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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  24 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • 1. Please check whether you have got the right question paper
  • 2. Answer all questions
  • 3. Total marks are indicated in the right.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer Any Six questions in one or two sentences 12 Marks

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1.The chef prepared a gourmet meal. (Change to passive voice)[2]

Answer

A gourmet meal was prepared by the chef.

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2.You've been to Paris, (add a question tag)[2]

Answer

You've been to Paris, haven't you?

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3."Milk is nourishing." (Change to Superlative degree of Comparison)[2]

Answer

The sentence as printed compares nothing, and a degree of comparison presupposes things being compared. Say that, then supply the class:

Milk is the most nourishing of all foods.

For completeness, the three degrees of the sentence once a class is supplied:

DegreeSentence
PositiveNo other food is as nourishing as milk.
ComparativeMilk is more nourishing than any other food.
SuperlativeMilk is the most nourishing of all foods.
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4.I went to the store. I forgot to buy milk. (Combine the sentences into compound sentence)[2]

Answer

I went to the store, but I forgot to buy milk.

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5.She exclaimed, "What a beautiful sunset!". (Change to indirect speech)[2]

Answer

She exclaimed that it was a very beautiful sunset.

(Equally acceptable: She exclaimed with delight that the sunset was very beautiful.)

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6.alas we finally met she said (Punctuate the sentence)[2]

Answer

"Alas! We finally met," she said.

(Equally acceptable: "Alas, we finally met," she said.)

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7.Describe any two Law reports.[2]

Answer

(1) All India Reporter (AIR). Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley, the oldest continuously published general law report in India. It reports the Supreme Court, all the High Courts and, historically, the Federal Court and the Privy Council, in separate court-wise volumes, and also prints Central and State legislation. Its citation style puts the year first, without brackets: AIR 1997 SC 610. It is a private publication.

(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC). Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969, reporting the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively, and generally regarded as the most complete and accurate text of the Court's judgments. Its citation style puts the year in brackets, then the volume, then the page: (1997) 6 SCC 241. It too is private.

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8.Give the fill form of (I) S.C.R. (ii) All. E.R.[2]

Answer

  1. S.C.R. = Supreme Court Reports, the official law report of the decisions of the Supreme Court of India, published under the authority of the Court.
  2. All. E.R. = All England Law Reports, the principal general law report of the English courts, published since 1936.
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9.What is an Affidavit[2]

Answer

An affidavit is a written statement of facts, made voluntarily by a person and sworn or affirmed before an officer authorised by law to administer an oath, such as a court, a magistrate, a notary or an oath commissioner.

Section 3(3) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides that "affidavit" includes affirmation and declaration in the case of persons by law allowed to affirm or declare instead of swearing. Affidavits in civil proceedings are governed by Order XIX of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

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10.Explain the Citation; Raghuram Patel v/s Rajan Joshi, A.I.R.1997 S.C. 452[2]

Answer

ElementWhat it means
Raghuram PatelThe first-named party, the appellant or petitioner, who brought this proceeding.
v.Versus, "against".
Rajan JoshiThe second-named party, the respondent.
A.I.R.All India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed, published from Nagpur since 1914.
1997The year of the volume in which the case appears.
S.C.Supreme Court, the court that decided it.
452The page of that volume at which the report begins.

Read as a whole: the case of Raghuram Patel against Rajan Joshi, decided by the Supreme Court of India and reported at page 452 of the 1997 volume of the All India Reporter.

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SECTION II

Write Short Notes on Any Two 12 Marks

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11.Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium[6]

Answer

Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy." It states that the law will not recognise a right without at the same time providing a means of enforcing it, so that wherever the law confers a right, it also confers an action to vindicate that right when it is infringed.

Three propositions follow:

  1. A right without a remedy is not a legal right at all, but at most a moral one. The remedy is not an addition to the right; it is what makes the right legal.
  2. The absence of a precedent is not an answer. If a legal right has been infringed, the court must find a remedy, and the novelty of the claim is no reason to refuse one.
  3. The maxim applies to legal injury, not to loss. It presupposes that a legal right has been violated.
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The leading case is Ashby v. White (1703). A qualified voter was wrongfully prevented by a returning officer from casting his vote; the candidate he supported was elected in any event, so he suffered no loss whatever. Chief Justice Holt held that he had an action nonetheless, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and that want of a remedy is want of a right. This is the classic authority for the proposition that injury to a legal right is actionable without proof of damage.

