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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2019-20 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2019-20 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2019-20 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2019-20 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Do as directed

all 10 compulsory · 20 Marks

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1.Someone has picked my pocket. (Change the voice)[2]

Answer

My pocket has been picked.

(If the agent is to be kept: My pocket has been picked by someone.)

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2.Stones should not be thrown by those who live in glass houses. (Convert into active voice)[2]

Answer

Those who live in glass houses should not throw stones.

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3.He is sometimes foolish. (Change into Negative Sentence)[2]

Answer

He is not always wise.

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4.Very few cities in India are as rich as Mumbai. (Change the degree of comparison)[2]

Answer

The sentence is in the positive degree. The other two degrees are:

  • Comparative: Mumbai is richer than most other cities in India.
  • Superlative: Mumbai is one of the richest cities in India.
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5.Tell me where you live. (Change into a Simple Sentence)[2]

Answer

Tell me your address.

(Equally acceptable: Tell me the place of your residence.)

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6.Why waste time in reading trash? (Convert into assertive sentence)[2]

Answer

It is useless to waste time in reading trash.

(Equally acceptable: There is no use in wasting time in reading trash.)

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7.alas we finally met she said (Punctuate the sentence)[2]

Answer

"Alas! We finally met," she said.

(Equally acceptable: "Alas, we finally met," she said.)

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8.State any two features of the magazine 'Lawyer's Collective'.[2]

Answer

The Lawyers Collective was a monthly legal magazine published by the organisation of the same name, a legal aid and human rights body founded in 1981 by the senior advocates Indira Jaising and Anand Grover, which worked from Bombay and Delhi. Any two of the following are features of it:

  1. It reported and analysed litigation from a rights perspective, rather than merely digesting judgments. Its subject matter was public interest litigation, women's rights, the rights of workers, prisoners and slum dwellers, and later HIV/AIDS and health law, on which the organisation itself appeared in the courts.
  2. It was written for lawyers, law students and activists together, in accessible English, and it was one of the earliest Indian periodicals to treat law as a tool of social change rather than as a technical trade.
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  1. It carried campaigning and reform writing, on domestic violence, sexual harassment at the workplace and the rights of women in matrimonial proceedings, and its editors were directly involved in the drafting and passage of legislation in those fields.
  2. It documented the work of legal aid, reporting cases fought for those who could not pay, and case comments explaining what a judgment would mean for the people affected by it.
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9.Give the full forms of the following. (1) I.T.R. (2) D.M.C.[2]

Answer

  1. I.T.R. = Income Tax Reports, the Indian law report devoted to decisions on income tax and other direct taxes, reporting the Supreme Court, the High Courts and the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.
  2. D.M.C. = Divorce and Matrimonial Cases, the Indian law report devoted to decisions on divorce, judicial separation, restitution of conjugal rights, maintenance and custody.
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10.Explain the Citation: Shivlal Yadav v. Chatur Singh, AIR (1995) Guj. 583[2]

Answer

ElementWhat it means
Shivlal YadavThe first-named party, the appellant or petitioner, who brought this proceeding.
v.Versus, "against".
Chatur SinghThe second-named party, the respondent.
AIRAll India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed.
1995The year of the volume in which the case appears.
Guj.Gujarat, meaning the High Court of Gujarat, which decided the case.
583The page of that volume at which the report begins.

Read as a whole: the case of Shivlal Yadav against Chatur Singh, decided by the Gujarat High Court and reported at page 583 of the 1995 volume of the All India Reporter.

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SECTION II

Write short notes on any four of the following 20 Marks

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11.De Minimis Non Curat Lex.[5]

Answer

De minimis non curat lex means "the law does not concern itself with trifles." The law will not take notice of very small or trivial matters, and a court will refuse a remedy where the injury complained of is so slight that no reasonable person would think it worth complaining about.

Why the rule exists. Courts are a scarce public resource and litigation is expensive. If every trivial interference were actionable, the courts would be occupied with the loss of a single leaf from a neighbour's tree while genuine claims waited behind it. The maxim is a rule of judicial economy and of common sense, not a permission to inflict small wrongs.

