Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CRPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
CRPC
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was repealed by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 on 1 July 2024, and every paper in this folder was set on the Code. Each answer is therefore written on the Code the question names, with the Sanhita section that now carries the same rule given alongside it, so that a reader can use these pages for either. Two further things are corrected silently throughout. The printed header names the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, which was repealed on 15 January 2016; the answers are on the Act of 2015 as amended in 2021. And the header names the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, whose own Section 2(a) still defines the Code as that of 1898, read today as the Code of 1973.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in not more than two sentences
any six · 12 Marks
Answer
Section 2(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines a cognizable offence as an offence for which, and a cognizable case as a case in which, a police officer may arrest without warrant in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for the time being in force.
The definition turns on one thing only: the power to arrest without a warrant.
Answer
Section 2(b) of the Code provides that "charge" includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one. The Code does not otherwise define it, and the working definition is judicial: a charge is the precise formulation of the accusation which the prosecution must prove, drawn up by the court and read over to the accused so that he knows exactly what he has to meet.
Answer
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 dropped the word "juvenile" for this purpose and uses "child in conflict with law", defined by section 2(13) to mean a child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission of the offence.
Answer
Under section 47 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, an observation home is a home established or recognised by the State Government in every district for the temporary reception, care and rehabilitation of a child in conflict with law during the pendency of any inquiry before the Juvenile Justice Board.
Answer
An accomplice is a guilty associate in the crime, a person who has himself taken part in the offence charged and who then gives evidence for the prosecution against those who took part with him. The Code of Criminal Procedure does not define him; his position comes from section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which makes him a competent witness, read with illustration (b) to section 114, under which the court may presume that his evidence is unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars.
Answer
Section 2(g) of the Code defines "inquiry" as every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under the Code by a Magistrate or Court.
It is a negative definition: whatever a Magistrate or court does under the Code before the trial begins, and which is not itself a trial, is an inquiry.
Answer
Section 2(u) of the Code defines a Public Prosecutor as any person appointed under section 24, and includes any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor.
Section 24 provides for the appointment of a Public Prosecutor for each High Court by the Central or State Government, and for each district, from a panel prepared by the District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge, from advocates of not less than seven years' practice.
Answer
Section 93 of the Code allows a court to issue a search warrant in three situations: where the court has reason to believe that a person summoned under section 91 will not produce the document or thing; where the document or thing is not known to be in the possession of any person; or where the court considers that a general search or inspection will serve the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding.
Answer
Section 2(20) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines "Children's Court" as a court established under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 or a Special Court under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, wherever existing, and where such courts have not been designated, the Court of Sessions having jurisdiction to try offences under the Act.
Answer
Section 2(a) of the Code defines a bailable offence as an offence which is shown as bailable in the First Schedule, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force, and a non-bailable offence as any other offence.
Write short note
any two · 12 Marks
Answer
The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is reformative legislation. It proceeds on the view that a first or a young offender is better corrected in the community than hardened in a prison, and it gives the criminal court a statutory alternative to sentencing. Its salient features are these.
Release after admonition, section 3. Where a person is found guilty of an offence under section 379, 380, 381, 404 or 420 of the Indian Penal Code, or of any offence punishable with imprisonment not more than two years, or with fine, or both, and no previous conviction is proved, the court may release him after due admonition instead of sentencing him.
Release on probation of good conduct, section 4. Where the offence is not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, the court may release the offender on his entering a bond, with or without sureties, to appear and receive sentence when called upon during a period not exceeding three years, and meanwhile to keep the peace and be of good behaviour. The proviso requires the court to be satisfied that the offender or his surety has a fixed place of abode or regular occupation within the court's jurisdiction, and section 4(2) requires the court to consider the probation officer's report.
Compensation and costs, section 5. A court releasing an offender under section 3 or section 4 may order him to pay compensation for loss or injury and the costs of the proceedings, recoverable as a fine.
Special protection for offenders under twenty-one, section 6. Where a person under twenty-one is found guilty of an offence punishable with imprisonment but not with imprisonment for life, the court shall not sentence him to imprisonment unless it is satisfied that it would not be desirable to deal with him under section 3 or section 4, and if it does imprison him it must record its reasons. Section 6(2) makes the probation officer's report mandatory in such a case.
Supervision, sections 4(3) and 13 and 14. The court may place the offender under the supervision of a probation officer for not less than one year. The probation officer inquires into the offender's home surroundings, supervises probationers, helps them find employment, and assists in the payment of compensation.
Removal of disqualification, section 12. A person dealt with under section 3 or section 4 shall not suffer the disqualification attaching to a conviction, which is the provision that makes the Act worth invoking: he is not treated as a convict for the purposes of employment or of any other law.
Breach, section 9. If the offender fails to observe the conditions of the bond, the court may issue a warrant or summons, and on being satisfied of the breach may sentence him for the original offence, or on a first failure impose a penalty not exceeding fifty rupees.
The three cases to cite. Rattan Lal v. State of Punjab, AIR 1965 SC 444, calls the Act a milestone in the modern liberal trend of reform in penology and holds that its benefit may be claimed for the first time in appeal or revision. Jugal Kishore Prasad v. State of Bihar, (1972) 2 SCC 633, states the object as preventing the conversion of youthful offenders into obdurate criminals through their association in prison with hardened criminals of mature age. Ramji Missar v. State of Bihar, AIR 1963 SC 1088, fixes the date on which the offender's age is reckoned for section 6: it is the date on which the trial court has to pass sentence on him, not the date of the offence.
Conclusion. The Act converts sentencing from a single question, how much punishment, into two: whether this offender needs punishment at all, and if not, what supervision will keep him straight. Its centre of gravity is section 4 read with section 12, because release on probation costs the offender none of the civil consequences of a conviction, and its strongest command is section 6, which makes imprisonment of an offender under twenty-one the exception that must be justified in writing.