The two maxims that must be read with it:

  • Injuria sine damno, injury without damage: the violation of a legal right without actual loss. This is actionable, and Ashby v. White is the illustration. Torts actionable per se, trespass, libel, assault, fall here.
  • Damnum sine injuria, damage without injury: actual loss without the violation of any legal right. This is not actionable. In the Gloucester Grammar School case a schoolmaster set up a rival school and the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12; no action lay, because lawful competition violates no legal right. Mogul Steamship Co. v. McGregor, Gow & Co. is the modern statement of the same rule.
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In Indian law the maxim is given effect by Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, under which the civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature unless barred, and, at the constitutional level, by Article 32, which Dr Ambedkar called the heart and soul of the Constitution because it makes the remedy itself a fundamental right.

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12.Law Journals and periodicals.[6]

Answer

Law journals and periodicals are publications issued at regular intervals which carry articles, case comments, notes and book reviews on the law, written by academics, judges and practitioners. They are to be distinguished from law reports, which print judgments, and from law magazines, which summarise the law for a general readership.

The three kinds, and why the distinction matters:

Law reportLaw journalLaw magazine
ContainsThe judgment verbatim, with headnote and apparatusArticles and commentSummaries in plain language
AuthorThe court; the editor adds the apparatusAcademics, judges, practitionersJournalists and advocates
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Law reportLaw journalLaw magazine
StatusCitable as authorityPersuasive only; not authorityNot citable at all
ExamplesAIR, SCC, SCR, ILR, Cri LJJournal of the Indian Law Institute, Indian Bar Review, the Journal sections of AIR and SCCLaw Teller, The Lawyers Collective

Indian journals worth naming:

  • The Journal of the Indian Law Institute, published by the Indian Law Institute, New Delhi, the oldest and most respected Indian academic law journal.
  • The Indian Bar Review, associated with the Bar Council of India through the Bar Council of India Trust, which carries writing on the profession and on legal education.
  • The Journal sections of AIR and SCC, separately paginated at the front of each volume, which is why a citation to an article reads (2015) 3 SCC (J) 1, the (J) marking it as the journal and not the report.
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  • The law reviews of the National Law Universities, such as the National Law School of India Review and the NUJS Law Review, which are student-edited on the American model.
  • Specialist periodicals on taxation, company law, labour law and intellectual property.

English and American journals frequently cited in Indian courts include the Law Quarterly Review, the Modern Law Review, the Cambridge Law Journal and the Harvard Law Review.

Their value:

  1. They criticise the law, which reports cannot do. A judgment states what the law is; an article says whether it is coherent and what it will produce.
  2. They are cited by courts. Indian courts refer to academic writing regularly, and though it is persuasive and not binding, a well-argued article has changed the law more than once.
  3. They feed law reform. The Law Commission of India draws on academic writing, and much statutory reform begins as a journal article.
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  1. They are the record of doctrinal development, and they are where a researcher finds an argument that has not yet been made in court.
  2. They are indexed, so a subject search across decades of writing is possible in a way it is not for judgments alone.
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13.Explain Power of Attorney.[6]

Answer

A power of attorney is a formal instrument by which one person, the principal or donor, authorises another, the agent, attorney or donee, to act on his behalf, so that the acts of the attorney within the authority conferred bind the principal as if he had done them himself.

It is governed by the Powers of Attorney Act, 1882, and, as a species of agency, by Sections 182 to 238 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Kinds:

  1. General power of attorney (GPA), conferring authority to act in all matters, or in all matters of a class: to manage property, operate bank accounts, appear in proceedings, execute documents.
  2. Special or specific power of attorney, conferring authority for one particular transaction or purpose, for example to execute a single sale deed or to appear in a single suit.
  3. Durable and irrevocable powers, on which see below.

Formalities.

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  • It must be in writing, signed by the principal, and, though registration is not compulsory for every power, it must be stamped under the stamp law.
  • It is ordinarily attested and authenticated before a notary public, a magistrate or, if executed abroad, a consular officer. This matters because Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now carried into the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, raises a presumption of due execution in favour of a power of attorney so authenticated, which relieves the party relying on it of proving the signature.
  • A power authorising the sale of immovable property should be registered, and under the Registration Act a power to present a document for registration on another's behalf must be authenticated by the registering officer.
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Revocation. A power of attorney may be revoked by the principal at any time before the authority has been exercised, and it is terminated automatically by the death, insanity or insolvency of the principal, by the completion of the business, or by the expiry of the time fixed. It is irrevocable where the authority is coupled with an interest: Section 202 of the Indian Contract Act provides that where the agent has himself an interest in the property which forms the subject matter of the agency, the agency cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the prejudice of that interest.

Construction. A power of attorney is construed strictly. The attorney has only the authority expressly conferred and what is necessarily incidental to it, and general words following a recital of particular powers are read as limited to what is needed to carry out those powers. A power to manage does not include a power to sell, and a power to sell does not include a power to mortgage.

