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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2024-25 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2024-25 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 examination.

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MarksPage

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2½ hours  ·  Total marks 75  ·  21 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • 1. Please check whether you have got the right question paper
  • 2. Total marks are indicated on the right side of paper.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer Any Six questions in one or two sentences 12 Marks

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1.The sun rises from the east (change the sentence to passive voice)[2]

Answer

The sentence cannot be turned into the passive voice. The verb "rises" is intransitive: it takes no object, and only a transitive verb has a passive form. There is nothing to promote to the position of subject, so no passive exists.

Write that, and give the reason. A candidate who invents a passive, "The east is risen from by the sun", produces something that is not English and shows that the rule has not been understood.

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2."Could you please be quiet," she said. (Change the sentence to indirect speech)[2]

Answer

She requested them to be quiet.

(Equally acceptable: She requested that they should be quiet, or, where the person addressed is known, She requested him to be quiet.)

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3.My friend, Sara, looks happy. (Change into comparative degree)[2]

Answer

The sentence as printed contains no comparison, and the degrees of comparison exist only where two or more things are compared. Say that first, then supply the missing term:

My friend, Sara, looks happier than she used to.

(Equally acceptable, if the comparison is with other people: My friend, Sara, looks happier than most of my friends.)

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4.Explain the citation Vishaka & Ors vs State of Rajasthan & Ors AIR 1997 SC 3011[2]

Answer

ElementWhat it means
VishakaThe first-named party, the petitioner, a women's rights organisation which moved the Court.
& OrsAnd others, meaning there were further petitioners not named in the citation.
v.Versus, "against".
State of Rajasthan & OrsThe respondents, the State and others.
AIRAll India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed.
1997The year of the volume in which it appears.
SCSupreme Court, the court that decided it, so the decision binds every court in India under Article 141 of the Constitution.
3011The page of that volume at which the report begins.
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5.Retrospective effect of statute.[2]

Answer

A statute has retrospective effect when it operates on transactions, rights or events already past, that is, when it takes away or impairs a vested right acquired under the existing law, or creates a new obligation, imposes a new duty or attaches a new disability in respect of something already done.

The general rule is a presumption against retrospective operation, expressed in the maxim nova constitutio futuris formam imponere debet, non praeteritis, "a new law ought to regulate what is to follow, not the past". A statute is therefore construed as prospective unless it says otherwise expressly or by necessary implication.

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6.What is meant by directory provisions?[2]

Answer

A directory provision is one which ought to be obeyed, but whose breach does not invalidate the act done. Substantial compliance is enough, and non-compliance may attract other consequences, such as departmental action, without affecting the validity of what was done.

It is the opposite of a mandatory provision, which must be obeyed exactly, and whose breach makes the act void.

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7.Explain the concepts of 'offence' and 'wrong'.[2]

Answer

An "offence" is any act or omission made punishable by law for the time being in force. That is the definition in Section 3(38) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, and it is echoed in the criminal procedure code. An offence is a public wrong: it is prosecuted by the State, and the consequence is punishment.

A "wrong" is the wider term: any violation of a legal right, or breach of a legal duty. It includes civil wrongs, such as a tort or a breach of contract, for which the remedy is compensation or specific relief at the suit of the injured person, and criminal wrongs, which are offences.

Every offence is a wrong; not every wrong is an offence.

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8.Explain procedural and substantive law.[2]

Answer

Substantive law defines the rights, duties and liabilities of persons, that is, what the law is. Procedural law, also called adjective law, prescribes the machinery by which those rights are enforced, that is, how they are enforced.

Substantive lawProcedural law
FunctionCreates and defines rights and liabilitiesProvides the method of enforcing them
ExamplesThe Indian Contract Act, 1872; the Transfer of Property Act, 1882; the penal lawThe Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; the criminal procedure code; the law of evidence; the Limitation Act, 1963
Operation in timePresumed prospectivePresumed retrospective, applying to pending proceedings
Vested rightsCreates themNo one has a vested right in a form of procedure
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SECTION II

Write short notes on any two 12 Marks

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9.Parts of a statute.[6]

Answer

A statute has a settled architecture, and each part has a recognised weight when a court comes to construe it. The parts found within the Act are the internal aids to construction.

