Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLB 3 years · Sem 3
April 2024 - 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLB 3 years · Sem 3
April 2024 - 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 27 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the April 2024 - 60/40 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the April 2024 - 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the April 2024 - 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Write any six in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
A welfare State is one which does not confine itself to defence, law and order and justice, but assumes positive responsibility for the social and economic well-being of its people, providing education, health, housing, employment, social security and relief, and regulating economic activity to that end.
In India the model is written into the Constitution: the Preamble promises social, economic and political justice, and Part IV, the Directive Principles, in particular Articles 38, 39, 41, 42, 43 and 47, directs the State to secure a social order for the welfare of the people.
Answer
A reasoned decision, also called a speaking order, is an order which records the reasons on which it is based, so that it "speaks for itself".
The duty to give reasons is now treated as the third principle of natural justice, alongside the rule against bias and the right to be heard.
Answer
A non-sovereign function is a function of the State which is not peculiar to a sovereign, that is, one which a private individual could lawfully perform, such as running a transport service, a factory, a hospital, a hotel or a dockyard.
The importance of the classification is that the State is liable in tort under Article 300 for the wrongs of its servants committed in the discharge of non-sovereign functions, whereas it has historically claimed immunity for sovereign functions.
Answer
Mediation is a method of alternative dispute resolution in which a neutral third person, the mediator, assists the parties to negotiate and to arrive at their own settlement. The mediator has no power to decide and imposes nothing; he facilitates communication, identifies interests and helps to generate options.
Answer
A function is quasi-judicial when an administrative authority, though not a court, is required to decide a dispute objectively, on evidence, after hearing the parties, and its decision affects the rights of a person. It is "judicial in part": judicial in its manner of decision, administrative in its source and in its freedom to have regard to policy.
Its classic marks are: a lis or a proposal opposed; a duty to act on material and not on private opinion; a duty to observe natural justice; and a duty to pass a speaking order.
Answer
Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts rather than by the legislature, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials, and applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.
Answer
Tortious liability is liability in damages for a civil wrong other than a breach of contract or trust, that is, for the breach of a duty fixed by law and owed to persons generally, the remedy for which is an action for unliquidated damages.
In administrative law it means the liability of the State for the wrongful acts of its servants, which arises under Article 300(1) of the Constitution, and it is vicarious: the State answers for the tort of its servant committed in the course of employment.
Answer
A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds and freedom from ordinary departmental procedure.
Justice Douglas described it as a device combining "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency, with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
Answer
Public accountability is the obligation of those who exercise public power and spend public money to answer for the way they have used it, to disclose what they have done, and to bear the consequences of failure.
It has three elements: an account must be rendered; the account must be open to scrutiny by an independent body; and the scrutiny must be capable of leading to a consequence, whether correction, compensation, censure or removal.
Answer
Conciliation is a method of alternative dispute resolution in which a neutral third person, the conciliator, assists the parties to reach an amicable settlement and, unlike a mediator in the strict sense, may himself formulate and propose terms of settlement. The parties remain free to accept or reject them.
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. Its object is liberty, since concentrated power is abused.
2. Comparative position. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never applied it. India occupies a middle position: functional differentiation without insulation.
3. What reflects the doctrine in India. Article 50 (separation of the judiciary from the executive, a Directive Principle); Articles 53 and 154 (executive power vested in the President and the Governors); Articles 121 and 211 (no discussion of a Judge's conduct in the legislatures); Articles 122 and 212 (courts may not inquire into legislative procedure); Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); and the independence of the judiciary under Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231.
4. What departs from it. Ministerial responsibility to the legislature (Articles 74, 75, 163, 164); ordinances under Articles 123 and 213; the legislature's judicial powers (contempt of itself, impeachment under Article 61); the judiciary's rule-making and appointment powers (Articles 145, 227, 229); the executive's adjudicatory powers through tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B; and delegated legislation on a very large scale.
5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the doctrine is not recognised "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions have been "sufficiently differentiated". Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): part of the basic structure. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): courts must not enter the field of policy. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the 99th Amendment creating the NJAC struck down.
6. Conclusion. In India separation of powers is a principle of interpretation and a basic feature, not a textual rule. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.
Answer
This is a narrow and precise question, and it is not the same as "explain natural justice". The examiner wants the consequences of a breach.