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14.Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare[6]

Answer

Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare means "no one is bound to accuse himself." It is the privilege against self-incrimination, and in India it is a fundamental right.

Article 20(3) of the Constitution: "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."

Three ingredients, all of which must be present:

  1. The person must be accused of an offence. In Nandini Satpathy v. P. L. Dani (1978) the Supreme Court held that this includes a person formally named in a first information report, and that the protection extends backwards to the stage of police interrogation and is not confined to the trial.
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  1. There must be compulsion. A statement made voluntarily is outside the protection; a person may always waive his own privilege.
  2. The compulsion must be to be a witness against himself. In State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961), an eleven-judge Bench held that "to be a witness" means imparting personal knowledge, so that giving thumb impressions, specimen signatures, handwriting samples, fingerprints or blood samples is not being a witness against oneself; these are identifying features and not communications of knowledge.

Statutory reinforcement. Under the criminal procedure code, a person examined by the police is not bound to answer questions the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge, and an accused does not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer at his examination by the court. A confession to a police officer is inadmissible under the law of evidence, now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, and a confession obtained by inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant.

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Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) holds that narco-analysis, polygraph examination and brain electrical activation profiling conducted without consent violate Article 20(3) and Article 21, and that even a voluntary test's results cannot be used as evidence, though material subsequently discovered may be.

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SECTION III

Answer Any Two of the following 12 Marks

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15.THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971. (ACT NO. 34 OF 1971) [10th August, 1971.] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.[6]

  • 1. Short title, extent and commencement. - (1) This Act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint. Identify the following: i. Short Title ii. Enacting formula iii. Long Title iv. Extent

Answer

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows:

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short Title"This Act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). The short title is the name by which the Act is cited.
(ii) Enacting formula"BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows:" It declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law.
(iii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." It states the general purpose and scope of the Act.
(iv) Extent"It extends to the whole of India", Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates.
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16."The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (ACT No.[6]

  • 1. Short title, extent and commencement. -
  • (1) This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India:
  • (3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993." Identify the following: i. Extent ii. Date of commencement iii. Long Title iv. Enacting Formula

Answer

10 of 1994*) [8th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows: - CHAPTER-I Preliminary

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Extent"It extends to the whole of India:", Section 1(2).
(ii) Date of commencement28th September, 1993. Section 1(3): the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993."
(iii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."
(iv) Enacting Formula"Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:"
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17.MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1961 (No. 53 of 1961) [12th. December, 1961] An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishment for certain period before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits.[6]

  • 1. Short title, extend and commencement. -
  • (1) This Act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as may be notified in this behalf in the Official Gazette, --
  • (a) in relation to mines and to any other establishment wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances, by the Central Government, and
  • (b) in relation to other establishments in s State, by the State Government. Identify the following: i. Date of Assent ii. Marginal Notes iii. Short Title iv. Enacting Formula

Answer

Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Date of Assent12th December, 1961, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. This is the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
(ii) Marginal Notes"Short title, extend and commencement." the short heading printed against Section 1, summarising its contents. (The paper prints "extend" for extent.)
(iii) Short Title"This Act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961", Section 1(1).
(iv) Enacting Formula"Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -"
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18.Describe the search of the case law in relation to agreements in restraint of legal proceedings are void"[6]

Answer

Step 1. Frame the issue and fix the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement which prevents a party from enforcing his rights through the courts, or which limits the time within which he may do so, valid? Search under restraint of legal proceedings, ouster of jurisdiction, arbitration clause, limitation clause, exclusive jurisdiction clause, void agreements.

Step 2. Go to the statute, because here the statute answers most of the question. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that every agreement:

  • (a) by which a party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of a contract by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
  • (b) which extinguishes the rights of any party to a contract, or discharges any party from any liability, under or in respect of a contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights,
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is void to that extent. Clause (b) was inserted by amendment with effect from 1997, to close a gap: before it, a clause that did not bar the remedy but extinguished the right itself after a stated period escaped the section, and insurance policies were drafted to take advantage of that.

Note the exceptions in the section itself, because a complete answer must:

  1. Exception 1: a contract by which the parties agree to refer future disputes to arbitration, and that only the amount awarded shall be recoverable, is not illegal.
  2. Exception 2: a contract to refer a question already arisen to arbitration is likewise saved.
  3. Exception 3, added later, saves certain guarantees given to banks and financial institutions.