  1. Short title. The name by which the Act is cited, "This Act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971". Interpretative value: none. It is a label.
  2. Official citation. The number of the Act in the year of enactment, "Act No. 34 of 1971". A means of unique identification; no interpretative value.
  3. Long title. The sentence beginning "An Act to ...", stating the general purpose and scope. It is part of the Act and may be used to ascertain the general object where a provision is ambiguous, though it cannot control clear enacting words.
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  1. Preamble. A recital beginning "WHEREAS ...", giving the reasons for the legislation. It is a key to the mind of the legislature and may resolve an ambiguity, but cannot cut down clear enacting words. Most modern Indian Acts have none; the outstanding example that does is the Preamble to the Constitution, held part of it in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).
  2. Enacting formula. "BE it enacted by Parliament in the ... Year of the Republic of India as follows". It declares the authority by which the law is made; no role in construing sections.
  3. Marginal notes. The short headings against each section. The old English rule excluded them as not being part of the Act; Indian courts will look at a marginal note as an aid where the section is ambiguous, but it can never prevail over the plain words.
  4. Headings and chapter titles. May be referred to in construing the sections grouped under them, as a preamble to that group, but cannot restrict a section's plain meaning.
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  1. Definition or interpretation clause. Decisive. A definition governs the whole Act "unless the context otherwise requires". Note the drafting signals: "means" introduces an exhaustive definition, "includes" an extending one, and "means and includes" an exhaustive one framed widely.
  2. Provisos. Beginning "Provided that". A proviso carves an exception out of the provision to which it is attached; it must be read with the main clause and cannot enlarge the section.
  3. Explanations. They clarify the section, remove doubt or fill a gap; they neither enlarge nor curtail it.
  4. Exceptions and saving clauses. An exception exempts what would otherwise fall within the section; a saving clause preserves rights, obligations or proceedings that would otherwise be destroyed, most often on a repeal.
  5. Schedules. Part of the Act, with the same force as the sections. Where a section and a schedule conflict, the section prevails.
  6. Illustrations. Found in the older codes, the Contract Act, the Evidence Act, the Penal Code. Part of the statute and valuable as showing how the legislature intended the section to apply, but they cannot modify its language.
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  1. Punctuation. Little weight; it may be looked at but cannot control the plain meaning.
  2. Non obstante clause. "Notwithstanding anything contained in ...", which gives the provision overriding effect over whatever it names.
  3. The repeal and savings section, usually the last, read with Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897.
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10.Explain the Literal rule of interpretation of statutes.[6]

Answer

The literal rule, also called the grammatical rule or the plain meaning rule, is the primary rule of construction. It requires that where the words of a statute are plain, clear and unambiguous, they must be given their ordinary, natural and grammatical meaning, and effect must be given to them whatever the consequence.

The classical statement is in the Sussex Peerage Case (1844): "if the words of the statute are in themselves precise and unambiguous, then no more can be necessary than to expound those words in their natural and ordinary sense. The words themselves alone do, in such a case, best declare the intention of the lawgiver."

The reasoning behind it. The intention of the legislature is to be gathered from what it said, not from what a court supposes it meant. The court's duty is jus dicere, non jus dare, to declare the law and not to make it. A judge who departs from plain words is substituting his own view of what the law should be for the legislature's.

Its corollaries:

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  1. The rule against a casus omissus. A court cannot supply an omission in a statute; if the legislature has left a gap, the gap must be filled by the legislature.
  2. Every word must be given effect, and none treated as superfluous, on the presumption that the legislature does not use words in vain. A construction which renders a provision otiose is to be avoided.
  3. Words are given their meaning at the date of the enactment, unless the statute is one intended to move with the times.
  4. Technical words take their technical meaning, and ordinary words their ordinary popular meaning; in a taxing or commercial statute, words are understood in the sense in which the trade understands them.

Illustration. In Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar, the question was whether sugarcane was a "green vegetable" for the purpose of a sales tax exemption. The court applied the ordinary popular meaning: a vegetable is what is grown in a kitchen garden and used for the table, and sugarcane is not, so no exemption. The botanical meaning was irrelevant, because the legislature was addressing traders and not botanists.

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Its limits. The literal rule breaks down where the words are ambiguous, where they are capable of two meanings, or where a literal reading produces an absurdity or a repugnance. That is where the golden rule enters, permitting the words to be modified so far as is needed to remove the absurdity "but no farther": Lord Wensleydale in Grey v. Pearson (1857). And where the ambiguity is deeper, the mischief rule in Heydon's Case (1584) allows the court to look at the state of the law before the Act and the evil it was meant to cure.

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11.Describe the search of case laws on "whether contract by minor is void ab-initio."[6]

Answer

This is a question about legal research method: how the search is conducted, and what it yields.

Step 1. State the problem as a legal issue and fix the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement made by a person below the age of majority void ab initio, or merely voidable at his option? Search under minor, minority, majority, competency to contract, void ab initio, voidable, necessaries, estoppel, ratification.

Step 2. Go to the statute first, because it fixes the vocabulary. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, requires the parties to be competent to contract; Section 11 provides that a person is competent if he is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, of sound mind and not disqualified; the Indian Majority Act, 1875, fixes majority at eighteen years. Notice the gap: the sections say who is competent and are silent on what happens when an incompetent person contracts. That gap is why case law was needed.

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Step 3. Find the leading case through the subject index of a digest, the AIR Manual, or an online database, under "Contract, minor's agreement". It is Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) 30 IA 114, ILR 30 Cal 539, a decision of the Privy Council on appeal from Calcutta.

Step 4. Read the case, not the headnote. Dharmodas Ghose, a minor, mortgaged his house to a moneylender whose attorney knew of the minority, and sued to have the mortgage set aside. The Privy Council held that a minor's agreement is absolutely void, void ab initio, and not merely voidable; refused to order repayment under Sections 64 and 65 of the Contract Act, because those sections presuppose a contract between competent parties; and held that estoppel did not operate against the minor where the lender knew the true position.

Step 5. Answer the question asked. A minor's agreement is void ab initio and cannot be enforced against him, because in law there never was a contract. It follows that he cannot be sued on it, that he cannot ratify it on attaining majority, since there is nothing to relate back to, and that specific performance cannot be ordered against him.

Step 6. Collect the qualifications from the later cases, using a citator or SCC Online, Manupatra or Indian Kanoon:

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  • a minor may enforce a contract made for his benefit; the disability is a shield and not a sword;
  • his estate is liable for necessaries supplied to him suited to his condition in life, under Section 68 of the Contract Act, which is a quasi-contractual and not a contractual liability;
  • there is no estoppel against a minor who misrepresents his age, though a court may apply the equitable doctrine of restitution and order him to restore property still traceable;
  • a minor may act as an agent, and may be admitted to the benefits of a partnership under Section 30 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.

