Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject four changes make that worth saying. Section 89, on settling a suit outside the court, was replaced outright by Schedule IV to the Mediation Act, 2023. The Supreme Court, by its order of 10 January 2022, excluded 15 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 from every period of limitation, which is enough to reverse the answer to a problem in this folder, and that answer works both figures so the reader can see why. Adverse possession became a sword as well as a shield in 2019, and it is set in four of these papers. The United Arab Emirates was notified a reciprocating territory under Section 44A in January 2020. One smaller change is noted where it arises: the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 put 'speed post with registration and proof of delivery' in place of 'registered post acknowledgement due' in Section 148A and in Orders V, XXI and XXXIX, from 20 December 2025, one day after the 2025-26 regular paper was sat.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in two sentences 20 Marks
Answer
A memorandum of appeal is the document by which an appeal is preferred. Order XLI Rule 1 requires every appeal to be preferred in the form of a memorandum signed by the appellant or his pleader and presented to the court, accompanied by a copy of the judgment, and requires the memorandum to set forth, concisely and under distinct heads, the grounds of objection to the decree appealed from, without any argument or narrative, the grounds being numbered consecutively.
Answer
Under Order XL Rule 3, every receiver so appointed shall (a) furnish such security as the court thinks fit, duly to account for what he shall receive in respect of the property; (b) submit his accounts at such periods and in such form as the court directs; (c) pay the amount due from him as the court directs; and (d) be responsible for any loss occasioned to the property by his wilful default or gross negligence.
Two of these will answer the question: to submit accounts as directed, and to be responsible for loss caused by his wilful default or gross negligence.
Answer
Section 152 provides that clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders, or errors arising therein from any accidental slip or omission, may at any time be corrected by the court either of its own motion or on the application of any of the parties. This is the "slip rule", and it allows the record to be made to say what the court in fact decided.
Answer
Order XXXIII Rule 1A provides that every inquiry into the question whether or not a person is an indigent person shall be made, in the first instance, by the chief ministerial officer of the court, unless the court otherwise directs; and the court may adopt the report submitted by such officer, or may itself make an inquiry into the question.
Answer
A garnishee is a third person who owes a debt to the judgment-debtor, or who holds money on his account, and who is directed by the executing court to pay that debt into court, or to the decree-holder, in satisfaction of the decree. The procedure is in Order XXI Rule 46 and Rules 46A to 46I. The word comes from the French garnir, to warn.
Answer
Res sub judice means "a matter under judicial consideration", and it is enacted in section 10: no court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or before the Supreme Court.
Answer
A counterclaim is a claim made by the defendant against the plaintiff in the plaintiff's own suit, in respect of a cause of action accruing to him before or after the filing of the suit but before he has delivered his defence or before the time limited for delivering his defence has expired. It is provided for by Order VIII Rules 6A to 6G, and by Rule 6A(2) it has the effect of a cross-suit, so that the court may pronounce a final judgment on both the claim and the counterclaim.
Answer
Section 2(11) defines "legal representative" to mean a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased, and, where a party sues or is sued in a representative character, the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.
Answer
Section 6(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that where a person entitled to institute a suit or make an application for the execution of a decree is, at the time from which the period of limitation is to be reckoned, a minor, he may institute the suit or make the application within the same period after the disability has ceased as would otherwise have been allowed from the time prescribed in the Schedule. Section 8 caps that extension: it shall not extend the period by more than three years from the cessation of the disability.
Answer
Two periods are excluded by section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963. By section 12(1), in computing the period of limitation for any appeal, the day from which the period is to be reckoned shall be excluded. By section 12(2), in computing the period for an appeal, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from shall be excluded; and by section 12(3), where a decree or order is appealed from, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the judgment shall also be excluded.
Write short notes on
any four · 20 Marks
Answer
Order XXIII governs both, in five rules.
Rule 1, withdrawal of suit or abandonment of part of claim.
Sub-rule (1): at any time after the institution of a suit, the plaintiff may, as against all or any of the defendants, abandon his suit or abandon a part of his claim. Where the plaintiff is a minor or a person under disability, neither the suit nor any part of the claim shall be abandoned without the leave of the court, and the application for leave must be accompanied by an affidavit of the next friend and, where he is represented by a pleader, by a certificate of the pleader to the effect that the abandonment is for the benefit of the minor.
Sub-rule (3): where the court is satisfied (a) that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect, or (b) that there are other sufficient grounds for allowing the plaintiff to institute a fresh suit for the subject-matter of the suit or part of a claim, it may, on such terms as it thinks fit, grant the plaintiff permission to withdraw with liberty to institute a fresh suit.
Sub-rule (4): where the plaintiff abandons or withdraws without the permission referred to in sub-rule (3), he shall be liable for such costs as the court may award and shall be precluded from instituting any fresh suit in respect of such subject-matter or such part of the claim.
Sub-rule (5): nothing in this rule shall be deemed to authorise the court to permit one of several plaintiffs to abandon a suit or part of a claim, or to withdraw with liberty to sue afresh, without the consent of the other plaintiffs.
Rule 1A, inserted in 1976: where a suit is withdrawn by a plaintiff, the court may permit a defendant to be transposed as plaintiff where he has a substantial question to be decided as against any of the other defendants.
Rule 2, limitation law not affected by first suit. In any fresh suit instituted on permission granted under Rule 1, the plaintiff shall be bound by the law of limitation in the same manner as if the first suit had not been instituted. So permission to sue afresh does not enlarge time, and this is the sting in Rule 1(3). Section 14(3) of the Limitation Act modifies the position only in the limited way that section provides.
Rule 3, compromise of suit. Where it is proved to the satisfaction of the court that a suit has been adjusted wholly or in part by any lawful agreement or compromise, in writing and signed by the parties, or where the defendant satisfies the plaintiff in respect of the whole or any part of the subject-matter, the court shall order such agreement, compromise or satisfaction to be recorded, and shall pass a decree in accordance therewith so far as it relates to the parties to the suit. The words "in writing and signed by the parties" were inserted in 1976; before that an oral compromise sufficed.
The proviso requires the court, where one party alleges and the other denies an adjustment or satisfaction, to decide the question, and expressly forbids the adjournment of the hearing for the purpose of deciding it, unless the court, for reasons to be recorded, thinks fit to grant such adjournment.
Explanation to Rule 3: an agreement or compromise which is void or voidable under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 shall not be deemed lawful.
Rule 3A, bar to suit. No suit shall lie to set aside a decree on the ground that the compromise on which the decree is based was not lawful. The remedy is to apply to the same court under the proviso to Rule 3.
Rule 3B: no agreement or compromise in a representative suit shall be entered into without the leave of the court, and before granting leave the court shall give notice to such persons as it thinks fit.
Rule 4 provides that nothing in Rules 1 to 3 shall apply to any proceeding in execution of a decree or order.
Conclusion. Order XXIII is a trap for the careless and Rule 1(4) is the trap. A plaintiff who simply withdraws, without asking for liberty to sue afresh, can never sue again on that subject-matter; liberty must be asked for and it is granted only on a formal defect or other sufficient ground, and even then Rule 2 gives him no extra time under the law of limitation. On the adjustment side, a compromise must since 1976 be in writing and signed by the parties, and once a decree is passed on it no appeal lies under section 96(3) and no suit lies under Rule 3A.
Answer
Order IX governs the appearance of parties and the consequences of non-appearance, in fourteen rules. The scheme is best given as three cases.
Rule 1 requires the parties to attend the court in person or by their pleaders on the day fixed in the summons for the defendant to appear and answer.
Case 1: neither party appears. Rule 3. Where neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing, the court may make an order that the suit be dismissed. Rule 4 gives the plaintiff two options: he may bring a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation, or he may apply for an order setting aside the dismissal, and if he satisfies the court that there was sufficient cause for his non-appearance, the court shall set aside the dismissal and appoint a day for proceeding with the suit.
Case 2: the plaintiff does not appear, the defendant does. Rule 8. The court shall make an order that the suit be dismissed, unless the defendant admits the claim or part of it, in which case the court shall pass a decree upon the admission and dismiss the suit as to the remainder. Rule 9(1) provides the consequence: the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action; his only remedy is to apply to set aside the dismissal on proof of sufficient cause, and Article 122 of the Limitation Act gives thirty days. Rule 9(2) requires notice of that application to be served on the opposite party.