Answer
The examination of witnesses during investigation is governed by sections 160 to 164 of the Code.
Section 160, power to require attendance. A police officer making an investigation may, by written order, require the attendance of any person within the limits of his own or an adjoining station who appears to be acquainted with the facts of the case. The proviso is important: no man under fifteen years of age, no man above sixty-five, no woman, and no mentally or physically disabled person shall be required to attend at any place other than the place in which he or she resides.
Section 161, examination of witnesses. The officer may examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts. The person is bound to answer truly all questions other than those the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture. The officer may reduce the statement to writing, and must make a separate record of each person's statement. The proviso added in 2013 requires the statement of a woman against whom an offence under sections 354, 354A to 354D, 376 and related sections is alleged to have been committed to be recorded by a woman police officer.
Section 162, statements not to be signed. No statement made to a police officer in the course of an investigation shall be signed by the person making it, and no such statement shall be used for any purpose at any inquiry or trial, except to contradict the witness in the manner provided by section 145 of the Evidence Act, and if so used, the prosecution may re-examine on it. Sub-section (2) preserves statements falling within section 32(1) of the Evidence Act, that is dying declarations, and statements admissible under section 27.
Section 163, no inducement. No police officer shall offer or make any inducement, threat or promise as mentioned in section 24 of the Evidence Act.
Section 164, recording by a Magistrate. A statement or confession may be recorded by a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate. Sub-section (5A), inserted in 2013, requires the Magistrate to record the statement of a victim of an offence under sections 354, 376 and related provisions as soon as the commission of the offence is brought to the notice of the police, and where the victim is temporarily or permanently mentally or physically disabled, the statement is to be recorded with the aid of an interpreter and videographed, and is then treated as examination-in-chief under section 137 of the Evidence Act.
Conclusion. The scheme balances two things that pull against each other. Sections 160 and 161 give the investigating officer a compulsory power to collect information from anyone, and section 162 immediately makes what he collects almost worthless as substantive evidence, admissible only to contradict. The value of a section 161 statement lies in what it lets the defence do with it at trial, not in what it proves; and the protective provisos of 2013, for women, children, the elderly and the disabled, are where the modern examination questions are set.
Answer
A summary trial is a trial in which the ordinary procedure is abridged and only the substance of the evidence is recorded, so that petty cases are disposed of quickly. It is governed by sections 260 to 265 of the Code.
Who may try summarily, section 260(1). A Chief Judicial Magistrate, a Metropolitan Magistrate, and any Magistrate of the first class specially empowered by the High Court may, if he thinks fit, try summarily.
Which offences, section 260(1). Offences not punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years; theft under sections 379, 380 or 381 of the Indian Penal Code where the value of the property stolen does not exceed two thousand rupees; receiving or retaining stolen property under section 411 and assisting in its concealment under section 414 within the same limit; offences under sections 454 and 456; insult with intent to provoke a breach of the peace under section 504 and criminal intimidation punishable with a term up to two years or with fine, under section 506; and abetment or attempt of any of these.
Section 260(2). If in the course of a summary trial it appears to the Magistrate that the case is not of a character to be tried summarily, he shall recall the witnesses and rehear the case in the ordinary way.
Section 261. A Magistrate of the second class specially empowered by the High Court may try summarily an offence punishable only with fine, or with imprisonment not exceeding six months, with or without fine.
Procedure, section 262. The procedure of a summons case is followed, and this is the operative limit: no sentence of imprisonment exceeding three months shall be passed in a summary trial.
Record, section 263. The Magistrate enters the prescribed particulars in the register: the serial number, date of commission, date of report or complaint, name of the complainant, name, parentage and residence of the accused, the offence and the value of the property, the plea and examination, the finding, the sentence, and the date on which the proceedings terminated.
Judgment, section 264. In every case tried summarily in which the accused does not plead guilty, the Magistrate shall record the substance of the evidence and a judgment containing a brief statement of the reasons for the finding.
Section 265. The record and the judgment shall be written in the language of the court.
J.V. Baharuni v. State of Gujarat, (2014) 10 SCC 494, is the case to cite. The Supreme Court held that Magistrates trying cases summarily must actually follow the summary procedure rather than a hybrid of their own, and that a successor Magistrate must not mechanically order a de novo trial under section 326(3), particularly in a cheque dishonour case tried summarily under section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
Conclusion. The three figures that decide every question on this topic are: offences punishable with up to two years, theft up to two thousand rupees, and a maximum sentence of three months' imprisonment. The trade the Code makes is explicit, speed for record: the Magistrate need not write out the evidence, but the moment he finds the case unfit for the abridged procedure section 260(2) obliges him to start again in the ordinary way, and the moment the accused pleads not guilty section 264 obliges him to record the substance of the evidence and his reasons.
Answer
A summons is the mildest of the processes by which a criminal court compels appearance. It is a written order issued by a court requiring a person to attend before it, and it is governed by sections 61 to 69 of the Code, which form part of Chapter VI, "Processes to compel appearance".
Form, section 61. Every summons issued by a court shall be in writing, in duplicate, signed by the presiding officer or such other officer as the High Court may direct, and shall bear the seal of the court.
Service, section 62. A summons shall be served by a police officer, or by an officer of the court or other public servant. It shall, if practicable, be served personally on the person summoned, by delivering or tendering one of the duplicates. The person served shall, if so required, sign a receipt on the back of the other duplicate.
Service on a corporation, section 63. Service on a company or corporation may be effected on the secretary, local manager or other principal officer, or by registered post addressed to the chief officer in India, and service is deemed effected when the letter would arrive in the ordinary course of post.
