. An ex parte decree is not a decree by consent or by default of pleading; A had to lead evidence of the contract, the breach and the sum due, and the court had to be satisfied on that evidence. This matters to B, because it is the evidence he can attack on appeal.

3. He cannot lead evidence in defence. In Kanchhu v. Prakash Chand (2025 INSC 542) the Supreme Court held that a defendant set ex parte is not entitled to produce evidence in his defence; his only right is to cross-examine the plaintiff's witnesses in an attempt to disprove the plaintiff's case.

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4. The decree is valid and executable. Until it is set aside it binds him, and A may apply for execution under Order XXI.

(b) Can B appeal?

Yes. Section 96(2) expressly provides that an appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.

The period is thirty days to the District Court under Article 116(b) of the Limitation Act, and ninety days to the High Court under Article 116(a), from the date of the decree. Since the decree here is of a District Court, the appeal lies to the High Court and the period is ninety days. Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act excludes the day of pronouncement and the time requisite for obtaining copies of the decree and the judgment.

But the appeal is not his only remedy, and on these facts it is his best one. The four remedies are:

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1. Order IX Rule 13, application to set aside the ex parte decree. The court shall set it aside if the defendant satisfies it that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing. Thirty days under Article 123. On these facts this route fails. The problem says B failed to appear "without any valid reason". There is no defect in service and there is no sufficient cause, so neither ground in Rule 13 is available to him.

2. Appeal under section 96(2). Available, and this is the remedy that remains open. In the appeal B cannot complain that he was absent, because he has no excuse for it; what he can do is attack the decree on the merits, arguing that the evidence A led did not establish the claim, that the plaint discloses no cause of action, that the court lacked pecuniary or territorial jurisdiction, or that the claim was time-barred.

3. Review under section 114 and Order XLVII Rule 1, within thirty days under Article 124, on the ground of discovery of new and important matter, an error apparent on the face of the record, or any other sufficient reason.

4. A suit to set aside the decree for fraud, which is not available here, since nothing suggests fraud.

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The relationship between the appeal and the application is settled by Bhanu Kumar Jain v. Archana Kumar (2005) 1 SCC 787: a defendant may pursue both, but where the Rule 13 application is dismissed on merits, he cannot in the appeal re-agitate the ground of his non-appearance; he may still challenge the decree on the merits of the case. Since B has no case under Rule 13 at all, he should not waste the thirty days on it.

Conclusion. Defendant B's non-appearance costs him the right to contest: the suit is heard ex parte under Order IX Rule 6(1)(a), he cannot lead evidence in defence, and a decree follows on A's evidence. He can appeal, because section 96(2) expressly allows an appeal from an ex parte decree, and from a District Court decree he has ninety days. But the facts say he stayed away without any valid reason, which closes Order IX Rule 13 to him entirely, so the appeal is not merely one of his remedies, it is the only real one, and in it he must attack the sufficiency of A's evidence rather than his own absence.

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(3)Asha owns a small bakery in a busy market area. Her neighbour, Ravi, who operates a grocery store, begins constructing a new extension that would block the entrance to Asha's bakery, significantly reducing her customer footfall.[6]

  • (a) What must Asha demonstrate to the court to obtain a temporary injunction against Ravi's construction?
  • (b) If the court grants Asha's application for a temporary injunction, what are the potential implications for both parties?

Answer

Asha believes that this construction is illegal and seeks a temporary injunction to stop Ravi from continuing the construction until the matter is resolved in court. She files a suit for a temporary injunction under Section 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, to prevent Ravi from obstructing her business.

For full marks, cover: the correct provisions, since the paper cites the wrong one; the three tests, prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury; Order XXXIX Rules 1, 2, 3, 3A and 4; and for (b), the effect on both sides including Rule 2A and section 95.

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A correction the answer should make at the outset. The paper refers to a temporary injunction "under Section 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908". Section 37 of the Code defines "the court which passed a decree" and has nothing to do with injunctions. The provision intended is section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, which classifies injunctions as temporary and perpetual and provides in sub-section (1) that temporary injunctions "are regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908". Within the Code the provisions are section 94(c), section 95 and Order XXXIX. Asha's suit will be a suit for a permanent injunction under section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, in which she applies for a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 pending the trial.

(a) What Asha must demonstrate

First, that her case falls within Order XXXIX Rule 1 or Rule 2.

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Rule 1(c), added in 1976, fits: where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise that the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise to cause injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit, the court may grant a temporary injunction to restrain such act. Ravi's extension threatens injury to Asha in relation to the property in dispute, namely her right of access and, if she claims one, her easement of way and of light and air.

Rule 2(1) fits too: in a suit for restraining the defendant from committing a breach of contract or other injury of any kind, the plaintiff may at any time after the commencement of the suit apply for a temporary injunction to restrain the defendant from committing the injury complained of.

Second, the three tests. All three must be satisfied; failing on any one is fatal.

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1. A prima facie case. Asha must show a serious question to be tried and a probability of her being entitled to the relief. Concretely, she must place on record the material showing her right: her title or tenancy of the bakery premises, the position of the entrance, and the basis on which she says Ravi may not obstruct it. That basis will be one of three: an easement of way acquired by grant, by prescription under section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882 on twenty years' enjoyment, or by necessity; an easement of light and air, similarly acquired; or the illegality of the construction itself, if it is being raised without sanction or in breach of the sanctioned plan, for which she should produce whatever she has from the municipal authority.

2. The balance of convenience. She must show that the inconvenience she will suffer if the injunction is refused outweighs that which Ravi will suffer if it is granted. Her strongest point is that a completed structure is far harder to undo than a paused one: if Ravi is allowed to finish and she wins at the trial, the court will have to order demolition, whereas if he is stopped and he wins, he resumes building with a delay.