1. The order is VOID, not merely voidable. The settled Indian position is that an order made in breach of natural justice is a nullity. Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) held the dismissal "void", and the House of Lords in Anisminic v. Foreign Compensation Commission (1969) treated a breach of natural justice as taking the decision outside jurisdiction. In India Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974) held that an order passed in violation of natural justice is void, so that a person could not be convicted for its breach; and A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak (1988) treated a direction given without hearing as a nullity liable to be recalled.
2. Consequences that follow from nullity.
3. But the theoretical position is qualified in practice. In Ashok Kumar Sonkar v. Union of India (2007) and other cases, the courts have observed that the "void or voidable" question is largely academic, because the order stands until a competent court sets it aside. The practical remedy is therefore what matters.
4. The remedy. The court quashes the order by certiorari under Article 226 or Article 32, and remits the matter to the authority to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred. The court does not decide the merits itself, and it does not direct a particular outcome, because the decision is the authority's to make.
5. The consequences for the affected person. In a service case the order of dismissal falls, and the employee is entitled to be treated as continuing in service, with the department free to hold a proper inquiry; the question of back wages is separate and discretionary, and is often moulded (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993, on the effect of non-supply of the inquiry report, where the Court held the order does not automatically fall but the employee must be given the report and an opportunity, and relief is moulded according to prejudice).
6. The "no prejudice" or useless formality argument. An authority sometimes argues that the breach made no difference because the outcome was inevitable. The courts treat this narrowly. S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980): non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice, and no one can say what the result would have been had it been observed; "the concept of prejudice must not be stretched". In John v. Rees (1970) Megarry J. observed that the path of the law is strewn with examples of open and shut cases which somehow were not, and of unanswerable charges which in the event were completely answered. But where the facts are admitted or the conclusion is inescapable in law, relief may be refused, as in Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar (1993) and Aligarh Muslim University v. Mansoor Ali Khan (2000).
7. Waiver. The right to a hearing may be waived by a party who, knowing of the defect, takes part in the proceedings without objection, and a person cannot take the objection for the first time in appeal or in a writ petition after having acquiesced.
Answer
1. What each is. A court is a permanent organ of the State, part of the ordinary judicial hierarchy, which exercises the judicial power of the State and decides disputes according to law. A tribunal is a body created by a specific statute to decide disputes in a particular field, judicial in substance but outside the ordinary hierarchy.
2. The differences.
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Creation | Part of the traditional judicial system | Created by a specific statute |
| Power exercised | The judicial power of the State | A statutory adjudicatory power |
| Jurisdiction | General | Confined to the named subject |
| Composition | Judges trained in law | Judicial member with a technical or administrative member |
| Appointment | Under the constitutional scheme | By the executive under the parent Act |
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Procedure | Code of Civil Procedure and Evidence Act | Own procedure, natural justice only |
| Basis of decision | Law and the rights of the parties | Law, and also the policy and object of the statute |
| The State's position | A party like any other | Very often itself the other party |
| Precedent | Binds subordinate courts | Generally no binding precedent |
| Control over it | Appeal within the hierarchy | Writs, and Article 227 superintendence |
3. What they have in common. Both decide a lis; both must act judicially, on the material and after hearing both sides; both are bound by natural justice; both may summon witnesses and take evidence on oath; and the proceedings of both are judicial proceedings for Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.
4. The tests. Bharat Bank Ltd. v. Employees of Bharat Bank (1950) and Durga Shankar Mehta v. Raghuraj Singh (1954): the power to decide a lis judicially, with a duty to act judicially, marks a "tribunal" for Article 136. Associated Cement Companies v. P.N. Sharma (1965): the essential test is whether the State has clothed the body with part of its own inherent judicial power. A purely advisory body, or one that decides on policy without a lis, is neither court nor tribunal.
5. Why the distinction matters. It decides whether Article 136 special leave lies; whether certiorari and prohibition lie; whether Article 227 applies; whether the Evidence Act binds; and whether the decisions can be cited as precedent.
6. The constitutional position of tribunals. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997): judicial review under Articles 226, 227 and 32 is part of the basic structure; the exclusion clauses in Articles 323A(2)(d) and 323B(3)(d) are unconstitutional; tribunals are courts of first instance whose decisions are subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court. A tribunal can therefore never displace a court, however court-like it becomes.