Step 7. Verify that the authority still stands, and record the citation with the court, because the court fixes the authority: a Privy Council decision of 1903 continues to bind Indian courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.

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12.Statutes are territorial in operation.[6]

Answer

The principle. A statute ordinarily operates only within the territory of the State whose legislature enacted it, and binds only persons, property and acts within that territory. There is a presumption against extra-territorial operation: a statute is construed as applying within the territory unless the contrary appears.

The constitutional position in India.

  • Article 245(1): Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India, and a State Legislature for the whole or any part of the State.
  • Article 245(2): "No law made by Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation." This is the decisive provision, and it establishes the difference between the two legislatures: Parliament may legislate extra-territorially; a State Legislature may not.
  • Every Act therefore contains an extent clause, ordinarily Section 1(2), stating the territory to which it applies, and it is the first thing to read in a statute.
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The doctrine of territorial nexus. A State law is not invalid merely because it touches something outside the State, provided there is a sufficient connection between the State and the subject matter, and the liability imposed is pertinent to that connection. The two conditions are that the connection must be real and not illusory, and that the liability must be relevant to it. The leading cases are State of Bombay v. R. M. D. Chamarbaugwala (1957), where a Bombay tax on prize competitions was upheld against a newspaper printed and published outside the State but with the competition conducted and the entries collected within it, and Tata Iron and Steel Co. v. State of Bihar (1958).

The limit on Parliament's extra-territorial power. In GVK Industries Ltd v. Income Tax Officer (2011) a Constitution Bench held that Parliament's power to legislate with extra-territorial effect is not unlimited: it may do so only where the law has a nexus with or an impact on India, and it may not legislate for a territory with which India has no connection at all.

Illustrations of extra-territorial operation in Indian law:

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  1. The penal law extends to offences committed beyond India by a citizen of India, and by any person on a ship or aircraft registered in India, provisions carried from the Indian Penal Code, 1860, into the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
  2. Income tax, which taxes the global income of a resident.
  3. The Information Technology Act, 2000, which applies to offences committed outside India where the act involves a computer resource located in India.
  4. The law of the exclusive economic zone and the continental shelf, and admiralty jurisdiction.
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SECTION III

Answer any two of the following 12 Marks

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13.'A' filed a suit against 'B', for recovery of money under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments act 1881, for dishonour of cheque which is a criminal offense 'B' did not appear before the court for three hearings so the matter proceeded ex-parte. i. Explain the term Exparte ii.[6]

Answer

Which construction should be given to interpret penal legislation?

(i) Ex parte.

Ex parte is Latin for "from one side" or "on behalf of one party only". It describes a proceeding taken in the absence of, and without hearing, the other party.

Applied to these facts, B was duly served and failed to appear on three successive hearings, so the court proceeded to hear the matter in his absence.

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In a civil suit, where the defendant does not appear though duly served, the court may proceed ex parte under Order IX Rule 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the decree that follows is an ex parte decree. The defendant has three remedies: an application under Order IX Rule 13 to set the decree aside, on showing that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing; an appeal; and a review.

In a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the position is different in an important respect, and a complete answer says so. Section 138 creates a criminal offence, punishable with imprisonment up to two years or a fine up to twice the amount of the cheque, or both, and it is tried as a summons case by a magistrate. A criminal court does not pass an "ex parte decree". Where the accused absconds or fails to appear, the court issues summons, then a warrant, and may declare him a proclaimed offender and proceed to attach his property; trial in the absence of the accused is permitted only in the narrow circumstances the criminal procedure code allows. Since the amendments of 2018, the court may also direct interim compensation of up to twenty per cent of the cheque amount pending trial.

(ii) The construction to be given to penal legislation.

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Penal statutes are construed STRICTLY. The rules are these:

  1. Nothing is to be implied or added to create an offence or to increase a punishment. If an act is not clearly within the language of the section, it is outside the statute.
  2. Where the words are reasonably capable of two constructions, the one more favourable to the accused is adopted. This is the rule of lenity. Tolaram Relumal v. State of Bombay (1954): it is not competent for a court to stretch the meaning of an expression used by the legislature in order to carry out its intention, where the statute is penal.
  3. Mens rea is presumed to be an ingredient of the offence unless the statute excludes it expressly or by necessary implication: State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George.
  4. A casus omissus cannot be supplied. If the legislature has left a gap in a penal provision, the gap must be filled by the legislature.
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  1. Article 20(1) of the Constitution forbids conviction except under a law in force at the time of the act, and forbids a penalty greater than the law then provided.
  2. Strict construction yields to plain language. Where the words are clear they must be given effect even against the accused, and a penal statute enacted to suppress a grave social evil is not to be read so narrowly as to defeat its object.

Section 138 is a good illustration of both halves of that last point. The section is penal, so its ingredients are construed strictly: the cheque must have been drawn on an account maintained by the drawer, for the discharge of a legally enforceable debt or other liability; it must be presented within its validity; the payee must give notice within thirty days of the information of dishonour; and the drawer must fail to pay within fifteen days of the notice. Each of those is a condition and each has generated litigation. But the object of the provision is to sustain the credibility of the cheque as an instrument of commerce, and the courts have not permitted a technical reading that would defeat it.