Substituted service, sections 64 and 65. Where the person cannot by the exercise of due diligence be found, the summons may be served by leaving a duplicate with an adult male member of his family residing with him. Where service cannot be effected even so, the serving officer shall affix one duplicate to some conspicuous part of the house in which the person ordinarily resides, and the court may then declare the service sufficient or order fresh service.
Government servants, section 66; outside jurisdiction, section 67. A summons on a government servant is sent in duplicate to the head of his office. A summons to be served outside the local jurisdiction is sent to a Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the person resides.
Proof, section 68. Where the serving officer is not present at the hearing, an affidavit and the duplicate endorsed with the signature of the person served are admissible in evidence.
Service on a witness by post, section 69. In addition to and simultaneously with personal service, the court may direct a copy to be served by registered post on a witness at his ordinary residence or place of business.
Conclusion. The Code arranges its compulsory processes in an ascending order, and a summons is the first step of it: summons under sections 61 to 69, warrant of arrest under sections 70 to 81, proclamation and attachment under sections 82 to 86, and finally the power under section 87 to issue a warrant in lieu of, or in addition to, a summons. A court moves up that ladder only when the step below has failed, which is why sections 64 and 65 are drafted as successive fallbacks rather than as alternatives.
Situational Problem
any two · 12 Marks
Answer
(i) Yes. B should move an Executive Magistrate under section 147 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Section 147 is headed "Dispute concerning right of use of land or water" and fits these facts exactly. Where an Executive Magistrate is satisfied, from a police report or other information, that a dispute likely to cause a breach of the peace exists regarding any alleged right of user of any land or water within his local jurisdiction, whether such right be claimed as an easement or otherwise, he shall make a written order stating the grounds of his satisfaction and requiring the parties to attend and file written statements of their claims.
Under section 147(2) the Magistrate then hears the parties, receives evidence and decides, if possible, whether the right exists; the procedure of section 145 applies so far as may be.
Section 147(3) gives B the relief he actually needs: if it appears to the Magistrate that the right exists, he may make an order prohibiting any interference with the exercise of that right, including, in a proper case, an order for the removal of any obstruction. That is a direction to A to remove the obstruction in the channel.
The proviso limits it: no such order shall be made where the right is exercisable at all times of the year unless it has been exercised within three months before the receipt of the report or information, or, where it is exercisable only at particular seasons, unless it was exercised during the last such season. On these facts B has been using the channel for his standing crop, so the proviso is satisfied.
Two supporting provisions may be added. Under section 144, in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger, a District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Executive Magistrate specially empowered may direct a person to abstain from a certain act with respect to property in his possession where the direction is likely to prevent obstruction, annoyance or injury to any person lawfully employed; B's agricultural operations qualify. And under section 133(1)(d), if the channel is one which is or may be lawfully used by the public, the Magistrate may make a conditional order for the removal of the obstruction.
Section 147(4) allows a proceeding begun under section 145 to be continued under section 147 and the other way round, after recording reasons, so B does not lose his remedy by choosing the wrong section.
(ii) The legislative intention.
Chapter X of the Code, "Maintenance of public order and tranquillity", is preventive, not adjudicatory. The State's interest is that a dispute over land or water shall not become a riot. The Magistrate is therefore given a swift power to freeze the position and keep the peace, and he is deliberately not given the power to decide title.
Three features show that intention. The jurisdictional fact in sections 145 and 147 is not the strength of the claim but that the dispute is likely to cause a breach of the peace. The inquiry under section 145(4) proceeds without reference to the merits of the claims to a right to possess. And the order lasts only until the party is evicted in due course of law, which preserves the civil court's exclusive power to decide the right.
The remedy is summary because delay is what causes breaches of the peace. It is the answer to precisely B's difficulty, that a civil suit takes longer than a standing crop can wait.
Conclusion. B should apply to the Executive Magistrate under section 147, and can expect an order under section 147(3) prohibiting interference with his use of the channel and directing removal of the obstruction, supported if the urgency demands it by an order under section 144. What he cannot obtain there is a declaration that the water right is his; that remains for the civil court, and the Magistrate's order holds the ground until the civil court decides.
Answer
(i) One year.
Section 468 of the Code bars a court from taking cognizance of an offence of the specified categories after the expiry of the period of limitation. Section 468(2) fixes those periods:
An offence punishable with six months' imprisonment falls in clause (b), so cognizance must be taken within one year.
Where offences may be tried together, section 468(3) provides that the period is determined by reference to the offence punishable with the more severe, or the most severe, punishment.
(ii) From the date of the offence, subject to section 469's two alternatives.
Section 469(1) provides that the period of limitation commences:
Section 469(2) excludes the day from which the period is to be computed.
The relevant act is the filing of the complaint, not the taking of cognizance. In Sarah Mathew v. Institute of Cardio Vascular Diseases, (2014) 2 SCC 62, a Constitution Bench held that for computing the period of limitation under section 468 the relevant date is the date of filing of the complaint or the date of institution of the prosecution, and not the date on which the Magistrate takes cognizance. The earlier view in Krishna Pillai v. T. A. Rajendran stands overruled. The reason is practical: a complainant who files in time cannot be made to suffer for delay in the court's own office.
Three provisions extend the period and should be named. Section 470 excludes the time during which another prosecution was being prosecuted with due diligence against the same offender on the same facts, time during which the prosecution was stayed by an injunction or order, and the period of notice or of obtaining sanction. Section 471 carries the period to the next day the court is open. Section 473 empowers the court to extend the period of limitation where it is satisfied on the facts that the delay has been properly explained, or that it is necessary so to do in the interests of justice.