Where it operates:

  • Criminal law. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, provided in its General Exceptions that nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or is intended to cause, harm so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of it; the corresponding provision is carried into the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. This is the maxim in statutory form.
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  • Contract and sale of goods. A microscopic shortfall in quantity, or a negligible deviation in quality, will not found an action for breach.
  • Taxation and accounts, where fractions of a rupee are rounded off by express provision.
  • Tort. A momentary overhang of a neighbour's airspace, or the smallest conceivable interference with an easement, may be disregarded.
  • Procedure. An immaterial defect in a pleading or a clerical slip in a decree is corrected rather than made a ground for setting the proceeding aside.
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12.Salus Populiest Suprema Lex.[5]

Answer

The maxim, printed on the paper as "Salus Populiest Suprema Lex" and taken from Cicero's De Legibus, is properly salus populi est suprema lex and means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law prefers the public good.

It is habitually paired with necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity". Together the two are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private right for a public purpose.

Where it operates:

  1. Eminent domain, the compulsory acquisition of private property for a public purpose on payment of compensation, now governed in India by the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, which replaced the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
  2. The police power of the state: public health, sanitation, town planning, drug control, licensing, and the regulation of dangerous or offensive trades.
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  1. Necessity as a defence in tort: damage done to private property to avert a greater public harm, the classic case being the pulling down of a house to stop a fire spreading, is not actionable.
  2. Public nuisance, where the use of one's own land is restrained because it injures the public at large.
  3. Emergency powers and preventive detention, where personal liberty yields to the security of the state.
  4. The reasonable restrictions permitted on the freedoms in Article 19(2) to (6) of the Constitution, and the Directive Principles, which direct the State to secure a social order for the welfare of the people.
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13.Rex Non Potest Peccare[5]

Answer

Rex non potest peccare means "the King can do no wrong." It is the foundation of sovereign immunity: that the Crown, and therefore the State, could not be sued in its own courts for a wrong, and was not liable for the torts of its servants.

Two propositions are packed into it. First, the King is personally immune from suit and prosecution. Second, and more sweepingly, the King is incapable in law of authorising a wrong, so that a servant sued for a tort cannot plead the King's command as a defence, and the Crown itself is not vicariously liable.

In England the doctrine was largely abolished by the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, which made the Crown liable in tort broadly as a private person of full age and capacity.

In India:

  • Article 300(1) of the Constitution provides that the Union and the States may sue and be sued, and continues the position that obtained before the Constitution, that is, the liability of the East India Company and later of the Secretary of State for India.
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  • Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary of State for India (1861) drew the distinction that governed Indian law for a century: the State is liable for acts done in the exercise of non-sovereign functions, that is functions a private person could also perform, and not liable for sovereign functions.
  • State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati (1962): a government jeep driven back from repairs killed a pedestrian; the State was held liable, the Court observing that in a welfare state with a vast commercial apparatus the old immunity has no justification.
  • Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1965): gold seized by the police and misappropriated by a head constable; the State was held not liable, because the power of seizure was a sovereign power. The decision has been criticised ever since.
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  • N. Nagendra Rao & Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994) confined Kasturi Lal narrowly, holding that in a modern welfare state very few functions are so exclusively sovereign as to attract immunity.
  • In the constitutional jurisdiction the immunity is simply gone. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) held that compensation for the violation of a fundamental right is a public law remedy under Articles 32 and 226 to which sovereign immunity is no defence, and D. K. Basu confirmed it.
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14.Explain the meaning of (i) Acquittal (ii) Discharge[5]

Answer

(i) Acquittal. An acquittal is the judicial finding, at the conclusion of a trial, that the accused is not guilty of the offence charged, and the consequent order setting him at liberty. It is recorded where the prosecution has failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt, or where a general exception applies. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the relevant provisions were Sections 232 and 235(1) in a sessions trial and Section 248(1) in a warrant case; the Code has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, with effect from 1 July 2024, which carries the same scheme forward.

Consequences: the accused is released and his bonds cancelled; the presumption of innocence is confirmed; the bar of double jeopardy attaches under Article 20(2) of the Constitution and Section 300 of the Code, so he cannot be tried again on the same facts; and the State may appeal against the acquittal, though an appellate court will not disturb it merely because another view is possible.

