munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 CRPC 2022-23 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

CRPC

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9

2022-23 Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was repealed by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 on 1 July 2024, and every paper in this folder was set on the Code. Each answer is therefore written on the Code the question names, with the Sanhita section that now carries the same rule given alongside it, so that a reader can use these pages for either. Two further things are corrected silently throughout. The printed header names the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, which was repealed on 15 January 2016; the answers are on the Act of 2015 as amended in 2021. And the header names the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, whose own Section 2(a) still defines the Code as that of 1898, read today as the Code of 1973.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii
munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: Question No. 1 is compulsory. Figures to the right indicate full marks. Please check whether you have got the right question paper.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

Q.1

Answer the following in one or two sentences 20 Marks

munotes.in 1

(a)What is the procedure of arrest?[2]

Answer

Section 46 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 lays down how an arrest is made. The police officer or other person making the arrest shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to the custody by word or action; and where the person forcibly resists or attempts to evade the arrest, the officer may use all means necessary to effect it.

munotes.in 2

(b)Who is a Public Prosecutor?[2]

Answer

Section 2(u) of the Code defines a Public Prosecutor as any person appointed under section 24, and includes any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor.

Under section 24, the Central or State Government appoints a Public Prosecutor for every High Court, and for each district appoints from a panel prepared by the District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge; the person must have been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years.

munotes.in 3

(c)What is 'plea bargaining'?[2]

Answer

Plea bargaining is the procedure under Chapter XXIA, sections 265A to 265L, of the Code, inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 and in force from 5 July 2006, by which an accused may apply for a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case, and on the court's satisfaction that the application is voluntary, the case is disposed of on a reduced sentence.

munotes.in 4

(d)When search warrant may be issued?[2]

Answer

Section 93(1) of the Code allows a court to issue a search warrant in three cases: where the court has reason to believe that a person summoned under section 91 to produce a document or thing will not produce it; where the document or thing is not known to the court to be in the possession of any person; or where the court considers that the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding will be served by a general search or inspection.

munotes.in 5

(e)What is 'adoption'?[2]

Answer

Section 2(2) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines adoption as the process through which the adopted child is permanently separated from his biological parents and becomes the lawful child of his adoptive parents with all the rights, privileges and responsibilities that are attached to a biological child.

munotes.in 6

(f)Who is probation officer?[2]

Answer

Section 13(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 provides that a probation officer shall be a person appointed to be a probation officer by the State Government or recognised as such by the State Government, or a person provided for the purpose by a society recognised in that behalf by the State Government, or in any exceptional case any other person who, in the opinion of the court, is fit to act as a probation officer in the special circumstances of the case.

munotes.in 7

(g)Charge means.[2]

Answer

Section 2(b) of the Code provides that "charge" includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one. The Code gives no fuller definition. In substance a charge is the precise written formulation of the accusation which the accused is required to answer, framed by the court under sections 211 to 214, read and explained to him, and to which he pleads.

munotes.in 8

(h)Which are different types of trial?[2]

Answer

The Code provides for four types of trial: the trial before a Court of Session, Chapter XVIII, sections 225 to 237; the trial of warrant cases by Magistrates, Chapter XIX, sections 238 to 250, itself divided into cases instituted on a police report and cases instituted otherwise; the trial of summons cases by Magistrates, Chapter XX, sections 251 to 259; and the summary trial, Chapter XXI, sections 260 to 265.

munotes.in 9

(i)Who is called a 'victim'?[2]

Answer

Section 2(wa) of the Code, inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 with effect from 31 December 2009, defines "victim" as a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged, and the expression includes his or her guardian or legal heir.

munotes.in 10

(j)Distinguish between 'Inquiry' and 'trial'.[2]

Answer

Inquiry is defined by section 2(g) as every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under the Code by a Magistrate or Court. Trial is not defined by the Code; judicially it is the proceeding that begins after the charge is framed, or in a summons case after the particulars are stated, and ends in conviction or acquittal.

The distinguishing test is the outcome: an inquiry never ends in conviction or acquittal, a trial always does.

munotes.in 11

Q.2

Write short notes on the following

any four · 20 Marks

munotes.in 12

(a)Confession before Magistrate[5]

Answer

A confession is an admission by an accused person of the offence charged, or of all the facts constituting it. Section 164 of the Code governs its recording by a Magistrate, and the section exists because a confession made to a police officer is worthless: section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes a confession to a police officer inadmissible, and section 26 makes a confession in police custody inadmissible unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

Who may record it, section 164(1). Any Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate, whether or not he has jurisdiction in the case, may record a confession or statement made in the course of an investigation or at any time afterwards before the commencement of the inquiry or trial. The proviso is absolute: no confession shall be recorded by a police officer on whom any power of a Magistrate has been conferred.