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3. Irreparable injury. She must show injury that cannot be adequately compensated in money. Permanent obstruction of the only entrance to a shop, and the consequent loss of a customer base built up over time, is the classic example: the loss is continuing, is difficult to quantify, and may destroy the business rather than merely reduce it.

Third, the equitable requirements. She must come promptly, since delay and acquiescence defeat an equitable claim, and with clean hands, making full and frank disclosure. If she has known of the construction for months and said nothing, that will be held against her.

Fourth, procedure. By Order XXXIX Rule 3 the court shall give notice of the application to Ravi except where it appears that the object of granting the injunction would be defeated by the delay; if she asks for an ex parte injunction, the court must record its reasons and she must, on the same day or the next day, deliver to Ravi a copy of the application, the affidavit and the plaint, and file an affidavit of that delivery. By Rule 3A, where an injunction is granted without notice, the court shall endeavour to dispose of the application finally within thirty days, and must record its reasons if it cannot.

(b) The implications if the injunction is granted

For Ravi:

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He must stop construction at once and keep it stopped until the suit is disposed of or the order is varied. He is not without remedy: under Order XXXIX Rule 4 he may apply to have the order discharged, varied or set aside, and if the order was made ex parte and Asha knowingly made a false or misleading statement in a material particular, the proviso requires the court to set it aside unless it considers that not necessary in the interests of justice. He may also appeal: an order under Order XXXIX Rule 1 or 2 is appealable under Order XLIII Rule 1(r).

If he disobeys the injunction, Order XXXIX Rule 2A applies: the court may order his property to be attached, and may order him to be detained in the civil prison for a term not exceeding three months. No attachment shall remain in force for more than one year, and if the disobedience continues at the end of that year the property may be sold and compensation awarded to the injured party out of the proceeds. Construction carried out in breach of an injunction is done at his own risk and courts do order demolition.

His financial exposure is real: he carries the cost of the stoppage, of idle labour and of any escalation in materials.

For Asha:

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She gets the protection she asked for, but she takes on obligations with it.

She will ordinarily be required to give an undertaking as to damages, or security. The court commonly makes the injunction conditional on it.

She is exposed to compensation under section 95 of the Code. Where it appears to the court that there were no sufficient grounds for granting the injunction, or the suit is dismissed and it appears that there was no reasonable or probable ground for instituting it, the court may, on Ravi's application, award him reasonable compensation not exceeding the pecuniary limits of its jurisdiction. An order under section 95 bars any further suit for compensation in respect of the same injury.

She must prosecute the suit diligently. An interim order obtained and then allowed to sleep while the suit stagnates is routinely vacated, and courts take a dim view of a plaintiff who has got what he wanted at the interim stage and lost interest in the trial.

And the injunction settles nothing finally. It preserves the position until the trial; the rights of both parties are decided only by the decree.

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Conclusion. Asha must satisfy the court on the three tests together, a prima facie case, the balance of convenience and irreparable injury, and on these facts her strongest points are that a completed structure is far harder to undo than a paused one and that permanent obstruction of a shop's only entrance cannot be repaired with money. If the injunction is granted, Ravi must stop and may be attached and detained under Rule 2A if he does not, but Asha takes on the obligations with it: an undertaking as to damages, exposure to compensation under section 95 if there were no sufficient grounds, and a duty to prosecute the suit rather than sit on the order.

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(4)Amit lent Rs. 1,00,000 to Ravi on January 1, 2018, with a promise of repayment within three years. As per the terms of the loan agreement, if Ravi failed to repay the amount within this period, Amit could file a suit for recovery. On December 15, 2020, Ravi made a part-payment of Rs.[6]

  • (a) Can Amit file a suit against Ravi for the remaining amount of Rs. 75,000 in 2024, considering the acknowledgment made by Ravi in December 2020? Explain.
  • (b) How does the part-payment made by Ravi on December 15, 2020, affect the limitation period for filing the suit?

Answer

25,000 and acknowledged his outstanding debt in writing, stating, "I acknowledge that I still owe Rs. 75,000 to Amit and will repay it soon." However, Ravi did not make any further payments, and the loan remained unpaid.

Amit is considering whether he can still file a suit against Ravi for the remaining amount in 2024.

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For full marks, cover: sections 18 and 19 and their common precondition; that on the plain working the fresh period expired on 15 December 2023; the COVID exclusion ordered by the Supreme Court, which moves it to 1 March 2025 and reverses the answer; and section 25(3) of the Contract Act as the fallback.

(a) Can Amit sue in 2024?

Yes, he can, and the reason is not the one the textbook working gives. The answer has to be reached in two steps.

Step 1: the position under sections 18 and 19 alone.

The suit is one for money lent. Under Article 19 of the Schedule, a suit for money payable for money lent is governed by three years, running from when the loan is made; where the loan is repayable on demand, Article 21 gives three years from when the loan is made. On the terms stated, repayment was due within three years, that is by 1 January 2021, and the parties treated the cause of action as arising then.

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Section 18(1), effect of acknowledgment in writing: where, before the expiration of the prescribed period for a suit in respect of any property or right, an acknowledgment of liability in respect of that right has been made in writing signed by the party against whom the right is claimed, a fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed.

Section 19, effect of payment on account of debt: where payment on account of a debt is made before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay, a fresh period shall be computed from the time when the payment was made, provided that an acknowledgment of the payment appears in the handwriting of, or in a writing signed by, the person making it.

Ravi's act of 15 December 2020 satisfies both sections at once. It is a written and signed acknowledgment of liability for Rs. 75,000, and it is a part payment of Rs. 25,000 with the payment acknowledged in writing. It was made before the prescribed period expired, which is the precondition in both sections.