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14.Answer the following questions with respect to the legislative extract given below: THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971. (ACT NO.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement. -
  • (1) This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India ****
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint. Identify the following: (i) Short Title (ii) Enacting Formula (iii) Long Title (iv) Date of Assent

Answer

34 of 1971) [10th August, 1971] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short Title"This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). The short title is the name by which the Act is cited.
(ii) Enacting Formula"BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-" It declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law.
(iii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." It states the general purpose and scope of the Act.
(iv) Date of Assent10th August, 1971, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act, being the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
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15.The film industry is facing increasing competition from television shows and content on Over-the-Top (OTT) platforms, which are gaining popularity due to their accessibility and convenience.[6]

  • i. Give an appropriate title for this passage and state what is the main idea / theme of the passage?
  • ii. Why is the film industry facing a challenge?
  • iii. What has the author observed that the makers of cinemas do, to stay relevant?

Answer

With the rise of streaming services like Netflix, Amazon Prime, and Disney+, audiences now have the ability to watch movies and TV shows anytime and anywhere, without the need to visit cinemas. This shift has made television and OTT platforms a preferred choice for many viewers, especially as they offer a wide range of content at affordable prices.

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To remain relevant, cinema is increasingly exploring innovative avenues to capture and retain viewer interest, including the simultaneous release of films on digital platforms and substantial investments in high-quality, immersive digital content that can match or surpass the streaming experience. Answer the following questions based on the extract given above:

(i) Give an appropriate title, and state the main idea or theme of the passage.

Title: "Cinema in the Age of Streaming."

(Equally acceptable: "The Film Industry's OTT Challenge" or "Competing with the Living Room".)

The main idea is that the cinema is losing its audience to television and to Over-the-Top streaming platforms, which are more accessible, more convenient and cheaper, and that the film industry is responding by innovating rather than by resisting, through simultaneous release on digital platforms and by investing in high-quality, immersive content that streaming cannot match. The theme, in a sentence, is the adaptation of an established industry to a technology that has taken away its advantage of exclusivity.

(ii) Why is the film industry facing a challenge?

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The passage gives four reasons:

  1. Increasing competition from television shows and from content on OTT platforms, which are gaining popularity.
  2. Accessibility and convenience: with streaming services such as Netflix, Amazon Prime and Disney+, audiences can watch films and television shows anytime and anywhere, without the need to visit a cinema.
  3. Preference: this shift has made television and OTT platforms a preferred choice for many viewers.
  4. Range and price: they offer a wide range of content at affordable prices.

(iii) What has the author observed that the makers of cinema do, to stay relevant?

The passage says that to remain relevant, cinema is increasingly exploring innovative avenues to capture and retain viewer interest, and it names two:

  1. The simultaneous release of films on digital platforms, that is, releasing in the cinema and on streaming at the same time rather than one after the other; and
  2. substantial investments in high-quality, immersive digital content that can match or surpass the streaming experience.
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16.Amar and Ziva are suspects in relation to a robbery that occurred nearby. The police, during interrogation, believing they have enough evidence, ask Amar and Ziva to confess, stating that it will make things easier if they just admit to the crime. Amar chooses not to answer and remains silent.[6]

Answer

In light of the maxim "Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare:" i. Can Amar be compelled to confess or provide information that could be used against him?

ii. Ziva on her own accord decides to narrate the facts about the robbery in front of the magistrate.

Can Amar prevent Ziva from making incriminating statements about him, on the basis of the maxim?

The maxim. Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare means "no one is bound to accuse himself." It is the privilege against self-incrimination, and in India it is a fundamental right.

Article 20(3) of the Constitution: "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." It has three ingredients, and all three must be present:

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  1. the person must be accused of an offence;
  2. there must be compulsion; and
  3. the compulsion must be to be a witness against himself.

(i) No. Amar cannot be compelled to confess or to give information that could be used against him.

  1. He has a right to silence, and it is a constitutional right under Article 20(3), not merely a rule of evidence.
  2. The criminal procedure code protects him at the investigation stage. A person examined by the police is bound to answer truly all questions other than those the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge; and at his examination by the court, an accused does not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer. In Nandini Satpathy v. P. L. Dani (1978) the Supreme Court held that the protection of Article 20(3) extends backwards to the stage of police interrogation and is not confined to the trial, and that a person formally named in a first information report is "accused of an offence" for this purpose.
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  1. A confession to a police officer is inadmissible in any event, under the confession provisions of the law of evidence, now contained in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, and a confession made under inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant. The police telling Amar that "it will make things easier if he just admits to the crime" is exactly the kind of inducement that would make any confession so obtained inadmissible.
  2. Compelling him is itself an offence. Causing hurt to extort a confession or information is a distinct and serious offence in Indian penal law.
  3. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) holds that narco-analysis, polygraph examination and brain electrical activation profiling conducted without consent violate Article 20(3) and Article 21.

What Article 20(3) does not cover, and it should be stated: State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961) held that "to be a witness" means imparting personal knowledge, and that giving thumb impressions, specimen signatures, handwriting samples, fingerprints or blood samples is not being a witness against oneself, because these are identifying features and not communications of knowledge. Amar may therefore be required to give a specimen; he may not be required to speak.

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(ii) No. Amar cannot prevent Ziva from making incriminating statements about him.

