Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLB 3 years · Sem 1
April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
LLB 3 years · Sem 1
April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 27 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a "consumer" as any person who:
but does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or goods or services for any commercial purpose.
Explanation (a) provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. Explanation (b) provides that buying and availing include offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing.
Answer
Slander is defamation in a transient form, principally by the spoken word or by a gesture. It is addressed to the ear, as distinct from libel, which is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye.
In English law slander is actionable only on proof of special damage, except in four cases: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business.
Answer
Malfeasance is the doing of an act which is wrongful and unlawful in itself, an act which the defendant had no right to do at all, such as a trespass or an assault.
Misfeasance is the improper or negligent performance of an act which is in itself lawful, such as a contractor entitled to dig up a road who leaves the trench unlit and unguarded.
The third term completing the set is non-feasance, the omission to perform an act which the defendant was under a duty to perform.
Answer
The difference lies in the source of the duty, the jurisdiction which enforced it and the nature of the remedy.
In tort the duty is fixed by law, is owed to persons generally, and the remedy is unliquidated damages assessed by the court. In breach of trust the duty arises from a fiduciary relationship, was historically enforced in equity by the Court of Chancery, and the liability is liquidated, because the trustee must account for what he has wrongly received or for the loss to the trust estate.
Salmond's definition excludes both breach of contract and breach of trust for this reason: a tort is a civil wrong which is not exclusively either of them.
Answer
Qui facit per alium facit per se means "he who acts through another acts himself". It is one of the two maxims on which vicarious liability rests, the other being respondeat superior, let the superior answer.
Its effect is that where a person authorises or employs another to do an act, the act is treated in law as his own, and he is answerable for it. It is the basis of the liability of a master for the torts of his servant committed in the course of employment, and of a principal for the acts of his agent within the scope of his authority.
Answer
Vis major, literally "a superior force", is the civil law name for what English law calls an act of God: an operation of natural forces so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it, and against which no reasonable care could provide.
Two elements must be shown: the event must be the result of natural forces without any human intervention, and it must be so extraordinary that it could not reasonably be foreseen or guarded against. It is a general defence in tort and is one of the five exceptions to strict liability under Rylands v Fletcher.
Answer
Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy", commonly rendered as there is no wrong without a remedy. Jus means the legal right to be protected and remedium the right of action by which it is enforced. Wherever the law confers a right, it also confers the means of vindicating it, for a right without a remedy would be no right at all.
Ashby v White (1703) is the leading case: a returning officer wrongfully refused the plaintiff's vote; the candidate he supported was elected anyway, so he lost nothing; Holt CJ held the action lay, because want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal.
Answer
A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or breach of trust, for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages. The word comes from the Latin tortum, twisted or crooked, through the French tort, a wrong.
Winfield's definition is fuller: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."
Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 gives a statutory definition in the same terms as Salmond's: "tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or a breach of trust."
Answer
Volenti non fit injuria means to a willing person no injury is done. It is a general defence: where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run that risk, he cannot afterwards sue for the harm it causes.
Two elements must both be proved: knowledge of the risk and consent to bear it. Knowledge alone will not do, which is why scienti non fit injuria is not the law.
Answer
Section 2(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines an "appropriate laboratory" as a laboratory or organisation:
for carrying out analysis or test of any goods with a view to determining whether such goods suffer from any defect.
Write Short notes any two 12 Marks
Answer
Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word comes from the French nuire, to injure.
Nuisance and trespass distinguished. Trespass is a direct interference with possession and is actionable per se; nuisance is a consequential interference with enjoyment and generally requires proof of damage. Throwing stones onto a neighbour's land is trespass; allowing tree roots to spread under it is nuisance.
Kinds.
Essentials of private nuisance: (i) an unreasonable interference; (ii) with the use or enjoyment of land or a right over it; (iii) damage, either physical injury to property or substantial discomfort to the occupier.
Factors deciding reasonableness.
Defences. Prescription, that is an easement acquired by twenty years' uninterrupted continuance as of right under Section 26 of the Limitation Act, 1963 with Section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882; statutory authority; consent; act of God; act of a stranger; plaintiff's own default; and necessity.
