Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 24 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer Any Six questions in one or two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
A gourmet meal was prepared by the chef.
Answer
You've been to Paris, haven't you?
Answer
The sentence as printed compares nothing, and a degree of comparison presupposes things being compared. Say that, then supply the class:
Milk is the most nourishing of all foods.
For completeness, the three degrees of the sentence once a class is supplied:
| Degree | Sentence |
|---|---|
| Positive | No other food is as nourishing as milk. |
| Comparative | Milk is more nourishing than any other food. |
| Superlative | Milk is the most nourishing of all foods. |
Answer
I went to the store, but I forgot to buy milk.
Answer
She exclaimed that it was a very beautiful sunset.
(Equally acceptable: She exclaimed with delight that the sunset was very beautiful.)
Answer
"Alas! We finally met," she said.
(Equally acceptable: "Alas, we finally met," she said.)
Answer
(1) All India Reporter (AIR). Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley, the oldest continuously published general law report in India. It reports the Supreme Court, all the High Courts and, historically, the Federal Court and the Privy Council, in separate court-wise volumes, and also prints Central and State legislation. Its citation style puts the year first, without brackets: AIR 1997 SC 610. It is a private publication.
(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC). Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969, reporting the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively, and generally regarded as the most complete and accurate text of the Court's judgments. Its citation style puts the year in brackets, then the volume, then the page: (1997) 6 SCC 241. It too is private.
Answer
Answer
An affidavit is a written statement of facts, made voluntarily by a person and sworn or affirmed before an officer authorised by law to administer an oath, such as a court, a magistrate, a notary or an oath commissioner.
Section 3(3) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides that "affidavit" includes affirmation and declaration in the case of persons by law allowed to affirm or declare instead of swearing. Affidavits in civil proceedings are governed by Order XIX of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Answer
| Element | What it means |
|---|---|
| Raghuram Patel | The first-named party, the appellant or petitioner, who brought this proceeding. |
| v. | Versus, "against". |
| Rajan Joshi | The second-named party, the respondent. |
| A.I.R. | All India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed, published from Nagpur since 1914. |
| 1997 | The year of the volume in which the case appears. |
| S.C. | Supreme Court, the court that decided it. |
| 452 | The page of that volume at which the report begins. |
Read as a whole: the case of Raghuram Patel against Rajan Joshi, decided by the Supreme Court of India and reported at page 452 of the 1997 volume of the All India Reporter.
Write Short Notes on Any Two 12 Marks
Answer
Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy." It states that the law will not recognise a right without at the same time providing a means of enforcing it, so that wherever the law confers a right, it also confers an action to vindicate that right when it is infringed.
Three propositions follow:
The leading case is Ashby v. White (1703). A qualified voter was wrongfully prevented by a returning officer from casting his vote; the candidate he supported was elected in any event, so he suffered no loss whatever. Chief Justice Holt held that he had an action nonetheless, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and that want of a remedy is want of a right. This is the classic authority for the proposition that injury to a legal right is actionable without proof of damage.
The two maxims that must be read with it:
In Indian law the maxim is given effect by Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, under which the civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature unless barred, and, at the constitutional level, by Article 32, which Dr Ambedkar called the heart and soul of the Constitution because it makes the remedy itself a fundamental right.
Answer
Law journals and periodicals are publications issued at regular intervals which carry articles, case comments, notes and book reviews on the law, written by academics, judges and practitioners. They are to be distinguished from law reports, which print judgments, and from law magazines, which summarise the law for a general readership.
The three kinds, and why the distinction matters:
| Law report | Law journal | Law magazine | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Contains | The judgment verbatim, with headnote and apparatus | Articles and comment | Summaries in plain language |
| Author | The court; the editor adds the apparatus | Academics, judges, practitioners | Journalists and advocates |
| Law report | Law journal | Law magazine | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Status | Citable as authority | Persuasive only; not authority | Not citable at all |
| Examples | AIR, SCC, SCR, ILR, Cri LJ | Journal of the Indian Law Institute, Indian Bar Review, the Journal sections of AIR and SCC | Law Teller, The Lawyers Collective |
Indian journals worth naming:
English and American journals frequently cited in Indian courts include the Law Quarterly Review, the Modern Law Review, the Cambridge Law Journal and the Harvard Law Review.