So a fresh period of three years ran from 15 December 2020, and on the ordinary working it would have expired on 15 December 2023. On that working alone, a suit in 2024 would be time-barred.

Step 2: the COVID exclusion, which changes the answer.

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In In Re: Cognizance for Extension of Limitation, Suo Motu Writ Petition (Civil) No. 3 of 2020, the Supreme Court by its final order of 10 January 2022 directed that the period from 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 shall stand excluded in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal, application or proceeding, under the general law of limitation or under any special law, and that where the balance period remaining on 1 March 2022 was less than ninety days, a period of ninety days from 1 March 2022 would be available, the longer balance applying if it was longer.

Applying it here: the fresh three year period began on 15 December 2020, which falls inside the excluded window, so no part of it ran until 28 February 2022. On 1 March 2022 the whole of the three years remained. That balance is far more than ninety days, so the longer balance applies, and the period expires on or about 1 March 2025.

Amit may therefore sue at any time in 2024, and until about 1 March 2025.

(b) How the part payment affects the limitation period

It does not extend the period; it starts a new one. That is the distinction the question is testing.

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The mechanism. Section 19 does not add days to the running period. It wipes out the time already run and begins a fresh period of the same length from the date of the payment. If the original three years had been running since 1 January 2018 or since 1 January 2021, that history is irrelevant once section 19 operates; the clock is reset to 15 December 2020.

The two conditions in section 19 are strict:

The payment must be made before the prescribed period expires. A payment made after limitation has run gives nothing under the Limitation Act. Here it was made in time.

An acknowledgment of the payment must appear in the handwriting of, or in a writing signed by, the person making it. A bare payment, unaccompanied by any writing, does not attract section 19; it is the writing that proves it was a payment on account of that debt. Here Ravi's signed statement supplies it.

The payment must be "on account of a debt", not in full satisfaction. A payment tendered and accepted as full and final settlement discharges the debt and there is nothing left to sue for. Ravi's own words, "I still owe Rs. 75,000", make clear that it was on account.

Sections 18 and 19 compared:

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Section 18, acknowledgmentSection 19, part payment
Act relied onAn acknowledgment of liabilityA payment on account of the debt or of interest on a legacy
FormMust be in writing signed by the partyThe payment may be in any form, but the acknowledgment of it must be in the payer's handwriting or in a writing signed by him
TimingBefore the prescribed period expiresBefore the prescribed period expires
EffectFresh period from the date of signingFresh period from the date of payment
ExplanationsSufficient though it omits to specify the nature of the property or right, and though accompanied by a refusal to pay or coupled with a claim to set-offExplanation defines "debt" as not including money payable under a decree or order of a court
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Conclusion. Yes, Amit can sue in 2024, but only because of a direction no textbook prints. On sections 18 and 19 alone the acknowledgment and part payment of 15 December 2020 started a fresh three years that expired on 15 December 2023 and the suit would be barred. The Supreme Court's order of 10 January 2022 excludes 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period, and since the fresh period began inside that window the whole three years survived to 1 March 2022 and runs to about 1 March 2025. An answer that gives only the first working reaches the wrong result.

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Q.4

Write Essay Type answer on

any TWO · 24 Marks

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(1)What is the procedural framework for enforcing a foreign judgment or decree in India under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the two routes, section 44A for reciprocating territories and a fresh suit for the rest; section 2(5), 2(6) and 2(11) definitions; section 13 with all six clauses, and section 14; section 44A in full with its three sub-sections and its Explanations; the list of reciprocating territories with the UAE notification of 2020; and the limitation position after Bank of Baroda v. Kotak Mahindra Bank.

I. The two routes

A foreign judgment cannot be enforced in India merely because it was pronounced. There are exactly two routes, and the answer must begin by separating them.

Route 1: execution under section 44A. Available only where the decree is of a superior court of a reciprocating territory. The decree is filed in a District Court and is executed as if it had been passed by that District Court. No fresh suit is needed.

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Route 2: a fresh suit on the foreign judgment. For every other foreign judgment. The judgment is the cause of action, and the Indian court, without going into the merits, passes its own decree if the foreign judgment is conclusive under section 13.

II. The definitions

Section 2(5), "foreign court" means a court situate outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.

Section 2(6), "foreign judgment" means the judgment of a foreign court.

Section 44A Explanation 1, "reciprocating territory" means any country or territory outside India which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a reciprocating territory for the purposes of the section; and "superior courts", with reference to such a territory, means such courts as may be specified in that notification.

Explanation 2 confines the section to a decree for the payment of a sum of money, not being a sum payable in respect of taxes or other charges of a like nature, or in respect of a fine or other penalty, and expressly excludes an arbitration award, even if such an award is enforceable as a decree or judgment.

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III. Section 13: when a foreign judgment is conclusive

Section 13 provides that a foreign judgment shall be conclusive as to any matter thereby directly adjudicated upon between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, except:

(a) where it has not been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction;

(b) where it has not been given on the merits of the case;

(c) where it appears on the face of the proceedings to be founded on an incorrect view of international law or a refusal to recognise the law of India in cases in which such law is applicable;

(d) where the proceedings in which the judgment was obtained are opposed to natural justice;

(e) where it has been obtained by fraud;

(f) where it sustains a claim founded on a breach of any law in force in India.

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Section 14 supplies the presumption: the court shall presume, upon the production of any document purporting to be a certified copy of a foreign judgment, that such judgment was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record; but such presumption may be displaced by proving want of jurisdiction.

These six exceptions apply to both routes. They are not confined to a fresh suit; a decree filed under section 44A can be resisted on any of them, because section 44A(3) says so.

IV. Section 44A: the procedure

Section 44A(1). Where a certified copy of a decree of any of the superior courts of any reciprocating territory has been filed in a District Court, the decree may be executed in India as if it had been passed by the District Court.