Defences which do not work: that others do the same; that the activity is for the public benefit; that the plaintiff came to the nuisance; that reasonable care was taken; and that the place was convenient.
Remedies. Damages; injunction, which is what a plaintiff usually wants; and abatement, the self-help remedy, exercisable on notice, without unnecessary damage, and choosing the less mischievous of two methods.
Answer
Discharge of torts means the modes by which a tortious liability, once incurred, comes to an end, so that the right of action is extinguished and can no longer be enforced.
1. Death of a party. The common law maxim was actio personalis moritur cum persona, a personal action dies with the person. It has been very largely abolished:
2. Waiver. Where the plaintiff has alternative remedies he must elect, and by electing one he abandons the other. Where the tort has brought a gain to the wrongdoer, he may waive the tort and sue in quasi-contract for money had and received, which is worth doing where the defendant's gain exceeds the plaintiff's loss.
3. Accord and satisfaction. Accord is the agreement to accept some consideration in place of the right of action; satisfaction is the actual payment or performance of it. Accord without satisfaction discharges nothing, and the accord must be free from fraud, coercion and undue influence.
4. Release. The giving up of the right of action by the injured party's own act. Under English law a release required a deed; in India Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 allows a promisee to dispense with or remit performance wholly or in part, so a release without consideration is effective.
5. Acquiescence. Where a person entitled to enforce a right stands by and allows another to act inconsistently with it, without objection and in circumstances in which he could and should have objected, he may be precluded from enforcing it.
6. Judgment recovered. A cause of action on which judgment has been obtained is merged in the judgment and cannot be sued on again, reinforced by res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and by the rule against splitting a cause of action, which is why damages must be claimed once and for all, including prospective loss.
7. Limitation. Lapse of the period prescribed by the Limitation Act, 1963 bars the remedy, though it does not extinguish the right except in suits for possession under Section 27. The Schedule gives one year for libel, slander and false imprisonment, and generally three years for other torts under the residuary Article 113. Section 22 provides that in the case of a continuing tort a fresh period runs at every moment during which it continues.
Answer
The Consumer Protection Councils are the advisory bodies established under the Act at three levels, to promote and protect the rights of consumers.
1. The Central Consumer Protection Council, Sections 3 to 4 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Section 3 requires the Central Government to establish the Central Council by notification. Section 3(2) provides that it shall consist of the Minister in charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government as Chairperson, and such number of other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed.
Section 4 provides that the Council shall meet as and when necessary, but at least one meeting shall be held every year.
Section 5 states its object: to render advice on promotion and protection of the consumers' rights under the Act.
2. The State Consumer Protection Councils, Sections 6 to 7.
Established by each State Government, with the Minister in charge of consumer affairs in the State as Chairperson, and such number of other official or non-official members as may be prescribed by the State Government, and such number of members as may be nominated by the Central Government, not exceeding ten. The State Council shall meet as and when necessary, but not less than two meetings every year. Its object is to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumer rights within the State.
3. The District Consumer Protection Councils, Sections 8 to 9.
Established by the State Government for every district, with the Collector of the district as Chairperson, however designated, and such number of other official and non-official members as may be prescribed. The District Council shall meet as and when necessary but not less than two meetings every year, and its object is to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumer rights within the district.
4. The six consumer rights, which the Councils exist to promote, are defined in Section 2(9): the right to safety, the right to be informed, the right to choose, the right to be heard, the right to seek redressal, and the right to consumer awareness.
The six rights (Section 6 of the 1986 Act, now Section 2(9) of the 2019 Act), which the Councils exist to promote:
They are drawn from the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection, adopted in 1985, which themselves build on the four rights stated by President Kennedy to the United States Congress in 1962.
The Councils are advisory, not adjudicatory. They hear no complaints, award no compensation and pass no binding orders; adjudication belongs entirely to the District, State and National Commissions. Nor are they the regulator: that is the Central Consumer Protection Authority under Section 10 of the 2019 Act, which may inquire on its own motion, order recall and reimbursement, and impose penalties for misleading advertisements.