Conclusion. Cognizance of an offence punishable with six months' imprisonment must be taken within one year, running from the date of the offence or, if later, from the day the offence or the offender first became known, and the year is measured to the day the complaint was filed, on the authority of Sarah Mathew. Even out of time the prosecution is not necessarily lost, because section 473 lets the court condone a delay that is properly explained.
Answer
(i) Yes. Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code is one of the five offences named in section 3 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, so both admonition and probation are open to the court.
Section 379, theft, is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
Admonition is release after a due reprimand by the court instead of any sentence. Under section 3 of the Probation of Offenders Act, where a person is found guilty of an offence punishable under section 379, 380, 381, 404 or 420 of the Indian Penal Code, or of any offence punishable with imprisonment for not more than two years or with fine or both, and no previous conviction is proved against him, and the court is of opinion, having regard to the circumstances including the nature of the offence and the character of the offender, that it is expedient to do so, the court may release him after due admonition instead of sentencing him or releasing him on probation under section 4. The Explanation provides that a previous conviction includes any previous order made against him under section 3 or section 4.
(ii) The relevant provisions, and how they apply to Ashok.
Section 3, admonition. Available to Ashok on the face of the section, because theft under section 379 is expressly named. The court must be satisfied that no previous conviction is proved and that the circumstances make it expedient.
Section 4, release on probation of good conduct. Section 379 is not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, so section 4 is also available, and it is available whether or not Ashok has a previous conviction, because section 4 contains no such condition. The court may direct his release on a bond, with or without sureties, to appear and receive sentence when called upon within a period not exceeding three years, and meanwhile to keep the peace and be of good behaviour. The proviso requires a fixed place of abode or regular occupation within the court's jurisdiction. Section 4(2) makes it obligatory on the court to consider the report of the probation officer before making the order, and section 4(3) allows a supervision order for not less than one year.
Section 6, if Ashok is under twenty-one. The court shall not sentence him to imprisonment unless satisfied that it would not be desirable to deal with him under section 3 or section 4, and must record its reasons if it does; and it must call for and consider the probation officer's report.
Section 5. Whether released under section 3 or section 4, Ashok may be ordered to pay compensation for the loss caused by the theft and the costs of the proceedings.
Section 12. Ashok will not suffer the disqualification attaching to a conviction, which is the practical value of the order to him.
Section 9. If he breaks a condition of the bond, the court may issue a warrant or summons and, on being satisfied, sentence him for the original offence of theft.
Section 11(1) allows the order to be made by any court competent to try and sentence him, and by an appellate or revisional court, so if the trial court refuses, the benefit may still be claimed on appeal.
Conclusion. Both courses are open to Ashok. The court should call for the probation officer's report and, on being satisfied that this was a first offence committed without premeditation, release him either after due admonition under section 3 or on probation of good conduct under section 4; if he is under twenty-one, section 6 makes imprisonment the course the court has to justify in writing. The order carries no disqualification under section 12, but under section 9 the original sentence for theft revives if he breaches the bond.
Answer
(i) Yes, on these facts X can maintain an application under section 125 of the Code, because Y concealed his subsisting marriage from her.
Section 125(1) provides that if any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain his wife, unable to maintain herself, a Magistrate of the first class may, upon proof of such neglect or refusal, order him to pay a monthly allowance for her maintenance.
The difficulty on these facts is that a marriage solemnised while a former spouse is living is void under section 5(i) read with section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and a woman whose marriage is void is not, strictly, a "wife". That was the reasoning of Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya v. State of Gujarat, (2005) 3 SCC 636.
That reasoning does not govern this case. In Badshah v. Sou. Urmila Badshah Godse, (2014) 1 SCC 188, the husband married the applicant according to Hindu rites while his first marriage subsisted and concealed that fact from her. The Supreme Court held that a man who has duped a woman into marriage by suppressing his subsisting marriage cannot be heard to deny her the status of a wife for the purposes of section 125, and she is to be treated as a legally wedded wife entitled to maintenance. The Court expressly applied a purposive construction, holding that section 125 is a measure of social justice enacted to prevent vagrancy and destitution and must be construed in favour of the woman it protects.
X's case is Badshah on all fours: a Hindu marriage, a subsisting earlier marriage on Y's side, and a wife who did not know of it. She must plead and be prepared to prove that she was unaware of the first marriage.
Two further points support the claim. Under section 125(1) Explanation (b) "wife" includes a woman who has been divorced and has not remarried. Under section 125(3) the Magistrate may enforce the order by issuing a warrant for levying the amount as a fine and may sentence the person to imprisonment for up to one month for each month's default. Under section 125(4) X would lose her claim if she is living in adultery, or refuses without sufficient reason to live with Y, or they are living separately by mutual consent; the second of these is answered by the fact that Y went away.
(ii) Before a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
Section 125(1) confers the power on a Magistrate of the first class. Section 126(1) fixes the place: proceedings may be taken against any person in any district where he is, or where he or his wife resides, or where he last resided with his wife. The application may therefore be filed where X herself resides, which is the provision that makes the remedy usable by a deserted wife.
Under section 126(2) evidence is taken in the presence of the person against whom the order is proposed, in the manner prescribed for summons cases, and the proviso allows the Magistrate to proceed ex parte where the person is wilfully avoiding service or neglecting to attend, with a power to set aside the ex parte order for good cause within three months.
Conclusion. X should apply to the Judicial Magistrate of the First Class within whose jurisdiction she resides, or where Y is or last resided with her, under sections 125 and 126 of the Code. Her application succeeds on the authority of Badshah, notwithstanding that the marriage is void under the Hindu Marriage Act, because Y suppressed his subsisting marriage; the only real contests will be Y's means, X's inability to maintain herself, and the disqualifications in section 125(4).
