munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Labour Laws 2018-19 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Labour Laws

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2018-19 Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2018-19 examination.

This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii
munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2018-19 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • Please check whether you have got the right question paper.
  • 2. Figures to the right indicate full marks.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

SECTION I

Answer in not more than two sentences

All questions compulsory · 20 Marks

munotes.in 1

1.Write any two duties of "Works Committee".[2]

Answer

Section 3(2) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 states the duty of a Works Committee in two limbs:

  1. to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and the workmen; and
  2. to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern and endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters.

In practice this means dealing with day-to-day matters such as working conditions, safety, canteen and welfare amenities, and the ventilation of small grievances before they harden into a dispute.

munotes.in 2

2.Define Industrial Tribunal.[2]

Answer

Section 7A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The appropriate Government may, by notification, constitute one or more Industrial Tribunals for the adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any matter, whether specified in the Second Schedule or the Third Schedule, and for performing such other functions as may be assigned to them under the Act.

A Tribunal consists of one person only, appointed by the appropriate Government, who must be, or have been, a Judge of a High Court, or have been a District Judge or Additional District Judge for not less than three years. The Government may appoint up to two assessors to advise the Tribunal.

munotes.in 3

3.Write two objects of I.D. Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

The long title states the object as an Act "to make provision for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes, and for certain other purposes". Two objects are:

  1. To secure industrial peace by providing machinery for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes through conciliation officers, Boards of Conciliation, Courts of Inquiry, Labour Courts, Tribunals and National Tribunals, so that disputes are resolved by negotiation and adjudication rather than by strikes and lock-outs.
  2. To protect workmen against unfair treatment, by regulating lay-off, retrenchment and closure, requiring notice and compensation, prohibiting alteration of service conditions during the pendency of proceedings, and providing for reinstatement where a dismissal is unjustified.

Other objects are the promotion of collective bargaining through binding settlements, and the prevention of illegal strikes and lock-outs.

munotes.in 4

4."Award" under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(b): "award" means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of any question relating thereto by any Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal or National Industrial Tribunal, and includes an arbitration award made under Section 10A.

An award must be in writing and signed by the presiding officer (Section 16), is published by the appropriate Government within thirty days of its receipt (Section 17), and becomes enforceable on the expiry of thirty days from the date of publication (Section 17A). The published award is final and shall not be called in question by any civil court (Section 17(2)).

munotes.in 5

5.Write any one difference between Lock Out and Lay Off.[2]

Answer

The essential difference is one of intention and character.

A lock-out, defined in Section 2(l), is the temporary closing of a place of employment, or the suspension of work, or the refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed by him. It is a weapon of industrial conflict, the employer's answer to the workmen's strike, and it is used to coerce the workmen in relation to a demand.

A lay-off, defined in Section 2(kkk), is the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman whose name is on the muster rolls, on account of shortage of coal, power or raw materials, accumulation of stocks, break-down of machinery, natural calamity or any other connected reason. There is no element of conflict: the employer is unable, not unwilling, to give work.

munotes.in 6

A second difference follows: in a lay-off the workman is entitled to lay-off compensation under Section 25C at fifty per cent of basic wages and dearness allowance, whereas a lock-out carries no statutory compensation, though wages may be awarded if the lock-out is held illegal or unjustified.

munotes.in 7

6.Duties of Investigating Officers under M.R.T.U. and P.U.L.P. Act, 1971.[2]

Answer

Section 9 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. The Investigating Officer is under the control of the Industrial Court and exercises the powers and performs the duties imposed on him by that Court. It is his duty:

  1. to assist the Industrial Court in the verification of membership of unions, and to assist the Industrial and Labour Courts in investigating complaints relating to unfair labour practices; and
  2. to report to the Industrial Court or the Labour Court the existence of any unfair labour practice in any industry or undertaking, with the names and addresses of the persons said to be engaged in it and any other information he thinks fit to report.

Under Section 28 he investigates a complaint on the Court's direction, may visit the undertaking, make enquiries, attempt to promote a settlement, and must submit a report.

munotes.in 8

7.Who is a "Member" under M.R.T.U. and P.U.L.P. Act, 1971?[2]

Answer

Section 3 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 defines "member" as a member of a union, and the definition is important because it fixes who is counted when membership is verified for recognition.

For the purposes of recognition, a person is treated as a member of a union for a month if he has paid his subscription to that union for that month, and the subscription must be paid by him personally. A person who is a member of more than one union is not counted for either, since the Act contemplates a single count of employees supporting a union; and only employees of the undertaking concerned count towards the thirty per cent required by Section 11.

munotes.in 9

8."Model standing order" means?[2]

Answer

Section 2(f) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "model standing orders" means the standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government under the Act, that is, framed by rules made under Section 15.

Their function is twofold:

  1. under Section 3(2), the employer's draft standing orders must be, so far as is practicable, in conformity with the model standing orders; and
  2. under Section 12A, from the date on which the Act becomes applicable to an industrial establishment until the employer's standing orders are certified, the model standing orders shall be deemed to be adopted in that establishment.
munotes.in 10

9.Which court shall try offences under I.E. (SO) Act, 1946?[2]

Answer

Section 13(4) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "No Court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class shall try any offence under this section."

Section 13(3) adds that no prosecution for an offence under the section shall be instituted except with the previous sanction of the appropriate Government.