The privilege is personal, and two reasons follow from that:

  1. It protects a person from being compelled to incriminate HIMSELF, not from being incriminated by somebody else. Article 20(3) says "compelled to be a witness against himself". Amar has no right in Ziva's silence.
  2. There is no compulsion here at all. Ziva is speaking of her own accord, before a magistrate. The maxim is directed at compulsion, and where a person speaks voluntarily the maxim has nothing to bite on. A person is always free to waive his own privilege.

What Amar can do is answer the statement, not prevent it, and a complete answer sets out how.

  • The evidentiary value of a co-accused's confession is weak. Where more than one person is being tried jointly for the same offence and one of them makes a confession affecting himself and the others, the court may take it into consideration against the others, but it is not substantive evidence; it cannot be the sole basis of a conviction and can only lend assurance to other evidence. Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1952) is the leading authority.
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  • If Ziva is tendered a pardon and becomes an approver, she becomes a competent witness, but she is an accomplice, and the settled rule of prudence is that an accomplice's evidence requires corroboration in material particulars implicating the accused. Amar's remedy is cross-examination and the corroboration rule.
  • If her statement is recorded by a magistrate under the provision for recording statements and confessions, the magistrate must first satisfy himself that it is voluntary and must warn her that she is not bound to make it and that it may be used against her; and such a statement is not substantive evidence against a co-accused unless she is examined as a witness.
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SECTION IV

Answer Any Three in detail 39 Marks

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17.Explain the External aids to construction.[13]

Answer

What they are. External aids to construction are materials outside the four corners of the statute to which a court may look in order to ascertain the meaning of its words. They are contrasted with internal aids, the title, preamble, marginal notes, definitions, provisos, explanations, schedules and illustrations, which are found within the Act itself.

The governing rule of priority. A court turns to external aids only where the statute is ambiguous, and it turns to them after exhausting the internal aids. Where the words are plain, no external material may be used to give them a different meaning.

The external aids.

1. Dictionaries. Where a word is not defined, the court may consult a dictionary to find its ordinary meaning. Two cautions apply. A dictionary gives all the meanings a word can bear and the court must choose the one the context requires; and a technical or commercial word takes the meaning the trade gives it, not the dictionary's, which is why sugarcane was held not to be a "green vegetable" in Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar although a botanist might say otherwise.

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2. Statutes in pari materia. Statutes on the same subject are read together as forming one system, and a word used in one may be construed by reference to its use in another. Later statutes on the same subject may throw light on an earlier one, and an amendment may show what the legislature understood the original to mean.

3. The General Clauses Act, 1897. Strictly a statute in itself, but in practice the most-used external aid of all: its definitions in Section 3 and its rules of construction in Sections 5 to 13 are read into every Central Act unless there is anything repugnant in the subject or context.

4. Parliamentary history. This covers several distinct materials of different weight:

  • The Statement of Objects and Reasons. Admissible to show the circumstances in which the Bill was introduced and the mischief it was meant to remedy, but not to construe the words of the Act, because it accompanies the Bill and may not reflect what was finally enacted.
  • Reports of committees and commissions, including Law Commission reports and the report of a Select or Joint Committee, admissible to show the state of the law and the mischief.
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  • Parliamentary debates. Long excluded altogether in England, and admitted in India with caution. The modern position is that debates may be referred to, and the speech of the mover of the Bill carries the most weight because it explains the object; but debates cannot control the plain words, since what the legislature enacted is the text, not the speeches about it.
  • Constituent Assembly Debates, which the Supreme Court has used freely in construing the Constitution.

5. Historical facts and surrounding circumstances. The court may consider the state of things at the time the Act was passed, the mischief it was intended to remedy, and the previous state of the law. This is the material the mischief rule in Heydon's Case (1584) directs the court to consider.

6. Contemporanea expositio est optima et fortissima in lege, "contemporaneous exposition is the best and strongest in law". The meaning given to a statute by those who administered it from the beginning, and long usage under it, is a good guide to its meaning. The rule applies to old statutes and not to recent ones, and it yields where the language is clear.

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7. Textbooks and commentaries. Persuasive only. A court may cite a standard commentary for the state of the law, but the authority is the case or the section, not the book.

8. Foreign decisions. Persuasive where the statute is in pari materia with a foreign one, and Indian courts have drawn heavily on English decisions in this way; but they are never binding, and a foreign decision on a differently worded statute or in a different social setting must be handled with care.

9. International conventions and treaties. Where a domestic statute is enacted to implement a treaty, the treaty may be looked at to construe it, and, in the absence of any domestic law to the contrary, an international convention consistent with the fundamental rights may be read into them: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

10. Usage and practice, particularly commercial usage, in construing commercial statutes and instruments.

11. Later social, scientific and technological developments, in construing a statute regarded as "always speaking", so that a provision framed before a technology existed may be applied to it.

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18.Write an essay on 'Pollution due to Urbanization'[13]

Answer

The proposition. Urbanisation is the movement of population from the countryside into towns and cities and the growth of those cities. India's urban population has grown from about seventeen per cent at Independence to roughly a third today, and the absolute numbers are among the largest in the world. Pollution is not an accidental by-product of that process; it is what happens when the growth of a city outruns the infrastructure that is supposed to serve it.

How urbanisation produces pollution.