Answer
1. What it is. The Lokpal is the central anti-corruption ombudsman of India, established by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, which came into force on 16 January 2014. It inquires into allegations of corruption against public functionaries, including the Prime Minister, under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. Background. The Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, chaired by Morarji Desai, recommended a Lokpal at the Centre and a Lokayukta in each State, on the Scandinavian ombudsman model. Between 1968 and 2011 eight Lokpal Bills lapsed. The Act was finally passed in 2013 after a public movement, and the first Lokpal was appointed in March 2019.
3. Composition. A chairperson and not more than eight members, of whom not less than half must be judicial members, and not less than half must be from among the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities and women. The chairperson is a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person of integrity and outstanding ability with at least twenty-five years' experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, law or management. The term is five years or until the age of seventy.
4. Selection. By the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (chairperson), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President on the recommendation of the other four. A Search Committee assists it.
5. Jurisdiction, Section 14. It extends to:
6. Powers.
7. Limitations. It cannot itself punish; it inquires, investigates and prosecutes before a Special Court under Section 35. A complaint must be within seven years of the offence (Section 53). A false or frivolous complaint is punishable under Section 46. The appointment of the first Lokpal took five years after the Act, and the Inquiry and Prosecution Wings were slow to be constituted, which is the standing criticism of the institution.
Answer any two on situation-based question 12 Marks
Answer
Yes. The workers have a right to be heard in the winding up of the company, and their petition is maintainable.
The principle is audi alteram partem, the second rule of natural justice: no person shall be condemned unheard.
Answer
Article 299(1) of the Constitution prescribes three conditions, all mandatory:
Two further points complete the answer. Article 298 is the source of the power to contract at all, giving the Union and the States the executive power to carry on trade and to make contracts. Article 299(2) provides that neither the President nor the Governor, nor the person executing the contract, shall be personally liable on it.
The general law adds that the contract must satisfy Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and the award of it is subject to Article 14, so it must not be arbitrary: Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India (1979).
Why the conditions are mandatory. The object is to protect the public exchequer from being bound by the casual or unauthorised promises of individual officers. A contract not made in the prescribed form is void, unenforceable against the Government, and incapable of ratification, because there is nothing in existence to ratify: Mulamchand v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1968); Bihar Eastern Gangetic Fishermen Co-operative Society v. Sipahi Singh (1977).
The contract is void, so the plaintiff cannot sue on the contract. But he is not without a remedy: he can recover the value of the coal under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, on the principle of quantum meruit.
Answer
The director made a rule that discretion would be used only if deficiency in age was less than two years.
No. The Director has no power to amend the parent law, and what he has done, though he calls it a rule, is in substance an amendment of the discretion the parent Act gave him. It is bad on two independent grounds.
The decision is void, and the court will quash it and direct the authority to exercise the discretion properly. The court will not itself exercise the discretion.
Answer
The University has the power, but it cannot exercise it in the way it has done here. Cancellation without giving the student an opportunity to be heard is void.
Two principles are in play, and they point in opposite directions.
What permits cancellation:
What prevents it on these facts:
How to resolve them in the exam. State that the University's power is subject to a hearing; that if the requirement is mandatory and the student misled the University, cancellation is good; and that if the University's own scrutiny was at fault and the student did not conceal anything, the cancellation is bad, and in any event bad if made without a hearing.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: three definitions with the criticism of each; the nature of the subject in five features; the reasons for its growth; ten heads of scope; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources.
1. Definitions.
2. Nature. Administrative law is:
3. Reasons for growth. The shift from the laissez faire to the welfare State; the legislature's inability to make detailed law, producing delegated legislation; the ordinary courts' delay, cost and rigidity, producing tribunals; the technicality of modern administration; industrialisation, urbanisation and planning; emergencies; the value of experiment; and the arrival of public interest litigation after S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), which widened who may complain of administrative action.
4. Scope. It covers:
5. Administrative law and constitutional law.
| Constitutional law | Administrative law |
|---|---|
| The structure of the State and the distribution of power | The exercise of power in the daily working of government |
| Government at rest | Government in motion |
| The genus | A species of it |
| All three organs | Chiefly the executive |
| Source mainly the Constitution | Sources mainly statutes, rules and case law |
6. Sources. The Constitution; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which supply nearly all the governing principles; and administrative directions and departmental practice.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and forms; a short statement of why judicial control matters more than the other two; substantive ultra vires under nine heads with a case for each; procedural ultra vires with the publication cases; the presumption of validity; and the effect of a rule being struck down.