The offences themselves are in Section 13(1), failure to submit draft standing orders or to modify them as required, punishable with fine up to five thousand rupees and a further fine up to two hundred rupees for every day the offence continues; and Section 13(2), doing any act in contravention of the certified standing orders, punishable with fine up to one hundred rupees and a further fine up to twenty-five rupees for each day of continuance.

munotes.in 11

10.What is the minimum compensation payable in case of Permanent Total Disablement under E.C. Act, 1923?[2]

Answer

Section 4(1)(b) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. Where permanent total disablement results from the injury, the compensation is an amount equal to sixty per cent of the monthly wages of the injured employee multiplied by the relevant factor, or an amount of one lakh forty thousand rupees, whichever is more.

So the statutory minimum is Rs. 1,40,000.

For comparison, where the injury results in death, Section 4(1)(a) gives fifty per cent of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor, or Rs. 1,20,000, whichever is more, and Section 4(4) requires the employer additionally to deposit not less than Rs. 5,000 for funeral expenses.

munotes.in 12

SECTION II

Write Short notes

any four · 20 Marks

munotes.in 13

11.Retrenchment[5]

Answer

Definition. Section 2(oo) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, excluding voluntary retirement, superannuation where the contract so stipulates, non-renewal of a contract on its expiry or of a fixed-term contract in accordance with its terms, and termination on the ground of continued ill-health.

Wide meaning. In Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corporation v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1990) a Constitution Bench held that "for any reason whatsoever" means what it says, so retrenchment is not confined to discharge of surplus labour.

munotes.in 14

Conditions precedent. Section 25F. A workman in continuous service for not less than one year cannot be retrenched until (a) he is given one month's notice in writing indicating the reasons, or wages in lieu; (b) he is paid fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service or part thereof in excess of six months; and (c) notice is served on the appropriate Government. Continuous service is defined in Section 25B, and the working test is 240 days actually worked in the preceding twelve months.

Procedure. Section 25G requires last come, first go within a category unless reasons are recorded, and Section 25H gives retrenched workmen a preferential right to re-employment.

Larger establishments. Section 25N (Chapter VB, establishments with one hundred or more workmen) requires three months' notice and the prior permission of the appropriate Government.

Effect of breach. Section 25F is mandatory; retrenchment in breach of it is void, and the workman is entitled to reinstatement with continuity of service and such back wages as the court thinks fit.

munotes.in 15

12.Occupational Diseases[5]

Answer

Section 3(2) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 and Schedule III. The ordinary rule under Section 3(1) requires an accident; an occupational disease develops gradually and could never satisfy that test, so the Act creates a deeming provision.

Schedule III has three parts.

  1. Part A: diseases which need no minimum period of employment. Examples: infectious and parasitic diseases contracted in an occupation with a particular risk of contamination, such as work in hospitals or with animals; poisoning by lead, mercury, phosphorus, benzene, arsenic and their compounds.
munotes.in 16
  1. Part B: diseases requiring continuous service of not less than six months in the specified employment. Examples: diseases caused by chrome, nitro compounds, carbon disulphide; skin cancer caused by tar, pitch, bitumen or mineral oil; hearing impairment caused by noise; occupational asthma.
  2. Part C: diseases requiring service for such continuous period as the Central Government may specify. Examples: pneumoconiosis caused by sclerogenic mineral dust, such as silicosis and asbestosis; bagassosis; byssinosis; asbestos-induced cancer.

Effect. Where an employee employed in an employment specified in Schedule III contracts the disease specified against that employment, and has been in continuous service for the required period, the contracting of the disease is deemed to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment, and compensation is payable as if it were an accident, unless the contrary is proved.

Section 3(3) allows the Central or State Government to add diseases to the Schedule by notification.

munotes.in 17

13.Workman under Workman Compensation Act, 1923.[5]

Answer

The statute is now the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 and the expression "workman" was replaced by "employee" throughout by the Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, with effect from 18 January 2010. The definition asked about is therefore Section 2(1)(dd).

"Employee" means a person who is:

  1. a railway servant as defined in the Railways Act, 1989, not permanently employed in any administrative, district or sub-divisional office of a railway and not employed in any capacity specified in Schedule II;
  2. a master, seaman or other member of the crew of a ship; a captain or other member of the crew of an aircraft; a person recruited as driver, helper, mechanic, cleaner or in any other capacity in connection with a motor vehicle; or a person recruited for work abroad by a company; being in any of these cases employed outside India in a capacity specified in Schedule II; or
  3. employed in any such capacity as is specified in Schedule II,

whether the contract was made before or after the Act, and whether express or implied, oral or in writing.

munotes.in 18

Excluded is a person whose employment is of a casual nature and who is employed otherwise than for the purposes of the employer's trade or business, and a member of the Armed Forces of the Union.

Where the employee has died, the expression includes his dependants or any of them.

munotes.in 19

14.Employer's Liability for compensation under E.C. Act, 1923.[5]

Answer

The rule. Section 3(1): if personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation. Liability is without fault; the employer's negligence need not be proved, and the employee's contributory negligence is generally no answer.

The exceptions, in the proviso to Section 3(1). The employer is not liable:

  1. in respect of any injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the employee for a period exceeding three days;
  2. in respect of any injury, not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, caused by an accident which is directly attributable to:
munotes.in 20

(a) the employee having been at the time of the accident under the influence of drink or drugs; (b) the wilful disobedience of the employee to an order expressly given, or to a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees; or (c) the wilful removal or disregard by the employee of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing his safety.