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(ii) Discharge. A discharge is an order made before the charge is framed, releasing the accused because the material placed before the court does not disclose sufficient ground for proceeding against him. It is made at the threshold, on the police report and the documents accompanying it, after hearing the prosecution and the accused. Under the Code the provisions were Section 227 in a sessions trial, Section 239 in a warrant case on a police report, Section 245 in a warrant case on a complaint, and Section 258 for stopping proceedings in a summons case.

Consequences: the accused is released without a trial; there is no finding on the merits; and in an appropriate case, on fresh material, proceedings may be revived, because a discharge does not attract the bar of double jeopardy in the way an acquittal does.

The distinction, which is the point of the question:

DischargeAcquittal
StageBefore the charge is framedAfter the trial is concluded
BasisNo sufficient ground to proceedThe charge is not proved beyond reasonable doubt
EvidenceNo evidence has been recorded; the court looks at the material on recordEvidence has been led and tested by cross-examination
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DischargeAcquittal
NatureNot a decision on the meritsA decision on the merits
EffectProceedings may be revived on fresh materialBar of double jeopardy applies; only an appeal lies
Test appliedWhether a prima facie case exists; the court does not weigh the evidence as at a trialWhether guilt is established beyond reasonable doubt
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15.State and explain any two kinds of rights.[5]

Answer

A legal right is an interest recognised and protected by law, whose violation is a legal wrong. Jurists classify rights in several ways; two of the most important are these.

(1) Right in rem and right in personam.

  • A right in rem is available against the whole world and corresponds to a duty on persons generally. The owner of a house has a right in rem: everyone is under a duty not to trespass on it, not to damage it and not to disturb his possession. Ownership, personal liberty, reputation and bodily security are rights in rem.
  • A right in personam is available against a determinate person and corresponds to a duty on that person alone. A creditor's right to be paid by his debtor, a buyer's right to delivery from his seller, and a tenant's rights under his lease are rights in personam.
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Why the distinction matters: a right in rem survives a change of hands and a right in personam does not. It is also the line between property and obligation, and, as Winfield's definition of tort shows, the line between tort, which enforces duties owed to persons generally, and contract, which enforces duties owed to a particular person.

(2) Positive and negative rights.

  • A positive right requires the person bound to do something, that is, it corresponds to a positive duty. The creditor's right to be paid, an employee's right to wages, and a child's right to maintenance are positive rights. The holder is in a worse position than he would be if the right did not exist, and he wants an act done to improve it.
  • A negative right requires the person bound to refrain from doing something, that is, it corresponds to a negative duty. The right not to be assaulted, not to be defamed and not to have one's land trespassed upon are negative rights. The holder is already in the position he wants, and the right exists to keep him there.
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Why the distinction matters: the remedy differs. A positive right is enforced by compelling performance, by a decree for money, specific performance or mandamus. A negative right is enforced by restraining the wrongdoer, by injunction, or by damages for having disturbed a state of affairs that ought not to have been disturbed. The distinction also runs through constitutional law, where the classical fundamental rights are largely negative, claims against interference by the State, while the socio-economic rights read into Article 21 are positive, claims that the State should act.

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16.Describe the search of a case laws in whether minor's contract is void-ab-initio.[5]

Answer

This is a question about legal research method: how the search is conducted, and what it produces.

Step 1. State the problem as a legal issue and fix the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement made by a person below the age of majority void ab initio, or merely voidable at his option? The terms to search under are minor, minority, majority, competency to contract, void ab initio, voidable, necessaries, estoppel.

Step 2. Go to the statute first, because it fixes the vocabulary. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, requires the parties to be competent to contract; Section 11 provides that a person is competent if he is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, of sound mind and not disqualified; the Indian Majority Act, 1875, fixes majority at eighteen years. Notice the gap: the sections say who is competent and say nothing about what happens when an incompetent person contracts. That gap is why case law was needed.

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Step 3. Find the leading case through a digest or subject index, under "Contract, minor's agreement". It is Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) 30 IA 114, ILR 30 Cal 539, a decision of the Privy Council on appeal from Calcutta.

Step 4. Read the case, not the headnote. Dharmodas Ghose, a minor, mortgaged his house to a moneylender whose attorney knew of the minority, and sued to have the mortgage set aside. The Privy Council held that a minor's agreement is absolutely void, void ab initio, and not merely voidable; refused to order repayment under Sections 64 and 65 of the Contract Act, because those sections presuppose a contract between competent parties; and held that estoppel did not operate against the minor where the lender knew the true position.