Step 3. Find the case law through a digest or an online database, under "Contract, Section 28, restraint of legal proceedings", and collect the propositions the courts have added:

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  • A clause choosing between two courts which both have jurisdiction is NOT a restraint within Section 28. Where two or more courts have jurisdiction under the ordinary law, the parties may agree that the dispute shall be tried in one of them only, and such a clause is valid. Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd (1971) is the leading authority. The parties are not ousting jurisdiction; they are choosing among jurisdictions the law already gives them.
  • A clause conferring jurisdiction on a court which has none is void, because consent cannot confer jurisdiction.
  • A clause shortening the period of limitation is void under clause (a), because the Limitation Act fixes the period and a contract may not cut it down.
  • Vulcan Insurance Co. Ltd v. Maharaj Singh (1976) and Food Corporation of India v. New India Assurance Co. (1994) illustrate the treatment of clauses in insurance policies before the 1997 amendment.

Step 4. Do not confuse Section 28 with its neighbours, which is where marks are lost. Section 27 avoids agreements in restraint of trade; Section 26, agreements in restraint of marriage; Section 29 avoids agreements the meaning of which is uncertain. Section 28 alone deals with restraint of legal proceedings.

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Step 5. Bring the search forward and verify. Use a citator, SCC Online, Manupatra or Indian Kanoon to confirm that the authorities are still good law and to pick up the recent applications, particularly to arbitration clauses, which are now also governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Step 6. Read the judgment, not the headnote, and record the citation with the court, because the court fixes the authority.

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SECTION IV

Answer Any Two in detail 24 Marks

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19.Write an essay on "Privacy vs. National Security: Finding a Balance"[12]

Answer

The conflict. Privacy is the right of a person to be let alone and to control what is known about him. National security is the duty of the State to protect the country and its people from attack, terrorism, espionage and organised crime. The conflict is real and not manufactured: the State cannot detect a conspiracy without collecting information, and information collected about conspirators is collected about everybody else at the same time.

The Indian constitutional position.

Privacy is a fundamental right. In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), a Bench of nine judges held unanimously that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and to the freedoms in Part III, overruling M. P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) to the extent they held otherwise. It is not absolute.

The test for any State invasion is proportionality, laid down in Puttaswamy in four limbs:

  1. Legality: there must exist a law;
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  1. Legitimate aim: it must serve a legitimate State aim, and national security plainly is one;
  2. Proportionality: the means must be rationally connected to the object and must be the least restrictive available; and
  3. Procedural safeguards against abuse.

The statutory framework for surveillance.

  • Section 5(2) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, permitting interception of messages on the occurrence of a public emergency or in the interests of public safety, on specified grounds including the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State and public order.
  • Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, and the rules made under it, permitting the interception, monitoring and decryption of information.
  • Section 69A, permitting the blocking of information.
  • The Telecommunications Act, 2023, which replaces the Telegraph Act and carries interception powers forward.
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which regulates the processing of personal data but exempts the State in defined circumstances, an exemption which is the principal criticism of it.
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The safeguards the courts have built. PUCL v. Union of India (1997), the telephone-tapping case, held that a telephone conversation is protected by Article 21, that interception requires an order by a designated senior officer, that orders are of limited duration and must be reviewed by a committee, and that records must be destroyed. Those directions were incorporated in Rule 419A of the Telegraph Rules.

The Pegasus proceedings. In Manohar Lal Sharma v. Union of India (2021) the Supreme Court, on allegations that spyware had been used against journalists, lawyers and politicians, appointed an expert committee to investigate, holding that the mere invocation of national security does not render the court a mute spectator, and that the State must justify its claim rather than merely assert it. That sentence is the single most useful thing to quote in this essay.

The case for security. Intelligence prevents attacks that cannot be prosecuted after the event; secrecy is inherent in it, because a target who knows he is watched changes his behaviour; and the courts are not equipped to second-guess an operational assessment. Article 19(2) expressly permits reasonable restrictions in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and the security of the State.

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The case for privacy. Surveillance conducted in secret cannot be checked by the person affected, who does not know it is happening; the powers are exercised by the executive on the executive's own authorisation, without judicial warrant, which is the central structural weakness of the Indian regime; mass collection is by definition not targeted, and so fails the least-restrictive limb of proportionality; and surveillance has a chilling effect on speech, association and the press that goes far beyond its targets. A journalist who believes his phone is monitored stops receiving information from sources, and the loss falls on the public.