Case 3: the defendant does not appear, the plaintiff does. Rule 6. Where the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not, then (a) if it is proved that the summons was duly served, the court may order that the suit be heard ex parte; (b) if it is not proved that the summons was duly served, the court shall direct a second summons to be issued and served; and (c) if it is proved that the summons was served but not in sufficient time to enable the defendant to appear, the court shall postpone the hearing to a future day and give notice of it. Where the plaintiff is at fault in the failure of service, the costs of the postponement are on him.
Rule 7 is the remedy before the decree: where the suit is adjourned after being set down for ex parte hearing, and the defendant appears and assigns good cause for his previous non-appearance, he may, upon such terms as the court directs as to costs or otherwise, be heard in answer to the suit as if he had appeared on the day fixed for his appearance.
Rule 13 is the remedy after the decree: the court shall set aside an ex parte decree if the defendant satisfies it that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing. Article 123 gives thirty days from the date of the decree, or from knowledge of it where the summons was not duly served, and its Explanation provides that substituted service under Order V Rule 20 shall not be deemed to be due service for this purpose. The first proviso to Rule 13 limits the first ground: no decree shall be set aside merely for an irregularity in service where the court is satisfied that the defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer.
Rules 10, 11 and 12 deal with multiple plaintiffs and defendants: where there are several plaintiffs and one or more appear, the court may permit the suit to proceed; where there are several defendants and some appear, the suit proceeds and the court makes such order as it thinks fit as to those who do not.
The three cases in a table:
| Who is absent | Rule | Order made | Remedy | Fresh suit? |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Neither party | Rule 3 | Suit dismissed | Rule 4 | Yes, Rule 4 permits it |
| Plaintiff only | Rule 8 | Suit dismissed | Rule 9, 30 days, Article 122 | No, Rule 9(1) bars it |
| Defendant only | Rule 6(1)(a) | Suit heard ex parte | Rule 13, 30 days, Article 123 | Not applicable |
Conclusion. Order IX turns on which side failed to appear, and the three cases have three different consequences. Neither party absent: dismissed under Rule 3, and a fresh suit is permitted by Rule 4. Plaintiff alone absent: dismissed under Rule 8, and a fresh suit is barred by Rule 9(1). Defendant alone absent: heard ex parte under Rule 6(1)(a), and set aside under Rule 13 only on defective service or sufficient cause. Thirty days in each case, and the difference between Rule 4 and Rule 9 is what most answers get wrong.
Answer
Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that where, in the case of any suit or application for which a period of limitation is prescribed by the Act,
(a) the suit or application is based upon the fraud of the defendant or respondent or his agent; or
(b) the knowledge of the right or title on which a suit or application is founded is concealed by the fraud of any such person; or
(c) the suit or application is for relief from the consequences of a mistake; or
(d) where any document necessary to establish the right of the plaintiff or applicant has been fraudulently concealed from him,
the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff or applicant has discovered the fraud or the mistake, or could, with reasonable diligence, have discovered it; or, in the case of a concealed document, until he first had the means of producing the concealed document or compelling its production.
The proviso protects innocent third parties. Nothing in the section shall enable any suit to be instituted or application to be made to recover or enforce any charge against, or set aside any transaction affecting, any property which, in the case of fraud, has been purchased for valuable consideration by a person who was not a party to the fraud and did not at the time of the purchase know, or have reason to believe, that any fraud had been committed; or which, in the case of mistake, has been purchased for valuable consideration subsequently to the transaction in which the mistake was made, by a person who did not know or have reason to believe that the mistake had been made.
Section 17(2) deals with the opposite case, a judgment-debtor who by fraud or force prevents the execution of a decree within the period of limitation: the court may, on the judgment-creditor's application, extend the period for execution, provided the application is made within one year of the discovery of the fraud or the cessation of the force.
Conclusion. Section 17 does not extend a period; it holds that the period never began. Time runs from when the plaintiff discovered the fraud, the concealment or the mistake, or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it, and in the case of a concealed document from when he first had the means of producing it. Two things limit it: he must plead the fraud with particulars under Order VI Rule 4 and prove the date, and the proviso protects a purchaser for value who had no notice, so the property may be gone even where the section is made out.
Answer
Adverse possession is possession of immovable property by a person who is not the owner, held openly, peaceably, continuously and as of right, hostile to the true owner and to his knowledge, for the period prescribed by the Limitation Act, 1963, at the end of which the owner's remedy is barred and his title extinguished.
The provisions:
Article 65. A suit for possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title must be brought within twelve years, and time runs from the date the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff. The burden of pleading and proving when the possession became adverse is therefore on the defendant.
Article 112. Where the plaintiff is the Central or a State Government, the period is thirty years.
Section 27, extinguishment of right to property. At the determination of the period hereby limited to any person for instituting a suit for possession of any property, his right to such property shall be extinguished. This is the exception to the rule that limitation bars the remedy and not the right.
The essentials, remembered as nec vi, nec clam, nec precario, not by force, not by stealth, not by permission:
Conclusion. Article 65 gives twelve years and Article 112 thirty, and section 27 makes the consequence a real one by extinguishing the owner's title rather than merely barring his suit. What decides these cases is the quality of the possession, not its duration: it must be actual, open, hostile to the owner's knowledge and unbroken, and possession enjoyed by leave never becomes adverse until a hostile title is asserted and brought home to the owner. Since Ravinder Kaur Grewal the possessor who completes the period can sue on it.
Answer
A caveat is a caution or warning lodged with a court by a person who apprehends that an application is going to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted or about to be instituted, in which he is likely to be affected, asking the court not to grant any order on that application without first giving him notice. Section 148A, inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976, provides for it in five sub-sections.
(1) Right to lodge a caveat. Where an application is expected to be made, or has been made, in a suit or proceeding instituted, or about to be instituted, in a court, any person claiming a right to appear before the court on the hearing of such application may lodge a caveat in respect thereof.
(2) Notice by the caveator. The caveator shall serve a notice of the caveat on the person by whom the application has been or is expected to be made. The mode is speed post with registration and proof of delivery since the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 came into force on 20 December 2025, replacing "registered post acknowledgement due".
(3) Duty of the court. Where, after a caveat has been lodged, any application is filed in any suit or proceeding, the court shall serve a notice of the application on the caveator.
(4) Duty of the applicant. Where a notice of any caveat has been served on the applicant, he shall forthwith furnish the caveator, at the caveator's expense, with a copy of the application, and with copies of any paper or document which has been, or may be, filed by him in support of it.
(5) Life of the caveat. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged, unless the application referred to in sub-section (1) has been made before the expiry of that period.
Conclusion. A caveat is preventive and it buys one thing, notice. Any person claiming a right to appear may lodge one, party or not, and once he has, the court shall notify him of the application and the applicant shall furnish him the papers at his own expense. It lapses after ninety days, with no renewal and no extension. An order made in the teeth of a subsisting caveat is not a nullity, but it is routinely recalled, and that is the practical value of lodging one.
Answer
Section 88 provides that where two or more persons claim adversely to one another the same debt, sum of money or other property, movable or immovable, from another person, who claims no interest therein other than for charges or costs, and who is ready to pay or deliver it to the rightful claimant, that person may institute a suit of interpleader against all the claimants, to obtain a decision as to the person to whom the payment or delivery shall be made, and to obtain indemnity for himself. The proviso bars such a suit where a suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly be decided.
The five requisites:
Order XXXV, the procedure: Rule 1, the plaint must state that the plaintiff claims no interest other than for charges or costs, the claims of the defendants severally, and that there is no collusion between the plaintiff and any defendant. Rule 2, the court may order the thing claimed to be placed in its custody. Rule 3, a court in which a defendant is suing the plaintiff over the same subject-matter shall stay that suit.
Rule 4, at the first hearing the court may declare the plaintiff discharged from all liability, award him costs and dismiss him from the suit, and may adjudicate the title or direct an issue to be tried, making one claimant plaintiff. Rule 5 bars an interpleader suit by an agent against his principal or by a tenant against his landlord. Rule 6 allows the plaintiff's costs to be secured by a charge on the thing claimed.
Conclusion. The interpleader suit is the remedy of a person who holds something two others want and who wants none of it himself. The five requisites of section 88 are strict, especially that he claims no interest and is willing to pay or deliver, and Rule 1 makes him say so on oath and deny collusion. Rule 4 lets him out at the first hearing with his costs, and Rule 5 marks the outer limit by forbidding an agent to interplead against his principal or a tenant against his landlord.