The mandatory warning, section 164(2). The Magistrate shall, before recording the confession, explain to the person that he is not bound to make it and that if he does, it may be used as evidence against him; and the Magistrate shall not record it unless, upon questioning, he has reason to believe it is being made voluntarily.

munotes.in 13

Reflection, section 164(3) and the proviso to (4). If the person states he is not willing to make the confession, the Magistrate shall not authorise his detention in police custody. In practice the Magistrate gives the accused time for reflection, warns him that he will not be returned to police custody whatever he says, and removes the police from the room.

Form, section 164(4). The confession shall be recorded in the manner provided by section 281 for recording the examination of an accused, shall be signed by the person making it, and the Magistrate shall append a memorandum in the prescribed form certifying that he explained the warning, that the confession was voluntary, that it was read over to the person and admitted by him to be correct, and that it contains a full and true account of the statement made.

munotes.in 14

Statements other than confessions, section 164(5), and section 164(5A). Any statement other than a confession may be recorded in such manner as the Magistrate thinks fit, and he may administer an oath. Sub-section (5A), inserted in 2013, requires the Magistrate to record the statement of a victim of an offence under sections 354, 376 and related provisions as soon as the offence is brought to the notice of the police, and where the victim is temporarily or permanently mentally or physically disabled, to record it with the aid of an interpreter or special educator and to have it videographed; such a statement is treated as the examination-in-chief under section 137 of the Evidence Act.

Conclusion. Section 164 is a set of safeguards, not a procedure for obtaining confessions: the warning, the satisfaction of voluntariness, the refusal to return the maker to police custody, the signature and the certifying memorandum together exist so that a confession which reaches the court can be believed. A confession recorded in breach of them may be excluded altogether, and even a properly recorded one is a weak species of evidence which the courts look to corroborate before convicting on it alone.

munotes.in 15

(b)Reference[5]

Answer

Reference is the procedure by which a subordinate criminal court refers a question of law to the High Court for decision. It is governed by sections 395 and 396 of the Code, in Chapter XXX, which the Code heads "Reference and Revision".

Section 395(1), the mandatory reference. Where any court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation, or of any provision contained in one, the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case, and the court is of opinion that such Act, Ordinance, Regulation or provision is invalid or inoperative but has not been so declared by the High Court or the Supreme Court, the court shall state a case setting out its opinion and the reasons for it, and refer it to the High Court.

The Explanation defines "Regulation" as any Regulation as defined in the General Clauses Act, 1897, or in the General Clauses Act of a State.

munotes.in 16

Section 395(2), the discretionary reference. A Court of Session or a Metropolitan Magistrate may, and any other court may not, refer for the decision of the High Court any question of law arising in the hearing of a case.

Section 395(3). Any court making a reference may either commit the accused to jail or release him on bail to appear when called upon.

Section 396, disposal. When a question has been referred, the High Court shall pass such order as it thinks fit, and shall forward a copy to the court by which the reference was made, which shall dispose of the case conformably to the order. The High Court may direct by whom the costs of the reference shall be paid.

Conclusion. Reference differs from every other supervisory device in the Code in that it moves upward on the initiative of the lower court itself, before it decides, and its object is narrow: no subordinate court may declare a statute invalid, so where its own view is that a provision it must apply is bad, the Code requires it to stop and ask. The High Court's answer then binds it, and section 396 makes the disposal of the case conform to that answer.

munotes.in 17

(c)Bailable and non-bailable offences[5]

Answer

Section 2(a) of the Code defines a bailable offence as an offence which is shown as bailable in the First Schedule, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force, and a non-bailable offence as any other offence. The classification is therefore entirely formal: the First Schedule decides, not the gravity of the offence.