1. Definition. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority". Sir Cecil Carr called it "a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork".
It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions, and the terms are used loosely in Indian statutes.
2. Why judicial control is the effective control. Parliamentary control is weak: thousands of instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, on the application of the person affected, and through the doctrine of ultra vires it has two branches.
3. Substantive ultra vires: the rule is beyond the power.
4. Procedural ultra vires: the rule was made in the wrong way. The question in each case is whether the requirement is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal.
5. The presumption of validity. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid; the burden lies on the challenger; and the court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks it unwise, inexpedient or capable of improvement.
6. Effect of being held ultra vires. The rule is void and is treated as never having been made. Severance is possible: the bad part may be struck down and the remainder allowed to stand if it can operate independently. Acts already done under the rule may in some circumstances be protected.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning; why it matters, stated as reasons, since the question asks for importance; the two rules with their components and cases; the third rule of reasoned decisions; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness the law requires of anyone deciding a matter that affects another's rights or legitimate interests. It has no fixed content: what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute, and the consequences to the individual. In India it is grounded in Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is a constitutional wrong and not merely an irregularity.
2. Its importance.
3. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua. No man may be a judge in his own cause; the test is a real likelihood of bias. Its forms are pecuniary (Dr. Bonham's Case, 1610; Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal, 1852), personal (A.K. Kraipak, 1970; Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand, 1957), subject-matter or official (Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC, 1959), departmental, and pre-judgment. The doctrine of necessity is the exception: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990).
4. The second rule: audi alteram partem. Its components are notice of the charge and of the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material relied on (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex; the rule that he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and decision on the record alone.
Its landmarks are Cooper v. Wandsworth (1863); Ridge v. Baldwin (1964); Maneka Gandhi (1978); Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981) on the post-decisional hearing; Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985); and National Textile Workers' Union v. P.R. Ramakrishnan (1983), where workers were held entitled to be heard in a winding-up petition although the statute did not name them.
5. The third rule: the reasoned order. Siemens Engineering v. Union of India (1976), S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990), Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978).
6. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970); legislative action; confidentiality and security of the State; the narrow "useless formality" exception; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; waiver; and the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
7. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974). The court quashes it and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred, and does not decide the merits itself.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and characteristics of a corporation; the classification into corporation sole and aggregate, and then into statutory, registered and chartered; the functional classification of public corporations with real Indian examples; the reasons for the public corporation; its control; and the Article 12 case law, which is the administrative-law point of the question.
1. Definition. A corporation is an artificial or juristic person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct in law from the natural persons who compose it, and capable of holding property, entering into contracts, and suing and being sued in its own name.
Salmond defines a corporation as a group or series of persons which by legal fiction is regarded and treated as a person.
2. Characteristics. Separate legal personality; perpetual succession, so that its existence does not depend on the life of its members; a common seal; capacity to hold property in its own name; capacity to contract and to sue and be sued; limited liability of its members; and powers limited by the instrument that created it, so that anything outside them is ultra vires.
3. The first classification: sole and aggregate.
4. The second classification: by mode of creation.
5. The functional classification of public corporations.
6. Why the public corporation is used. To combine public ownership and accountability with commercial flexibility; to give the undertaking a separate legal personality and its own funds, outside the Consolidated Fund and the annual appropriation; to secure expert management free from daily departmental control; to hold a strategic monopoly; and to employ staff on terms suited to a business rather than on civil-service terms.
7. Control of public corporations.
8. When is a corporation "the State"? This is the administrative-law heart of the question. Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967) first held a statutory corporation to be "other authorities" under Article 12. Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975) applied it to ONGC, LIC and the Industrial Finance Corporation and held their regulations to have the force of law. Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India (1979) developed the test of instrumentality or agency, and Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981) collected it into six factors: the whole share capital held by the Government; financial assistance meeting almost the entire expenditure; a monopoly conferred or protected by the State; deep and pervasive State control; functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions; and a department of Government transferred to the corporation. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002), a seven-judge Bench, restated the test as whether the body is financially, functionally and administratively dominated by, or under the control of, the Government, that control being deep and pervasive and not merely regulatory.
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This volume prints the April 2024 - 60/40 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for LLB 3 years Sem 3, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
27 August 2026.
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