Answer the following with reasons
any two · 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the remedy is a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX Rule 1(c); the three tests by name; sections 94(c) and 95 and Order XXXIX Rules 1, 2, 3, 3A, 4 and 2A; and the alternative of a receiver under Order XL.
(i) The remedy
Ajay's remedy is a temporary injunction restraining Ashok from dispossessing him, applied for in the pending suit.
Order XXXIX Rule 1(c) is directly in point. Where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise that the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit, the court may by order grant a temporary injunction to restrain such act, or make such other order for the purpose of staying and preventing the dispossession of the plaintiff, or otherwise causing injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit, as the court thinks fit, until the disposal of the suit or until further orders.
Clause (c) was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976 precisely for this situation, and Ajay's application falls within its words exactly: the property is in dispute in the pending suit, and the defendant threatens to dispossess him.
Rule 1(a) may also be invoked if the property is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by Ashok, and Rule 2(1) if what Ajay seeks is to restrain the commission of an injury of any kind.
The enabling section is section 94(c): in order to prevent the ends of justice from being defeated, the court may, if it is so prescribed, grant a temporary injunction and, in case of disobedience, commit the person guilty thereof to the civil prison and order that his property be attached and sold.
(ii) The fundamental principles
The three tests. All three must be satisfied; failure on any one is fatal.
1. A prima facie case. Ajay must show that there is a serious question to be tried and that on the material before the court there is a probability of his being entitled to the relief. He need not prove his case; he must show it is not frivolous. Here he must place on record his title or his possession, and the fact that the property is the subject-matter of the pending suit.
2. The balance of convenience. The inconvenience likely to be caused to Ajay by refusing the injunction must outweigh that likely to be caused to Ashok by granting it. Preserving an existing possession pending trial is almost always less disruptive than allowing it to be disturbed and then restored.
3. Irreparable injury. Ajay must show injury which cannot be adequately compensated in money. Dispossession from immovable property is the standard example, because land is not fungible and damages are an inadequate substitute for the specific property.
Two further requirements always operate, because the relief is equitable and discretionary: he must come promptly, since delay, acquiescence and laches defeat an equitable claim; and with clean hands, having made full and frank disclosure.
The procedural provisions:
Rule 3. Before granting an injunction the court shall give notice of the application to the opposite party, except where it appears that the object of granting the injunction would be defeated by the delay; and where an ex parte injunction is granted, the court shall record the reasons for that opinion and require the applicant, on the same day or the next day, to deliver to the opposite party a copy of the application, the affidavit and the plaint, and to file an affidavit of such delivery.
Rule 3A. Where an injunction has been granted without notice, the court shall make an endeavour to dispose of the application finally within thirty days, and shall record its reasons if it is unable to do so.
Rule 4. The order may be discharged, varied or set aside on the application of any party dissatisfied with it; and where it was obtained ex parte on a knowingly false or misleading statement in a material particular, the court shall set it aside unless it considers that not necessary in the interests of justice.
Rule 2A, disobedience. In the case of disobedience of an injunction, the court may order the property of the person guilty to be attached and may order him to be detained in the civil prison for a term not exceeding three months. No attachment shall remain in force for more than one year, at the end of which, if the disobedience continues, the property may be sold and compensation awarded out of the proceeds.
Section 95 protects Ashok in the converse case: where it appears that there were no sufficient grounds for granting the injunction, or the suit is dismissed and there was no reasonable or probable ground for instituting it, the court may on his application award him reasonable compensation not exceeding its pecuniary jurisdiction, and such an order bars any further suit for compensation for the same injury.
Conclusion. Ajay's remedy is a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX Rule 1(c), a clause inserted in 1976 for precisely this case, restraining Ashok from dispossessing him until the suit is decided. He must satisfy all three tests, and on these facts the strongest are that dispossession from immovable property cannot be repaired with money and that preserving an existing possession is less disruptive than restoring it later. If the court doubts either party's stewardship, the alternative is a receiver under Order XL, and disobedience of the injunction is met by attachment and up to three months' detention under Rule 2A.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the commission is one for local investigation, section 75(b) and Order XXVI Rule 9; all seven clauses of section 75; the powers under Rule 16; that the report is evidence under Rule 10(2); and the tenancy point under section 85 of the Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, 1948.
(i) The type of commission
The commission that fits is a commission for local investigation, under section 75(b) read with Order XXVI Rule 9.
Rule 9 provides that in any suit in which the court deems a local investigation to be requisite or proper for the purpose of elucidating any matter in dispute, or of ascertaining the market value of any property, or the amount of any mesne profits or damages or annual net profits, the court may issue a commission to such person as it thinks fit, directing him to make the investigation and to report thereon.
Why it fits. The suit is for declaration of title and possession of agricultural land which another man has been tilling since 1940. The questions that will decide it are questions of fact on the ground: which land, where it lies, what its boundaries are, who is in actual physical possession of which portion, since when, what stands on it, and what its extent is. None can be answered from the record; all can be answered by a person sent to look.
Where the court also has to determine mesne profits for the period of Raghunath's occupation, Rule 9 covers that too, and where accounts have to be gone into, a commission to examine or adjust accounts under section 75(c) and Rules 11 and 12 may be issued in addition.
(ii) The relevance of commissions
Section 75 empowers the court, subject to such conditions and limitations as may be prescribed, to issue a commission for seven purposes:
(a) to examine any person (Order XXVI Rules 1 to 8);
(b) to make a local investigation (Rule 9);
(c) to examine or adjust accounts (Rules 11 and 12);
(d) to make a partition (Rules 13 and 14);
(e) to hold a scientific, technical or expert investigation (Rule 10A);
(f) to conduct a sale of property which is subject to speedy and natural decay and which it is desirable to sell at once (Rule 10B);
(g) to perform any ministerial act (Rule 10C).
Clauses (e), (f) and (g) were inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976.
Why commissions matter. A court cannot leave the court house, and there are matters which no amount of oral evidence will settle as well as an inspection will: the position of a boundary, the extent of an encroachment, the identity of a field, the state of a building, the amount of mesne profits, the correctness of a running account. A commission lets the court borrow the eyes of a person on the spot without turning the trial into a site visit, and it does so at the cost of the party who asks for it rather than of the court.
The commissioner's powers, Rule 16. He may examine the parties themselves and any witness whom they or any other party may produce, and any other person whom he thinks proper to call upon to give evidence; he may call for and examine documents and other things relevant to the subject of inquiry; and he may at any reasonable time enter upon or into any land or building mentioned in the order. Rule 17 provides for compelling attendance, Rule 18 for the parties' appearance before him, and Rule 18A for the commission to form part of the record.
The status of the report, Rule 10. The commissioner shall return the commission with his report in writing signed by him, and the evidence taken by him. Rule 10(2): the report of the commissioner and the evidence taken by him shall be evidence in the suit and shall form part of the record; and the court or, with its permission, any of the parties may examine the commissioner personally in open court touching any of the matters referred to him or mentioned in his report. Rule 10(3): where the court is for any reason dissatisfied with the proceedings of the commissioner, it may direct such further inquiry as it thinks fit.
Conclusion. The commission that fits is one for local investigation under section 75(b) and Order XXVI Rule 9, because the questions that will decide the suit, the identity of the land, its boundaries, its extent and who is actually on it, cannot be answered from the record. The commissioner may examine parties and witnesses and enter the land under Rule 16, and his report and evidence are evidence in the suit under Rule 10(2), but he decides nothing. And the tenancy question itself is not for the civil court: section 85 of the Bombay Tenancy Act commits it to the Mamlatdar.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the answer to (i) is no, not as of right, and the provision is Order XLI Rule 27(1); the three clauses (a), (aa) and (b); Rule 27(2), the duty to record reasons; Rules 28 and 29; and the Parsotim principle that the requirement must be the court's, not the party's.
(i) Is a party ordinarily entitled to produce additional evidence?
No. Not as of right. Order XLI Rule 27(1) opens with the words "the parties to an appeal shall not be entitled to produce additional evidence, whether oral or documentary, in the Appellate Court", and then admits three exceptions.
The general rule, which the prohibition expresses, is that an appeal is a rehearing on the record made in the trial court. The appellate court decides on the evidence which was before the court below. Additional evidence is the exception, and the burden of bringing the case within an exception lies on the party who asks. Section 107(1)(d) confers the corresponding power on the appellate court to take additional evidence or to require such evidence to be taken.
(ii) When the court may allow it
The three grounds in Order XLI Rule 27(1):
(a) Where the court from whose decree the appeal is preferred has refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted. The appellate court here corrects a wrong ruling of the trial court on admissibility. This is really a complaint against that ruling, not an application to lead fresh evidence.