Answer
Trespass ab initio is a doctrine by which a person who enters land under an authority given by law, and who then abuses that authority, is treated as a trespasser from the very beginning, that is his original entry, lawful when made, becomes retrospectively unlawful.
The leading case: The Six Carpenters' Case (1610) 8 Co Rep 146a.
Facts. Six carpenters entered an inn at Cripplegate, a house open to the public, which they were therefore entitled to enter by authority of law. They ordered bread and wine and paid for them. They then ordered more wine and refused to pay for it. The innkeeper sued them in trespass, arguing that by refusing to pay they had abused their authority and become trespassers from the beginning.
Held. The carpenters were not liable as trespassers ab initio, and the court laid down two rules:
The requirements, therefore, are: an entry under authority of law; a subsequent abuse of that authority; and the abuse must be a positive act and not a mere omission.
Illustrations. A police officer entering under a warrant who then ransacks the house; a customs officer entering to inspect who steals goods; a distrainor entering to distrain who uses the goods; and an innkeeper's guest who commits a positive wrong on the premises.
The modern limit: Elias v Pasmore (1934) 2 KB 164. Police entered premises lawfully to arrest a man, and seized documents, some lawfully and some unlawfully. The court held them trespassers only as to the unlawful seizure, and not ab initio in respect of the entry. The doctrine has been criticised as a fiction and is now applied narrowly.
The requirements. An entry under authority of law; a subsequent abuse of that authority; and the abuse must be a positive act (misfeasance) and not a mere omission (non-feasance).
Illustrations. A police officer entering under a warrant who then ransacks the house; a customs officer entering to inspect who steals goods; a distrainor entering to distrain who works or uses the goods; a guest at a common inn who commits a positive wrong there.
The modern limit: Elias v Pasmore (1934) 2 KB 164. Police entered lawfully to arrest a man and seized documents, some lawfully and some unlawfully; they were trespassers only as to the unlawful seizure, and not ab initio in respect of the entry. The doctrine is now applied narrowly.
Distinguish revocation of a licence. Trespass ab initio is retrospective: the original entry becomes wrongful. Revocation is prospective: a person whose licence is withdrawn becomes a trespasser only if he remains after a reasonable time to leave. And trespass by remaining is one of the three forms of trespass to land, the others being entry and dispossession.
Situational Problem, any two 12 Marks
Answer
Ramesh is liable, both under the scienter rule and in negligence.
1. Under the scienter rule. A dog is an animal mansuetae naturae, that is of a harmless domestic species. For such an animal the keeper is liable only if the plaintiff proves that he knew of the vicious propensity of that particular animal.
Here that knowledge is admitted on the face of the problem: the dog "has a tendency to bite". Once scienter is established, liability is strict: it is no defence that Ramesh took care, that the dog had never bitten this child before, or that he did not expect it to bite on this occasion. The keeper of an animal known to be vicious keeps it at his peril.
The knowledge may be that of the keeper or of a servant in charge of the animal, and one previous bite or attempt is enough, which is the origin of the popular saying that every dog is allowed one bite. Ramesh's dog has plainly had its one bite.
2. In negligence. Independently of scienter, Ramesh owed a duty of care to persons lawfully on the building premises, and the standard rises with the known danger. Keeping a dog known to bite loose, in common premises, where small children were playing, is a plain breach: the risk was known, the injury was of a serious kind, and the precautions, a leash, a muzzle or confinement, were trivial in cost. On the Bolton v Stone (1951) factors, which weigh the magnitude of the risk, the seriousness of the injury, the utility of the defendant's conduct and the cost of precautions, every factor points against him.
3. Additional heads. The dog running loose in common premises used by residents may also be a private nuisance to the occupiers, and Ramesh may be liable for breach of the society's bye-laws. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 and the rules made under it do not relieve an owner of the duty to control his animal, and municipal bye-laws in Mumbai require dogs to be licensed and kept under control in public and common areas.
4. Defences, and why they fail. The recognised defences to the scienter action are the plaintiff's own default including provocation, act of God, act of a stranger and volenti non fit injuria.