Occupational disease. Section 3(2) extends liability to the diseases in Schedule III, subject to the qualifying periods.

Amount. Section 4. Death: fifty per cent of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor or Rs. 1,20,000, whichever is more, plus not less than Rs. 5,000 for funeral expenses. Permanent total disablement: sixty per cent multiplied by the relevant factor or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more. Permanent partial disablement: the Schedule I percentage of the permanent total figure. Temporary disablement: a half-monthly payment of twenty-five per cent of monthly wages.

munotes.in 21

Time for payment. Section 4A. Compensation shall be paid as soon as it falls due. On default, the Commissioner may order simple interest at twelve per cent per annum, and where the default is without justification, a further sum not exceeding fifty per cent of the compensation by way of penalty.

Contractors. Section 12. Where a principal employs a contractor to do work which is part of his trade or business, the principal is liable to pay compensation as if the employee had been employed by him, with a right to be indemnified by the contractor.

Bar on contracting out. Section 17. Any agreement by which an employee relinquishes his right to compensation is null and void.

munotes.in 22

15.Rights and obligations of recognized union.[5]

Answer

Obligations. Section 19 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. A recognised union shall:

  1. hold elections of its office bearers as required by its constitution or rules;
  2. allow all its members to take part in such elections;
  3. hold a general meeting at least once in a year for consideration of its accounts, the report of its working, and other matters; and
  4. allow an auditor appointed by the State Government to audit its accounts at least once in each financial year.

Failure to observe these conditions is a ground for cancellation of recognition under Section 13(1)(iii).

munotes.in 23

Rights. Section 20(1). Authorised officers, office staff and members of a recognised union have the right to collect subscriptions on the premises where wages are paid; to put up a notice board on the premises and affix notices; for the prevention or settlement of an industrial dispute, to hold discussions on the premises with member employees without interfering with the working of the undertaking, to meet and discuss grievances with the employer, and to inspect any place where an employee of the undertaking is employed; and to appear on behalf of an employee in any domestic or departmental inquiry.

Section 20(2) gives the two exclusive rights: the recognised union alone may appoint the workmen's nominees on the Works Committee under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act; and no employee may appear or be represented in any proceeding under that Act except through the recognised union, save in a proceeding concerning the legality or propriety of dismissal, discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension.

Section 21 extends the exclusivity to proceedings about the unfair labour practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV.

munotes.in 24

Section 23 provides that up to two authorised members who appear or act on the union's behalf shall be treated as on duty and paid their salary and allowances for those days.

munotes.in 25

16.Industrial Establishment' under I.E. (SO) Act.[5]

Answer

Section 2(e) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946. "Industrial establishment" means:

  1. an industrial establishment as defined in clause (ii) of section 2 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936;
  2. a factory as defined in clause (m) of section 2 of the Factories Act, 1948;
  3. a railway as defined in clause (4) of section 2 of the Indian Railways Act, 1890; or
  4. the establishment of a person who, for the purpose of fulfilling a contract with the owner of any industrial establishment, employs workmen.

Application. Section 1(3): the Act applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The appropriate Government may, after giving not less than two months' notice, apply the Act to any industrial establishment employing fewer than one hundred workmen.

munotes.in 26

Section 13B excludes establishments whose workmen are governed by specified government service rules, such as the Fundamental and Supplementary Rules, the Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, or the Indian Railway Establishment Code.

munotes.in 27

SECTION III

Solve

any two · 12 Marks

munotes.in 28

17.Rajesh Patil was employed as a lorry driver by Sodhi Transport Co. Pvt. Ltd. While driving a lorry of said transport company the lorry meets with an accident and Rajesh's right leg is amputated below the knee.[6]

  • (a) What is nature of disablement by Rajesh Patil? Give reasons.
  • (b) How is compensation calculated in case of injuries resulting in permanent disablement?

Answer

(a) What is nature of disablement by Rajesh Patil? Give reasons.

It is permanent partial disablement under Section 2(1)(g) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.

Reasons.

  1. Section 2(1)(g) defines partial disablement, where the disablement is of a permanent nature, as one which reduces the earning capacity of the employee in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at the time of the accident.
munotes.in 29
  1. Amputation of a leg below the knee is an injury specified in Part II of Schedule I. Every injury in Part II is deemed to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule assigns it a fixed percentage of loss of earning capacity.
  2. It is not permanent total disablement, because that requires incapacity for all work he could perform at the time of the accident, and is deemed only from an injury in Part I of Schedule I or from a combination of Part II injuries aggregating one hundred per cent or more. A single below-knee amputation is neither.
  3. The injury clearly arises out of and in the course of employment under Section 3(1): he was driving the employer's lorry, on the employer's work, and a road accident is the characteristic risk of a driver's employment. The employer is therefore liable.

(b) How is compensation calculated in case of injuries resulting in permanent disablement?