(aa) Where the party seeking to produce additional evidence establishes that, notwithstanding the exercise of due diligence, such evidence was not within his knowledge or could not, after the exercise of due diligence, be produced by him at the time when the decree appealed against was passed. This clause was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976. The test is due diligence, and the burden is squarely on the applicant. A document that existed, was in his possession or power, and which he chose not to file, is not "discovered", and this clause is closed to him.
(b) Where the Appellate Court requires any document to be produced or any witness to be examined to enable it to pronounce judgment, or for any other substantial cause. This is the widest of the three and the most misunderstood. It operates where the appellate court itself finds the record insufficient, not where the party finds his own case insufficient.
Rule 27(2) is mandatory and is where marks are most often lost: wherever additional evidence is allowed to be produced, the Court shall record the reason for its admission. An order admitting additional evidence without recorded reasons is bad in law.
Rules 28 and 29, the procedure. Where additional evidence is directed to be taken, the Appellate Court may either take such evidence itself, or direct the court from whose decree the appeal is preferred, or any other subordinate court, to take it and send it (Rule 28); and the Appellate Court shall specify the points to which the evidence is to be confined and record those points in its proceedings (Rule 29).
Conclusion. No, a party is not ordinarily entitled to produce additional evidence in appeal; Order XLI Rule 27(1) begins by saying so. He gets in only through one of the three exceptions, and the burden is on him: that the trial court wrongly refused the document, that despite due diligence it was not within his knowledge, or that the appellate court itself requires it to pronounce judgment. The principle in Parsotim is that the requirement must be the court's and not the party's, and Rule 27(2) obliges the court to record its reasons for admitting anything.
Answer the following in detail
any four · 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the concept and the object; section 115(1) with its three clauses; the substituted proviso of 2002, which is the most examinable part; sub-sections (2) and (3) and the Explanation; who may invoke it and how; the meaning of "case decided" and of "material irregularity"; the comparison with appeal, review and reference; and Article 131's ninety days.
I. The concept
Revision is the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the subordinate courts within its jurisdiction, exercised to keep them within the bounds of their authority. It is not an appeal. It goes to jurisdiction, not to the correctness of a finding, and it is exercised at the discretion of the High Court.
The object, in the classic phrase, is to prevent subordinate courts from acting arbitrarily, capriciously, illegally or irregularly in the exercise of their jurisdiction, and to ensure that they act within the limits of their authority.
II. Section 115(1): the provision
The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies thereto, and if such subordinate court appears
(a) to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law; or
(b) to have failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested; or
(c) to have acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity,the High Court may make such order in the case as it thinks fit.
The three conditions precedent in the opening words are as important as the three grounds: there must be a case which has been decided; by a court subordinate to the High Court; and no appeal must lie to the High Court from that decision.
III. The proviso, as substituted in 1999 with effect from 1 July 2002
Provided that the High Court shall not, under this section, vary or reverse any order made, or any order deciding an issue, in the course of a suit or other proceeding, except where the order, if it had been made in favour of the party applying for revision, would have finally disposed of the suit or other proceeding.
This is the single most important change to section 115 and no answer is current without it. Before 2002 the section reached a very wide class of interlocutory orders. Since 2002 an interlocutory order can be revised only if reversing it would finally dispose of the suit. Older textbooks and older case law are misleading on the point.
Sub-section (2): the High Court shall not, under this section, vary or reverse any decree or order against which an appeal lies either to the High Court or to any court subordinate to it.
Sub-section (3): a revision shall not operate as a stay of suit or other proceeding before the court, except where such suit or other proceeding is stayed by the High Court.
Explanation: "any case which has been decided" includes any order made, or any order deciding an issue, in the course of a suit or other proceeding.
IV. The three grounds explained
(a) Exercise of a jurisdiction not vested by law. The court took upon itself a power it did not have: it tried a suit beyond its pecuniary limits, or of a kind expressly barred, or granted a relief it had no power to grant.
(b) Failure to exercise a jurisdiction so vested. The court declined a jurisdiction it possessed: it wrongly returned a plaint for want of jurisdiction, or refused to entertain an application on an erroneous view that it could not.
(c) Acting illegally or with material irregularity in the exercise of jurisdiction. The court had jurisdiction and exercised it, but in the doing of it committed an illegality or a material irregularity of procedure: it decided without giving a hearing, admitted plainly inadmissible evidence and rested its order on it, or refused to allow a party to be heard.
The settled limit, from a long line beginning with the Privy Council in Rajah Amir Hassan Khan v. Sheo Baksh Singh (1884) and Balakrishna Udayar v. Vasudeva Aiyar (1917): the section applies to jurisdiction alone, the irregular exercise or non-exercise of it, or the illegal assumption of it. It is not directed against conclusions of law or fact in which the question of jurisdiction is not involved. A court which has jurisdiction to decide a question has jurisdiction to decide it wrongly, and a wrong decision on the merits is not revisable.
V. Practical aspects
Who may invoke it. Either on the application of a party or by the High Court of its own motion. The words of the section are permissive: it is a discretionary jurisdiction, and the High Court may decline to interfere even where a ground is made out, if no failure of justice has occurred.
Limitation. Article 131 of the Limitation Act gives ninety days from the date of the decree, order or sentence sought to be revised, and section 12(2) excludes the time requisite for obtaining copies.
No stay unless ordered. By sub-section (3) the mere filing of a revision does not stay anything.
Where section 115 is closed, Article 227 may be open. The High Court's power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals under Article 227 of the Constitution survives the narrowing of section 115, but it is a constitutional power to be used sparingly and only to keep subordinate courts within the bounds of their authority, not to correct errors of fact or law. In Kanchhu v. Prakash Chand (2025 INSC 542) the Supreme Court set aside a High Court order under Article 227 recalling a thirty year old ex parte decree, restating that supervisory jurisdiction must stay within supervisory limits and that a litigant who is not vigilant cannot expect indulgence.
VI. Comparison
| Appeal, section 96 or 100 | Revision, section 115 | Review, section 114 | Reference, section 113 | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| To which court | The appellate court | The High Court | The same court | The High Court |
| Invoked by | A party, as of right | A party, or the court suo motu; discretionary | An aggrieved person | The subordinate court |
| Appeal, section 96 or 100 | Revision, section 115 | Review, section 114 | Reference, section 113 | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Ground | Any error of fact or law (first appeal); substantial question of law (second appeal) | Jurisdictional error only | New evidence, error apparent, other sufficient reason | Reasonable doubt on a question of law |
| Nature | A right | A discretion, supervisory | Corrective by the same court | Consultative |
| Limitation | 30 or 90 days, Articles 116 and 117 | 90 days, Article 131 | 30 days, Article 124 | None; made by the court |
Conclusion. Revision is supervision, not appeal. It lies only to the High Court, only where no appeal lies, and only on the three jurisdictional grounds, so a court that had jurisdiction to decide a question had jurisdiction to decide it wrongly and its error is not revisable. Since the proviso was substituted in 2002 an interlocutory order can be revised only where reversing it would finally dispose of the suit, which is the single fact that dates an answer on this section. The period is ninety days and the filing does not stay anything.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the statutory location; which court executes, sections 38, 39 and 46; section 51's five clauses and its proviso; each mode with its rules; sections 55 to 59 and 60 to 64; section 47 and the rule that the executing court cannot go behind the decree; and Article 136's twelve years.
I. Meaning and location
Execution is the enforcement of a decree by the process of the court, by which the decree-holder obtains the fruits of his litigation. The term is not defined. The law is in sections 36 to 74 and in Order XXI, the longest Order in the Code with 106 rules. Section 36 applies those provisions, so far as applicable, to orders as well.
II. Which court executes
Section 38: a decree may be executed either by the court which passed it or by the court to which it is sent for execution.
Section 37 defines "the court which passed a decree" to include, where the court of first instance has ceased to exist or to have jurisdiction, the court which would have jurisdiction to try the suit at the time of execution.
Section 39: the court which passed the decree may, on the decree-holder's application, transfer it for execution to another competent court where the judgment-debtor resides, carries on business or personally works for gain, or where his property is situated, or for any other sufficient reason recorded in writing. Sub-section (4), added by the Amendment Act of 2002: the court which passed the decree cannot execute it against a person or property outside its own jurisdiction.
Section 46, precept: an interim attachment by another court, lasting two months, pending transfer.