Section 44A(2). Together with the certified copy of the decree shall be filed a certificate from such superior court stating the extent, if any, to which the decree has been satisfied or adjusted, and such certificate shall, for the purposes of proceedings under the section, be conclusive proof of the extent of such satisfaction or adjustment.

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Section 44A(3). The provisions of section 47 shall apply to the proceedings of a District Court executing a decree under this section, and the District Court shall refuse execution of any such decree if it is shown to the satisfaction of the court that the decree falls within any of the exceptions specified in clauses (a) to (f) of section 13.

The steps in practice:

  1. Confirm the country is a notified reciprocating territory and that the court which passed the decree is one of the superior courts specified in the notification for that territory. If either fails, section 44A is unavailable and a fresh suit is the only route.
  2. Confirm the decree is for a sum of money and is not for taxes, a fine or a penalty, and is not an arbitration award (Explanation 2).
  3. Obtain a certified copy of the decree and the certificate of satisfaction or adjustment under sub-section (2).
  4. File them in the District Court having jurisdiction, that is, the court within whose jurisdiction the judgment-debtor resides or carries on business or has property.
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  1. Apply for execution under Order XXI Rule 11, stating the mode of execution sought.
  2. The judgment-debtor may object under section 47, and the court must refuse execution if any exception in section 13(a) to (f) is made out.
  3. On the objections being rejected, the decree is executed by the ordinary modes under section 51 and Order XXI.

V. The reciprocating territories

Those notified include the United Kingdom, Singapore, Bangladesh, Malaysia, New Zealand, Hong Kong, Fiji, Papua New Guinea, Trinidad and Tobago, the Cook Islands including Niue and the Trust Territories of Western Samoa, and Aden. The United Arab Emirates was notified on 17 January 2020, and the notification specifies as superior courts the Federal Supreme Court, the Federal, First Instance and Appeals Courts in Abu Dhabi, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al Quwain and Fujairah, and the courts of the Dubai International Financial Centre.

The United States of America is not a reciprocating territory, and neither are most of Europe. A decree of a New York court can be enforced in India only by a fresh suit on the judgment.

VI. The fresh suit route

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Where section 44A is unavailable, the decree-holder files a suit on the foreign judgment in the competent Indian court. The judgment is the cause of action; the court does not retry the dispute, but examines whether the judgment is conclusive under section 13. If it is, the court passes its own decree, and that decree is then executed in the ordinary way.

Limitation. In Bank of Baroda v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. (2020) 17 SCC 664 the Supreme Court settled the position: for a decree of a reciprocating territory, an application under section 44A is governed by Article 136, twelve years, but the period runs according to the limitation law of the cause country, that is, the country whose court passed the decree, and the application must be filed within the period of limitation prescribed in the cause country; if the decree-holder first takes execution proceedings in the cause country, the period in India runs from the date of the final decision there. For a fresh suit on a foreign judgment from a non-reciprocating country, the period is three years under Article 101 from the date of the judgment.

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Conclusion. There are exactly two routes and choosing the right one is most of the answer. Where the decree is of a superior court of a notified reciprocating territory, section 44A lets it be filed in a District Court and executed as if that court had passed it, subject to the certificate under sub-section (2) and to refusal on any section 13 ground. Everywhere else, including the United States, the judgment is only a cause of action and the holder must sue upon it. Either way section 13 is the test, and clause (b), a judgment not given on the merits, is where most of the argument lies.

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(2)What are the essential elements that must be included in a plaint as per Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and how do these elements contribute to the clarity and effectiveness of civil litigation?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning of a plaint and section 26; Order VII Rule 1's nine particulars, given as a list; Rules 2 to 8 on special cases; Rules 9 to 10B on admission, return and transfer; Rule 11's six grounds for rejection; Rules 13 and 14 to 18; and then the second half of the question, why each requirement does work.

I. What a plaint is

A plaint is the statement of claim in writing by which a suit is instituted. It is not defined in the Code. Section 26(1) provides that every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a plaint or in such other manner as may be prescribed, and section 26(2), inserted in 2002, requires that in every plaint facts shall be proved by affidavit. Order VI applies to it as a pleading, so it must contain a concise statement of the material facts and not the evidence, and Order VII contains the rules specific to it.

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II. Order VII Rule 1: the particulars every plaint must contain

The plaint shall contain the following particulars:

(a) the name of the court in which the suit is brought;

(b) the name, description and place of residence of the plaintiff;

(c) the name, description and place of residence of the defendant, so far as they can be ascertained;

(d) where the plaintiff or the defendant is a minor or a person of unsound mind, a statement to that effect;

(e) the facts constituting the cause of action, and when it arose;

(f) the facts showing that the court has jurisdiction;

(g) the relief which the plaintiff claims;

(h) where the plaintiff has allowed a set-off or relinquished a portion of his claim, the amount so allowed or relinquished; and

(i) a statement of the value of the subject-matter of the suit for the purposes of jurisdiction and of court fees, so far as the case admits.

III. The supporting rules

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Rule 2, in money suits, the plaint shall state the precise amount claimed; but where the plaintiff sues for mesne profits, or for an amount which will be found due on taking unsettled accounts, or for movables in the defendant's possession, or for debts of which the value cannot be estimated, the plaint shall state approximately the amount or value sued for.

Rule 3, where the subject-matter is immovable property, the plaint shall contain a description sufficient to identify it, and where it is capable of identification by boundaries or numbers in a record of settlement or survey, the plaint shall specify such boundaries or numbers.

Rule 4 requires a plaintiff suing in a representative character to show that he has an actual existing interest in the subject-matter and that he has taken the steps necessary to enable him to institute a suit concerning it.