Ramesh must therefore compensate for the child's medical expenses, pain and suffering, any scarring or disfigurement, and the parents' expenses, the suit being brought by the child through his next friend under Order 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Yes, the answer changes in three ways, and the claim becomes much harder.
1. The classification of the animal changes the basis of liability. The scienter rule divides animals by species, and the division is not between wild and tame but between dangerous and harmless. A bear, lion, tiger, elephant or monkey is ferae naturae: knowledge of its vicious propensity is conclusively presumed and liability is strict. A deer is a wild animal in the ordinary sense but is not a naturally dangerous species: fully grown deer are not, unless restrained, likely to cause severe damage to persons. It therefore falls to be treated like an animal mansuetae naturae, and the injured visitor must prove scienter, that is that the zoo knew of the vicious propensity of that particular deer, for example that it had charged or gored before, or that it was in rut and known to be aggressive.
2. The keeper changes, and with it the framework. A zoo is not a private keeper. It is a statutorily recognised institution under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Section 38H requires recognition by the Central Zoo Authority, and the Recognition of Zoo Rules, 2009 prescribe standards for enclosures, barriers, moats and visitor safety. Keeping the animal is therefore lawful and authorised, which removes the element that makes a private keeper's position so weak.
The claim then rests on negligence and on occupier's liability. A zoo owes its visitors, who are invitees paying for entry, a high duty of care, and it is liable if the enclosure, barrier or supervision was inadequate, or if it knew of the particular animal's aggression and did nothing. If the barriers complied with the prescribed standards and were properly maintained, the zoo discharges its duty.
3. The visitor's own conduct is likely to be decisive. In a zoo the animal is enclosed and the public is warned. If the visitor crossed a barrier, put his hand into an enclosure or teased or fed the animal contrary to displayed notices, three defences open up at once:
Where the visitor is a child, however, all three weaken considerably, because a child is judged by the standard of a child of that age and cannot appreciate the risk. The doctrine of allurement is relevant: an occupier who leaves something attractive and dangerous where children can reach it cannot rely on their trespass, Glasgow Corporation v Taylor (1922), where poisonous berries in a public park attracted a child who ate them and died.
Answer
The case is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, and the principle is the manufacturer's duty of care to the ultimate consumer, resting on Lord Atkin's neighbour principle.
Facts of the case. On 26 August 1928 Mrs May Donoghue went to the Wellmeadow Cafe in Paisley with a friend, who bought her a bottle of ginger beer. The bottle was of dark opaque glass and was sealed, so its contents could not be seen or examined. She drank part of it, and when the remainder was poured out the decomposed remains of a snail floated out. She suffered shock and severe gastro-enteritis and sued the manufacturer, with whom she had no contract at all, her friend having bought the bottle.
Held, by a majority of three to two in the House of Lords, that the manufacturer owed her a duty of care.
Lord Atkin's neighbour principle:
"You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. Who, then, in law, is my neighbour? The answer seems to be persons who are so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question."
The narrower rule of the case, which is what applies to the boy:
a manufacturer of products which he sells in such a form as to show that he intends them to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which they left him, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination, and with the knowledge that the absence of reasonable care in the preparation of the product will result in injury to the consumer's life or property, owes a duty to the consumer to take that reasonable care.
The principle has three limbs, and each is satisfied here.
1. The duty arises in tort, independently of contract. Before 1932 it was thought that a manufacturer owed duties only to the person he contracted with, so the ultimate consumer, whose contract was with the retailer, had no claim against the only person who could have prevented the harm. Donoghue separated the duty in tort, owed to persons generally, from the duty in contract, owed only to the other party. The boy therefore has a claim against the manufacturer although he bought from the hotel.
2. The product must reach the consumer in the form in which it left the manufacturer, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination. This is why the sealed opaque bottle was decisive. Had the container been transparent, or had the hotel been expected to open and inspect it, the chain would have been broken and the manufacturer might have escaped.
3. The consumer must suffer injury to person or property caused by the want of care.
Proof. The boy need not prove how the snail got into the bottle. Res ipsa loquitur applies: the bottling was in the manufacturer's exclusive control, decomposed snails do not get into sealed bottles if proper care is taken, and the cause is unknown to the plaintiff. The evidential burden shifts to the manufacturer to explain.