Finding the balance. The elements of a defensible regime are not seriously in dispute:

  1. A clear statutory basis, stating the grounds and the powers precisely, so that a citizen knows what may be done.
  2. Prior independent authorisation, preferably judicial, rather than authorisation by an official of the same department that wants the information. This is the reform India most needs.
  3. Necessity and proportionality on the facts of each case, with the burden on the State.
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  1. Targeting rather than bulk collection, and minimisation, that is, retaining no more than is needed and destroying the rest.
  2. Independent oversight by a body with real powers, and periodic reporting to Parliament in aggregate form.
  3. Notification after the event, where the investigation is over and notice will not defeat it, so that a person wrongly targeted can seek a remedy.
  4. An effective remedy, which under the Indian Constitution means Article 32 and Article 226, and compensation where a right has been violated.

Conclusion. Privacy and national security are not opposites; they are both interests of the same public. The question is never whether the State may collect information, which it plainly may, but who decides, on what standard, subject to what check, and with what remedy if the decision is wrong. India has the right, in Puttaswamy, and the test, in proportionality; what it does not yet have is the machinery, because interception is still authorised by the executive to the executive. Until that changes, the balance is struck by the same authority on both sides of the scale.

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20.Write an essay on "Content Moderation and Censorship on Social Media"[12]

Answer

The two things being compared. Censorship is the suppression of expression by the State. Content moderation is the removal or restriction of content by a private platform under its own terms of service. They are not the same thing, and the essay must begin by separating them, because the constitutional guarantee runs against the State and not, ordinarily, against a private company.

The constitutional position.

  • Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression to citizens, and the guarantee extends to speech on the internet: Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), which also held that an indefinite suspension of internet services is impermissible and that any restriction must satisfy proportionality.
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  • Article 19(2) permits reasonable restrictions on eight grounds only: the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence. The list is exhaustive, so a restriction that does not fall within one of the eight is unconstitutional however desirable it seems.
  • Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) is the governing decision. It struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which penalised sending "grossly offensive" or "menacing" messages, as vague and overbroad; and it drew the line that governs the field: discussion and advocacy, however unpopular, are protected, and only INCITEMENT may be punished.

The statutory machinery of moderation and blocking.

  1. Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000, the safe harbour: an intermediary is not liable for third-party content provided it observes due diligence and does not initiate, select or modify the transmission. Shreya Singhal read down Section 79(3)(b) so that a platform must remove content only on a court order or a government direction, not on the complaint of any private person, since otherwise a platform faced with a demand would simply take the content down rather than risk liability.
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  1. Section 69A, empowering the Government to block public access to information on the grounds in Article 19(2), and the Blocking Rules, 2009, which prescribe a committee procedure. Shreya Singhal upheld Section 69A because, unlike Section 66A, it is confined to the constitutional grounds, requires reasons to be recorded and is subject to a procedure.
  2. The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, which impose on significant social media intermediaries obligations of grievance redressal, the appointment of officers, monthly compliance reports, and the identification of the first originator of a message on a messaging service. The traceability requirement is contested, on the ground that it cannot be complied with without weakening end-to-end encryption, which would reduce the privacy of every user in order to identify one.
  3. The Grievance Appellate Committees created in 2023 to hear appeals against a platform's moderation decisions, criticised on the ground that an executive body reviewing what speech a platform must carry is itself a form of State control.
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The arguments for moderation. Platforms carry material that is genuinely harmful, incitement to violence, child sexual abuse material, coordinated disinformation, targeted harassment; there is no editor, and scale means that harm propagates faster than any legal process can respond; and a platform that carried everything would be unusable.

The arguments against, and they are of two different kinds.

Against State censorship: the grounds are broad and applied by the executive; blocking orders are frequently secret, so the person whose content is removed may not know why or by whom; there is no hearing for the originator in practice; and India's record of internet shutdowns is among the highest in the world.

Against private moderation: the platforms are not accountable to anyone. Their rules are written by them, applied at scale by algorithms and low-paid reviewers, and enforced without a hearing or an appeal that means anything; they are inconsistent, treating similar content differently in different countries and languages; and, in India as elsewhere, a handful of foreign companies now make decisions about the boundaries of public debate with none of the constitutional constraints that bind a State.

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The Indian doctrinal problem, which the essay should name. Because Article 19(1)(a) binds the State and not private persons, a user whose post is removed by a platform has no fundamental right against the platform in the ordinary case. The argument that platforms perform a public function and should be treated as instrumentalities is made and has not been accepted; the tests for "other authority" under Article 12 laid down in Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib (1981) do not obviously fit a foreign private company. So the citizen is protected against the Government and unprotected against the company, which is where his speech is actually being moderated.

A way through. Transparency, requiring platforms to publish what they remove and why, and to notify the user; procedural fairness, notice, reasons and an appeal within the platform; narrow and precise legal grounds, since Shreya Singhal holds that vagueness is itself a vice; publication of blocking orders, so that secret censorship becomes impossible; independent rather than executive oversight of both platform and Government decisions; and proportionality applied to every restriction, whether the restrictor is public or private.