Rule 5 requires the plaint to show that the defendant is or claims to be interested in the subject-matter and that he is liable to be called upon to answer the plaintiff's demand.

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Rule 6, grounds of exemption from the law of limitation. Where the suit is instituted after the expiration of the period prescribed by the law of limitation, the plaint shall show the ground upon which exemption from such law is claimed. The proviso, added in 1976, permits the court to allow the plaintiff to rely on a ground not set out in the plaint, if not inconsistent with the facts pleaded.

Rule 7, relief to be specifically stated. Every plaint shall state specifically the relief which the plaintiff claims, either simply or in the alternative, and it shall not be necessary to ask for general or other relief, which may always be given as the court may think just to the same extent as if it had been asked for.

Rule 8 governs the case of distinct claims founded upon separate and distinct grounds, which shall be stated as far as may be separately and distinctly.

Rule 9, procedure on admitting the plaint, requires the plaintiff to present, within seven days, as many copies of the plaint as there are defendants, and to pay the requisite fee for service of summons.

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Rule 10, return of the plaint. The plaint shall at any stage of the suit be returned to be presented to the court in which the suit should have been instituted, and on returning it the Judge shall endorse thereon the date of its presentation and return, the name of the party presenting it, and a brief statement of the reasons for returning it. Rule 10A requires the court, where it is about to return a plaint after the defendant has appeared, to intimate its decision to the plaintiff, who may then apply for a date to be fixed for the plaint's presentation in the proper court and for notice of it. Rule 10B governs the power of the appellate court in such cases.

Rule 11, rejection of the plaint. The plaint shall be rejected in the following cases:

(a) where it does not disclose a cause of action;

(b) where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the court to correct the valuation within a time fixed by the court, fails to do so;

(c) where the relief claimed is properly valued but the plaint is written upon paper insufficiently stamped, and the plaintiff, on being required to supply the requisite stamp paper within a time fixed by the court, fails to do so;

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(d) where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law;

(e) where it is not filed in duplicate;

(f) where the plaintiff fails to comply with the provisions of Rule 9.

Rule 12 requires the procedure on rejecting a plaint to be recorded with the reasons. Rule 13 provides that the rejection of the plaint on any of these grounds shall not of its own force preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action.

Rules 14 to 18, documents. Rule 14(1) requires the plaintiff to enter in a list and produce in court, when the plaint is presented, every document on which he sues or on which he relies as evidence in support of his claim, and to deliver it and a copy to be filed with the plaint; sub-rule (2) requires him to state, where possible, in whose possession a document not in his power is; and sub-rule (3) provides that a document which ought to be produced with the plaint and is not so produced shall not, without the leave of the court, be received in evidence on his behalf at the hearing. Rule 17 allows documents to be received at a later stage on good cause shown. Rule 18 was omitted in 1999 with effect from 1 July 2002.

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IV. How these requirements make litigation clear and effective

The second half of the question is not decoration; it carries marks, and it should be answered element by element.

The name of the court and the facts showing jurisdiction (Rule 1(a) and (f)) put the question of competence in issue at the outset, so that a court which cannot try the suit returns the plaint under Rule 10 at once, instead of trying it and having the decree set aside years later.

The names, descriptions and residences of the parties (Rule 1(b) and (c)) make service of summons possible and make the decree executable. A decree against a person who cannot be identified is worthless.

The statement of minority or unsoundness of mind (Rule 1(d)) triggers Order XXXII, so that a person incapable of conducting litigation is represented by a next friend or a guardian for the suit, and is not bound by a decree passed in his absence in fact.

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The facts constituting the cause of action, and when it arose (Rule 1(e)) do three things at once: they tell the defendant what case he has to meet, they fix the place of suing under section 20, and they start the limitation clock, which is why the rule requires the date and not merely the facts.

The relief specifically stated (Rule 1(g) and Rule 7) defines the outer limit of the decree. A court cannot ordinarily grant what has not been asked for, and Explanation V to section 11 treats relief claimed but not expressly granted as refused, so a relief left out of the plaint is a relief lost.

The statement of set-off or relinquishment (Rule 1(h)) works with Order II Rule 2: a plaintiff who relinquishes part of his claim to bring the suit within a court's jurisdiction must say so, and he cannot afterwards sue for the part relinquished.

The valuation (Rule 1(i)) fixes court fee and pecuniary jurisdiction, and it is the basis on which section 15 requires the suit to be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it.

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The grounds of exemption from limitation (Rule 6) force the plaintiff to disclose, on the face of his own pleading, why a suit that looks time-barred is not, and enable the court to apply section 3 of the Limitation Act without a trial where the answer is plain.

The list of documents (Rule 14) fixes the plaintiff's documentary case at the outset and prevents trial by ambush, and Rule 14(3) gives that requirement teeth.

Rule 11 is the filter. A plaint that discloses no cause of action or a suit barred by law is stopped before the defendant is put to the expense of a written statement and a trial. And Rule 13 keeps the filter proportionate: rejection is not a decision on the merits, so a plaintiff whose plaint was badly drawn may draw a better one and file again, subject to limitation.

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The cases to cite. T. Arivandandam v. T.V. Satyapal, (1977) 4 SCC 467, is the case on Order VII Rule 11(a): the trial judge must read the plaint meaningfully, not formally, and if it is manifestly vexatious and meritless, not disclosing a clear right to sue, he should exercise his power under Rule 11 and reject it. Clever drafting that creates the illusion of a cause of action does not save it. Saleem Bhai v. State of Maharashtra, (2003) 1 SCC 557, adds that on such an application only the averments in the plaint are to be looked at, and the written statement is irrelevant. Dahiben v. Arvindbhai Kalyanji Bhanusali, (2020) 7 SCC 366, restates both and confirms that a plaint barred by limitation on its own averments falls under Rule 11(d).