Bail in a bailable offence is a right, section 436. When a person accused of a bailable offence is arrested without warrant, or appears or is brought before a court, and is prepared to give bail, he shall be released. Neither the officer in charge of the police station nor the court has a discretion to refuse. The proviso allows release on a personal bond without sureties where the person is indigent and unable to furnish surety, and the Explanation provides that where a person is unable to give bail within a week of the date of his arrest, that is sufficient ground to presume him indigent. Section 436(2) allows refusal where the person has earlier broken the conditions of his bond in the same case.

munotes.in 18

Bail in a non-bailable offence is a discretion, section 437. A court other than the High Court or Court of Session may release the accused, but shall not do so if there appear reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, or where he has certain previous convictions. The provisos allow release even then if the accused is under sixteen years of age, is a woman, or is sick or infirm, and the third proviso where it is just and proper for any other special reason. Section 437(3) allows conditions where the offence carries seven years or more, and section 437(6) requires release where a Magistrate's trial is not concluded within sixty days.

Section 439 gives the High Court and Court of Session a wider power to grant bail in any case and to impose conditions, and section 439(2) the power to cancel bail and commit the person to custody.

Conclusion. The practical difference is not the seriousness of the offence but who decides and on what footing: in a bailable offence release is automatic on the accused being prepared to give bail, and in a non-bailable offence it is a judicial discretion exercised on the material, with a statutory prohibition where the offence carries death or life imprisonment and reasonable grounds appear. The First Schedule, and not the punishment alone, is where the classification must be checked.

munotes.in 19

(d)First information report[5]

Answer

The expression "first information report" does not appear in the Code. It is the name given in practice to the information recorded under section 154, which is the first information in point of time of the commission of a cognizable offence, given to the officer in charge of a police station and recorded by him.

Section 154(1). Every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, if given orally, shall be reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer in charge, be read over to the informant, and be signed by the person giving it; and its substance shall be entered in a book kept by the officer in the prescribed form, the station diary.

munotes.in 20

The 2013 provisos. Where the information relates to an offence under sections 326A, 326B, 354, 354A to 354D, 376, 376A to 376E or 509 of the Indian Penal Code, it shall be recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer. Where the person against whom such an offence is alleged is temporarily or permanently mentally or physically disabled, the information shall be recorded at her residence or a place of her choice, in the presence of an interpreter or special educator, and the recording shall be videographed; and the police officer shall get her statement recorded by a Judicial Magistrate under section 164(5A) as soon as possible.

Section 154(2). A copy of the information as recorded shall be given forthwith, free of cost, to the informant.

Section 154(3). Where the officer in charge refuses to record the information, the aggrieved person may send its substance in writing and by post to the Superintendent of Police, who, if satisfied that it discloses a cognizable offence, shall either investigate the case himself or direct an investigation.

Section 156(3) provides a further remedy: a Magistrate empowered under section 190 may order an investigation.

munotes.in 21

Conclusion. An FIR is not evidence of the facts it states and is not the beginning of proof; it is the beginning of the investigation, and its legal value lies elsewhere. It sets the machinery of Chapter XII in motion, it fixes the earliest version of the prosecution case so that later improvements can be tested against it, and under sections 145 and 157 of the Evidence Act it may be used to contradict or corroborate its maker. That is why registration is mandatory and delay in it must be explained.

munotes.in 22

(e)Child in need of care and protection[5]

Answer

Section 2(14) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines a "child in need of care and protection". The definition is a list, and the marks are in reproducing enough of it. It means a child:

  1. who is found without any home or settled place of abode and without any ostensible means of subsistence;
  2. who is found working in contravention of labour laws or is found begging, or living on the street;
  3. who resides with a person, whether a guardian or not, and that person has injured, exploited, abused or neglected the child, or has violated any other law protecting children, or there is reasonable likelihood of his doing so;
  4. who is mentally ill or mentally or physically challenged or suffering from a terminal or incurable disease, having no one to support or look after him, or having parents or guardians unfit or incapacitated to care for him;
  5. who has a parent or guardian unfit or incapacitated, as determined by the Committee or the Board;
munotes.in 23
  1. who does not have parents and no one is willing to take care of him, or whose parents have abandoned or surrendered him, or who is missing or a run away child, or whose parents cannot be found after reasonable inquiry;
  2. who is at imminent risk of marriage before attaining the age of marriage and whose parents, family members, guardian or any other person are likely to be responsible for the solemnisation of such marriage;
  3. who is being or is likely to be abused, tortured or exploited for the purpose of sexual abuse or illegal acts;
  4. who is found vulnerable and is likely to be inducted into drug abuse or trafficking;
  5. who is being or is likely to be abused for unconscionable gains;
  6. who is a victim of or affected by any armed conflict, civil unrest or natural calamity.
munotes.in 24

The authority. Such a child is produced before the Child Welfare Committee, constituted under section 27, and not before the Juvenile Justice Board. Section 31 allows any police officer, public servant, Childline, social worker, public spirited citizen, the child himself or a nurse or doctor to produce him. Section 30 lists the Committee's functions and section 37 the orders it may pass: restoration to the parent or guardian, placement in a children's home or fit facility, foster care, sponsorship, or declaration that the child is legally free for adoption under section 38.