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Conclusion. The debate is usually framed as free speech against harmful content, and that framing is wrong. The real question is procedural: who decides what may be said, on what stated grounds, with what notice to the speaker, and with what appeal. A State that blocks in secret and a company that removes without reasons fail that test in the same way, for the same reason. Free expression in the age of the platform will be protected, if at all, by due process rather than by absolutism.

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21.Briefly outline the facts, issue, and guidelines laid down in Vishaka & Ors. v. State of Rajasthan & Ors. AIR 1997 SC 3011[12]

Answer

Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.

Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage: the police were reluctant to record the complaint and the medical examination was delayed, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused. The State's appeal against that acquittal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.

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A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that Bhanwari Devi was assaulted because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.

Issues.

  1. Whether sexual harassment at the workplace violates Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution.
  2. Whether, in the absence of any enacted law, the Supreme Court may lay down binding guidelines to fill the vacuum.
  3. Whether international conventions, in particular CEDAW, ratified by India in 1993, may be read into the fundamental rights.

The decision.

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  1. Sexual harassment at the workplace is a violation of fundamental rights: of equality under Articles 14 and 15, of the right to practise any profession or carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g), because a hostile environment drives women out of work, and of the right to life with dignity under Article 21.
  2. International law may fill a domestic vacuum. In the absence of domestic legislation, international conventions consistent with the fundamental rights and ratified by India may be read into Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21, relying on Article 51(c), which directs the State to foster respect for international law, and Article 253, which empowers Parliament to legislate to implement treaties. This is the case's lasting contribution to constitutional method, and it is cited far beyond the field of harassment.
  3. The Court laid down the Vishaka Guidelines, binding under Article 141 until suitable legislation was enacted.

The guidelines.

  1. Duty of the employer, in the public and private sectors, to prevent or deter sexual harassment and to provide procedures for the resolution, settlement or prosecution of complaints.
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  1. Definition: sexual harassment means unwelcome sexually determined behaviour, whether direct or by implication, comprising physical contact and advances; a demand or request for sexual favours; sexually coloured remarks; showing pornography; and any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
  2. Preventive steps: express prohibition notified, published and circulated; conduct rules of government servants to include prohibition and penalties; standing orders in private employment amended accordingly; working conditions not hostile to women.
  3. Criminal proceedings: where the conduct amounts to an offence, the employer must complain to the appropriate authority, and must ensure that victims and witnesses are not victimised, with the option of the transfer of the victim or the offender.
  4. Disciplinary action where the conduct amounts to misconduct under the service rules.
  5. Complaint mechanism in the employer's organisation, providing for time-bound treatment.
  6. Complaints Committee headed by a woman, with not less than half its members women, and involving a third party such as a non-governmental organisation to prevent undue pressure from senior levels; annual report to the Government.
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  1. Workers' initiative: employees to be allowed to raise the issue at workers' meetings and other forums.
  2. Awareness of the rights of female employees, by prominently notifying the guidelines.
  3. Third parties: where the offender is not an employee, the employer must take necessary and reasonable steps to assist the affected person.
  4. Government action: the Central and State Governments to consider suitable measures including legislation to ensure private employers observe the guidelines.

Aftermath. Applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years later Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, requiring an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector, and prescribing the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties.

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22.Briefly outline the facts, issue, and guidelines laid down in D. K. Basu v. State of Bengal 1997 AIR SCW 233[12]

Answer

Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, reported as 1997 AIR SCW 233 in the All India Reporter's weekly service, and as AIR 1997 SC 610 and (1997) 1 SCC 416 in the bound reports. Decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.

Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986, drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that it be treated as a writ petition under the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri about a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to every State Government and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits showing that custodial deaths were continuing.

Issues.

  1. Whether custodial death, torture and lock-up violence infringe Articles 21 and 22(1) of the Constitution.
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  1. What preventive safeguards should attend arrest and detention so as to make that guarantee effective.
  2. Whether monetary compensation may be awarded in public law under Articles 32 and 226, and whether sovereign immunity answers such a claim.

Reasoning. The Court called custodial torture "a naked violation of human dignity", held that the right guaranteed by Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner, and explained why declarations alone had failed: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so protection must operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.

The eleven guidelines.