Section 4(1)(c) of the Act.

munotes.in 30
  1. Where the injury is specified in Part II of Schedule I, the compensation is such percentage of the compensation which would have been payable for permanent total disablement as is specified in the Schedule as being the percentage of the loss of earning capacity caused by that injury.
  2. Where the injury is not specified in Schedule I, it is such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity, as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner, permanently caused by the injury.
  3. The base figure, that for permanent total disablement under Section 4(1)(b), is sixty per cent of the monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor taken from Schedule IV against the employee's age, or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more.
  4. Where more than one injury is caused by the same accident, the amounts are aggregated, but not so as to exceed what would have been payable for permanent total disablement.
  5. Monthly wages are computed under Section 5 and are subject to the notified ceiling of Rs. 15,000 per month.
munotes.in 31

Worked illustration. Suppose Rajesh is 30 years old and his monthly wages exceed the ceiling, so wages are taken at Rs. 15,000. The relevant factor in Schedule IV at age 30 is 207.98. Compensation for permanent total disablement would be 60 per cent of Rs. 15,000 = Rs. 9,000, multiplied by 207.98 = Rs. 18,71,820. If the Schedule I percentage for his injury is fifty per cent, his compensation is fifty per cent of that figure.

Section 4A requires payment as soon as it falls due, failing which the Commissioner may award interest at twelve per cent and a penalty of up to fifty per cent of the compensation.

munotes.in 32

18.'A' union has got 30% membership of total workman employed in the establishment and it applied for grant of recognition. Another union 'B' objects on the ground that it has got 35% membership of the total amount of workman that establishment.[6]

  • (a) To which authority the application for grant of recognition has to be made?
  • (b) Give any two duties of unrecognized union.

Answer

(a) To which authority the application for grant of recognition has to be made?

To the Industrial Court, under Section 11(1) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Any union which has, for the whole of the period of six calendar months immediately preceding the calendar month in which it applies, a membership of not less than thirty per cent of the total number of employees employed in an undertaking, may apply in the prescribed form to the Industrial Court to be registered as a recognised union for that undertaking.

The application must be disposed of as far as possible within three months where the undertaking is in one local area, and within four months in any other case.

munotes.in 33

On the facts, union A satisfies the thirty per cent threshold and its application is competent. But Section 12(3) deals precisely with union B's objection: if the Industrial Court concludes that any of the other unions has the largest membership of employees in the undertaking, and that other union has notified its claim to the Industrial Court to be registered as the recognised union, and it satisfies Section 11 and complies with Section 19, the Court shall grant recognition to that other union instead. By the Explanation, the other union is deemed to have applied in the same calendar month as the applicant.

So if B proves thirty-five per cent membership sustained over the six preceding calendar months, and notifies its claim, B and not A will be recognised. Membership is verified by the Investigating Officer under Section 9(2). Section 12(4) allows only one recognised union for an undertaking at any time.

(b) Give any two duties of unrecognised union.

The Act confers rights on an unrecognised union rather than duties, and Section 22 is the provision. Its authorised officers, office staff and members have the right:

munotes.in 34
  1. to meet and discuss with the employer, or a person appointed by him, the grievances of any individual member relating to his discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination of service or suspension; and
  2. to appear on behalf of any of its members employed in the undertaking in any domestic or departmental inquiry held by the employer.

Exercising these rights carries corresponding obligations: the union must confine itself to the individual grievances listed, must act through duly authorised persons in the manner and subject to the conditions prescribed by the State Government's rules, and must not engage in any of the unfair labour practices in Schedule III, in particular advising or instigating an illegal strike, coercing employees, or resorting to go slow, squatting or gherao.

munotes.in 35

19.An employer makes an application for amendments to model standing orders to the certifying officer. The certifying officer after hearing the employer and workmen passes an order. The employer is not satisfied with the order of the Certified Officer.[6]

  • (a) What is the remedy available to the employer?
  • (b) Within how many days that remedy should be availed by the employer?

Answer

(a) What is the remedy available to the employer?

An appeal to the appellate authority under Section 6(1) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

Section 6(1) provides that any employer, workman, trade union or other prescribed representative of the workmen aggrieved by the order of the Certifying Officer under Section 5(2) may appeal to the appellate authority, and that authority's decision shall be final.

munotes.in 36

The appellate authority is the authority appointed by the appropriate Government by notification under Section 2(a). On appeal it shall, by order in writing, confirm the standing orders either in the form certified by the Certifying Officer or after amending them by making such modifications or additions as it thinks necessary to render them certifiable. Within seven days of its order it sends copies to the employer, to the trade union or other prescribed representatives of the workmen, and to the Certifying Officer, who shall thereupon amend the register and send authenticated copies to the parties.

Under Section 11, both the Certifying Officer and the appellate authority have the powers of a civil court to receive evidence, administer oaths, enforce the attendance of witnesses and compel the discovery and production of documents.

(b) Within how many days that remedy should be availed by the employer?

Within thirty days from the date on which copies of the order of the Certifying Officer are sent under Section 5(3).

Note that the period runs from the date of despatch of the authenticated copies, not from the date of receipt, and the section admits of no general power of condonation, so the appeal must be filed in time.

munotes.in 37

The consequence for the date of operation is in Section 7: where an appeal is preferred, the standing orders come into operation on the expiry of seven days from the date on which copies of the appellate authority's order are sent; where no appeal is preferred, they come into operation on the expiry of thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies were sent under Section 5(3).

munotes.in 38

SECTION IV

Attempt

any four · 48 Marks

munotes.in 39

20.Define industry under the I.D. Act, 1947. Discuss the role of Judiciary in redefining the term Industry?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: Section 2(j); why the definition is the gateway to the Act; the case law in order, showing what each decision added or took away; the triple test and the dominant nature test in Bangalore Water Supply; what is excluded; the 1982 amendment that is not in force; and the pending reference in Jai Bir Singh.

The definition. Section 2(j): "industry" means any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers and includes any calling, service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.