Step 5. Bring the search forward in time, using a digest, a citator, or an online database, SCC Online, Manupatra or the free Indian Kanoon, to check that the case has not been overruled and to collect the qualifications later decisions have added:

  • a minor may enforce a contract made for his benefit; the disability is a shield, not a sword;
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  • his estate is liable for necessaries supplied to him suited to his condition in life, under Section 68 of the Contract Act, which is a quasi-contractual liability and not a contractual one;
  • a minor cannot ratify on attaining majority, because there was never a contract to relate back to;
  • there is no estoppel against a minor who misrepresents his age, though a court may apply the equitable doctrine of restitution and order him to restore property still traceable;
  • a minor may act as an agent, and may be admitted to the benefits of a partnership under Section 30 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.

Step 6. Record the citation correctly, noting the court, because that fixes the authority. A Privy Council decision of 1903 continues to bind Indian courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.

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SECTION III

Answer any two of the following, with reference to the Legislative Extract given below

each question carries 6 marks · 12 Marks

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17.THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971. (ACT NO. 34 of 1971) [10th August, 1971] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement.
  • (1) This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India except to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint. Identify the following: (i) Short Title (ii) Enacting Formula (iii) Long Title (iv) Date of Assent

Answer

BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short Title"This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). The short title is the name by which the Act is cited.
(ii) Enacting Formula"BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-" It declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law.
(iii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." It states the general purpose and scope of the Act.
(iv) Date of Assent10th August, 1971, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act, being the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
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18.THE MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1961. (ACT NO. 53 of 1961) [12th December, 1961] An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement.
  • (1) This Act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India.
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as may be notified in this behalf in the Official Gazette:-
  • (a) in relation to mines and to any other establishment wherein such persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrians, acrobatics and other performance, by the Central Government.
  • (b) in relation to other establishment in a State, by the State Government. Identify the following: (i) Official Citation (ii) Marginal Notes (iii) Date of Assent (iv) Extent

Answer

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Official Citation"(ACT NO. 53 of 1961)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment.
(ii) Marginal Notes"Short Title, Extent and Commencement." the short heading printed against Section 1, summarising its contents.
(iii) Date of Assent12th December, 1961, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act.
(iv) Extent"It extends to the whole of India", Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates.
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19.THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993. (ACT NO.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement:
  • (1) This Act may be called The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India. Provided that it shall apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir only in so far as it pertains to the matters relatable to any of the entries enumerated in List I or List II in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution as applicable to that State.
  • (3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993. Identify the following: (i) Preamble (ii) Enacting Formula (iii) Short Title (iv) Date of Commencement

Answer

10 of 1994) [08th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Preamble"An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."
(ii) Enacting Formula"BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-"
(iii) Short Title"This Act may be called The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993", Section 1(1).
(iv) Date of Commencement28th September, 1993. Section 1(3): the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993".
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SECTION IV

Answer all the following 48 Marks

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20.Write an Essay on: Law and Literature.[12]

Answer

The subject. "Law and Literature" is the study of the relationship between the two disciplines. It grew into an organised field of scholarship in the United States in the 1970s, and it is conventionally divided into two branches:

  1. Law in literature: the study of how law, lawyers, trials and justice are represented in works of imaginative literature.
  2. Law as literature: the study of legal texts, statutes, judgments, pleadings, using the tools of literary criticism, that is, treating them as writing that must be interpreted, and examining their narrative, rhetoric and style.

Law in literature: the standing examples.