  1. Police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation must bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations, and their particulars must be recorded in a register.
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  1. The arresting officer shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of arrest, attested by at least one witness, a family member of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality, and countersigned by the arrestee, bearing the date and time of arrest.
  2. A person arrested is entitled to have one friend, relative or other person known to him informed, as soon as practicable, of the arrest and of the place of detention.
  3. Where that person lives outside the district, the time and place of arrest and the venue of custody must be notified through the Legal Aid Organisation of the district and the police station of the area, telegraphically, within 8 to 12 hours.
  4. The person arrested must be made aware of this right as soon as he is arrested or detained.
  5. An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention recording the arrest, the person informed and the particulars of the police officials having custody.
  6. The arrestee shall, on request, be examined at the time of arrest and any injuries recorded; the "Inspection Memo" must be signed by the arrestee and the arresting officer, and a copy given to the arrestee.
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  1. The arrestee must be medically examined every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on a panel of approved doctors appointed by the Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory.
  2. Copies of all documents, including the memo of arrest, must be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
  3. The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
  4. A police control room must be provided at every district and State headquarters, to which the fact and place of arrest must be communicated within 12 hours, and where it must be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.

Breach was to attract departmental action and contempt of court, and the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.

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Compensation. Monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of Article 21; it is distinct from a private law claim in tort; it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) and, before it, Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983).

Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the amendment of 2008, inserting Sections 41B, 41D, 50A and 55A. The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).

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23.Nemo Debet Esse Judex In Propria Sua Causa[12]

Answer

Nemo debet esse judex in propria sua causa means "no one should be a judge in his own cause." It is one of the two classical rules of natural justice, usually called the rule against bias, and it requires that a person who decides must be, and must appear to be, disinterested and impartial.

The rule's foundation. Natural justice is not written in any statute. It is implied by the courts into every power that affects rights, unless a statute excludes it in clear terms, and since Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) it has constitutional force, because the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, and an unfair procedure also offends Article 14.

THE FORMS OF BIAS.

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1. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest in the outcome, however small, disqualifies automatically, and it is not necessary to show that the decision was in fact affected. In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852) decrees made by the Lord Chancellor were set aside because he held shares in the company, although nobody suggested he had been influenced. This is the strictest branch of the rule, and it exists because a financial interest is objective and easy to prove, so no inquiry into the decider's mind is needed.

2. Personal bias, arising from relationship, friendship, hostility, or a professional or business connection with a party. Manak Lal v. Dr Prem Chand (1957), where the chairman of a disciplinary tribunal had earlier appeared as counsel for the complainant, and the proceedings were quashed although no actual bias was alleged.

3. Subject-matter bias, a direct interest in the issue itself, or in a related matter, as where the decider has previously expressed a concluded view on the very question.

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4. Departmental or official bias, and the related problem of the officer who investigates and then adjudicates, or who is prosecutor and judge. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) is the leading Indian authority: a member of the selection board was himself a candidate for selection, and although he withdrew when his own name was considered, the selections were quashed. The case also abolished the old distinction between "judicial" and "administrative" functions for the purposes of natural justice, holding that the duty to act fairly attaches to administrative action affecting rights as well.

5. Policy bias, where an authority is committed in advance to a policy. This is generally not a disqualification, because a minister or a department is expected to have a policy; what is objectionable is a mind so closed that the representations cannot be considered at all.

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THE TEST. The question is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased, which would require a court to examine his mind and would be almost impossible to prove. It is whether there was a "real likelihood of bias", or, on the wider formulation, a "reasonable apprehension of bias in the mind of a reasonable person". The classic statement is Lord Hewart C.J. in R v. Sussex Justices, ex parte McCarthy (1924): "it is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

EFFECT OF A BREACH. An order made in violation of the rule is liable to be quashed by certiorari, or set aside in appeal or writ proceedings, and the aggrieved person need not show that a different decision would have been reached. The vice is in the process, not in the result.

THE EXCEPTIONS.

  1. The doctrine of necessity. Where the person alleged to be biased is the only authority competent to act, the rule yields, because otherwise there would be no decision at all. A tribunal of one member cannot be paralysed by an objection to that member if no substitute exists, and the alternative would be to defeat the statute.
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  1. Waiver. A party who knows of the ground of disqualification and takes his chance of a favourable decision without objecting cannot raise it afterwards when he loses. The objection must be taken at the earliest opportunity.
  2. Statutory authorisation. Where a statute expressly requires a particular officer to decide, knowing that he has an interest, the rule yields to the statute, subject to Article 14.
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24.Read the Following passage and answer the questions given below: Climate change is one of the most pressing global challenges of the 21st century.[12]

  • a) What are the main causes of climate change mentioned in the passage?
  • b) What are some of the environmental consequences of climate change?
  • c) How does climate change affect vulnerable populations?
  • d) What role do governments play in addressing climate change?
  • e) How can individuals contribute to reducing climate change, according to the passage?
  • f) What does the phrase "there is still hope to calm the tempest and steer toward a future where both the earth and its inhabitants can thrive for generations to come" mean.