Conclusion. Order VII asks nine things of a plaint and each of them does work: the parties make service and execution possible, the cause of action with its date fixes the forum and starts limitation, the relief marks the outer limit of the decree, and the valuation fixes the fee and the court. Rule 11 is the filter that stops a hopeless suit before the defendant is put to a defence, and Rule 13 keeps it proportionate by allowing a fresh plaint. The rule to remember is the one that costs a case: a document not produced with the plaint is not received in evidence without leave.

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(3)What are the legal principles governing the condonation of delay under the Limitation Act, 1963, and how do courts determine whether sufficient cause has been shown for extending the limitation period?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: section 5 with its Explanation; the three limits, that it applies to appeals and applications only, not to suits, and not to Order XXI applications; the meaning of "sufficient cause" and the liberal construction rule; the leading cases; the categories of cause accepted and refused; the special position of the Government; and the procedural requirement in Order XLI Rule 3A.

I. The provision

Section 5, extension of prescribed period in certain cases:

Any appeal or any application, other than an application under any of the provisions of Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may be admitted after the prescribed period if the appellant or the applicant satisfies the court that he had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal or making the application within such period.

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Explanation. The fact that the appellant or the applicant was misled by any order, practice or judgment of the High Court in ascertaining or computing the prescribed period may be sufficient cause within the meaning of this section.

II. The three limits, which must be stated before anything else

1. It does not apply to a suit. Section 5 speaks only of an appeal and an application. A suit filed one day out of time must be dismissed under section 3, however good the plaintiff's excuse. This is the single most important limit and the one most often forgotten.

2. It does not apply to applications under Order XXI of the Code, that is, to execution applications, which are expressly excepted. The policy is that a decree-holder who has already had his decree must be diligent in executing it.

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3. It applies to a special or local law only so far as that law does not exclude it. Section 29(2) provides that where a special or local law prescribes a different period, sections 4 to 24 apply only in so far as, and to the extent to which, they are not expressly excluded by that law. So section 5 is excluded, for example, by section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 beyond the thirty day extension that provision itself allows.

III. What "sufficient cause" means

The expression is not defined. The settled meaning is a cause which is beyond the control of the party invoking it, and which shows that the party was not negligent, not inactive and not wanting in bona fides.

The two guiding propositions:

The expression must receive a liberal construction so as to advance substantial justice, when no negligence, no inaction and no want of bona fides is imputable to the appellant. That formulation is from State of West Bengal v. Administrator, Howrah Municipality (1972) 1 SCC 366 and has been applied ever since.

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Substantial justice is to be preferred to technical considerations. In Collector, Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Mst. Katiji (1987) 2 SCC 107 the Supreme Court set out six principles which are quoted in almost every condonation order: ordinarily a litigant does not stand to benefit by lodging an appeal late; refusing to condone delay can result in a meritorious matter being thrown out at the very threshold and the cause of justice being defeated, while condoning it at worst means a case being decided on merits; "every day's delay must be explained" does not mean a pedantic approach; when substantial justice and technical considerations are pitted against each other, substantial justice deserves to be preferred; there is no presumption that delay is occasioned deliberately or on account of culpable negligence; and the judiciary is respected not for its power to legalise injustice on technical grounds but because it is capable of removing injustice.

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The counterweight. Liberality is not indulgence. In Basawaraj v. Special Land Acquisition Officer (2013) 14 SCC 81 the Court held that sufficient cause is a condition precedent for the exercise of the discretion; the court has no power to extend the period on equitable grounds where sufficient cause is not shown; and the discretion, though wide, must be exercised judiciously and on sound principle, not arbitrarily. In Pundlik Jalam Patil v. Executive Engineer, Jalgaon Medium Project (2008) 17 SCC 448 the Court added that the law of limitation may harshly affect a particular party, but it has to be applied with all its rigour when the statute so prescribes, and that a valuable right accrues to the other side on the expiry of the period.

IV. How courts decide: the factors

In practice a court asks five questions.

1. Is the delay explained, or merely asserted? The applicant must set out what happened, when, and why, on affidavit. A bald statement that the delay was due to "circumstances beyond control" is no explanation at all.

2. Is the whole period accounted for? The rule is that every day's delay must be explained, applied sensibly rather than pedantically: a short delay fully explained is readily condoned, and a long delay with a gap in the account is not.

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3. Is there negligence, inaction or want of bona fides? These three are the disqualifiers. Deliberate delay, or delay used to gain a tactical advantage, is fatal.

4. What prejudice will the other side suffer? A valuable right has accrued to the respondent by the expiry of the period, and the court weighs the loss of that right against the loss of a hearing on the merits. Costs are the usual way of compensating the respondent where delay is condoned.

5. Is there merit in the case sought to be brought? Courts are more willing to condone where the appeal is arguable, though the merits are not conclusive.

V. Causes usually accepted, and usually refused

Usually accepted: the illness of the party or of a close relative, where supported by medical evidence; the death of a party or of counsel; imprisonment; mistake of counsel, where bona fide and where the party himself was not at fault; delay in obtaining certified copies, though much of that is covered by section 12(2) rather than by section 5; being misled by an order, practice or judgment of the High Court, which the Explanation expressly recognises; prosecuting a wrong remedy or a wrong forum in good faith, though section 14 covers most of that ground; and natural calamities, riots, bandhs and lockdowns.

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Usually refused: ignorance of the law; ignorance of the date of the decree where the party was present in court; mere poverty, unless it caused a specific inability that is proved; delay in obtaining legal advice or in arranging funds, without more; negligence of the party himself; and administrative delay for its own sake.

VI. The Government as an applicant

The courts have moved a long way on this and both positions should be given.