  1. Density. The same activity, cooking, driving, burning, disposing, produces a far greater concentration of pollutants when a million people do it in fifty square kilometres than when they do it across a district.
  2. Vehicles. Urban transport is the largest single source of air pollution in Indian cities, and the number of registered vehicles has multiplied faster than road capacity or public transport.
  3. Industry, historically sited at the edge of cities and now surrounded by them, which is exactly how the population came to be living within three kilometres of the plant in the Oleum Gas Leak case.
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  1. Construction, which produces dust, debris and noise continuously, and which in Indian cities is a principal contributor to particulate matter.
  2. Waste. A city generates municipal solid waste in quantities that its collection system was not designed for; the residue goes to landfills that leach into groundwater, or is burnt.
  3. Sewage. Where treatment capacity is less than the volume generated, the difference goes into the nearest watercourse. The Yamuna at Delhi and the Mithi at Mumbai are what that looks like.
  4. Encroachment on the natural drainage of the city, on wetlands, mangroves, floodplains and lakes, which removes the city's own capacity to absorb both water and pollution, and which turns rainfall into flooding.
  5. Noise and light pollution, which are urban by definition.
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The kinds of pollution and their effects. Air: respiratory and cardiovascular disease, reduced life expectancy, and harm to children's lung development. Water: waterborne disease, contamination of groundwater, destruction of aquatic life. Noise: hearing loss, sleep disturbance, hypertension. Soil: contamination from landfill leachate and industrial effluent. The burden falls unequally: the people living beside a landfill, a nala or a factory are the people who could not afford to live anywhere else.

The legal framework.

  • Constitutional: Article 21, which includes the right to a healthy environment and to pollution-free water and air, Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991); Article 48A, the Directive Principle; Article 51A(g), the Fundamental Duty; and Articles 243W and the Twelfth Schedule, which place public health, sanitation, solid waste management and urban planning on the municipalities.
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  • Statutory: the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000; the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016; the Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016; the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016; and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
  • Institutional: the Central and State Pollution Control Boards, the municipal corporations, and the National Green Tribunal.

The judicial response.

  • M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum Gas Leak case, laying down absolute liability for a hazardous enterprise, with compensation correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, and suggesting the environment courts that the NGT eventually became.
  • M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, the vehicular pollution proceedings, under which the Supreme Court from 1998 directed the conversion of Delhi's public transport to compressed natural gas, one of the few judicial interventions whose effect on air quality is actually measurable.
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  • Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980), holding that a municipality cannot plead lack of funds to escape its statutory duty to remove a public nuisance, and that the magistrate's power in the criminal procedure code is a real remedy against it.
  • Almitra H. Patel v. Union of India (2000), on municipal solid waste, which led directly to the first national Municipal Solid Waste Rules.
  • In Re: Noise Pollution (2005), laying down directions on loudspeakers and noise limits, including the prohibition on the use of loudspeakers at night.
  • Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), holding that sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are part of Indian law.

The tension the essay must face. Cities are also where the growth is. Urbanisation raises incomes, expands employment, delivers services more cheaply per head and, in the aggregate, has lifted more people out of poverty than any policy has. The problem is not that people move to cities; it is that Indian cities are governed and financed as though they were villages. A municipal corporation with obligatory duties under the Twelfth Schedule and no independent revenue to discharge them will do what the corporation in Ratlam did: plead lack of funds.

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What would actually work, and an essay should say something concrete:

  1. Public transport, which is the single largest lever on urban air quality, together with the electrification of transport.
  2. Segregation and processing of waste at source, which the Solid Waste Management Rules already require and which is not enforced.
  3. Sewage treatment capacity matched to the volume actually generated, rather than to the population on paper.
  4. Protection of wetlands, mangroves and floodplains, which are the city's own pollution and flood defences.
  5. Enforcement, which means funding and staffing the pollution control boards; a standard nobody inspects is not a standard.
  6. Making the polluter pay, which is already the law and is applied sporadically.
  7. Municipal finance and planning reform, so that a corporation has both the money and the power to do what the law obliges it to do.
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Conclusion. India's environmental law is among the most developed in the world and its urban air is among the worst. The gap between those two sentences is the subject of this essay. The problem is not a shortage of rights, of statutes or of judgments; it is that the institutions charged with enforcing them are under-funded, under-staffed and answerable to nobody in particular. Until that is addressed, each fresh judgment will restate a right that has already been declared.

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19.Discuss secondary rules of interpretation.[13]

Answer

What they are. The primary rules of interpretation, the literal, golden, mischief and harmonious construction rules, tell a court how to approach a statute as a whole. The secondary or subsidiary rules are narrower working tools, mostly rules of language and of presumption, which help a court decide the meaning of particular words and phrases once the general approach is settled.

THE RULES OF LANGUAGE.

1. Ejusdem generis, "of the same kind". Where general words follow an enumeration of specific things which form a genus or class, the general words are construed as limited to things of that same class.

Illustration: in a statute referring to "houses, offices, rooms or other places", the words "other places" are confined to places of the same kind as those enumerated, that is, indoor places, and would not extend to an open field.

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Conditions for its application (there are five, and giving them is what earns the marks): the statute must contain an enumeration of specific words; those words must constitute a class or category; the class must not be exhausted by the enumeration; the general term must follow the enumeration; and there must be no indication of a different legislative intent.

2. Noscitur a sociis, "a word is known by the company it keeps". A word of doubtful meaning takes its colour from the words associated with it. It is the wider rule of which ejusdem generis is a particular application: noscitur a sociis looks at neighbouring words generally, while ejusdem generis applies specifically where general words follow specific ones.