  • Shakespeare, The Merchant of Venice: the trial of Antonio on the bond, which raises the letter of the law against its spirit, the propriety of a judge with an interest in the case, and the use of a technicality to defeat a claim the court dislikes.
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  • Dickens, Bleak House: Jarndyce v. Jarndyce, the Chancery suit that consumes the whole estate in costs, the most famous indictment of delay in the history of literature.
  • Dickens, The Pickwick Papers: Bardell v. Pickwick, on how an innocent conversation is manufactured into a cause of action, and on the advocate who believes nothing he says.
  • Kafka, The Trial: a proceeding whose charge is never disclosed, the archetype of a system without natural justice.
  • Harper Lee, To Kill a Mockingbird: an advocate's duty to a client whom the community has already convicted.
  • Plato's Apology and the trial of Socrates: the defence of a man who will not save himself by abandoning his position.
  • George Eliot, Adam Bede: the assize trial of Hetty Sorrel, on how evidence from a disinterested witness convicts.
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Law as literature. On this side the claim is that a judgment is a piece of writing, and that reading it well requires the same skills as reading a poem: attention to the words chosen, to what is emphasised and what is passed over, to the order in which the facts are narrated, and to the persona the writer adopts. James Boyd White's The Legal Imagination (1973) is the founding work. The insight is not decorative: the facts of a case as stated in a judgment are already an interpretation, because someone chose which facts to state.

Why it belongs on a law syllabus.

  1. It teaches interpretation. Statutory interpretation is the reading of a difficult text whose author is absent and whose words must be applied to situations the author did not foresee. That is what literary criticism trains a reader to do.
  2. It teaches the ambiguity of language, which is the practical problem of every drafting exercise and every dispute about a contract.
  3. It teaches narrative. A case is won on the facts far more often than on the law, and presenting facts is storytelling under constraint.
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  1. It teaches empathy and moral perception. Literature puts the reader inside the position of a person unlike himself, which is the faculty a judge most needs and the one no statute can supply.
  2. It improves writing. A lawyer's product is prose, and reading good prose is the only reliable way to write it.
  3. It preserves the criticism of law from outside. Dickens did more against Chancery delay than any report, because he made the public feel it.

The objection, which the essay should meet. Richard Posner, in Law and Literature: A Misunderstood Relation (1988), argued that the connection is largely superficial: novels about trials are not reliable evidence about legal systems, literary techniques of interpretation are ill-suited to statutes, which unlike poems are commands issued for a purpose, and a lawyer's time is better spent on economics. The fair answer is that Posner is right about the limits and wrong about the value. Nobody proposes to decide a case by reading Bleak House; the claim is that a lawyer who reads well thinks better, and that the profession's own writing is the evidence.

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The Indian connection. The BLS LLB syllabus itself is an example of the field in practice: it sets The Merchant of Venice, The Pickwick Papers, Adam Bede, the Apology and the trial speeches of Gandhi alongside the technical subjects, precisely so that students meet law as a human institution before they meet it as a set of sections. Indian judicial prose supplies the other half: the judgments of Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer, dense with allusion and metaphor, are studied as writing as much as for what they decide, and the debate about whether that style serves or obscures the law is itself a "law as literature" question.

Conclusion. Law and literature are both made of language, and both are about the ordering of human conduct. Literature shows the law what it looks like from the outside, to the person it is being done to; and the discipline of reading literature is the same discipline a lawyer applies to a statute, a contract or a judgment. The connection is not decorative. It is a claim about how lawyers should be trained.

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21.Write an Essay on: Right to Privacy.[12]

Answer

The proposition. The right to privacy is not expressly written in the Constitution. It was declared by a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017) to be a fundamental right, intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and to the freedoms guaranteed by Part III. The decision was unanimous.

What privacy means. The Court described it not as a single right but as a bundle, and the classification is worth reproducing:

  • Bodily or physical privacy: the integrity of the body, including reproductive choice and the right to refuse medical treatment.
  • Informational privacy: control over personal data and over what is disclosed about oneself.
  • Privacy of choice: autonomy in personal decisions, marriage, family, sexual orientation, faith, diet.
  • Spatial privacy: the home, and freedom from surveillance and intrusion.

The history, which the essay must have.

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  • M. P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954), an eight-judge Bench, and Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1962), a six-judge Bench, had held or been read as holding that privacy is not a guaranteed right under the Constitution. It was these two decisions, and their strength in numbers, that made a nine-judge reference necessary in 2017.
  • Gobind v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1975) accepted a limited right of privacy emanating from Articles 19 and 21, subject to a compelling state interest.
  • R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu (1994), the Auto Shankar case, recognised a right to be let alone and held that a citizen has a right to safeguard the privacy of his own, his family's, marriage, procreation, motherhood and education, subject to the exception of matters of public record and the conduct of public officials in the discharge of their duties.
  • PUCL v. Union of India (1997), the telephone tapping case, held that a telephone conversation is protected by Article 21 and laid down safeguards for interception.
  • Puttaswamy (2017) overruled M. P. Sharma and Kharak Singh to the extent that they held there is no right to privacy, and settled the question.
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The test for a valid restriction. Privacy, like every other right in Part III, is not absolute. Puttaswamy laid down a proportionality test, which any State invasion must satisfy:

  1. Legality: there must exist a law, since Article 21 permits deprivation only by procedure established by law;
  2. Legitimate aim: the law must serve a legitimate State aim;
  3. Proportionality: the means adopted must be rationally connected to the object and must be the least restrictive available; and
  4. Procedural safeguards against abuse.