Section 44A: a decree of a superior court of a reciprocating territory, filed in a District Court, is executed as if it had been passed by that District Court.
III. The application: Order XXI Rules 10 to 25
Rule 11(1) allows an oral application for immediate execution by arrest where the judgment-debtor is within the precincts of the court. Rule 11(2) requires in every other case a written application signed and verified, stating the suit number, the parties, the date of the decree, whether any appeal has been preferred, any payment or adjustment, previous applications and their results, the amount due, and the mode in which the assistance of the court is required. Rule 22 requires a notice to show cause where the application is made more than two years after the decree, or against a legal representative, or on a decree filed under section 44A.
IV. Section 51: the five modes
Subject to such conditions and limitations as may be prescribed, the court may, on the application of the decree-holder, order execution of the decree (a) by delivery of any property specifically decreed; (b) by attachment and sale, or sale without attachment, of any property; (c) by arrest and detention in prison for a period not exceeding that specified in section 58, where permissible under it; (d) by appointing a receiver; or (e) in such other manner as the nature of the relief granted may require.
The proviso governs money decrees: detention shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the court is satisfied for reasons recorded in writing that he is likely to abscond, or has dishonestly transferred, concealed or removed his property since the institution of the suit, or has committed some other act of bad faith in relation to his property, or has or has had since the decree the means to pay and refuses or neglects to pay, or that the decree is for a sum he was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account for.
Mode 1, delivery of property specifically decreed. Rule 31, movables: by seizure and delivery, or by detention of the judgment-debtor, or by attachment of his property, or both. Rule 35, immovable property: by delivery of possession, removing any person bound by the decree who refuses to vacate, breaking open a lock or door if necessary with police assistance, and giving reasonable warning and facility to withdraw to women who by custom do not appear in public. Rule 36, symbolic possession where a tenant not bound to relinquish is in occupation.
Mode 2, attachment and sale. Section 60(1) makes liable to attachment all saleable property, movable or immovable, belonging to the judgment-debtor or over which, or the profits of which, he has a disposing power which he may exercise for his own benefit. Its proviso exempts, among others, necessary wearing apparel, cooking vessels, beds and bedding of the judgment-debtor, his wife and children; personal ornaments a woman cannot part with by religious usage; tools of artisans, and an agriculturist's implements of husbandry, cattle and seed grain; houses occupied by an agriculturist, labourer or domestic servant; books of account; a mere right to sue for damages; any right of personal service; stipends of pensioners; wages of labourers and domestic servants; salary to the extent of the first one thousand rupees and two thirds of the remainder; and a mere expectancy of succession by survivorship.
Section 64(1) makes a private transfer or delivery of attached property void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment, saving by sub-section (2) a transfer under a contract entered into and registered before the attachment.
Rules 41 to 53 govern attachment of movables, debts (Rule 46) and the garnishee procedure (Rules 46A to 46I); Rule 54 governs attachment of immovable property by an order prohibiting transfer or charge, proclaimed and affixed on the property and in the court house.
Sale, Rules 64 to 73 and 89 to 94. Rule 64 empowers the sale; Rule 66 requires the proclamation stating the time and place, the property, the revenue assessed, any encumbrance and the amount to be recovered; Rule 68 requires fifteen days to elapse after the proclamation for immovable property and seven days for movables; Rule 72 forbids the decree-holder to bid without the express permission of the court; Rules 89, 90 and 91 allow the sale to be set aside on deposit, for material irregularity or fraud causing substantial injury, and for want of saleable interest; Rule 92 confirms the sale; Rule 94 provides for the certificate.
Mode 3, arrest and detention. Section 55 governs the manner: no dwelling house may be entered after sunset and before sunrise, no outer door broken open unless the judgment-debtor occupies it and refuses access, and reasonable facility must be given to a woman who does not appear in public to withdraw. Section 56 is absolute: no woman shall be arrested or detained in the civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money. Section 58: detention up to three months where the decree is for a sum exceeding five thousand rupees, six weeks where it exceeds two thousand but not five thousand; by section 58(1A) no order of detention shall be made where the decretal amount does not exceed two thousand rupees; and release does not discharge the debt.
Section 59 requires release on the ground of illness. Rule 37 requires the court ordinarily to issue a notice to show cause before a warrant. In Jolly George Verghese v. Bank of Cochin (AIR 1980 SC 470) the Supreme Court, reading section 51 with Article 21 and Article 11 of the ICCPR, held that mere inability to pay is not a ground for imprisonment; there must be an element of bad faith beyond mere indifference to pay, or present means coupled with refusal.
Mode 4, appointment of a receiver, section 51(d) and Order XL: equitable execution, used where the property yields income and a sale would be wasteful.
Mode 5, any other manner the relief requires. Rule 32 enforces decrees for specific performance, restitution of conjugal rights and injunction by attachment of property, or detention, or both, save that a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is enforceable by attachment only. Rule 34 allows the court to execute a document on the judgment-debtor's behalf. Section 54 commits the partition of an undivided estate assessed to land revenue to the Collector. Rules 18 and 19 provide for cross-decrees and cross-claims.
V. Questions arising, and limitation
Section 47: all questions between the parties or their representatives relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree shall be determined by the executing court and not by a separate suit.
The executing court cannot go behind the decree. It must take the decree as it stands, however erroneous, unless the decree is a nullity for want of jurisdiction, in which case its invalidity may be set up whenever and wherever it is sought to be enforced.
Order XXI Rule 2: a payment or adjustment out of court must be certified or recorded, and one that is not shall not be recognised by any court executing the decree; Article 125 gives thirty days to apply.
Limitation. Article 136 gives twelve years from the date the decree becomes enforceable, except three years for a decree granting a mandatory injunction. Article 127 gives sixty days to set aside a sale in execution.
Delay. In Rahul S. Shah v. Jinendra Kumar Gandhi (2021) the Supreme Court, recording that execution routinely outlasts the suit that produced the decree, directed that executing courts dispose of execution proceedings within six months of filing, extendable only for written reasons.
Conclusion. Section 51 gives five modes and the decree-holder may pursue the person and the property of his debtor together. Attachment and sale is the ordinary route, bounded by the section 60 exemptions, which cannot be waived, and made effective by section 64, which avoids a private transfer of attached property. Detention is the last resort: not against a woman on a money decree, never above the periods in section 58, and after Jolly George Verghese not against a man who simply cannot pay. Section 47 keeps every dispute about all this in the executing court.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and nature; sections 96 to 99A and 107; the four cases where no first appeal lies; Order XLI rule by rule; and the limitation Articles 116 and 117. Contrast with the second appeal under section 100 at the end.
I. Meaning and nature
An appeal is the judicial examination by a higher court of the decision of a subordinate court, at the instance of a party aggrieved. An appeal from an original decree is a first appeal, and the law is in sections 96 to 99A and Order XLI.
Three propositions on its nature: an appeal is a creature of statute, there being no inherent right of appeal; it is a continuation of the suit, and by section 107(2) the appellate court has the same powers and duties as a court of original jurisdiction; and the right of appeal is a substantive right which vests on the date the suit is instituted.
II. Sections 96 to 99A
Section 96(1). Save where otherwise expressly provided, an appeal shall lie from every decree passed by any court exercising original jurisdiction to the court authorised to hear appeals from the decisions of such court.
Section 96(2). An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.
Section 96(3). No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties.
Section 96(4). No appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
Who may appeal: a party adversely affected by the decree; a person claiming under such a party, such as a transferee or legal representative; and any other person aggrieved, with the leave of the appellate court, where he is bound by or prejudicially affected by the decree.
Section 97. Where a party aggrieved by a preliminary decree does not appeal from it, he is precluded from disputing its correctness in any appeal from the final decree.
Section 98. Where an appeal is heard by two or more Judges who are equally divided, the decree of the lower court is confirmed, unless the case is referred to a larger Bench.
Section 99. No decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded, on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action, or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the court. The proviso excludes non-joinder of a necessary party. Section 99A applies the same to orders under section 47.
III. Order XLI
Rule 1, form. Every appeal shall be preferred in the form of a memorandum signed by the appellant or his pleader and presented to the court, accompanied by a copy of the judgment, setting forth concisely and under distinct heads the grounds of objection, without any argument or narrative, numbered consecutively.
Rule 2. No ground not set forth in the memorandum may be urged without leave, and the court shall not rest its decision on any other ground unless the party affected has had sufficient opportunity to contest it.