Answer the following
any two · 24 Marks
Answer
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is the code that governs two classes of children: those who come into conflict with the law, and those who are in need of care and protection. Its importance lies in taking children out of the ordinary criminal process and placing them in a system whose stated object is care, protection, development, treatment and social re-integration.
1. It gives constitutional obligations a working machinery. The Act is the legislative response to Articles 15(3), 39(e), 39(f), 45 and 47 of the Constitution and to India's ratification of the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1992. The Preamble says so in terms.
2. It fixes one age for all children and reckons it from the date of the offence. Section 2(12) defines a child as a person who has not completed eighteen years. Section 2(13) defines a child in conflict with law by reference to the age on the date of commission of the offence. Before the 2000 Act, boys and girls had different ages of juvenility, and the change removed an obvious inequality.
3. It replaces punishment with a graded set of dispositions. Section 18(1) allows the Board to allow the child to go home after advice or admonition, to direct group counselling, community service, a fine, release on probation of good conduct under the care of a parent, guardian or fit person or a fit facility for up to three years, or committal to a special home for up to three years for reformative services. Section 18(2) adds directions to attend school, a vocational training centre, a therapeutic centre, or a de-addiction programme.
4. It draws an absolute line at the most severe sentences. Section 21 provides that no child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or to life imprisonment without the possibility of release, whether under this Act, the Indian Penal Code or any other law. Section 22 bars proceedings under Chapter VIII of the Code, security for keeping the peace, against a child.
5. It classifies offences and matches procedure to gravity. Section 2(45) petty offences, punishable with up to three years; section 2(54) serious offences, three to seven years; section 2(33) heinous offences, a minimum of seven years. The classification determines the time limits in section 14 and the availability of the preliminary assessment in section 15.
6. It answers the question the 2000 Act could not. Section 15 allows the Board, in the case of a child who has completed sixteen years and is alleged to have committed a heinous offence, to conduct a preliminary assessment of his mental and physical capacity to commit the offence, his ability to understand its consequences and the circumstances in which he allegedly committed it, taking the assistance of psychologists or psycho-social workers. The Explanation states that this is not a trial. If the Board finds a need for trial as an adult, section 18(3) allows transfer to the Children's Court, and section 19 requires that court to decide the question again for itself.
7. It builds a complete institutional structure. The Juvenile Justice Board, sections 4 to 9, with a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, one of whom must be a woman; the Child Welfare Committee, sections 27 to 30, for children in need of care and protection; children's homes, open shelters, observation homes, special homes and places of safety, sections 41 to 49; Special Juvenile Police Units and Child Welfare Police Officers, section 107.
8. It codifies the principles of the system. Section 3 lists sixteen general principles binding on every authority under the Act: presumption of innocence for a child up to eighteen, dignity and worth, participation, best interest, family responsibility, safety, positive measures, non-stigmatising semantics, non-waiver of rights, equality and non-discrimination, right to privacy and confidentiality, institutionalisation as a measure of last resort, repatriation and restoration, fresh start, diversion, and the principles of natural justice.
9. It protects the child's future. Section 24 provides that a child found to have committed an offence shall not suffer disqualification, and requires the Board to order the destruction of the relevant records after the expiry of the appeal period or after reasonable time; the exception is a child above sixteen found to have committed a heinous offence. Section 74 prohibits disclosure of the identity of a child in any media.
10. It creates a complete code of adoption and of offences against children. Chapter VIII, sections 56 to 73, governs adoption through the Central Adoption Resource Authority; the Amendment Act of 2021, in force 1 September 2022, transferred the power to issue adoption orders under section 61 from the court to the District Magistrate. Chapter IX creates offences: cruelty to a child, section 75; employing a child for begging, section 76; giving intoxicants, section 77; using a child for illegal activities, section 78; corporal punishment, section 82; and the use of children by militant groups, section 83.
Cite Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 2 SCC 787. A heinous offence under section 2(33) is one for which the minimum punishment under the Penal Code or any other law is imprisonment for seven years or more. An offence whose maximum is seven years or more but which prescribes no minimum is therefore not heinous, and the Supreme Court held that such an offence falls to be dealt with as a serious offence under section 2(54). The distinction matters, because only a heinous offence opens the section 15 preliminary assessment and with it the possibility of a trial as an adult.
Conclusion. The Act's importance is that it treats a child who offends as a child first and an offender second, and then builds the whole apparatus that follows from that choice: a specialised Board rather than an ordinary criminal court, dispositions aimed at reform rather than punishment, an absolute bar on death and irredeemable life sentences, a clean record at the end, and an equally complete scheme for the child who has committed no offence at all but has no one to care for him. The 2015 Act's contribution, and its most contested provision, is section 15: it keeps eighteen as the age of childhood while allowing a case-by-case assessment for the sixteen to eighteen year old accused of a heinous offence, which is the compromise the country reached after the 2012 Delhi gang rape.
Answer
The rights of an arrested person come from two sources: Articles 20, 21 and 22 of the Constitution, and Chapter V of the Code of Criminal Procedure, reinforced by the guidelines of the Supreme Court in D. K. Basu and Arnesh Kumar.
1. To be informed of the grounds of arrest. Article 22(1) and section 50(1) of the Code: every police officer or other person arresting without warrant shall forthwith communicate to the arrested person full particulars of the offence for which he is arrested or the grounds of arrest. Where the arrest is under a warrant, section 75 requires the substance of the warrant to be notified and the warrant shown if required.
2. To be informed of the right to bail. Section 50(2): where a police officer arrests without warrant a person accused of a bailable offence, he shall inform him that he is entitled to be released on bail and to arrange for sureties.