Answer

Over the past few decades, human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial agriculture have led to a rapid increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. These gases, particularly carbon dioxide, trap heat and cause the Earth's temperature to rise, resulting in various environmental consequences such as melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and more frequent and severe weather events like hurricanes, droughts, and wildfires.

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The effects of climate change are widespread and affect ecosystems, biodiversity, and human societies. Rising temperatures threaten food and water security, displace communities, exacerbate poverty and inequality.

Moreover, climate change disproportionately impacts vulnerable populations, such as low-income communities and those living in regions prone to extreme weather events. In response to these challenges, experts agree that urgent action is needed to mitigate climate change and adapt to its inevitable effects.

Governments, businesses, and individuals all have roles to play. At the governmental level, it is crucial to implement policies that reduce emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and promote sustainable agriculture and forestry practices.

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International cooperation, as seen in the Paris Agreement, is vital to ensuring that all countries contribute to the global effort to limit global warming. At the individual level, individuals can mitigate their carbon footprint by embracing more sustainable and environmentally responsible lifestyles.

This encompasses the use of energy-efficient appliances, minimizing waste generation, reducing meat consumption, utilizing public transportation, and endorsing enterprises that prioritize ecological sustainability. Furthermore, individuals have the potential to advocate for comprehensive climate action by fostering awareness, championing the adoption of robust environmental policies, and actively promoting sustainable practices within their local communities.

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Ultimately, climate change is a global problem that requires collective action. While significant progress has been made in understanding and addressing the issue, much more needs to be done.

If humanity steps forward with swift action and a sense of shared duty, there is still hope to calm the tempest and steer toward a future where both the earth and its inhabitants can thrive for generations to come.

(a) What are the main causes of climate change mentioned in the passage?

The passage attributes climate change to human activities over the past few decades, and names three: burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial agriculture. These have led to a rapid increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, and particularly carbon dioxide, which traps heat and causes the Earth's temperature to rise.

(b) What are some of the environmental consequences of climate change?

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The passage names four: melting ice caps; rising sea levels; more frequent and severe weather events such as hurricanes, droughts and wildfires; and effects which are widespread and affect ecosystems, biodiversity and human societies. It adds that rising temperatures threaten food and water security.

(c) How does climate change affect vulnerable populations?

The passage says that climate change disproportionately impacts vulnerable populations, and identifies two groups: low-income communities, and those living in regions prone to extreme weather events. The mechanisms it gives are that rising temperatures threaten food and water security, displace communities, and exacerbate poverty and inequality. The point being made is that the harm is not distributed evenly: those least responsible for the emissions and least able to protect themselves bear the most.

(d) What role do governments play in addressing climate change?

The passage gives governments two roles.

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Domestically, it is crucial to implement policies that reduce emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and promote sustainable agriculture and forestry practices.

Internationally, cooperation, as seen in the Paris Agreement, is vital to ensuring that all countries contribute to the global effort to limit global warming.

(e) How can individuals contribute to reducing climate change, according to the passage?

The passage gives two kinds of contribution.

By changing their own conduct, that is, by mitigating their carbon footprint through more sustainable and environmentally responsible lifestyles: the use of energy-efficient appliances, minimising waste generation, reducing meat consumption, using public transportation, and endorsing enterprises that prioritise ecological sustainability.

By acting on others, that is, by advocating comprehensive climate action: fostering awareness, championing the adoption of robust environmental policies, and actively promoting sustainable practices within their local communities.

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(f) What does the phrase "there is still hope to calm the tempest and steer toward a future where both the earth and its inhabitants can thrive for generations to come" mean?

The phrase is a metaphor, drawn from seafaring, and it works in two parts.

"To calm the tempest" compares climate change to a storm: violent, dangerous and already under way. To calm it means to bring the crisis under control, by reducing emissions so that the warming and the extreme weather described earlier in the passage are contained.

"Steer toward a future" continues the same image, of a ship being navigated rather than driven before the wind. It means that the outcome is a matter of deliberate choice and direction, not of fate.

Taken together, the sentence means that the damage is serious but is not yet irreversible, and that if humanity acts swiftly and with a sense of shared duty, the crisis can be brought under control and a sustainable future secured in which both the planet and the people living on it can flourish for a long time to come.

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The tone is one of conditional or cautious optimism. The hope is real but it is not unqualified: the passage says "if humanity steps forward with swift action", so the hope depends on the action, and the action has not yet been taken.

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Notes on These Answers

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 24 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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