In G. Ramegowda, Major v. Special Land Acquisition Officer (1988) 2 SCC 142 and in State of Haryana v. Chandra Mani (1996) 3 SCC 132 the Supreme Court held that the State is an impersonal machinery working through its officers, that decisions are taken at a slow pace by a hierarchy of bureaucrats, and that a certain amount of latitude is not impermissible; what is to be seen is whether there was reasonable and acceptable explanation, not whether the State was as prompt as a private litigant.

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But in Office of the Chief Post Master General v. Living Media India Ltd. (2012) 3 SCC 563 the Court cut that back: "condonation of delay is an exception and should not be used as an anticipated benefit for Government departments", and the law of limitation binds everybody, including the Government. The Court declined to condone a delay of 427 days that was explained only by the movement of files.

VII. Procedure

Order XLI Rule 3A of the Code: when an appeal is presented after the expiry of the period of limitation, it shall be accompanied by an application supported by affidavit setting forth the facts on which the appellant relies to satisfy the court that he had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within such period. Sub-rule (2) requires the court, if it sees no reason to reject the application without notice, to fix a date for hearing it, and until the application is decided the court shall not stay execution of the decree. Sub-rule (3) allows an application for stay to be made while the condonation application is pending, and the court may then make an order of stay on such terms as it thinks fit.

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An order refusing to condone delay is a final order disposing of the appeal, and an appeal lies from it; an order condoning delay is interlocutory and is ordinarily not appealable, though it may be questioned in an appeal against the final decree.

Conclusion. Section 5 is a discretion and not an indulgence. It applies to appeals and applications only, never to a suit and never to an Order XXI application, and it is exercised only on a finding of sufficient cause, which means a cause the party cannot be blamed for. The two authorities pull in opposite directions on purpose: Mst. Katiji says substantial justice is to be preferred to technicality, Basawaraj says the court has no power to condone on equitable grounds where sufficient cause is not shown. A respondent has acquired a right by the expiry, and that is what the discretion is weighed against.

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(4)How does Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, delineate the modes of execution of decrees, and what provisions exist for the stay of execution in civil proceedings?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: section 51's five clauses as the frame and Order XXI as the machinery; the application under Rules 10 to 25; each mode with its rules; then the second half, stay of execution, which is Order XXI Rules 26 to 29 and Order XLI Rule 5, plus sections 47 and 151.

I. The frame: section 51 and Order XXI

Execution is the enforcement of a decree by the process of the court. Sections 36 to 74 and Order XXI, with its 106 rules, contain the law, and section 36 applies those provisions, so far as applicable, to orders as well as to decrees.

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Section 51 lists the modes: the court may, on the application of the decree-holder, order execution (a) by delivery of any property specifically decreed; (b) by attachment and sale, or sale without attachment, of any property; (c) by arrest and detention in prison for a period not exceeding that specified in section 58, where permissible under that section; (d) by appointing a receiver; or (e) in such other manner as the nature of the relief granted may require.

The proviso governs money decrees: detention shall not be ordered unless, after an opportunity of showing cause, the court is satisfied for recorded reasons that the judgment-debtor is likely to abscond, or has dishonestly transferred, concealed or removed his property since the suit was instituted, or has committed some other act of bad faith in relation to his property, or has or has had since the decree the means to pay and refuses or neglects to pay, or that the decree is for a sum he was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account for.

II. The application: Order XXI Rules 10 to 25

Rule 10: application to the court which passed the decree or, where it has been sent for execution, to that court.

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Rule 11(1) permits an oral application for the immediate execution of a decree for money, by arrest, where the judgment-debtor is within the precincts of the court.

Rule 11(2) requires in every other case a written application, signed and verified, stating the number of the suit, the names of the parties, the date of the decree, whether any appeal has been preferred, whether any payment or adjustment has been made, whether any previous application has been made and with what result, the amount due, the name of the person against whom execution is sought, and the mode in which the assistance of the court is required.

Rule 17 governs the procedure on receiving the application, and requires defects to be allowed to be remedied.

Rule 22, notice to show cause. Where an application is made more than two years after the date of the decree, or against the legal representative of a party, or for execution of a decree filed under section 44A, the court shall issue a notice to show cause why the decree should not be executed against him.

Rules 23 to 25 govern the procedure after notice, and Rules 30 to 36 the enforcement of particular kinds of decree.

III. The modes in Order XXI

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1. Delivery of property specifically decreed.

Rule 31, movable property: by seizure and delivery, or by detention of the judgment-debtor, or by attachment of his property, or by both.

Rule 35, immovable property: by delivery of possession, removing any person bound by the decree who refuses to vacate, if necessary by breaking open a lock or door with the help of a police officer, and giving reasonable warning and facility to women who by custom do not appear in public.

Rule 36, symbolic possession where a tenant not bound to relinquish is in occupation, by affixing a copy of the warrant and proclaiming it.

2. Attachment and sale.

Rules 41 to 46 govern the examination of the judgment-debtor as to his property, and the attachment of movables, agricultural produce, debts, shares and negotiable instruments. Rules 46A to 46I contain the garnishee procedure.

Rule 54, attachment of immovable property, by an order prohibiting the judgment-debtor from transferring or charging it, proclaimed by beat of drum and affixed on the property and on the court house.

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Section 60 defines what is attachable and its proviso exempts, among other things, necessary apparel, cooking vessels, beds and bedding, ornaments a woman cannot part with by religious usage, tools of artisans, an agriculturist's implements, cattle and seed grain, houses occupied by an agriculturist, labourer or domestic servant, books of account, a mere right to sue for damages, stipends of pensioners, wages of labourers and domestic servants, and salary to the extent of the first one thousand rupees and two thirds of the remainder.