The definition is circular and almost empty of content, which is precisely why the judiciary has had to supply the meaning. It is also the gateway to the Act: no industry means no industrial dispute under Section 2(k), no workman, no reference, no Tribunal.

The role of the judiciary, decision by decision.

munotes.in 40
  1. D.N. Banerji v. P.R. Mukherjee (1953). The dismissal of employees of the Budge Budge Municipality was held to be an industrial dispute. The Court held that "undertaking" is wide enough to cover activities carried on without any profit motive, and that municipal conservancy and water supply are industries. The judiciary thus removed profit as a test at the very first opportunity.
  2. State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha (1960). A group of government hospitals was held to be an industry. The Court laid down a working test: an activity is an industry if it is analogous to trade or business, is organised as trade or business is organised, and involves cooperation between employer and employee in the production of material services. Only the regal or sovereign functions of the State stood outside.
  3. Madras Gymkhana Club v. Workmen (1968) and Cricket Club of India v. Bombay Labour Union (1969). A members' club was held not to be an industry, being a self-serving institution rendering services to its own members, with no production of goods or services for others.
  4. University of Delhi v. Ram Nath (1963). Education was held not to be an industry, the Court treating teaching as a noble vocation rather than a trade.
munotes.in 41
  1. Management of Safdarjung Hospital v. Kuldip Singh Sethi (1970). The high point of retreat. A government hospital run for training and research was held not to be an industry, and Hospital Mazdoor Sabha was doubted. Only activities producing material goods or material services analogous to business qualified.
  2. Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978). A Bench of seven Judges ended the confusion. It overruled Safdarjung, Delhi University and Cricket Club to the extent they conflicted, and laid down the triple test: where there is (i) systematic activity, (ii) organised by cooperation between employer and employee, (iii) for the production and/or distribution of goods and services calculated to satisfy human wants and wishes, there is an industry. Absence of a profit motive is irrelevant, and so is the character of the employer, private, government or statutory.

What Bangalore Water Supply added.

  1. Professions, clubs, educational institutions, cooperatives, research institutes, charitable projects and similar undertakings are industries if the triple test is satisfied.
munotes.in 42
  1. Dominant nature test. Where an undertaking carries on several activities, the predominant nature of the whole decides, and integrated departments take the character of the main activity.
  2. Sovereign functions strictly understood are excluded, meaning the inalienable functions of the State; but welfare and economic activities of government are industries.
  3. Also outside: institutions rendering free charitable service by people who serve without expectation of remuneration; and relationships in which the personal skill and confidence of an individual professional dominates.

What the judiciary asked Parliament to do. The Court expressly invited legislation. Parliament amended Section 2(j) by the Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 1982, excluding hospitals and dispensaries, educational and research institutions, khadi and village industries, charitable and social service institutions, sovereign functions and units with fewer than ten workmen. That amendment has never been brought into force. The judicial test therefore continues to govern to this day.

munotes.in 43

The doubt that remains. In State of U.P. v. Jai Bir Singh (2005) a five-Judge Bench held that Bangalore Water Supply required reconsideration and referred the question to a larger Bench, observing that the wide test had swept in institutions where the employer-employee relationship is not commercial. The reference is still pending, so Bangalore Water Supply remains binding.

munotes.in 44

21.State and explain the concept of 'Injury arising out of and in the course of employment' as contemplated in the E.C. Act, 1923.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: Section 3(1) and its four ingredients; the two phrases separately; the meaning of "accident" and "personal injury"; notional extension with the leading cases; the increased-risk theory; occupational disease; and the proviso.

The provision. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "If personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation."

Four ingredients must be proved: (i) personal injury; (ii) caused by accident; (iii) arising out of the employment; and (iv) in the course of the employment. Liability is strict: no negligence need be shown.

"Accident" means an unlooked-for mishap or untoward event which is not expected or designed, viewed from the point of view of the employee who suffers it. So an assault by a fellow worker, a snake bite, a fall, and a heart attack brought on by strain can each be an accident. An injury deliberately self-inflicted is not.

munotes.in 45

"Personal injury" is not confined to visible physical harm. It includes a nervous shock or a strain causing a physiological injury, and it includes death.

"In the course of employment" concerns time and place. It means the injury was suffered while the employee was doing what a man so employed might reasonably do, within the period of employment, at a place where he might reasonably be. It covers reasonable incidents of work: taking a meal on the premises, using the toilet, short rest breaks, and moving about the workplace.

"Arising out of employment" concerns causation. There must be a causal connection between the accident and the employment, in the sense that the employment exposed the employee to the risk which caused the injury. Three propositions follow:

  1. the risk must be incidental to the employment, that is one to which the employment exposed him;
  2. it need not be a risk peculiar to that employment, provided the employment increased his exposure to it; but
  3. a risk common to all mankind, to which the employment added nothing, does not satisfy the test.
munotes.in 46

Notional extension. Employment is not limited to the hours and the four walls of the workplace. In Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958) the Supreme Court accepted that employment may be notionally extended in time and place, so that an accident on the way to or from work may still be in the course of employment where it occurs in reasonable proximity to the workplace; but it held on the facts that workers drowned crossing a public creek were outside the extension, because they were exposed to a risk shared with the general public.

In General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964) a driver was killed travelling home in the undertaking's own bus, which under his terms of service he was entitled to use. The Court held that the employment extended to that journey, because the transport was provided by the employer as part of the contract.