Rule 3. A memorandum not drawn up as prescribed may be rejected or returned for amendment.
Rule 3A. An appeal presented after the period of limitation must be accompanied by an application supported by affidavit showing sufficient cause; and until it is decided the court shall not stay execution.
Rule 5, stay. An appeal shall not operate as a stay of proceedings under the decree, nor shall execution be stayed by reason only of an appeal having been preferred; the appellate court may order a stay for sufficient cause, and sub-rule (3) requires it to be satisfied that substantial loss may result unless the order is made, that the application was made without unreasonable delay, and that security has been given for the due performance of the decree.
Rule 11, summary dismissal. The appellate court may dismiss the appeal after hearing the appellant, without sending notice to the respondent.
Rule 12 requires notice of the day fixed for hearing to be served on the respondent.
Rule 17, dismissal for default. Where the appellant does not appear on the day fixed, the court may dismiss the appeal; the Explanation, added in 1976, provides that nothing in the rule empowers the court to dismiss the appeal on the merits.
Rule 19 allows readmission of an appeal dismissed for default on sufficient cause.
Rule 21, rehearing. Where an appeal is heard ex parte and judgment pronounced against the respondent, he may apply to have the appeal reheard, and if he satisfies the court that notice was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, the court shall rehear it.
Rule 22, cross-objections. A respondent, though he may not have appealed, may support the decree on any ground decided against him, and may file cross-objections within one month from the date of service of notice of the day fixed for hearing. Cross-objections are dealt with as if they were an appeal, and by sub-rule (4) they may be heard and determined even if the original appeal is withdrawn or dismissed for default.
Rules 23, 23A, 24 and 25, remand. Where the trial court disposed of the suit on a preliminary point and the decree is reversed, the appellate court may remand (Rule 23); Rule 23A extends the power where a retrial is considered necessary; Rule 24 allows the appellate court to determine the case finally where the evidence is sufficient; Rule 25 allows it to frame issues and refer them for trial.
Rule 27, additional evidence. The parties shall not be entitled to produce additional evidence, except (a) where the trial court refused evidence that ought to have been admitted; (aa) where, notwithstanding due diligence, it was not within the party's knowledge or could not be produced; or (b) where the appellate court requires it to pronounce judgment or for any other substantial cause. Sub-rule (2) requires the reason for admission to be recorded.
Rule 31, judgment. The judgment shall state the points for determination, the decision thereon, the reasons for the decision, and, where the decree is reversed or varied, the relief to which the appellant is entitled.
Rule 33, powers. The appellate court has power to pass any decree and make any order which ought to have been passed or made, and this power may be exercised notwithstanding that the appeal is as to part only of the decree, and notwithstanding that the respondent or any of the respondents may not have filed any appeal or objection.
IV. Limitation
Article 116(a): appeal under the Code to a High Court, ninety days from the date of the decree or order.
Article 116(b): appeal to any other court, thirty days.
Article 117: appeal from a decree or order of a High Court to the same court, thirty days.
Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act excludes the day of pronouncement and the time requisite for obtaining copies; section 5 allows condonation on sufficient cause; Order XLI Rule 3A governs the application.
The cases to cite. Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari, (2001) 3 SCC 179, states the duty of the first appellate court: it is a court of both fact and law, its judgment must reflect a conscious application of mind and must record findings supported by reasons on all the issues arising with the contentions of both sides, and it cannot simply affirm the trial court. Madhukar v. Sangram, (2001) 4 SCC 756, is to the same effect: sitting as a court of first appeal, it is the duty of the High Court to deal with all the issues and the evidence.
Conclusion. A first appeal is a rehearing on the record, on fact as well as law, and the appellate court is the last court of fact, which is why Order XLI Rule 31 obliges it to state the points, the decision and the reasons. Two rules give the chapter its reach: Rule 22, under which a respondent who has not appealed may file cross-objections within one month and have them decided even if the appeal is withdrawn, and Rule 33, under which the court may pass any decree the case requires, even in favour of a party who never appealed.
Answer
For full marks, cover: section 27 and Order V Rule 1 with the 30 and 90 day periods; every mode with its rule; substituted service and why it is a last resort; service on special classes; the 2025 change from registered post to speed post; and the link with Order VIII Rule 1 and SCG Contracts.
I. What a summons is
A summons is the document issued by the court, signed by the Judge or such officer as he appoints and sealed with the seal of the court, by which the defendant is called upon to appear and answer the claim. Section 27 provides that where a suit has been duly instituted, a summons may be issued to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and may be served in the manner prescribed on such day not beyond thirty days from the date of the institution of the suit.
Order V Rule 1(1): when a suit has been duly instituted, a summons may be issued to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and to file the written statement of his defence, if any, within thirty days from the date of service of summons on that defendant. The proviso allows the court, for reasons to be recorded in writing, to extend that time, but not later than ninety days from the date of service of summons. Rule 1(2) requires the summons to be signed by the Judge or such officer as he appoints, and sealed. Rule 1(3) provides that the court may not issue a summons where the defendant has appeared at the presentation of the plaint and admitted the plaintiff's claim.
Rule 2 requires a copy of the plaint to accompany every summons. Rule 5 requires the summons to state whether it is for settlement of issues only or for final disposal. Rule 6 requires the day for appearance to be fixed with regard to the place of residence of the defendant, allowing sufficient time. Rule 7 requires the summons to order the defendant to produce all documents in his possession or power upon which he intends to rely. Rule 8 provides that where the summons is for final disposal, it shall direct the defendant to produce his witnesses.
II. The modes
1. Personal or direct service: Rules 10 to 16.
Rule 10: service is made by delivering or tendering a copy of the summons signed by the Judge and sealed.
Rule 12: wherever practicable, service shall be made on the defendant in person, unless he has an agent empowered to accept service.
Rule 13: in a suit relating to any business or work against a person not residing within the local limits, service on the manager or agent carrying on that business or work is good service.
Rule 14: where the suit relates to immovable property and service cannot be made on the defendant in person and he has no agent, service may be made on any agent of the defendant in charge of the property.
Rule 15: where the defendant is absent from his residence at the time service is sought and there is no likelihood of his being found within a reasonable time, and he has no agent, service may be made on any adult member of the family, whether male or female, who is residing with him. The Explanation provides that a servant is not a member of the family.
Rule 16: the serving officer shall require the person served to sign an acknowledgment on the original.
Rule 17, affixation: where the defendant or his agent refuses to sign the acknowledgment, or cannot be found after due and reasonable diligence, the serving officer shall affix a copy on the outer door or some other conspicuous part of the house in which the defendant ordinarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, and shall return the original with a report.
Rule 18 requires the serving officer to endorse or annex a return stating the time and manner of service, the name and address of the person identifying the defendant, and the witness to the delivery or tender. Rule 19 requires the court to examine the serving officer on oath, or hold an inquiry, where the return is not verified by affidavit, and it may declare that the summons has been duly served or order fresh service.
2. Service by the court by post and electronic means: Rule 9.
The court may direct service by speed post with registration and proof of delivery, or by an approved courier service, or by fax message or electronic mail service, or by any other means as may be provided by the rules made by the High Court. The words "speed post with registration and proof of delivery" replaced "registered post acknowledgement due" throughout Order V by the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, with effect from 20 December 2025. Where the summons is properly addressed, prepaid and sent, and the acknowledgment is lost or not received within thirty days, or the defendant refuses to take delivery, the court shall declare that the summons has been duly served.
Rule 19A, which formerly provided for simultaneous service by registered post, was deleted by the Amendment Act of 1999 and must not be cited.
3. Service by the plaintiff, "dasti": Rule 9A.
The court may, in addition to the ordinary mode, permit the plaintiff to effect service of the summons on the defendant personally, and the plaintiff shall then deliver or tender a copy signed by the Judge and sealed, and take an acknowledgment. Where the defendant refuses to acknowledge, or cannot be found, the plaintiff shall affix a copy as in Rule 17 and file an affidavit.
4. Substituted service: Rule 20.
Where the court is satisfied that there is reason to believe that the defendant is keeping out of the way for the purpose of avoiding service, or that for any other reason the summons cannot be served in the ordinary way, the court shall order the summons to be served by affixing a copy in some conspicuous place in the court house, and also upon some conspicuous part of the house in which the defendant is known to have last resided or carried on business or personally worked for gain, or in such other manner as the court thinks fit.