3. To have a relative or friend informed. Section 50A, inserted in 2005, obliges the officer to forthwith give the information about the arrest and the place of detention to any of his friends, relatives or such other person nominated by him, to inform the arrested person of that right as soon as he is brought to the police station, to make an entry in a book kept in the station, and it is the duty of the Magistrate before whom the person is produced to satisfy himself that this has been complied with.
4. To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours. Article 22(2) and sections 56 and 57 of the Code: no police officer shall detain a person arrested without warrant for more than twenty-four hours exclusive of the time necessary for the journey, in the absence of a special order of a Magistrate under section 167. Section 167 then governs remand, and its proviso (a) caps detention pending investigation at ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, life or imprisonment of not less than ten years, and sixty days otherwise, after which the accused shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail. This is the default bail or compulsive bail right, and the Supreme Court in Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616, confirmed it is an indefeasible right flowing from Article 21.
5. To consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice. Article 22(1) and section 41D of the Code, inserted in 2009: the arrested person is entitled to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation. Section 303 confirms the right to be defended, and section 304 requires the court to assign a pleader at the State's expense where the accused in a sessions trial is not represented and has not sufficient means. Khatri (II) v. State of Bihar, (1981) 1 SCC 627, held that free legal aid is a constitutional right implicit in Article 21 and available from the first production before the Magistrate.
6. To be free from unnecessary restraint and from handcuffing. Section 49: the person arrested shall not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to prevent his escape. In Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration, (1980) 3 SCC 526, the Supreme Court held that handcuffing is prima facie inhuman and may be used only where there are clear and present grounds recorded in writing and, wherever practicable, with the escorting authority's justification placed before the Magistrate.
7. To a medical examination. Section 54, as substituted in 2009: when a person is arrested he shall be examined by a medical officer in the service of the Central or State Government soon after the arrest, and where such an officer is not available, by a registered medical practitioner; where the arrested person is a female, the examination shall be made by or under the supervision of a female medical officer. The report records any injuries with their approximate time, a copy is furnished to the arrested person or his nominee. Section 55A places the health and safety of the person in custody on the person having his custody.
8. Protection against self-incrimination. Article 20(3): no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. Section 161(2) of the Code allows a person to decline to answer questions which would expose him to a criminal charge. In Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263, the Supreme Court held that narco-analysis, polygraph and brain mapping without consent violate Article 20(3) and Article 21.
9. The right that arrest itself shall be justified. Section 41, as substituted in 2009, requires a police officer arresting without warrant in a case punishable with imprisonment up to seven years to be satisfied on recorded reasons that the arrest is necessary on one of the grounds listed, and section 41A requires him instead to issue a notice of appearance. In Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, (2014) 8 SCC 273, the Supreme Court directed that police officers not arrest automatically in such cases, that they complete the section 41 checklist, and that Magistrates not authorise detention casually, with departmental action and contempt for non-compliance. Joginder Kumar v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1994) 4 SCC 260, had earlier held that no arrest can be made merely because it is lawful to do so; the officer must be justified in making it.
10. The D. K. Basu safeguards. In D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416, the Supreme Court laid down eleven requirements, now largely enacted in sections 41B, 41C, 41D, 50A, 54 and 55A: accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with designations; a memo of arrest attested by at least one witness, a family member or a respectable person of the locality, countersigned by the arrestee and bearing the time and date; the right to have one friend or relative informed; the entry of the arrest in a diary at the place of detention; a medical examination every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on the approved panel; copies of all documents to be sent to the Magistrate; the arrestee to be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation; and a police control room where the arrest is displayed on a notice board.
11. Special protections for women. Section 46(1) proviso: where a woman is to be arrested, her submission to custody on an oral intimation of arrest shall be presumed and, unless the police officer is a female, the officer shall not touch the person of the woman. Section 46(4): no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise, save in exceptional circumstances, and then only with the prior permission of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class obtained by a woman police officer in writing. Section 51(2): a female shall be searched only by another female with strict regard to decency. Section 160(1) proviso: a woman shall not be required to attend at any place other than where she resides.
12. To a fair and speedy trial and to compensation for illegal detention. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, (1980) 1 SCC 81, held a speedy trial to be part of Article 21. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 4 SCC 141, awarded compensation under Article 32 for illegal detention. Section 358 allows a Magistrate to order compensation to a person groundlessly arrested, payable by the person who caused the arrest, and section 57 read with Article 22(2) requires that the arrested person be produced physically before the Magistrate within twenty-four hours, not merely notionally.
Conclusion. Taken together these provisions convert arrest from an executive convenience into a controlled and reviewable act. The controls operate at three moments: before the arrest, section 41 and section 41A and Arnesh Kumar require the officer to justify the necessity of arresting at all; at the arrest, sections 50, 50A, 41B and 46 require him to inform, to record and to restrain himself; and after it, section 57 and section 167 place the arrested person before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours and give him default bail if the investigation is not completed in time. A candidate who organises the answer around those three moments will not leave anything important out.
Answer
The Code does not define bail. It is judicially understood as the release of a person from the custody of the law upon an undertaking, secured by a bond with or without sureties, that he will appear and answer the charge. The provisions are sections 436 to 450, Chapter XXXIII.
A. Bail in a bailable offence: a matter of right.
Section 436(1): when a person accused of a bailable offence is arrested without warrant, or appears or is brought before a court, and is prepared to give bail, he shall be released on bail. The word is "shall": neither the officer in charge of the police station nor the court has any discretion. The proviso allows release on a personal bond without sureties where the person is indigent and unable to furnish surety, and the Explanation provides that where a person is unable to give bail within a week of the date of his arrest, that is sufficient ground for the officer or the court to presume him indigent. The Explanation names no sum of money; the test is the week, not a figure.