The theory of increased risk and unexplained accidents. In Mackinnon Mackenzie and Co. v. Ibrahim Mahommad Issak (1970) a seaman disappeared at sea. The Supreme Court held that where the cause of the accident is unknown, the claimant need only show circumstances from which a reasonable inference can be drawn that the accident arose out of the employment. The onus is discharged by probability, not certainty.

munotes.in 47

Occupational disease. Section 3(2) deems the contracting of a disease specified in Schedule III in an employment specified against it, after the prescribed period of continuous service, to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment.

The proviso to Section 3(1). The employer is not liable (a) where the disablement does not exceed three days; and (b) in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, caused by an accident directly attributable to the employee being under the influence of drink or drugs, or to his wilful disobedience of a rule or order expressly made for safety, or to his wilful removal or disregard of a safety guard or device.

munotes.in 48

22.What is Standing Order? How it is certified under the I.E.S.O. Act?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition and the object of the Act; the Schedule; the application threshold; then certification step by step with every time limit; the fairness jurisdiction and its date; appeal; date of operation; posting; and Section 12A.

What a standing order is. Section 2(g) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "standing orders" means rules relating to the matters set out in the Schedule to the Act.

The object, stated in the preamble, is to require employers in industrial establishments formally to define conditions of employment under them, and to make them known to workmen. Before the Act, terms of service were largely unwritten and alterable at the employer's pleasure.

munotes.in 49

The Schedule lists the matters that must be covered: classification of workmen as permanent, temporary, apprentices, probationers or badlis; manner of intimating to workmen periods and hours of work, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; conditions of, procedure for applying for, and the authority which may grant leave and holidays; requirement to enter the premises by certain gates and liability to search; closing and reopening of sections of the establishment and temporary stoppages of work, with the rights and liabilities of employer and workmen; termination of employment and the notice to be given; suspension or dismissal for misconduct, and acts or omissions which constitute misconduct; means of redress for workmen against unfair treatment or wrongful exactions by the employer or his agents; and any other prescribed matter.

Application. Section 1(3): every industrial establishment employing one hundred or more workmen on any day of the preceding twelve months, and any smaller establishment to which the appropriate Government extends the Act on not less than two months' notice.

Certification, step by step.

munotes.in 50
  1. Submission. Section 3(1). Within six months of the Act becoming applicable, the employer submits to the Certifying Officer five copies of the draft standing orders. Section 3(2): provision must be made for every matter in the Schedule applicable to the establishment, and the draft must be, so far as practicable, in conformity with the model standing orders. Section 3(3): the draft is accompanied by a statement of prescribed particulars of the workmen employed, including the name of the trade union to which they belong.
  2. Conditions for certification. Section 4. Standing orders shall be certifiable if provision is made for every matter in the Schedule applicable to the establishment and they are otherwise in conformity with the Act; and it shall be the function of the Certifying Officer or the appellate authority to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions. The second limb was inserted by the amendment of 1956.
  3. Notice to workmen. Section 5(1). The Certifying Officer forwards a copy of the draft to the trade union, or where there is none, to the workmen in the prescribed manner, with a notice requiring objections within fifteen days of receipt.
munotes.in 51
  1. Hearing and order. Section 5(2). After giving the employer and the trade union or the workmen's representatives an opportunity of being heard, the Certifying Officer decides whether any modification or addition is necessary to render the draft certifiable, and makes an order in writing accordingly.
  2. Certification and copies. Section 5(3). The Certifying Officer certifies the standing orders and, within seven days of his order, sends authenticated copies to the employer and to the trade union or other prescribed representatives of the workmen.
  3. Appeal. Section 6. Any person aggrieved may appeal to the appellate authority within thirty days of the date on which copies are sent. The appellate authority confirms the standing orders as certified or after such modifications or additions as it thinks necessary, its decision is final, and within seven days it sends copies to the parties and to the Certifying Officer, who amends the register under Section 8.
munotes.in 52
  1. Date of operation. Section 7. On the expiry of thirty days from the date copies are sent under Section 5(3), or where an appeal is preferred, on the expiry of seven days from the date copies of the appellate order are sent.
  2. Posting. Section 9. The employer must prominently post the text in English and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen on special boards at or near the entrance and in all departments.

Meanwhile. Section 12A: from the date the Act applies until the standing orders are certified, the model standing orders are deemed to be adopted.

Powers and enforcement. Section 11 gives the Certifying Officer and the appellate authority civil court powers. Section 13 creates offences with the requirement of previous sanction of the appropriate Government and trial by no court inferior to a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class. Section 13A refers questions of application or interpretation of certified standing orders to the Labour Court.

munotes.in 53

23.What are 'Unfair Labour Practices'? What is the procedure for filing complaint against an Unfair Labour Practice?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition in Section 26 and the Schedules; illustrative practices from each of Schedules II, III and IV; the prohibition in Section 27; then Section 28 in full with the ninety days, the two forums, the Investigating Officer, the six-month decision, finality; and the reliefs under Section 30.

Meaning. Section 26 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: "unfair labour practices" means the practices listed in Schedules II, III and IV. Section 27 provides that no employer or union and no employees shall engage in any unfair labour practice.

munotes.in 54

Schedule II, on the part of employers, deals with interference with the right to organise: threatening discharge or dismissal if employees join a union; threatening a lock-out or closure if a union is organised; granting wage increases at crucial periods of union organisation to undermine the union; dominating or interfering with the formation of any union or contributing financial support to it; establishing employer-sponsored unions; discriminating in regard to hire, tenure or conditions of employment to encourage or discourage membership; discharging or dismissing for union activity or for giving evidence; and refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the recognised union.