Sub-rule (1A) provides that where the court so orders, it shall also direct a copy of the summons to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the locality in which the defendant is last known to have actually and voluntarily resided, carried on business or personally worked for gain, that newspaper being a local language newspaper. Sub-rule (2): service substituted by order of the court shall be as effectual as if it had been made on the defendant personally. Sub-rule (3) requires the court, where it orders substituted service, to fix such time for the appearance of the defendant as the case may require.
5. Service outside the jurisdiction: Rules 21 to 26.
Rule 21: a summons may be sent for service to another court, whether within or outside the State, having jurisdiction where the defendant resides. Rule 22 and 23 govern the duty of the receiving court. Rule 24: where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons is delivered to the officer in charge of the prison. Rule 25: where the defendant resides outside India and has no agent empowered to accept service, the summons shall be addressed to him at the place where he is residing and sent to him by post or by any courier service, or by fax or electronic mail, if there is postal or other communication between that place and the place where the court is situate. Rule 26 provides for service in a foreign territory through a political agent or court, and Rule 26A for summonses to be sent to officers of foreign countries.
6. Service on special classes of defendant.
Rule 27: a public officer, or a servant of a railway company or local authority, may be served by sending the summons to the head of the office in which he is employed.
Rule 28: a soldier, sailor or airman is served through his commanding officer.
Rule 29 and Order XXIX Rule 2: a corporation may be served on the secretary, or on any director or other principal officer, or by leaving it or sending it by post to the registered office, or, if there is none, at the place where the corporation carries on business.
Order XXX Rule 3: partners are served either on each partner, or at the principal place of business on any person having control or management of the partnership business.
Order XXVII Rule 4 governs service on the Government, on such officer as the Government may appoint.
III. Why the Order is written as it is
The whole Order exists to satisfy one requirement of natural justice, that no one shall be condemned unheard, and every rule in it is a way of proving that the defendant had a real opportunity to know of the suit.
That is why substituted service is a last resort: the court must record its satisfaction that the defendant is evading service or that the ordinary mode has failed, and an order made without material showing that is bad. An ex parte decree that follows such an order is liable to be set aside under Order IX Rule 13 on the first of its two grounds, and the Explanation to Article 123 of the Limitation Act provides that substituted service under Order V Rule 20 shall not be deemed to be due service for the purpose of computing the thirty days to apply.
IV. The interlock with the written statement
Order VIII Rule 1 requires the defendant to present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons, and the proviso allows extension, for recorded reasons, to a maximum of ninety days from the date of service. In SCG Contracts (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. K.S. Chamankar Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. (2019) 12 SCC 210 the Supreme Court held that in suits governed by the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 the 120 day limit is mandatory, the right to file the written statement is forfeited thereafter, and the court has no power to extend it.
Order IX Rule 6(1)(a) completes the chain: the court may proceed ex parte only if it is proved that the summons was duly served.
Conclusion. Order V ranks its modes from personal service down to substituted service, and the ranking is the answer to most questions on the topic, because every rule in it exists to prove that the defendant had a real opportunity to know of the suit. Substituted service is available only on the court's recorded satisfaction that he is evading service or that the ordinary mode has failed, and it is then as effectual as personal service; but the Explanation to Article 123 refuses to treat it as due service for the purpose of the thirty days to set aside an ex parte decree.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and classification with section 37 of the Specific Relief Act; sections 94(c) and 95 of the Code; Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 verbatim; the three tests; Rules 2A, 3, 3A, 4 and 5; section 41 of the Specific Relief Act; and section 151 as the residual power.
I. What a temporary injunction is
An injunction is a judicial process by which a party is ordered to refrain from doing, or to do, a particular act. A temporary or interim injunction is one which continues until a specified time or until the further order of the court, may be granted at any stage of a suit, and is designed to preserve the subject-matter of the suit in its existing condition until the rights of the parties are decided.
Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 enacts the classification: temporary injunctions are such as are to continue until a specified time, or until the further order of the court, and they may be granted at any stage of a suit, and are regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; a perpetual injunction can be granted only by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit.
Within the Code the provisions are section 94(c), section 95 and Order XXXIX.
Section 94(c): in order to prevent the ends of justice from being defeated, the court may, if it is so prescribed, grant a temporary injunction and, in case of disobedience, commit the person guilty thereof to the civil prison and order that his property be attached and sold.
II. Order XXXIX Rule 1: when it may be granted
Where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise:
(a) that any property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party to the suit, or wrongfully sold in execution of a decree; or
(b) that the defendant threatens, or intends, to remove or dispose of his property with a view to defrauding his creditors; or
(c) that the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit,
the court may by order grant a temporary injunction to restrain such act, or make such other order for the purpose of staying and preventing the wasting, damaging, alienation, sale, removal or disposition of the property or dispossession of the plaintiff, or otherwise causing injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit, as the court thinks fit, until the disposal of the suit or until further orders.
Clause (c) was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976, and is the clause under which most injunctions are now granted.
Rule 2, injunction to restrain repetition or continuance of breach. In any suit for restraining the defendant from committing a breach of contract or other injury of any kind, whether compensation is claimed in the suit or not, the plaintiff may, at any time after the commencement of the suit, and either before or after judgment, apply for a temporary injunction to restrain the defendant from committing the breach of contract or injury complained of, or any breach of contract or injury of a like kind arising out of the same contract or relating to the same property or right.
III. The three tests
Rules 1 and 2 state the occasions; the conditions on which the discretion is exercised are settled by the courts and are three. All three must be satisfied; failure on any one is fatal.
1. A prima facie case. The applicant must show a serious question to be tried and a probability of his being entitled to the relief. He need not prove his case; he must show that it is not frivolous and raises a triable issue.
2. The balance of convenience. The court must be satisfied that the inconvenience or injury likely to be caused to the applicant by refusing the injunction is greater than that likely to be caused to the opposite party by granting it. It is a comparison, and the phrase is really the balance of inconvenience.
3. Irreparable injury. The applicant must show injury which cannot be adequately compensated in money. Where damages are an adequate remedy, an injunction is refused.
Two further requirements always operate, the relief being equitable: the applicant must come with clean hands, having made full and frank disclosure, and he must come promptly, since delay, acquiescence and laches defeat an equitable claim.
IV. Procedure: Rules 3, 3A, 4 and 5
Rule 3. Before granting an injunction the court shall give notice of the application to the opposite party, except where it appears that the object of granting the injunction would be defeated by the delay. Where an ex parte injunction is granted, the court shall record the reasons for that opinion, and shall require the applicant, on the same day that the injunction is granted or on the day immediately following, to deliver to the opposite party a copy of the application, the affidavit, the plaint and any other documents filed in support, and to file, on the day on which the injunction is granted or the day immediately following, an affidavit stating that the copies have been so delivered or sent.
Rule 3A. Where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party, the court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application within thirty days from the date on which the injunction was granted, and where it is unable to do so, it shall record its reasons for such inability.
Rule 4. Any order for an injunction may be discharged, varied or set aside by the court on application made by any party dissatisfied with it. The first proviso: if in an application for an injunction, or in an affidavit supporting it, a party has knowingly made a false or misleading statement in relation to a material particular, and the injunction was granted without giving notice, the court shall vacate the injunction unless, for reasons to be recorded, it considers that it is not necessary so to do in the interests of justice.
The second proviso: where an order has been passed after giving a party an opportunity of being heard, it shall not be discharged, varied or set aside on the application of that party except where such discharge, variation or setting aside has been necessitated by a change in the circumstances, or unless the court is satisfied that the order has caused undue hardship to that party.
Rule 5. An injunction directed to a corporation is binding not only on the corporation itself but also on all members and officers of the corporation whose personal action it seeks to restrain.
V. Disobedience: Rule 2A
In the case of disobedience of any injunction granted under Rule 1 or Rule 2, or of a breach of any of the terms on which it was granted, the court may order the property of the person guilty of such disobedience or breach to be attached, and may also order such person to be detained in the civil prison for a term not exceeding three months, unless in the meantime the court directs his release. No attachment made under this rule shall remain in force for more than one year, at the end of which time, if the disobedience or breach continues, the property attached may be sold, and out of the proceeds the court may award such compensation as it thinks fit to the injured party, and shall pay the balance to the party entitled.