Their value:
Answer
A power of attorney is a formal instrument by which one person, the principal or donor, authorises another, the agent, attorney or donee, to act on his behalf, so that the acts of the attorney within the authority conferred bind the principal as if he had done them himself.
It is governed by the Powers of Attorney Act, 1882, and, as a species of agency, by Sections 182 to 238 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Kinds:
Formalities.
Revocation. A power of attorney may be revoked by the principal at any time before the authority has been exercised, and it is terminated automatically by the death, insanity or insolvency of the principal, by the completion of the business, or by the expiry of the time fixed. It is irrevocable where the authority is coupled with an interest: Section 202 of the Indian Contract Act provides that where the agent has himself an interest in the property which forms the subject matter of the agency, the agency cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the prejudice of that interest.
Construction. A power of attorney is construed strictly. The attorney has only the authority expressly conferred and what is necessarily incidental to it, and general words following a recital of particular powers are read as limited to what is needed to carry out those powers. A power to manage does not include a power to sell, and a power to sell does not include a power to mortgage.
Answer
Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare means "no one is bound to accuse himself." It is the privilege against self-incrimination, and in India it is a fundamental right.
Article 20(3) of the Constitution: "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."
Three ingredients, all of which must be present:
Statutory reinforcement. Under the criminal procedure code, a person examined by the police is not bound to answer questions the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge, and an accused does not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer at his examination by the court. A confession to a police officer is inadmissible under the law of evidence, now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, and a confession obtained by inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant.
Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) holds that narco-analysis, polygraph examination and brain electrical activation profiling conducted without consent violate Article 20(3) and Article 21, and that even a voluntary test's results cannot be used as evidence, though material subsequently discovered may be.
Answer Any Two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows:
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Short Title | "This Act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). The short title is the name by which the Act is cited. |
| (ii) Enacting formula | "BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows:" It declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law. |
| (iii) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." It states the general purpose and scope of the Act. |
| (iv) Extent | "It extends to the whole of India", Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates. |
Answer
10 of 1994*) [8th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows: - CHAPTER-I Preliminary
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Extent | "It extends to the whole of India:", Section 1(2). |
| (ii) Date of commencement | 28th September, 1993. Section 1(3): the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993." |
| (iii) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." |
| (iv) Enacting Formula | "Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:" |
Answer
Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Date of Assent | 12th December, 1961, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. This is the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution. |
| (ii) Marginal Notes | "Short title, extend and commencement." the short heading printed against Section 1, summarising its contents. (The paper prints "extend" for extent.) |
| (iii) Short Title | "This Act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961", Section 1(1). |
| (iv) Enacting Formula | "Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -" |
Answer
Step 1. Frame the issue and fix the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement which prevents a party from enforcing his rights through the courts, or which limits the time within which he may do so, valid? Search under restraint of legal proceedings, ouster of jurisdiction, arbitration clause, limitation clause, exclusive jurisdiction clause, void agreements.
Step 2. Go to the statute, because here the statute answers most of the question. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that every agreement:
is void to that extent. Clause (b) was inserted by amendment with effect from 1997, to close a gap: before it, a clause that did not bar the remedy but extinguished the right itself after a stated period escaped the section, and insurance policies were drafted to take advantage of that.
Note the exceptions in the section itself, because a complete answer must:
Step 3. Find the case law through a digest or an online database, under "Contract, Section 28, restraint of legal proceedings", and collect the propositions the courts have added:
Step 4. Do not confuse Section 28 with its neighbours, which is where marks are lost. Section 27 avoids agreements in restraint of trade; Section 26, agreements in restraint of marriage; Section 29 avoids agreements the meaning of which is uncertain. Section 28 alone deals with restraint of legal proceedings.
Step 5. Bring the search forward and verify. Use a citator, SCC Online, Manupatra or Indian Kanoon to confirm that the authorities are still good law and to pick up the recent applications, particularly to arbitration clauses, which are now also governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Step 6. Read the judgment, not the headnote, and record the citation with the court, because the court fixes the authority.
Answer Any Two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
The conflict. Privacy is the right of a person to be let alone and to control what is known about him. National security is the duty of the State to protect the country and its people from attack, terrorism, espionage and organised crime. The conflict is real and not manufactured: the State cannot detect a conspiracy without collecting information, and information collected about conspirators is collected about everybody else at the same time.