Conclusion. The category exists to give the Act its second and larger stream. A child in conflict with law has done something; a child in need of care and protection has had something done to him, or has no one at all, and the Act's response is the Committee, the children's home and ultimately adoption rather than the Board and the special home. The 2015 Act widened the list to cover child marriage, trafficking, drug abuse and armed conflict, which the 2000 Act did not name.

munotes.in 25

(f)Power of high court to transfer cases and appeals[5]

Answer

Section 407 of the Code confers the power. Whenever it is made to appear to the High Court, on the report of the lower court, on the application of a party, or on its own initiative, that:

  1. a fair and impartial inquiry or trial cannot be had in any criminal court subordinate to it; or
  2. some question of law of unusual difficulty is likely to arise; or
  3. an order under the section is required by any provision of the Code, or will tend to the general convenience of the parties or witnesses, or is expedient for the ends of justice,

the High Court may order:

(a) that any offence be inquired into or tried by any court not qualified under sections 177 to 185 but in other respects competent; (b) that any particular case or appeal, or class of cases or appeals, be transferred from one criminal court to another of equal or superior jurisdiction subordinate to it; (c) that any particular case be committed for trial to a Court of Session; or (d) that any particular case or appeal be transferred to and tried before itself.

munotes.in 26

Procedure, section 407(2) to (7). The High Court may act on the report of the lower court, on the application of an interested party or on its own initiative, but no application by a party lies to the High Court to transfer a case from one criminal court to another in the same sessions division unless an application has first been made to and rejected by the Sessions Judge. Every application shall be by motion supported by affidavit or affirmation, except where the applicant is the Advocate-General. The accused applicant may be required to execute a bond for costs, and where an application is dismissed the High Court may order the applicant to pay compensation not exceeding one thousand rupees to the person who opposed it if it considers the application frivolous or vexatious.

Section 407(8): where the High Court orders a transfer, it shall give written reasons.

munotes.in 27

The other transfer powers. Section 406 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer a case or appeal from one High Court to another, or from a criminal court subordinate to one High Court to one subordinate to another. Section 408 empowers the Sessions Judge to transfer within his sessions division. Section 409 allows a Sessions Judge to withdraw or recall a case from an Additional or Assistant Sessions Judge. Section 410 allows a Judicial Magistrate to recall a case he has made over, and section 411 the Chief Judicial Magistrate to withdraw or refer a case.

Conclusion. The section is the Code's guarantee that the venue of a trial shall not be allowed to defeat it. Its widest words, "expedient for the ends of justice", are also its most used, and the test the courts apply is not whether the applicant fears an unfair trial but whether there is a reasonable apprehension of one, judged objectively, because as the Supreme Court put it in Gurcharan Das Chadha v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1966 SC 1418, justice must not only be done but must be seen to be done.

munotes.in 28

Q.3

Situational Problems

any two · 12 Marks

munotes.in 29

(a)An offence is committed for which punishment is 2 (two) year[6]

  • (i) Within what period cognizance of the offence can be taken?
  • (ii) From what date the period of limitation commences? Cite relevant case law

Answer

(i) Three years.

Section 468(1) of the Code provides that, except as otherwise provided in the Code, no court shall take cognizance of an offence of the category specified in sub-section (2) after the expiry of the period of limitation. Section 468(2) fixes three periods:

  1. six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only;
  2. one year, if punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year;
  3. three years, if punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years.

An offence punishable with two years' imprisonment exceeds one year and does not exceed three, so it falls in clause (c) and cognizance must be taken within three years.

munotes.in 30

Where several offences may be tried together, section 468(3) measures the period by reference to the offence carrying the most severe punishment.

(ii) From the date of the offence, or from the two later dates in section 469.