3. Expressio unius est exclusio alterius, "the express mention of one thing excludes another". Where a statute expressly mentions certain things, the inference is that things not mentioned were intended to be excluded. This rule must be used with caution: an omission may be a matter of inadvertence or of abundant caution rather than of intention, and courts have repeatedly warned that the maxim is "a valuable servant but a dangerous master".

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4. Reddendo singula singulis, "rendering each to each". Where a sentence contains several subjects and several objects, each is applied to the one to which it properly relates. Illustration: "I devise and bequeath all my real and personal property to A": devise is referred to the real property and bequeath to the personal.

5. Generalia specialibus non derogant, "general provisions do not derogate from special ones". Where a general enactment and a special one deal with the same subject, the special prevails over the general, and a later general Act does not repeal an earlier special one by implication.

6. Ut res magis valeat quam pereat, "it is better for a thing to have effect than to be made void". A construction which makes a provision workable and effective is preferred to one which renders it a nullity, and a construction which upholds the constitutionality of a statute is preferred to one which strikes it down.

7. Contemporanea expositio est optima et fortissima in lege. The meaning given to a statute by those who administered it from the beginning, and long usage under it, is a good guide. It applies to old statutes and not to recent ones, and yields where the language is clear.

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8. In pari materia. Statutes on the same subject are read together as one system, and a word in one may be construed by reference to its use in another.

RULES ATTACHED TO PARTICULAR KINDS OF STATUTE.

9. Strict construction of penal statutes. Nothing may be implied to create an offence or increase a punishment; where two constructions are reasonably possible, the one favourable to the accused is adopted; and mens rea is presumed unless excluded. Tolaram Relumal v. State of Bombay (1954).

10. Strict construction of taxing statutes. There is no equity about a tax. A subject is taxed only where he falls clearly within the letter of the charging provision, and if he does not, he escapes even though the spirit of the Act may seem to catch him. Conversely, an exemption is construed strictly against the person claiming it.

11. Beneficial or liberal construction of welfare legislation. Where a statute is passed for the benefit of a class, labour, women, consumers, tenants, it is construed liberally in favour of that class, and where two constructions are possible the one advancing the benefit is preferred: B. Shah v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1977), on the Maternity Benefit Act. The limit is that the language must admit of two meanings; beneficial construction does not permit words to be added.

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THE PRESUMPTIONS. That a statute is prospective; that the legislature does not intend what is unjust, inconvenient or absurd; that it knows the existing law and does not alter it further than it says; that it does not intend to exceed its territorial jurisdiction; that words are used in their ordinary sense; that every word has a purpose and none is superfluous; and that a statute is constitutional.

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20.Outline the facts, issues, and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal - AIR 1997 SC 610[13]

Answer

Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.

Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986, drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that it be treated as a writ petition under the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri about a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to every State Government and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits which showed that custodial deaths were continuing.

Issues.

  1. Whether custodial death, torture and lock-up violence infringe Articles 21 and 22(1) of the Constitution.
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  1. What preventive safeguards should attend arrest and detention so as to make that guarantee effective.
  2. Whether monetary compensation may be awarded in public law under Articles 32 and 226 for an established infringement, and whether sovereign immunity answers such a claim.

Reasoning. The Court described custodial torture as "a naked violation of human dignity", and held that the right guaranteed by Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner in custody, and that Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult a legal practitioner of one's choice. It explained why declarations alone had failed: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so protection has to operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.

The eleven guidelines, to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention as preventive measures:

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  1. Police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation must bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations, and the particulars of all such personnel must be recorded in a register.
  2. The arresting officer shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of arrest, attested by at least one witness, being a family member of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality, and countersigned by the arrestee, bearing the date and time of arrest.
  3. A person arrested or detained is entitled to have one friend, relative or other person known to him informed, as soon as practicable, of the arrest and of the place of detention.
  4. Where that person lives outside the district, the time and place of arrest and the venue of custody must be notified through the Legal Aid Organisation of the district and the police station of the area, telegraphically, within 8 to 12 hours of the arrest.
  5. The person arrested must be made aware of this right as soon as he is arrested or detained.
  6. An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention, recording the arrest, the name of the person informed, and the particulars of the police officials in whose custody the arrestee is.
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  1. The arrestee shall, on request, be examined at the time of arrest, and any major and minor injuries on his body recorded; the "Inspection Memo" must be signed by the arrestee and the arresting officer, and a copy supplied to the arrestee.
  2. The arrestee must be medically examined every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on a panel of approved doctors appointed by the Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory.
  3. Copies of all documents, including the memo of arrest, must be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
  4. The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
  5. A police control room must be provided at every district and State headquarters, to which the arresting officer must communicate the fact and place of arrest within 12 hours, and where it must be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.

The Court directed that these be followed in all cases, that failure would render the official liable for departmental action and for contempt of court, that the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards, and that they be circulated to every police station and broadcast.

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Compensation. The Court held that monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of Article 21; that this is distinct from a private law claim in tort; that it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and that the State, having paid, may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed and confirmed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), and before it Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983).

Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, by the amendment of 2008, which inserted Section 41B (identification and memo of arrest), Section 41D (right to meet an advocate during interrogation), Section 50A (duty to inform a nominated person) and Section 55A (duty to take reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused). The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, a direction taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020), which required cameras with night vision and audio in every police station with recordings preserved.