The Indian constitutional position.
Privacy is a fundamental right. In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), a Bench of nine judges held unanimously that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and to the freedoms in Part III, overruling M. P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) to the extent they held otherwise. It is not absolute.
The test for any State invasion is proportionality, laid down in Puttaswamy in four limbs:
The statutory framework for surveillance.
The safeguards the courts have built. PUCL v. Union of India (1997), the telephone-tapping case, held that a telephone conversation is protected by Article 21, that interception requires an order by a designated senior officer, that orders are of limited duration and must be reviewed by a committee, and that records must be destroyed. Those directions were incorporated in Rule 419A of the Telegraph Rules.
The Pegasus proceedings. In Manohar Lal Sharma v. Union of India (2021) the Supreme Court, on allegations that spyware had been used against journalists, lawyers and politicians, appointed an expert committee to investigate, holding that the mere invocation of national security does not render the court a mute spectator, and that the State must justify its claim rather than merely assert it. That sentence is the single most useful thing to quote in this essay.
The case for security. Intelligence prevents attacks that cannot be prosecuted after the event; secrecy is inherent in it, because a target who knows he is watched changes his behaviour; and the courts are not equipped to second-guess an operational assessment. Article 19(2) expressly permits reasonable restrictions in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and the security of the State.
The case for privacy. Surveillance conducted in secret cannot be checked by the person affected, who does not know it is happening; the powers are exercised by the executive on the executive's own authorisation, without judicial warrant, which is the central structural weakness of the Indian regime; mass collection is by definition not targeted, and so fails the least-restrictive limb of proportionality; and surveillance has a chilling effect on speech, association and the press that goes far beyond its targets. A journalist who believes his phone is monitored stops receiving information from sources, and the loss falls on the public.
Finding the balance. The elements of a defensible regime are not seriously in dispute:
Conclusion. Privacy and national security are not opposites; they are both interests of the same public. The question is never whether the State may collect information, which it plainly may, but who decides, on what standard, subject to what check, and with what remedy if the decision is wrong. India has the right, in Puttaswamy, and the test, in proportionality; what it does not yet have is the machinery, because interception is still authorised by the executive to the executive. Until that changes, the balance is struck by the same authority on both sides of the scale.
Answer
The two things being compared. Censorship is the suppression of expression by the State. Content moderation is the removal or restriction of content by a private platform under its own terms of service. They are not the same thing, and the essay must begin by separating them, because the constitutional guarantee runs against the State and not, ordinarily, against a private company.
The constitutional position.
The statutory machinery of moderation and blocking.
The arguments for moderation. Platforms carry material that is genuinely harmful, incitement to violence, child sexual abuse material, coordinated disinformation, targeted harassment; there is no editor, and scale means that harm propagates faster than any legal process can respond; and a platform that carried everything would be unusable.
The arguments against, and they are of two different kinds.
Against State censorship: the grounds are broad and applied by the executive; blocking orders are frequently secret, so the person whose content is removed may not know why or by whom; there is no hearing for the originator in practice; and India's record of internet shutdowns is among the highest in the world.
Against private moderation: the platforms are not accountable to anyone. Their rules are written by them, applied at scale by algorithms and low-paid reviewers, and enforced without a hearing or an appeal that means anything; they are inconsistent, treating similar content differently in different countries and languages; and, in India as elsewhere, a handful of foreign companies now make decisions about the boundaries of public debate with none of the constitutional constraints that bind a State.
The Indian doctrinal problem, which the essay should name. Because Article 19(1)(a) binds the State and not private persons, a user whose post is removed by a platform has no fundamental right against the platform in the ordinary case. The argument that platforms perform a public function and should be treated as instrumentalities is made and has not been accepted; the tests for "other authority" under Article 12 laid down in Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib (1981) do not obviously fit a foreign private company. So the citizen is protected against the Government and unprotected against the company, which is where his speech is actually being moderated.
A way through. Transparency, requiring platforms to publish what they remove and why, and to notify the user; procedural fairness, notice, reasons and an appeal within the platform; narrow and precise legal grounds, since Shreya Singhal holds that vagueness is itself a vice; publication of blocking orders, so that secret censorship becomes impossible; independent rather than executive oversight of both platform and Government decisions; and proportionality applied to every restriction, whether the restrictor is public or private.