What followed.

  • Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) read down Section 377 of the Penal Code to decriminalise consensual same-sex relations between adults, resting substantially on privacy and dignity.
  • Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018) struck down the offence of adultery.
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  • Puttaswamy (II), the Aadhaar judgment (2018), upheld the Aadhaar scheme in the main while striking down Section 57, which had permitted private bodies to demand authentication, and applying the proportionality test to each use.
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, is the legislative response on informational privacy, creating obligations for data fiduciaries, rights for data principals and a Data Protection Board.

The tensions the essay should name. Privacy against national security and law enforcement, which is the surveillance and interception question. Privacy against the right to information and the freedom of the press, which is where R. Rajagopal draws the line at public records and the conduct of public officials. Privacy against the efficient delivery of welfare, which was the whole argument in Aadhaar. And privacy against the commercial exploitation of personal data, which is now the largest practical threat and the one the Constitution was not designed for.

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Conclusion. Puttaswamy settled the constitutional question and opened the practical one. A right declared against the State is now most often threatened by private entities that the citizen has, formally, consented to deal with, and consent obtained through a form nobody reads is not consent in any sense the law should respect. The frontier of privacy law has moved from the police station to the phone, and whether the 2023 Act is equal to that is the question worth arguing in the last paragraph.

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22.Briefly outline the facts, issues and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in D. K. Basu v/s State of West Bengal.[12]

Answer

Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.

Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986 drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that it be treated as a writ petition under the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri concerning a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to all the State Governments and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits showing that custodial deaths were continuing.

Issues.

  1. Whether custodial death, torture and lock-up violence infringe Articles 21 and 22(1) of the Constitution.
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  1. What preventive safeguards should attend arrest and detention so as to make that guarantee effective.
  2. Whether monetary compensation may be awarded in public law under Articles 32 and 226 for an established infringement, and whether sovereign immunity answers such a claim.

Reasoning. The Court called custodial torture "a naked violation of human dignity", and held that the right under Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner in custody. It stressed the difficulty of proof: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so the protection has to operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.

The eleven guidelines, to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention:

  1. Police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling interrogation must bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations, and their particulars must be recorded in a register.
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  1. The arresting officer shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of arrest, attested by at least one witness, a family member of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality, countersigned by the arrestee, bearing the date and time of arrest.
  2. The person arrested is entitled to have one friend, relative or other person known to him informed as soon as practicable of the arrest and the place of detention.
  3. Where that person lives outside the district, the time and place of arrest and the venue of custody must be notified through the Legal Aid Organisation of the district and the police station of the area, telegraphically, within 8 to 12 hours.
  4. The arrested person must be made aware of this right as soon as he is arrested or detained.
  5. An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention, recording the arrest, the person informed, and the particulars of the police officials having custody.
  6. The arrestee shall, on request, be examined at the time of arrest and any injuries recorded; the "Inspection Memo" must be signed by the arrestee and the arresting officer, and a copy given to the arrestee.
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  1. The arrestee must be medically examined every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on a panel of approved doctors appointed by the Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory.
  2. Copies of all documents, including the memo of arrest, must be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
  3. The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
  4. A police control room must be provided at every district and State headquarters, to which the fact and place of arrest must be communicated within 12 hours, and where it must be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.

Breach was to attract departmental action and contempt of court, and the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.

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Compensation. The Court held that monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective public law remedy for an established infringement of Article 21; that it is distinct from a private law claim in tort; that it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and that the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993).

Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the amendment of 2008, which inserted Sections 41B, 41D, 50A and 55A. The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, a direction taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).