His remedies in India.
One point specific to these facts. The problem says a young boy was served beer in a hotel. In Maharashtra the sale of liquor to a person below the prescribed age is prohibited under the Bombay Prohibition Act, 1949 and the rules made under it, and serving him is an offence by the hotel. That does not defeat his claim against the manufacturer. The defence of ex turpi causa non oritur actio requires the illegality to be connected with the harm, and here the harm was caused by the decomposed snail, not by the boy's age; the manufacturer's duty to bottle its product cleanly is owed to every consumer of it.
Answer
Yes. A is liable.
These are the facts of Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938, and the principle is injuria sine damno, that is the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because the law presumes damage where a right is violated.
The reasoning:
Holt CJ stated the principle in words worth reproducing: if the plaintiff has a right, he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise of it; and want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal. He added that it is a vain thing to imagine a right without a remedy. The maxim is ubi jus ibi remedium.
Malice is not the ground of liability, and this should be stated plainly, because candidates often think it is. The action lies because a right was infringed, whether the refusal was malicious or merely wrong. Malice matters only to the quantum, since it will support aggravated and possibly exemplary damages.
Compare the converse case. In Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895) the defendant acted from pure malice and lost the plaintiff a great deal of money, and he was not liable, because no legal right had been infringed. Put the two side by side and the principle emerges: neither the size of the loss nor the badness of the motive decides whether an action lies. Only the infringement of a right does.
Judgment for B, and the relief would be as follows.
But nominal does not mean trivial where the violation is grave. Where the right infringed is of constitutional importance and the officer acted maliciously, the court may award aggravated or exemplary damages, and in India it has. In Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677 an MLA was wrongfully arrested and detained so as to prevent his attending the Assembly; although he had been released by the time of the decision, the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000 as exemplary compensation, saying the Court would not be doing its duty if it merely declared the violation and passed on.
A's defences, and why they fail:
Answer
The airline committed a deficiency in service, and possibly an unfair trade practice.
1. Deficiency in service. Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines deficiency as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and includes any act of negligence or omission or commission which causes loss or injury to the consumer, and deliberate withholding of relevant information from the consumer.
The last limb is decisive here. The airline held Rockey's booking and his contact details, it knew the departure time had changed, and a single message would have saved him six to seven hours at the airport. Failing to inform him is both an omission causing loss and, on the face of it, a withholding of relevant information.
2. The delay itself is a separate and weaker point. Delay alone may be excusable. Bad weather, air traffic congestion, a technical fault found on inspection or an order of the authorities are matters beyond the carrier's control, and an airline which proves such a cause, and that it did what could reasonably be expected, is not deficient. What it cannot excuse is not telling the passenger.
3. Breach of the regulatory standard. The Civil Aviation Requirements issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Section 3, Series M, Part IV, oblige airlines to inform passengers of delays and cancellations and, where a delay exceeds stated thresholds, to provide meals and refreshments, and in longer cases hotel accommodation or a refund. A breach of those requirements is a breach of a standard "required to be maintained by or under any law", which is the first limb of the definition of deficiency, so Rockey does not even have to argue about the contract.
4. Unfair trade practice, under Section 2(47), if the airline advertised or sold a schedule it knew it would not keep, which would be a false representation about the nature and standard of the service.
Rockey is a consumer under Section 2(7), having hired a service for consideration, and transport is expressly within "service" in Section 2(42).
1. A complaint before the District Commission.
2. The reliefs he may ask for, under Section 39:
3. Mediation, under Section 37 and Chapter V, if both parties consent, which in practice is how most airline complaints are settled.
4. A complaint to the Central Consumer Protection Authority under Sections 19 to 21, particularly where the failure to inform is systemic rather than a one-off, since the CCPA acts for consumers as a class and may order the practice discontinued and impose penalties.
5. The regulatory route, that is a complaint to the DGCA under the Civil Aviation Requirements and through the AirSewa grievance portal, which is quick and costs nothing, though it produces a direction rather than compensation.