Section 436(2) allows the court to refuse bail to a person who, having earlier been released on bail in the same case, fails to comply with the conditions of the bond.
Section 436A, inserted in 2005, is the release of an undertrial who has been detained for one half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence, on his personal bond with or without sureties. It does not apply to an offence punishable with death, and the proviso allows the court, after hearing the Public Prosecutor and for reasons recorded in writing, to continue detention beyond half; but in no case shall a person be detained beyond the maximum period of imprisonment for the offence.
B. Bail in a non-bailable offence: a discretion.
Section 437(1): a person accused of a non-bailable offence may be released on bail by a court other than the High Court or Court of Session, but he shall not be so released if there appear reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, or if the offence is a cognizable one and he has been previously convicted of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or seven years or more, or has been previously convicted on two or more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable with three to seven years.
The first and second provisos carve out the exceptions: the court may direct release if the person is under the age of sixteen years, is a woman, or is sick or infirm. The third proviso allows release where it is satisfied that it is just and proper for any other special reason.
Section 437(2): if at any stage it appears there are not reasonable grounds for believing the accused has committed a non-bailable offence but there are sufficient grounds for further inquiry, he shall be released on bail or, at the discretion of the officer or court, on a bond.
Section 437(3) allows the court, when releasing a person accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, to impose conditions: that he attend in accordance with the bond, that he shall not commit a similar offence, and that he shall not tamper with the evidence or threaten witnesses.
Section 437(6): in a case triable by a Magistrate, if the trial is not concluded within sixty days from the first date fixed for taking evidence, the accused, if in custody for the whole of that period, shall be released on bail unless the Magistrate records reasons otherwise. Section 437(7): after the conclusion of the trial and before judgment, if the court is of opinion that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty, it shall release him on bond.
C. The special powers of the High Court and Court of Session.
Section 439(1): the High Court or Court of Session may direct that any person accused of an offence and in custody be released on bail, and may impose any condition it considers necessary; where the offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session or is punishable with imprisonment for life, the court shall give notice of the application to the Public Prosecutor unless it records reasons why that is not practicable. Section 439(1A), inserted in 2018, requires the informant or a person authorised by him to be present at the hearing of a bail application in respect of offences under sections 376(3), 376AB, 376DA and 376DB of the Indian Penal Code. Section 439(2) empowers the High Court or Court of Session to direct that a person released on bail be arrested and committed to custody.
D. Anticipatory bail.
Section 438(1): where a person has reason to believe he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Session for a direction that in the event of arrest he shall be released on bail. Section 438(1) as amended requires the court to consider the nature and gravity of the accusation, the antecedents of the applicant including any previous imprisonment on conviction for a cognizable offence, the possibility of the applicant fleeing from justice, and whether the accusation has been made with the object of injuring or humiliating him. Section 438(2) allows conditions, including that he make himself available for interrogation, that he not induce any person acquainted with the facts to dissuade them from disclosing it to the court or the police, and that he not leave India without permission. Section 438(4), inserted in 2018, excludes anticipatory bail altogether in cases under sections 376(3), 376AB, 376DA and 376DB.
The two Constitution Bench decisions to cite are Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565, which held that section 438 protects the personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21, that the limitations of section 437 are not to be read into it, and that the applicant need not show that the accusation is false or his case exceptional; and Sushila Aggarwal v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 5 SCC 1, in which a five judge Bench held that anticipatory bail once granted need not be limited to a fixed period and ordinarily continues till the end of the trial.
E. General provisions.
Section 440: the amount of every bond shall be fixed with due regard to the circumstances of the case and shall not be excessive. Section 441: the bond of the accused and the sureties. Section 441A: a surety must declare the number of persons for whom he has stood surety. Section 445: deposit instead of recognizance. Section 446: procedure when the bond is forfeited. Section 446A: cancellation of bond and bail bond. Section 449: appeal from an order under section 446.
F. The factors the court must consider.
The settled list, drawn from Gurcharan Singh v. State (Delhi Administration), (1978) 1 SCC 118, Prahlad Singh Bhati v. NCT of Delhi, (2001) 4 SCC 280, and P. Chidambaram v. Directorate of Enforcement, (2019) 9 SCC 24, is:
Conclusion. The Code's scheme runs on a single distinction, whether the offence is bailable or not, and on the fact that bail in the second class is a judicial discretion exercised on recorded reasons and not an act of mercy. The governing principle, restated in Satender Kumar Antil v. Central Bureau of Investigation, (2022) 10 SCC 51, is that bail is the rule and jail the exception: the Court there categorised offences, directed strict compliance with sections 41 and 41A and with Arnesh Kumar, required bail applications to be disposed of within two weeks and anticipatory bail applications within six weeks, and observed that an accused who was not arrested during the investigation should ordinarily not be taken into custody when he appears after the chargesheet is filed. The court's task is therefore not to decide guilt but to secure the accused's presence at the trial by the least restrictive means that will do it.
Answer
A. What a charge is.
Section 2(b) provides only that "charge" includes any head of charge where the charge contains more heads than one. Its substance is in Chapter XVII, sections 211 to 224. A charge is the precise formulation of the accusation which the accused is called on to answer, framed by the court, read and explained to him, and to which he pleads.
B. The contents of a charge: section 211.
Section 211(1): every charge shall state the offence with which the accused is charged.
Section 211(2): if the law which creates the offence gives it a specific name, the offence may be described in the charge by that name only. It is enough to say "murder" or "theft".
Section 211(3): if the law gives it no specific name, so much of the definition of the offence must be stated as to give the accused notice of the matter with which he is charged.
Section 211(4): the law and the section of the law against which the offence is said to have been committed shall be mentioned.