Schedule III, on the part of trade unions: advising, actively supporting or instigating an illegal strike; coercing employees in the exercise of the right to self-organisation, including picketing so as physically to debar non-strikers from entering the workplace, and force, violence or intimidation against non-strikers or managerial staff; a recognised union refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer; coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative; wilful go slow, squatting on the premises after working hours or gherao of managerial or other staff; and demonstrations at the residences of employers or managerial staff.

munotes.in 55

Schedule IV, general practices on the part of employers, is the one most used: discharge or dismissal by way of victimisation, not in good faith, by false implication in a criminal case, for patently false reasons, on trumped-up allegations of absence, or in utter disregard of natural justice (Item 1); abolishing regular work and giving it to contractors to break a strike (Item 2); mala fide transfer under the guise of management policy (Item 3); insisting on a good conduct bond from legal strikers (Item 4); favouritism (Item 5); keeping employees as badlis, casuals or temporaries for years to deprive them of permanent status (Item 6); discrimination for testifying against the employer (Item 7); recruiting during a legal strike (Item 8); failure to implement an award, settlement or agreement (Item 9); and force or violence (Item 10).

Procedure. Section 28.

  1. Who may complain: any union, employee, employer or Investigating Officer.
  2. When: within ninety days of the occurrence of the unfair labour practice. The Court may entertain a later complaint if good and sufficient reasons are shown for the delay.
munotes.in 56
  1. Where: complaints about Item 1 of Schedule IV (discharge and dismissal) go to the Labour Court under Section 7; all other unfair labour practices go to the Industrial Court under Section 5.
  2. Investigation: the Court may direct the Investigating Officer to investigate and report within a specified time. He may visit the undertaking, make enquiries, and try to settle the complaint, and must report the facts and the efforts made; copies are supplied to the parties on payment of the prescribed fee.
  3. Consideration: if the complaint is not settled satisfactorily and the circumstances require, the Court proceeds to consider it and give its decision, as far as possible within six months of receipt.
  4. Order: in writing, and final; it shall not be called in question in any civil or criminal court. It is published as prescribed.
  5. Representation: for items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV, an employee may appear only through the recognised union under Section 21, unless there is none.
munotes.in 57
  1. Reliefs. Section 30 empowers the Court to direct the offender to cease and desist, to take affirmative action including reinstatement with or without back wages, and to grant interim relief pending final decision.
  2. Recovery. Section 50: money due under such an order is recovered on a certificate issued by the Court, as arrears of land revenue.
munotes.in 58

24.Discuss the provisions of I.D. Act, 1947 relating to lay-off and retrenchment? Also discuss the difference between these two legal terms?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: both definitions; the lay-off provisions from Sections 25A to 25E; the retrenchment provisions in Sections 25F to 25H and 25N; and then a systematic comparison.

Lay-off. Definition, Section 2(kkk): the failure, refusal or inability of an employer, on account of shortage of coal, power or raw materials, the accumulation of stocks, the break-down of machinery, natural calamity or any other connected reason, to give employment to a workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched. A workman who presents himself at the appointed time and is not given employment within two hours is deemed to have been laid off.

Provisions.

  1. Section 25A limits Sections 25C to 25E to establishments employing fifty or more workmen on an average per working day in the preceding calendar month, excluding seasonal establishments and those where work is performed only intermittently.
munotes.in 59
  1. Section 25C: a workman other than a badli or casual workman whose name is on the muster rolls and who has completed one year of continuous service is entitled, for all days during which he is laid off except weekly holidays, to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and dearness allowance that would have been payable to him had he not been laid off. This is payable for a maximum of forty-five days in any period of twelve months.
  2. Section 25D: the employer must maintain a muster roll and provide for the making of entries by workmen who present themselves for work.
munotes.in 60
  1. Section 25E: no compensation is payable if the workman refuses to accept alternative employment in the same or another establishment of the same employer within five miles, at the same wages, requiring no special skill or previous experience; if he does not present himself at the establishment at the appointed time at least once a day; or if the lay-off is due to a strike or slowing down of production on the part of workmen in another part of the establishment.
  2. Section 25M (Chapter VB, one hundred or more workmen) prohibits lay-off without the prior permission of the appropriate Government, except for shortage of power or natural calamity, and in a mine also for reasons of fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or explosion.

Retrenchment. Definition, Section 2(oo): the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, excluding voluntary retirement, superannuation under the contract, non-renewal of a contract on expiry or of a fixed-term contract per its terms, and termination on the ground of continued ill-health.

Provisions.

munotes.in 61
  1. Section 25F: conditions precedent for a workman in continuous service for not less than one year, namely one month's notice in writing indicating the reasons or wages in lieu; fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service or part thereof in excess of six months; and notice to the appropriate Government.
  2. Section 25B defines continuous service; the working test is 240 days actually worked in the preceding twelve months.
  3. Section 25G: last come, first go within the category, unless reasons are recorded.
  4. Section 25H: preference in re-employment to retrenched workmen.
  5. Section 25N (Chapter VB): three months' notice and the prior permission of the appropriate Government.
  6. Effect of breach: Section 25F is mandatory, so retrenchment without compliance is void, and the workman is entitled to reinstatement with continuity of service.