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21.Discuss the object, purpose and application of the General Clauses Act, 1897. Explain the effect and consequences of repeal.[13]

Answer

What it is. The General Clauses Act, 1897 (Act No. 10 of 1897) is an interpretation Act: a statute about statutes. It supplies definitions and rules of construction which are read into every Central Act unless the Act being construed provides otherwise.

THE OBJECT AND PURPOSE.

  1. To shorten the language of Central Acts, by providing once and for all the definitions and rules that would otherwise have to be repeated in every enactment.
  2. To provide uniformity of expression, so that the same word bears the same meaning throughout the Central statute book.
  3. To state rules of construction which give effect to the ordinary intention of the legislature on recurring matters, commencement, repeal, revival, computation of time, gender and number.
  4. To guard against slips and oversights, by importing common-form provisions which a draftsman might omit.

THE SCHEME.

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  • Preliminary, Sections 1 and 2.
  • General definitions, Section 3, a long list applying to all Central Acts and Regulations made after 1897: "affidavit", "document", "immovable property", "movable property", "month", "year", "person", "offence", "good faith", "Government", "local authority", "Magistrate", "writing" and many more, each governing "unless there is anything repugnant in the subject or context". Section 4 applies some of them to earlier enactments.
  • General rules of construction, Sections 5 to 13: Section 5, commencement on the date of assent where the Act is silent; Section 6, the effect of repeal; Section 6A, repeal of an Act making a textual amendment; Section 7, revival of repealed enactments; Section 8, construction of references to a repealed and re-enacted enactment; Section 9, "from" excludes the first day and "to" includes the last; Section 10, where the last day for doing an act falls on a day the court or office is closed, it may be done on the next working day; Section 13, the masculine includes the feminine and the singular includes the plural.
  • Powers and functionaries, Sections 14 to 19: Section 14, a power conferred may be exercised from time to time as occasion requires; Section 16, the power to appoint includes the power to suspend or dismiss.
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  • Provisions as to orders, rules and bye-laws, Sections 20 to 24: Section 21, the power to issue notifications, orders, rules or bye-laws includes the power to add to, amend, vary or rescind them; Section 24, continuation of subordinate legislation made under a repealed and re-enacted Act.
  • Miscellaneous, Sections 25 to 31, including Section 27, the presumption of service by post.

THE APPLICATION: when it can and cannot be used.

It applies in construing every Central Act and Regulation made after 1897, and, through Section 4, some earlier ones; in construing subordinate legislation made under a Central Act; and, by force of Article 367(1) of the Constitution, in construing the Constitution itself, subject to adaptations.

It does not apply, or yields,

  1. where the Act being construed defines the expression differently, since a special definition prevails over the general one;
  2. where "there is anything repugnant in the subject or context", which is a real limitation and not a formula;
  3. where a different intention appears, Sections 6, 13, 14, 16 and 21 being expressly subject to that;
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  1. to State Acts, which are governed by each State's own General Clauses Act; in Maharashtra, the Bombay General Clauses Act, 1904;
  2. to enactments made before 1897, except so far as Section 4 applies particular definitions to them; and
  3. to documents that are not enactments, such as contracts, deeds and wills.

THE EFFECT AND CONSEQUENCES OF REPEAL.

Repeal is the abrogation of a statute by another statute. It may be express, where the repealing Act says so, or implied, where a later Act is so inconsistent with an earlier one that the two cannot stand together, though implied repeal is not favoured and the presumption is against it.

The common law consequence of repeal was drastic: a repealed statute was treated as if it had never existed, except as to transactions past and closed, so that pending prosecutions fell, accrued rights vanished and pending proceedings abated. Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, was enacted to prevent that, and it is one of the most litigated provisions in Indian law.

Section 6 provides that where any Central Act repeals an enactment, then, unless a different intention appears, the repeal shall not:

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  1. revive anything not in force or existing at the time of the repeal;
  2. affect the previous operation of the repealed enactment or anything duly done or suffered under it;
  3. affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under it;
  4. affect any penalty, forfeiture or punishment incurred in respect of any offence committed against it; or
  5. affect any investigation, legal proceeding or remedy in respect of such right, privilege, obligation, liability, penalty, forfeiture or punishment;

and any such investigation, legal proceeding or remedy may be instituted, continued or enforced, and any such penalty, forfeiture or punishment may be imposed, as if the repealing Act had not been passed.

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Three related provisions complete the picture. Section 6A: where an Act repeals an enactment by which a textual amendment was made to an earlier Act, the repeal does not affect the amendment. Section 7: a repealed enactment is not revived unless the reviving Act expressly says so. Section 8: a reference in any enactment to a repealed and re-enacted provision is construed as a reference to the re-enacted provision. Section 24: subordinate legislation made under a repealed and re-enacted Act continues in force so far as it is consistent with the new Act, until superseded.

The "different intention" qualification is the heart of Section 6. The section applies unless a different intention appears in the repealing Act, and a saving clause in the repealing Act may be narrower or wider than Section 6; where the repealing Act contains its own savings, the court examines whether those savings were intended to be exhaustive, and if so Section 6 is displaced.

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Its current importance could not be greater. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, were repealed and replaced with effect from 1 July 2024 by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. Whether an offence committed before that date is tried under the old law or the new, and what happens to proceedings already begun, is answered by the savings in the new Sanhitas read with Section 6, together with Article 20(1) of the Constitution, which independently forbids conviction under a law not in force at the time of the act.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2024-25 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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