Section 211(5): the fact that the charge is made is equivalent to a statement that every legal condition required by law to constitute the offence charged was fulfilled in the particular case.
Section 211(6): the charge shall be written in the language of the court.
Section 211(7): where the accused has been previously convicted and is liable by reason of that conviction to enhanced punishment or to punishment of a different kind, and it is intended to prove the previous conviction for that purpose, the fact, date and place of the previous conviction shall be stated in the charge; if omitted, the court may add it at any time before sentence is passed.
The illustrations to section 211 show the working. A charge of murder is equivalent to a statement that the act fell within sections 299 and 300 of the Indian Penal Code, that it fell within no general exception, and that it did not fall within the five exceptions to section 300.
C. The particulars and the alternative: sections 212 and 213.
Section 212(1): the charge shall contain such particulars as to the time and place of the alleged offence, and the person, if any, against whom, or the thing, if any, in respect of which, it was committed, as are reasonably sufficient to give the accused notice.
Section 212(2) is the exception for criminal breach of trust or dishonest misappropriation of money: it is sufficient to specify the gross sum and the dates between which the offence is alleged to have been committed, without specifying particular items or exact dates, provided the time included does not exceed one year, and such a charge is deemed to be a charge of one offence within section 219.
Section 213: where the nature of the case is such that the particulars in sections 211 and 212 do not give sufficient notice, the charge shall contain such particulars of the manner in which the offence was committed as will be sufficient for that purpose.
D. When the charge is framed.
In a sessions trial, after the prosecution's opening under section 226, the judge considers the record and hears the parties under section 227 and discharges the accused if he considers there is not sufficient ground for proceeding, recording his reasons; if he is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he frames a charge in writing under section 228, and under section 228(2) the charge is read and explained to the accused, who is asked whether he pleads guilty.
In a warrant case on a police report, section 239 provides for discharge if the charge is groundless, and section 240 for framing the charge if there is ground for presuming the accused committed an offence triable by the Magistrate. In a warrant case otherwise than on a police report, sections 245 and 246 do the same work.
In a summons case no formal charge is framed at all: under section 251 the particulars of the offence are stated to the accused and he is asked whether he pleads guilty.
E. Alteration and its consequences.
Section 216(1): any court may alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced. Section 216(2): every alteration or addition shall be read and explained to the accused. Section 216(3): if the alteration is not likely to prejudice the accused or the prosecutor, the court may proceed with the trial as if the altered charge had been the original one. Section 216(4): if it is likely to prejudice, the court may adjourn the trial or direct a new trial. Section 217 gives both sides the right to recall and re-examine witnesses after an alteration.
F. Joinder: sections 218 to 223.
Section 218 states the rule: for every distinct offence there shall be a separate charge, and every such charge shall be tried separately, with a proviso allowing joint trial where the accused applies in writing and the Magistrate thinks he will not be prejudiced.
The exceptions are section 219, three offences of the same kind within twelve months; section 220, offences committed in the course of the same transaction; section 221, where it is doubtful what offence has been committed, allowing alternative charges; and section 223, the persons who may be charged and tried jointly.
G. Defects: section 464.
Section 464(1): no finding, sentence or order of a competent court shall be deemed invalid merely on the ground that no charge was framed, or on the ground of any error, omission or irregularity in the charge, including any misjoinder of charges, unless in the opinion of the court of appeal, confirmation or revision, a failure of justice has in fact been occasioned thereby. Sub-section (2) allows the appellate court to direct a new trial on a corrected charge, or to quash the conviction. Section 465 applies the same test to other irregularities.
H. The significance of the charge to a fair trial.
1. Notice. The charge is the means by which the accused learns, with precision, what he must meet. Article 21 and the principle audi alteram partem require that he be able to prepare a defence, and he cannot prepare against an accusation he has not been told.
2. It fixes the scope of the trial. The evidence, the examination under section 313, and the judgment must all answer to the charge. A conviction for an offence not charged, and not permitted by sections 221 or 222, is bad.
3. It protects against surprise. Sections 216(4) and 217 exist for that reason: an alteration that could prejudice must be followed by an adjournment or a new trial and by the right to recall witnesses.
4. It is the point at which a groundless prosecution is stopped. Sections 227, 239 and 245 require the court to apply its mind before the accused is put on trial at all. In Union of India v. Prafulla Kumar Samal, (1979) 3 SCC 4, the Supreme Court held that at the stage of framing charge the judge is not a mere post office, must sift and weigh the material to find whether a prima facie case is made out, but must not conduct a roving enquiry into the probability of conviction; where the material discloses grave suspicion, the charge is framed, where only suspicion, the accused is discharged.
5. It supports the plea of autrefois acquit and convict. Section 300 and Article 20(2) protect a person from being tried again for the same offence, and the charge is what identifies that offence.
6. But form yields to substance. Section 464 makes clear that the charge is a means to fairness, not an end. In Willie (William) Slaney v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 1956 SC 116, a Constitution Bench held that an omission to frame a charge is curable unless prejudice is shown, and that the whole trial is to be looked at to decide whether the accused knew what he was being tried for and had a fair chance to defend himself.
Conclusion. Framing a charge is the hinge of a criminal trial: it converts an investigation into an accusation, and it does so under a set of rules whose single purpose is that the accused shall know precisely what is alleged against him before he is asked to answer it. Section 211 supplies the content, section 212 and 213 the particulars, sections 227 to 240 the moment and the judicial filter, section 216 the power to correct with safeguards, and section 464 the reminder that the test throughout is failure of justice and not formal perfection. A charge that satisfies section 211 gives the accused notice, confines the prosecution, and makes the resulting verdict reviewable, which is what a fair trial requires of it.
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This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 CRPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
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