Difference between lay-off and retrenchment.

PointLay-offRetrenchment
DefinitionSection 2(kkk)Section 2(oo)
NatureTemporary inability to give workPermanent termination of service
munotes.in 62
PointLay-offRetrenchment
RelationshipContinues; name stays on the muster rollEnds on the date of retrenchment
CauseShortage of materials or power, accumulation of stocks, breakdown, natural calamityAny reason whatsoever except the four exclusions
Whose actEmployer is unable to give workEmployer chooses to terminate
CompensationFifty per cent of basic wages and dearness allowance, Section 25CFifteen days' average pay per completed year, Section 25F
Duration of paymentMaximum forty-five days in twelve monthsOne-time payment at the time of retrenchment
NoticeNo notice requiredOne month, or three months under Section 25N
munotes.in 63
PointLay-offRetrenchment
Government's rolePrior permission only under Section 25M in Chapter VB establishmentsNotice to Government always; prior permission under Section 25N in Chapter VB establishments
On revival of workWorkman resumes his old postWorkman has only a preferential right to re-employment under Section 25H
munotes.in 64

25.What is Collective Bargaining? Discuss its advantages and disadvantages.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: definition and origin; the ILO position; the Indian statutory framework; the levels and forms; advantages; disadvantages; and the Indian problem of the bargaining agent with the Industrial Relations Code answer.

Meaning. Collective bargaining is the process by which an employer or a group of employers and one or more representative organisations of workers negotiate the terms and conditions of employment, and arrive at an agreement binding both sides for a stated period. The expression was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb in Industrial Democracy (1897), who described it as the method by which workers, acting collectively, replace the individual bargain that leaves each worker at the employer's mercy.

It is a bilateral process. The parties themselves make the terms, unlike adjudication, where a third party imposes them, and unlike conciliation, where a third party only assists.

munotes.in 65

International position. ILO Convention No. 98, the Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949, requires member States to protect workers against anti-union discrimination and to promote machinery for voluntary negotiation. Convention No. 87 protects freedom of association. India has not ratified either, but the principles inform Indian law and the Supreme Court has referred to them.

The Indian framework. There is no dedicated statute. The process is supported indirectly:

  1. Section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: a settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceedings binds all parties, all summoned parties, and all persons employed in the establishment, present and future; a settlement outside conciliation binds only the parties to it.
  2. Section 19: a settlement operates for the agreed period or, in default, for six months, and continues until two months after notice of termination.
munotes.in 66
  1. Section 2(p) defines settlement; Section 12 requires the conciliation officer to promote a settlement; Section 36 governs representation.
  2. MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: creates a recognised union with exclusive rights under Sections 20 and 21, and makes an employer's refusal to bargain in good faith with the recognised union an unfair labour practice under Item 5 of Schedule II, and a recognised union's refusal to bargain in good faith an unfair labour practice under Item 3 of Schedule III.

Levels and forms. Bargaining may be at plant, industry or national level. In form it may be distributive (a contest over a fixed sum, typically wages), integrative (joint problem-solving, common in periods of difficulty), productivity bargaining (benefits tied to measurable output), or concession bargaining (workers accept reductions to preserve employment).

Advantages.

  1. Terms are made by the parties themselves, so they are better understood and better observed than an imposed award.
  2. It is speedy, flexible and inexpensive compared with litigation, and can be reopened as conditions change.
munotes.in 67
  1. It prevents industrial conflict by providing a standing channel through which grievances are aired.
  2. It promotes industrial democracy, giving workers a voice in the decisions that govern their working lives, which the Constitution's Directive Principles encourage.
  3. It builds a continuing relationship and mutual trust, so that each round begins from an accepted procedure.
  4. It relieves the State and the adjudicating machinery of a mass of routine disputes.
  5. It can raise productivity, because settlements can trade higher wages for agreed improvements in output and discipline.

Disadvantages.

  1. It presupposes roughly equal bargaining strength. Where the union is weak or the workforce unorganised, what results is dictation with a signature on it.
  2. Multiplicity of unions and inter-union rivalry make it hard to identify a bargaining agent, and rival unions may outbid one another in demands.
  3. Bargaining proceeds under the threat of strike or lock-out, and the cost of failure falls on production, on the workers' wages and on the public.
munotes.in 68
  1. It can be inflationary in strong industries and does nothing for the vast unorganised sector, so it can widen inequality between workers.
  2. Agreements may be reached at the expense of those not at the table, notably contract labour, casual workers and future entrants.
  3. Enforcement is uneven: a settlement outside conciliation binds only the signatories, and failure to implement an agreement is remediable in Maharashtra only through Item 9 of Schedule IV.
  4. It is not self-executing; without a legal duty to bargain, a determined employer may simply refuse to meet the union.
munotes.in 69

The Indian problem and the Code's answer. The central weakness has always been the absence of a statutory bargaining agent outside Maharashtra. Section 14 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 addresses it: where one registered union functions in an establishment it must be recognised as the sole negotiating union; where more than one functions, the union with fifty-one per cent or more of the workers on the muster roll is the sole negotiating union; and where none reaches that figure, a negotiating council is formed of unions with not less than twenty per cent, one representative for each twenty per cent, an agreement requiring the support of a majority of the representatives. Recognition lasts three years, extendable to a total of five.

munotes.in 70

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 71

Colophon

This volume prints the 2018-19 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

munotes.in 72
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!