6. The ordinary civil remedies, which Section 100 preserves, the Act being in addition to and not in derogation of any other law: a suit for breach of contract on the contract of carriage.
Note on international carriage. This is a domestic sector, Mumbai to Goa, so the Consumer Protection Act applies without qualification. Had the journey been international, the Carriage by Air Act, 1972, giving effect to the Warsaw and Montreal Conventions, would have applied its own regime for delay, with monetary limits and a twenty-one day notice requirement, and that difference is worth one sentence in any answer on airline liability.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
A. Why the legislation was needed.
Before 1986 the consumer's remedy existed only on paper. A suit under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 or in tort meant court fees, lawyers, the full rigour of the Code of Civil Procedure and years of delay, for a claim often worth a few hundred rupees. Caveat emptor, let the buyer beware, placed the risk on the party least able to investigate. Privity of contract barred the ultimate consumer from suing the manufacturer. And the seller's standard form contract, drafted by him and signed by a consumer with no bargaining power, disposed of most disputes before they began.
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was passed to give the consumer a forum he could actually reach and remedies that would actually help him. It was replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 because the market had changed: e-commerce, misleading advertising and celebrity endorsement, the absence of any product liability regime, and congestion in the very machinery created to be fast.
B. The Preamble.
The 2019 Act is described as "an Act to provide for protection of the interests of consumers and for the said purpose, to establish authorities for timely and effective administration and settlement of consumers' disputes and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." Two words mark the change from 1986: "authorities", in the plural, pointing to the new regulator alongside the Commissions, and "timely", pointing to the procedural reforms.
C. The aims and objects in detail.
1. To protect and promote the six consumer rights. Section 2(9) defines "consumer rights" as including:
These derive from the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection, 1985, which themselves build on the four rights stated by President Kennedy to the United States Congress in 1962. Under the 1986 Act they appeared in Section 6 as the objects of the Central Council; under the 2019 Act they are a defined term which the Central Consumer Protection Authority is charged with enforcing for consumers as a class, which is a change of legal quality.
2. To establish a regulator. Sections 10 to 27 create the Central Consumer Protection Authority, to regulate matters relating to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements. It may inquire on its own motion; it has an Investigation Wing under a Director General with powers of search and seizure; it may order recall of unsafe goods and reimbursement of the price; and it may impose penalties for misleading advertisements of up to Rs. 10 lakh on a manufacturer or endorser, rising to Rs. 50 lakh for repeat contraventions, and prohibit an endorser for one year, extending to three.
3. To provide simple, speedy, inexpensive and reachable redressal. The three-tier machinery of the District, State and National Commissions (Sections 28, 42 and 53), with a nominal fee, no requirement of a lawyer, affidavit evidence, and disposal ordinarily within three months or five months where analysis is required (Section 38(7)). Three improvements over 1986 matter: jurisdiction computed on the consideration paid and not on the compensation claimed; filing where the complainant resides or personally works for gain (Section 34(2)(d)); and electronic filing and hearing by video conferencing.
4. To introduce mediation. Chapter V (Sections 74 to 81) establishes a consumer mediation cell attached to each Commission, and Section 37 allows a reference to mediation at any stage with the parties' written consent. A settlement so recorded is not appealable.
5. To create product liability. Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87) is entirely new. A product liability action may be brought against a product manufacturer, product service provider or product seller for harm caused by a defective product. Under Section 84 the manufacturer is liable for a manufacturing defect, a design defect, deviation from manufacturing specifications, non-conformity with an express warranty, or inadequate instructions or warnings; and Section 84(2) makes him liable on an express warranty even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent.
6. To regulate e-commerce and direct selling. Section 2(7) Explanation (b) brings online transactions, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing within the definition of consumer; Section 2(17) defines the electronic service provider; and Section 94 empowers the Central Government to make rules, under which the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were made.
7. To strike at unfair contract terms. Section 2(46) defines an unfair contract as one causing significant change in the rights of the consumer, including excessive security deposits, disproportionate penalties, unilateral termination without cause and unreasonable charges; and Sections 49(2) and 59(2) empower the State and National Commissions to declare such a term null and void.