VI. The bars: section 41 of the Specific Relief Act
An injunction cannot be granted: to restrain a person from prosecuting a pending judicial proceeding, unless to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings; to restrain a proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought; to restrain a person from applying to a legislative body; to restrain the institution or prosecution of a proceeding in a criminal matter; to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced; to prevent, on the ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance; to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced; when equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding, except in the case of breach of trust; when the conduct of the plaintiff or his agents disentitles him to the assistance of the court; and when the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
The cases to cite. Dalpat Kumar v. Prahlad Singh, (1992) 1 SCC 719, is the case this question is set to elicit, and it is what the three tests come from: a prima facie case means a serious question to be tried, not a certainty of success; irreparable injury means injury that cannot be adequately compensated in money; and balance of convenience means the comparative mischief of granting against refusing. All three must be satisfied together. Wander Ltd. v. Antox India (P) Ltd., 1990 Supp SCC 727, adds that the discretion is the trial court's and an appellate court will not reassess the material afresh, and Gujarat Bottling Co. v. Coca Cola Co., (1995) 5 SCC 545, that the relief is equitable, so conduct, delay and acquiescence all count against the applicant.
Conclusion. A temporary injunction preserves the subject-matter until the rights are decided, and it is granted on the three tests together, not on any one of them. Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 give the occasions and section 151 fills the gaps; Rule 3 forbids an ex parte order unless delay would defeat the object and requires reasons; Rule 3A puts thirty days on such an order; Rule 4 vacates it for a false statement; and Rule 2A backs it with attachment and up to three months in prison. Section 95 is the answer for the defendant who should never have been enjoined.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and kinds of mortgage under section 58 TPA; the three remedies and which mortgagee has which; Order XXXIV rule by rule; the preliminary and final decree scheme with the six month period; Rule 14; and the limitation Articles 61, 62 and 63.
I. The setting
The substantive law of mortgages is in sections 58 to 104 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882; the procedure for enforcing a mortgage in a civil court is in Order XXXIV of the Code, which has fifteen rules.
Section 58(a) TPA: a mortgage is the transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, an existing or future debt, or the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability.
The six kinds are simple, mortgage by conditional sale, usufructuary, English, mortgage by deposit of title deeds (equitable), and anomalous.
The three remedies:
| Remedy | Available to | Order XXXIV Rules |
|---|---|---|
| Foreclosure | Mortgagee by conditional sale, anomalous mortgagee | Rules 2 and 3 |
| Sale | Simple, English and equitable mortgagee | Rules 4 and 5 |
| Redemption (the mortgagor's remedy) | The mortgagor | Rules 7 and 8 |
Section 67 TPA gives the mortgagee the right to sue for foreclosure or for sale, and which of the two he gets depends on the kind of mortgage. Section 60 TPA gives the mortgagor the right of redemption, exercisable at any time after the principal money has become due, until it is extinguished by the act of the parties or by a decree of a court.
II. Parties: Rule 1
All persons having an interest either in the mortgage-security or in the right of redemption shall be joined as parties to any suit relating to the mortgage. The Explanation provides that a puisne mortgagee may sue for sale without making the prior mortgagee a party, and a prior mortgagee need not be joined in a suit to redeem a subsequent mortgage.
III. Foreclosure: Rules 2 and 3
Rule 2, preliminary decree. In a suit for foreclosure, if the plaintiff succeeds, the court shall pass a preliminary decree ordering that an account be taken of what is due to the plaintiff on the date of the decree for principal and interest, costs, charges and expenses; declaring the amount so due; and directing that if the defendant pays into court the amount so found due on or before a day to be fixed by the court, not being less than six months from the date on which the court confirms and countersigns the account, the plaintiff shall deliver up the documents, retransfer the property free from all encumbrances created by him, and, if necessary, put the defendant in possession; and that if payment is not so made, the defendant shall be debarred from all right to redeem.
Rule 3, final decree. Where payment is made, the court shall pass a final decree ordering the plaintiff to deliver up the documents and retransfer. Where payment is not made, the plaintiff may apply for a final decree for foreclosure, and the court shall pass a decree that the defendant and all persons claiming through him be debarred absolutely from all right to redeem the mortgaged property. Sub-rule (2) empowers the court, on good cause shown and on such terms as it thinks fit, to extend the time fixed for payment.
IV. Sale: Rules 4 and 5
Rule 4, preliminary decree in a suit for sale. The same account is taken and the same day fixed, but the decree directs that in default of payment the mortgaged property, or a sufficient part of it, shall be sold and the proceeds applied in payment of what is found due.
Rule 5, final decree in a suit for sale. Where, before a final decree debarring the defendant from all right to redeem has been passed, or before the confirmation of a sale held in pursuance of a final decree, the defendant makes payment into court of all amounts due, the court shall pass a final decree directing the plaintiff to deliver up the documents and retransfer. Otherwise the plaintiff may apply for a final decree and the property shall be sold.
Rule 5 gives the mortgagor a right that survives the decree: he may pay up at any time until the sale is actually confirmed. That is the practical difference between foreclosure and sale.
V. Redemption: Rules 7, 8 and 8A
Rule 7, preliminary decree. In a suit for redemption, if the plaintiff succeeds, the court shall order an account to be taken and direct that on payment by the plaintiff of the amount found due, on or before a day fixed, not less than six months from the confirmation of the account, the defendant shall deliver up the documents, retransfer the property and, if necessary, put the plaintiff in possession.
Rule 8, final decree. Where payment is made, the court shall pass a final decree ordering the defendant to deliver up the documents, retransfer, and where the property is in his possession, to put the plaintiff in possession, and where necessary to account for any surplus receipts. Where payment is not made and the mortgage is by conditional sale or anomalous, the court shall debar the plaintiff from all right to redeem; where the mortgage is a simple, English or equitable one, the court shall pass a decree for sale.
Rule 8A allows the court, where the net proceeds of a sale are insufficient and the balance is legally recoverable otherwise than out of the property sold, to pass a decree for that balance against the defendant personally.
VI. The remaining rules
Rule 6 provides for the balance where the net proceeds are insufficient. Rule 9 deals with redemption of one of several mortgages. Rule 10 adds the mortgagee's costs after the decree to the mortgage money. Rule 11 governs interest: up to the date fixed for payment, on the principal at the rate payable on it or, where no rate is fixed, at nine per cent per annum, and on the aggregate of costs, charges and expenses at nine per cent per annum. Rule 12 governs sale of property subject to a prior mortgage. Rule 13 governs the application of proceeds: first the expenses of the sale, then what is due to the plaintiff on the mortgage, then subsequent mortgagees, and the residue to the person entitled.
Rule 14 is the most examined rule in the Order. Where a mortgagee has obtained a decree for the payment of money in satisfaction of a claim arising under the mortgage, he shall not be entitled to bring the mortgaged property to sale otherwise than by instituting a suit for sale in enforcement of the mortgage. Sub-rule (2) saves a suit brought by a mortgagee to obtain a decree for sale.
Rule 15 applies the Order, so far as may be, to a charge within the meaning of section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act.
VII. Limitation
| Article | Suit | Period | Time runs from |
|---|---|---|---|
| 61(a) | By a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession | Thirty years | When the right to redeem or to recover possession accrues |
| 61(b) | By a mortgagor to recover possession of property mortgaged and afterwards transferred by the mortgagee for value | Twelve years | When the transfer becomes known to the plaintiff |
| 62 | To enforce payment of money secured by a mortgage or otherwise charged upon immovable property | Twelve years | When the money sued for becomes due |
| Article | Suit | Period | Time runs from |
|---|---|---|---|
| 63(a) | By a mortgagee for foreclosure | Thirty years | When the money secured by the mortgage becomes due |
| 63(b) | By a mortgagee for possession of the property mortgaged | Twelve years | When the mortgagee becomes entitled to possession |
The cases to cite. Jayasingh Dnyanu Mhoprekar v. Krishna Babaji Patil, (1985) 4 SCC 162, is the governing principle behind the whole Order: the right of redemption is an incident of the mortgage and cannot be clogged, and it can be extinguished only in a manner known to law, that is by act of parties, by a decree of the court, or by statute. That is why Order XXXIV builds every mortgage suit around a preliminary decree that gives the mortgagor a period to redeem before a final decree can follow.
Conclusion. A mortgage suit runs on two decrees whatever remedy is sought: a preliminary decree that takes the account and fixes a day not less than six months ahead, and a final decree that follows payment or default. Which remedy is open depends on the kind of mortgage, foreclosure for a mortgage by conditional sale and sale for a simple, English or equitable one. The mortgagor is protected throughout, by thirty years to redeem, by the right under Rule 5 to pay until the sale is confirmed, and by Rule 14, which forbids the mortgagee to reach the security except by a mortgage suit.
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This volume prints the 2022-23 CPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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