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23.Briefly outline the facts, issues and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in Vishakha v/s State of Rajasthan.[12]

Answer

Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.

Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. As part of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a family of the village. In 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage: the police were reluctant to record the complaint, the medical examination was delayed, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused. The State's appeal against that acquittal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.

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A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, together with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that Bhanwari Devi was assaulted because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.

Issues.

  1. Whether sexual harassment at the workplace violates Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution, that is, equality, non-discrimination on the ground of sex, the right to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, and the right to life with dignity.
  2. Whether, in the absence of any enacted law on the subject, the Supreme Court may lay down binding guidelines to fill the vacuum.
  3. Whether international conventions, in particular the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which India ratified in 1993, may be read into the fundamental rights where domestic law is silent.
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The decision.

1. Sexual harassment at the workplace is a violation of fundamental rights. It infringes the right to equality under Articles 14 and 15, the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g), because a hostile environment drives women out of work, and the right to life with dignity under Article 21.

2. International law may be used to fill a domestic vacuum. The Court held that in the absence of domestic legislation, international conventions and norms which are consistent with the fundamental rights and which India has ratified may be read into Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21, drawing support from Article 51(c) of the Constitution, which directs the State to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and Article 253, which empowers Parliament to legislate to implement treaties. This is the case's contribution to constitutional method, and it is cited far beyond the field of harassment.

3. The Court laid down guidelines binding under Article 141 until suitable legislation was enacted, known as the Vishaka Guidelines:

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  1. Duty of the employer. It is the duty of every employer, in the public and private sectors, to prevent or deter sexual harassment and to provide procedures for the resolution and prosecution of complaints.
  2. Definition. Sexual harassment means unwelcome sexually determined behaviour, whether direct or by implication, comprising physical contact and advances; a demand or request for sexual favours; sexually coloured remarks; showing pornography; and any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
  3. Preventive steps. Express prohibition of sexual harassment must be notified, published and circulated; the conduct rules of government servants must include prohibition and penalties; standing orders in private employment must be amended accordingly; and working conditions must not be hostile to women.
  4. Criminal proceedings. Where the conduct amounts to an offence under the penal law, the employer must initiate action by complaining to the appropriate authority, and must ensure that victims and witnesses are not victimised or discriminated against, with the option of the transfer of the victim or the offender.
  5. Disciplinary action must be taken where the conduct amounts to misconduct under the service rules.
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  1. Complaint mechanism. An appropriate complaint mechanism must exist in the employer's organisation, providing for time-bound treatment of complaints.
  2. Complaints Committee. The complaint mechanism must include a Complaints Committee headed by a woman, with not less than half its members women, and involving a third party, such as a non-governmental organisation familiar with the issue, to prevent undue pressure from senior levels; it must submit an annual report to the Government.
  3. Workers' initiative. Employees must be allowed to raise the issue at workers' meetings and other appropriate forums.
  4. Awareness of the rights of female employees must be created, by prominently notifying the guidelines.
  5. Third parties. Where an act is committed by a person other than an employee, the employer must take necessary and reasonable steps to assist the affected person.
  6. The Central and State Governments should consider adopting suitable measures, including legislation, to ensure that private employers observe the guidelines.
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Aftermath. The guidelines were applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and in Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years after the judgment, Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, which came into force on 9 December 2013, and which now governs the field: it requires an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees, a Local Committee in every district for the unorganised sector and smaller establishments, and prescribes an inquiry procedure, time limits and penalties. The Vishaka Guidelines therefore no longer operate as the source of the obligation, but the case remains the constitutional foundation on which the Act rests.

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24.Define a Law Report. Write briefly on any two.[12]

Answer

Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment of the court and the order made, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.

A law report is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note of the proceedings. A law report is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus that the judgment does not itself contain.

Why they exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found, so law reporting is the machinery that makes precedent workable.

What a properly reported case contains, in order:

  1. the court and the names of the judges;
  2. the parties and the date of judgment;
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  1. catchwords and a headnote summarising the facts and the propositions decided, written by the editor;
  2. the cases cited;
  3. the counsel who appeared;
  4. a statement of the facts and the procedural history;
  5. the judgments verbatim, including any dissent;
  6. the order and the direction as to costs.

Two law reports, described.