8. To deter by penalties. Section 72 punishes non-compliance with an order of a Commission; Section 88 non-compliance with a direction of the CCPA; Section 89 false or misleading advertisements; and Sections 90 and 91 the manufacture or sale of adulterated or spurious goods, extending in the case of death to imprisonment for life.
9. To remain an additional remedy. Section 100 provides that the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law, so the consumer keeps his remedies in contract and in tort and may choose.
Answer
A. Definition.
Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid him, or which exposes him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification. The interest protected is reputation, that is what others think of the plaintiff, and not his own feelings, so a statement which merely insults him privately is not defamation.
B. Kinds.
Libel is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye: writing, print, a picture, a caricature, a photograph, a statue, an effigy, a film or a broadcast.
Slander is defamation in a transient form addressed to the ear: the spoken word or a gesture.
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| Permanent form. | Transient form. |
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| Actionable per se: no special damage need be proved. | In English law, requires proof of special damage, save in four cases. |
| A crime as well as a tort in English law. | Generally only a tort in English law. |
The four slanders actionable per se in English law are imputations of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business.
In India the distinction is of little practical importance, and the High Courts have generally held slander also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167). Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both forms are equally the offence of defamation.
C. The essentials.
1. The statement must be defamatory. The test is objective, judged by right-thinking members of society generally, and not by the plaintiff's sensitivity or by the standards of a section of society. Mere abuse or vulgar insult is not defamation if it lowers nobody's opinion of the plaintiff.
The words may be defamatory on their face or by innuendo, that is by a secondary meaning conveyed to persons who know extrinsic facts. Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph of a man with a woman described as his fiancée defamed his actual wife, because those who knew her inferred that she was not married to him.
2. The statement must refer to the plaintiff. It is enough that reasonable people would understand it to refer to him; the defendant's intention is irrelevant. Hulton v Jones (1910): a humorous article about a fictional "Artemus Jones" defamed a real barrister of that name, although the writer had never heard of him. A statement about a class is not actionable unless the class is so small, or the words so pointed, that they can be taken to refer to the plaintiff individually.
3. The statement must be published, that is communicated to at least one person other than the plaintiff. Dictating a defamatory letter to a typist is publication; sending it in a sealed envelope to the plaintiff is not. Every repetition is a fresh publication, and the repeater is liable as well as the originator.
D. The defences.
E. Remedies. Damages, which may be nominal where the injury is slight, compensatory, aggravated where the manner of publication or the defendant's later conduct injured the plaintiff's feelings, or exemplary in an appropriate case; an injunction, though courts are slow to restrain publication in advance; and an apology or retraction.
F. The Indian constitutional dimension.
Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of defamation under Article 19(2). R Rajagopal v State of Tamil Nadu (1994) 6 SCC 632, the Auto Shankar case, held that no action for damages is maintainable in respect of a publication concerning a public official's discharge of his public duties, even if untrue, unless the official proves that the publication was made with reckless disregard for the truth, and that the protection does not extend to matters unrelated to official duties. Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221 upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation under Sections 499 and 500 IPC.
Answer
The remedies for a tort are of two kinds: judicial remedies, obtained by an action in a court of law, and extra-judicial remedies, which the injured party may take by his own act without approaching a court, also called remedies by self-help.
A. Judicial remedies.
1. Damages.
The principal remedy. In tort damages are unliquidated, assessed by the court on the principle of restitutio in integrum: the plaintiff is to be placed, so far as money can, in the position he would have occupied had the tort not been committed.
Kinds:
Controls: causation by the but for rule; remoteness, by reasonable foreseeability since The Wagon Mound (1961); the eggshell skull rule, Smith v Leech Brain and Co (1962); and mitigation.
2. Injunction.
An order of a court directing a person to do or, more usually, to refrain from doing an act. It is equitable and discretionary, granted where damages would be an inadequate remedy, and it is the remedy that matters in nuisance, trespass and the protection of easements, because the plaintiff wants the interference stopped.