Section 64 makes a private transfer of attached property void as against claims enforceable under the attachment, saving a transfer under a contract registered before the attachment.

Sale: Rule 64 empowers the sale; Rule 66 requires the proclamation; Rule 68 requires fifteen days to elapse after the proclamation for immovable property and seven days for movables; Rule 72 forbids the decree-holder to bid without the court's express permission; Rules 89, 90 and 91 allow the sale to be set aside on deposit, for material irregularity or fraud causing substantial injury, and for want of saleable interest; Rule 92 confirms the sale; Rule 94 provides for the certificate of sale.

3. Arrest and detention.

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Rule 37 requires the court, ordinarily, to issue a notice to show cause instead of a warrant of arrest in the first instance. Rules 38 to 40 govern the warrant and the hearing.

Section 55 governs the manner of arrest: no dwelling house may be entered after sunset and before sunrise, no outer door broken open unless the judgment-debtor occupies it and refuses access, and reasonable facility must be given to a woman who does not appear in public to withdraw.

Section 56: no woman shall be arrested or detained in the civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money.

Section 58: detention for up to three months where the decree is for a sum exceeding five thousand rupees, and six weeks where it exceeds two thousand but not five thousand; and by section 58(1A) no order of detention shall be made where the decretal amount does not exceed two thousand rupees. Release does not discharge the debt.

Jolly George Verghese v. Bank of Cochin (AIR 1980 SC 470): mere inability to pay is not a ground for detention; there must be an element of bad faith beyond mere indifference, or a present means to pay coupled with refusal.

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4. Appointment of a receiver, under section 51(d) and Order XL: equitable execution, used where the property yields income.

5. Any other manner the relief requires.

Rule 32, decrees for specific performance, restitution of conjugal rights and injunction: enforceable by attachment of property, or by detention, or both, save that a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is enforceable by attachment only.

Rule 34, decree for the execution of a document or the endorsement of a negotiable instrument: the court may have it drawn up and executed on the judgment-debtor's behalf.

Section 54, decree for partition of an undivided estate assessed to land revenue: the partition is made by the Collector.

Rules 18 and 19, set-off of cross-decrees and cross-claims.

IV. Stay of execution

This is the second half of the question and it must be answered separately, with its own rules.

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Order XXI Rule 26, stay by the court executing the decree. The court to which a decree has been sent for execution shall, upon sufficient cause being shown, stay the execution of such decree for a reasonable time, to enable the judgment-debtor to apply to the court which passed the decree, or to any court having appellate jurisdiction, for an order to stay execution or for any other order relating to the decree or execution which might have been made by that court if execution had been issued by it, or if application for execution had been made to it.

Sub-rule (2) allows the court to require security or to impose conditions, and to make an interim order attaching the property or appointing a receiver, or, in the case of a decree for the delivery of movable property, to order it to be delivered into the court's custody. Sub-rule (3) allows the court, where the property is subject to speedy and natural decay, to direct its sale.

Rule 27, liability of the judgment-debtor discharged. No order of stay of execution shall be made under Rule 26 unless the court making it is satisfied that the property of the judgment-debtor would not be subject to much deterioration, or that some other adequate security has been furnished.

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Rule 28, order of a court which passed a decree, or of an appellate court, to be binding upon the court applied to. Any order of the court by which the decree was passed, or of such court of appeal, in relation to the execution of the decree, shall be binding upon the court to which the decree was sent for execution.

Rule 29, stay of execution pending suit between decree-holder and judgment-debtor. Where a suit is pending in any court against the holder of a decree of that court, or of a decree which is being executed by that court, on the part of the person against whom the decree was passed, the court may, on such terms as to security or otherwise as it thinks fit, stay execution of the decree until the pending suit has been decided. This is the rule that answers the case of cross-litigation between the same parties.

Order XLI Rule 5, stay pending appeal. An appeal shall not operate as a stay of proceedings under a decree or order appealed from except so far as the Appellate Court may order, nor shall execution of a decree be stayed by reason only of an appeal having been preferred; but the Appellate Court may, for sufficient cause, order a stay. Sub-rule (3) states the three conditions, and they are the ones to remember: no order for stay of execution shall be made unless the court is satisfied

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(a) that substantial loss may result to the party applying for stay unless the order is made;

(b) that the application has been made without unreasonable delay; and

(c) that security has been given by the applicant for the due performance of the decree or order as may ultimately be binding upon him.

Sub-rule (2) allows the court which passed the decree to order a stay on sufficient cause where an appeal has been preferred, and sub-rule (4) allows the court to make an ex parte order for stay pending the hearing of the application. Order XLI Rule 6 deals with security in the case of a decree for the payment of money.

Section 47 and section 151. Questions relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree between the parties or their representatives are determined by the executing court and not by a separate suit; and the court retains its inherent power under section 151 to stay execution where the ends of justice require it and no express provision applies.

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Order XXI Rule 2 should be mentioned in the same breath: where a decree is adjusted in whole or in part, or the money is paid out of court, the decree-holder shall certify it and the judgment-debtor may apply for it to be recorded, and no payment or adjustment not so certified or recorded shall be recognised by any court executing the decree. Article 125 gives thirty days for that application.

Conclusion. The question has two halves and they pull against each other. Section 51 and Order XXI exist to get the decree-holder his money, by delivery, attachment and sale, arrest, a receiver or whatever the relief requires. The stay provisions exist so that the judgment-debtor is not ruined before an appeal can be heard. The balance is struck by Order XLI Rule 5(3): an appeal is not a stay, and a stay is granted only on substantial loss, no unreasonable delay and security. The transferee court can only hold the position briefly under Order XXI Rule 26; the real power lies with the court that passed the decree and with the appellate court.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2024-25 CPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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