Conclusion. The debate is usually framed as free speech against harmful content, and that framing is wrong. The real question is procedural: who decides what may be said, on what stated grounds, with what notice to the speaker, and with what appeal. A State that blocks in secret and a company that removes without reasons fail that test in the same way, for the same reason. Free expression in the age of the platform will be protected, if at all, by due process rather than by absolutism.
Answer
Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.
Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage: the police were reluctant to record the complaint and the medical examination was delayed, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused. The State's appeal against that acquittal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.
A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that Bhanwari Devi was assaulted because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.
Issues.
The decision.
The guidelines.
Aftermath. Applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years later Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, requiring an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector, and prescribing the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties.
Answer
Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, reported as 1997 AIR SCW 233 in the All India Reporter's weekly service, and as AIR 1997 SC 610 and (1997) 1 SCC 416 in the bound reports. Decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.
Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986, drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that it be treated as a writ petition under the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri about a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to every State Government and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits showing that custodial deaths were continuing.
Issues.
Reasoning. The Court called custodial torture "a naked violation of human dignity", held that the right guaranteed by Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner, and explained why declarations alone had failed: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so protection must operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.
The eleven guidelines.
Breach was to attract departmental action and contempt of court, and the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.
Compensation. Monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of Article 21; it is distinct from a private law claim in tort; it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) and, before it, Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983).
Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the amendment of 2008, inserting Sections 41B, 41D, 50A and 55A. The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).
Answer
Nemo debet esse judex in propria sua causa means "no one should be a judge in his own cause." It is one of the two classical rules of natural justice, usually called the rule against bias, and it requires that a person who decides must be, and must appear to be, disinterested and impartial.
The rule's foundation. Natural justice is not written in any statute. It is implied by the courts into every power that affects rights, unless a statute excludes it in clear terms, and since Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) it has constitutional force, because the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, and an unfair procedure also offends Article 14.
THE FORMS OF BIAS.
1. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest in the outcome, however small, disqualifies automatically, and it is not necessary to show that the decision was in fact affected. In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852) decrees made by the Lord Chancellor were set aside because he held shares in the company, although nobody suggested he had been influenced. This is the strictest branch of the rule, and it exists because a financial interest is objective and easy to prove, so no inquiry into the decider's mind is needed.
2. Personal bias, arising from relationship, friendship, hostility, or a professional or business connection with a party. Manak Lal v. Dr Prem Chand (1957), where the chairman of a disciplinary tribunal had earlier appeared as counsel for the complainant, and the proceedings were quashed although no actual bias was alleged.
3. Subject-matter bias, a direct interest in the issue itself, or in a related matter, as where the decider has previously expressed a concluded view on the very question.
4. Departmental or official bias, and the related problem of the officer who investigates and then adjudicates, or who is prosecutor and judge. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) is the leading Indian authority: a member of the selection board was himself a candidate for selection, and although he withdrew when his own name was considered, the selections were quashed. The case also abolished the old distinction between "judicial" and "administrative" functions for the purposes of natural justice, holding that the duty to act fairly attaches to administrative action affecting rights as well.
5. Policy bias, where an authority is committed in advance to a policy. This is generally not a disqualification, because a minister or a department is expected to have a policy; what is objectionable is a mind so closed that the representations cannot be considered at all.
THE TEST. The question is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased, which would require a court to examine his mind and would be almost impossible to prove. It is whether there was a "real likelihood of bias", or, on the wider formulation, a "reasonable apprehension of bias in the mind of a reasonable person". The classic statement is Lord Hewart C.J. in R v. Sussex Justices, ex parte McCarthy (1924): "it is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."
EFFECT OF A BREACH. An order made in violation of the rule is liable to be quashed by certiorari, or set aside in appeal or writ proceedings, and the aggrieved person need not show that a different decision would have been reached. The vice is in the process, not in the result.
THE EXCEPTIONS.
Answer
Over the past few decades, human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial agriculture have led to a rapid increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. These gases, particularly carbon dioxide, trap heat and cause the Earth's temperature to rise, resulting in various environmental consequences such as melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and more frequent and severe weather events like hurricanes, droughts, and wildfires.