Kinds: temporary or interim, granted during the pendency of a suit under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and perpetual, granted by the decree under Sections 37 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963; and prohibitory, restraining a wrongful act, and mandatory, compelling the defendant to undo what he has done.
The court weighs the prima facie case, the balance of convenience and irreparable injury, together with the plaintiff's conduct and delay. Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act lists the cases in which an injunction is refused, and where the injury is small and can be estimated in money the court may award damages in lieu of an injunction. A quia timet injunction may be granted to prevent an apprehended injury which has not yet occurred.
3. Specific restitution of property.
Where the plaintiff has been wrongfully dispossessed, he may recover the property itself.
B. Extra-judicial remedies (self-help).
Answer
Both torts protect the individual against misuse of the machinery of the law, but they attack it at different points and their ingredients are almost opposite.
A. Malicious prosecution.
Definition. Malicious prosecution is the institution of unsuccessful criminal proceedings, maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause, against the plaintiff, which results in damage to him.
The five essentials, all of which the plaintiff must prove:
Cases. Savile v Roberts (1698) on the three heads of damage; West Bengal State Electricity Board v Dilip Kumar Ray (2007) 14 SCC 568, the Indian authority collecting the elements.
Why the tort is made hard. The requirements are severe as a matter of policy: the law wants complaints of crime to be made freely, and protects the honest complainant even where the accused is acquitted. If the tort were easy to prove, citizens would hesitate to report crime.
Distinguish abuse of process, where legal process valid in itself is used for a collateral and improper purpose. It does not require the proceedings to have ended in the plaintiff's favour, nor the absence of reasonable and probable cause; the wrong is the improper use made of the process.
B. False imprisonment.
Definition. False imprisonment is the total restraint of a person's liberty, for however short a time, without lawful justification. It is a form of trespass to the person and is actionable per se.
Essentials:
Remedies. Damages, including aggravated and in a proper case exemplary damages; a writ of habeas corpus under Article 32 or 226 while the detention continues; and self-help, that is escape using reasonable force. The criminal counterparts are wrongful restraint under Section 339 and wrongful confinement under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code.
Indian constitutional cases. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677: Rs. 50,000 awarded to an MLA wrongfully arrested to prevent his attending the Assembly. Nilabati Behera v State of Orissa (1993) 2 SCC 746: sovereign immunity is no defence to a claim for compensation for violation of Article 21. D K Basu v State of West Bengal (1997) 1 SCC 416 laid down the requirements to be followed in every arrest and detention.
C. The distinctions.
| False imprisonment | Malicious prosecution |
|---|---|
| Restraint imposed without legal authority, by the defendant's own act. | Injury inflicted through regular legal process, that is through a court. |
| Malice is irrelevant. | Malice must be proved. |
| Reasonable and probable cause is irrelevant to the plaintiff's case; lawful justification is a defence the defendant must establish. | Absence of reasonable and probable cause must be proved by the plaintiff. |
| Actionable per se: no damage need be proved. | Damage must be proved, under one of the three Savile v Roberts heads. |
| The burden shifts to the defendant once the restraint is admitted. | The whole burden lies on the plaintiff. |
| False imprisonment | Malicious prosecution |
|---|---|
| No prior proceeding is required. | The proceedings must have terminated in the plaintiff's favour. |
| Complete at the moment of restraint; limitation runs from then. | The cause of action arises only when the prosecution ends favourably; limitation runs from then. |
| Protects liberty of movement. | Protects reputation and freedom from vexatious process. |
D. Where the two meet: arrest.
If a police officer arrests without lawful authority, that is false imprisonment, and he must justify. If he arrests under a valid warrant or a valid statutory power, the arrest is lawful however malicious his motive, and the person aggrieved must attack the institution of the proceedings, which means suing in malicious prosecution once they have ended in his favour.
That is also why an arrest made under a magistrate's order cannot be false imprisonment: the restraint is imposed by the judicial act of the magistrate and not by the complainant, whose wrongdoing, if any, lies in setting the process in motion.
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This volume prints the April 2024 - Law Of Torts 60/40 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for LLB 3 years Sem 1, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
27 August 2026.
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