(1) All India Reporter (AIR). Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley, AIR is the oldest continuously published general law report in India and the most widely cited. It reports the Supreme Court, the High Courts and, historically, the Federal Court and the Privy Council, in separate court-wise volumes, along with Central and State legislation. Its citation style puts the year first, without brackets: AIR 1995 Guj 583. Its companion publications include the Criminal Law Journal and the AIR Manual, a subject-arranged consolidation of Indian statutes with case annotations, which is the standard first stop in a legal search. AIR is a private publication.

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(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC). Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969, SCC reports the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively, and is generally regarded as the most complete and accurate text of the Court's judgments; it is the report most often cited in the courts today. Its citation style puts the year in brackets, then the volume, then the page: (1997) 6 SCC 241, which is Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan. Its companion series include SCC (Cri) and SCC (L&S), and the database SCC Online. It too is a private publication.

Two others worth a line each. Supreme Court Reports (SCR), the official report published under the authority of the Supreme Court, which should be cited where a case appears in it. Indian Law Reports (ILR), published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, which provides that no court is bound to hear cited, as a report of a High Court decision, any report other than the ILR where one exists.

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25.Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: The debate on whether Australia will have a nation-wide carbon trading scheme ended last week with the government committed to a national emissions scheme from 2012.[12]

  • a) Why have fossil fuels been in demand?
  • b) Which technologies will compete against what?
  • c) What will business favour in the end?
  • d) What is the purpose of lobbying?
  • e) Provide your views on the above passage.
  • f) Provide a suitable title to the above passage.

Answer

However, the decision making as to how we power the economy in a carbon constrained world is only just beginning. Fossil fuels like coal and oil have underpinned our economic growth and standard of living for decades.

The current resources boom is there because other countries want our fossil fuels, and for all these reasons it is profitable to keep mining them. Ironically, the income may help develop the technologies to replace them, but it is a matter of which and when.

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Almost certainly, in the race to reduce emissions, new technologies such as solar, wind and geothermal (heat from rocks) power will compete against gas, clean coal and perhaps nuclear energy to win the hearts and minds of the business world. In the end, business will favour whatever is a cheap, abundant and reliable solution.

You can imagine the lobbying that will ensue from the different interest groups, to attract business capital and government support so that their technology wins out. There may be many collapsed ventures and lost fortunes along the way.

1. Why have fossil fuels been in demand?

The passage gives three reasons. Fossil fuels such as coal and oil have underpinned economic growth and the standard of living for decades; other countries want them, which is why the current resources boom exists; and for all these reasons it remains profitable to keep mining them.

2. Which technologies will compete against what?

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In the race to reduce emissions, new technologies, namely solar power, wind power and geothermal power (described in the passage as heat from rocks), will compete against gas, clean coal and perhaps nuclear energy, to win, in the passage's phrase, the hearts and minds of the business world.

3. What will business favour in the end?

In the end business will favour whatever is a cheap, abundant and reliable solution. The passage puts no weight on which technology is cleanest or newest; the three criteria it names are cost, abundance and reliability.

4. What is the purpose of lobbying?

The lobbying by the different interest groups is directed at attracting business capital and government support, so that the lobbyist's own technology wins out over the others.

5. Provide your views on the above passage.

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The passage is written from the point of view of an Australian observer, and its strength is that it separates the political question from the economic one. The political debate, whether to have a carbon trading scheme, is presented as settled; the economic question, which technology will actually power the economy, is presented as barely begun. That distinction seems to me right, and it applies as much to India as to Australia: announcing a target is the easy half of climate policy, and the hard half is the twenty years of investment that follows.

Two observations may be added. First, the passage is honest about the paradox at its centre, that the income from selling fossil fuels may fund the technologies that replace them, and it does not pretend the paradox is comfortable. Second, it is candid that the outcome will be decided by business on grounds of cost, abundance and reliability, and not by environmental preference, which is a realistic and slightly bleak view. The warning in the last sentence, that there will be many collapsed ventures and lost fortunes along the way, is the most valuable line in the passage, because it acknowledges that the transition will be wasteful and uneven rather than orderly.

6. Provide a suitable title to the above passage.

"Powering the Economy in a Carbon-Constrained World."

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(Equally acceptable: "The Race to Replace Fossil Fuels" or "After Carbon Trading: Which Technology Wins?")

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2019-20 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

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