The effects of climate change are widespread and affect ecosystems, biodiversity, and human societies. Rising temperatures threaten food and water security, displace communities, exacerbate poverty and inequality.
Moreover, climate change disproportionately impacts vulnerable populations, such as low-income communities and those living in regions prone to extreme weather events. In response to these challenges, experts agree that urgent action is needed to mitigate climate change and adapt to its inevitable effects.
Governments, businesses, and individuals all have roles to play. At the governmental level, it is crucial to implement policies that reduce emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and promote sustainable agriculture and forestry practices.
International cooperation, as seen in the Paris Agreement, is vital to ensuring that all countries contribute to the global effort to limit global warming. At the individual level, individuals can mitigate their carbon footprint by embracing more sustainable and environmentally responsible lifestyles.
This encompasses the use of energy-efficient appliances, minimizing waste generation, reducing meat consumption, utilizing public transportation, and endorsing enterprises that prioritize ecological sustainability. Furthermore, individuals have the potential to advocate for comprehensive climate action by fostering awareness, championing the adoption of robust environmental policies, and actively promoting sustainable practices within their local communities.
Ultimately, climate change is a global problem that requires collective action. While significant progress has been made in understanding and addressing the issue, much more needs to be done.
If humanity steps forward with swift action and a sense of shared duty, there is still hope to calm the tempest and steer toward a future where both the earth and its inhabitants can thrive for generations to come.
(a) What are the main causes of climate change mentioned in the passage?
The passage attributes climate change to human activities over the past few decades, and names three: burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial agriculture. These have led to a rapid increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, and particularly carbon dioxide, which traps heat and causes the Earth's temperature to rise.
(b) What are some of the environmental consequences of climate change?
The passage names four: melting ice caps; rising sea levels; more frequent and severe weather events such as hurricanes, droughts and wildfires; and effects which are widespread and affect ecosystems, biodiversity and human societies. It adds that rising temperatures threaten food and water security.
(c) How does climate change affect vulnerable populations?
The passage says that climate change disproportionately impacts vulnerable populations, and identifies two groups: low-income communities, and those living in regions prone to extreme weather events. The mechanisms it gives are that rising temperatures threaten food and water security, displace communities, and exacerbate poverty and inequality. The point being made is that the harm is not distributed evenly: those least responsible for the emissions and least able to protect themselves bear the most.
(d) What role do governments play in addressing climate change?
The passage gives governments two roles.
Domestically, it is crucial to implement policies that reduce emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and promote sustainable agriculture and forestry practices.
Internationally, cooperation, as seen in the Paris Agreement, is vital to ensuring that all countries contribute to the global effort to limit global warming.
(e) How can individuals contribute to reducing climate change, according to the passage?
The passage gives two kinds of contribution.
By changing their own conduct, that is, by mitigating their carbon footprint through more sustainable and environmentally responsible lifestyles: the use of energy-efficient appliances, minimising waste generation, reducing meat consumption, using public transportation, and endorsing enterprises that prioritise ecological sustainability.
By acting on others, that is, by advocating comprehensive climate action: fostering awareness, championing the adoption of robust environmental policies, and actively promoting sustainable practices within their local communities.
(f) What does the phrase "there is still hope to calm the tempest and steer toward a future where both the earth and its inhabitants can thrive for generations to come" mean?
The phrase is a metaphor, drawn from seafaring, and it works in two parts.
"To calm the tempest" compares climate change to a storm: violent, dangerous and already under way. To calm it means to bring the crisis under control, by reducing emissions so that the warming and the extreme weather described earlier in the passage are contained.
"Steer toward a future" continues the same image, of a ship being navigated rather than driven before the wind. It means that the outcome is a matter of deliberate choice and direction, not of fate.
Taken together, the sentence means that the damage is serious but is not yet irreversible, and that if humanity acts swiftly and with a sense of shared duty, the crisis can be brought under control and a sustainable future secured in which both the planet and the people living on it can flourish for a long time to come.
The tone is one of conditional or cautious optimism. The hope is real but it is not unqualified: the passage says "if humanity steps forward with swift action", so the hope depends on the action, and the action has not yet been taken.
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This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 24 questions.
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