Section 469(1) provides that the period commences:

  1. on the date of the offence; or
  2. where the commission of the offence was not known to the person aggrieved or to any police officer, on the first day on which it comes to the knowledge of such person or of any police officer, whichever is earlier; or
  3. where it is not known by whom the offence was committed, on the first day on which the identity of the offender is known to the person aggrieved or to the police officer making the investigation, whichever is earlier.

Section 469(2) excludes the day from which the period is to be computed.

munotes.in 31

The case law the question asks for. In Sarah Mathew v. Institute of Cardio Vascular Diseases, (2014) 2 SCC 62, a Constitution Bench settled a long conflict and held that, for computing the period of limitation under section 468, the relevant date is the date of filing of the complaint or the date of institution of the prosecution, and not the date on which the Magistrate takes cognizance. The contrary view in Krishna Pillai v. T. A. Rajendran, 1990 Supp SCC 121, stands overruled. The reason given is that a complainant has no control over when a court applies its mind, and a delay in the court's own office cannot be allowed to extinguish a prosecution filed in time.

Extensions. Section 470 excludes time spent prosecuting another proceeding against the same offender on the same facts with due diligence, time during which the prosecution was stayed by an injunction or order, the period of any notice required before institution, and the time taken to obtain sanction or consent. Section 471 carries the period to the next day the court is open. Section 473 empowers any court to take cognizance after the period has expired if it is satisfied on the facts and in the circumstances of the case that the delay has been properly explained, or that it is necessary so to do in the interests of justice.

munotes.in 32

Conclusion. Cognizance of a two-year offence must be taken within three years, computed from the date of the offence, or from the day the offence or the offender first came to the knowledge of the aggrieved person or a police officer, and measured to the date the complaint was filed on the authority of Sarah Mathew. Even where the three years have run, section 473 leaves the court a discretion to condone a properly explained delay, so the bar in section 468 is not necessarily the end of the prosecution.

munotes.in 33

(b)Ramesh is tried for an offence of attempt to murder of Rajesh punishable u/s 307 IPC and is acquitted.[6]

  • (i) To which court an appeal may be file against the above order?
  • (ii) Can Rajesh prefer an appeal against the said order? Cite relevant case law.

Answer

(i) To the High Court.

Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code, attempt to murder, is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and a fine, and where hurt is caused, with imprisonment for life. Under the First Schedule it is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable and triable by the Court of Session.

The acquittal is therefore an original order of acquittal of a Court of Session, and the appeal lies to the High Court.

Section 378(1)(b) provides that the State Government may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal passed by any court other than a High Court. Section 378(3) requires that no appeal to the High Court under sub-section (1) shall be entertained except with the leave of the High Court.

munotes.in 34

Two variants must be distinguished. Under section 378(1)(a), an acquittal by a Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence is appealed by the District Magistrate directing the Public Prosecutor to appeal to the Court of Session. And under section 378(4), where the case was instituted upon a complaint, the complainant may appeal to the High Court only if the High Court grants special leave, applied for within sixty days, or six months where the complainant is a public servant, under section 378(5).

(ii) Yes. Rajesh, as the victim, has an independent right of appeal under the proviso to section 372, and he does not need leave.

The proviso to section 372, inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 with effect from 31 December 2009, provides that the victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the court acquitting the accused, convicting for a lesser offence, or imposing inadequate compensation, and that such appeal shall lie to the court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction of such Court. Since an appeal against a conviction by the Court of Session lies to the High Court under section 374(2), Rajesh's appeal lies to the High Court.

munotes.in 35

"Victim" is defined by section 2(wa) as a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused has been charged, and includes his guardian or legal heir. Rajesh, the person against whom the attempt was made, is squarely within it.

The case law the question asks for. In Mallikarjun Kodagali v. State of Karnataka, decided 12 October 2018, the Supreme Court held that the victim's right of appeal under the proviso to section 372 is unfettered and absolute, and that a victim need not apply for leave to appeal, whether under section 378(3) or section 378(4). Parliament, the Court reasoned, deliberately conferred the right without conditions, and reading in a requirement of leave would defeat the amendment's purpose. The Court further held that the right is available where the order of acquittal was passed after 31 December 2009, even though the offence itself was committed before that date.

munotes.in 36

Conclusion. An appeal against Ramesh's acquittal lies to the High Court, and there are two independent routes to it: the State through the Public Prosecutor under section 378(1)(b) with leave under section 378(3), and Rajesh himself as the victim under the proviso to section 372, without leave, on the authority of Mallikarjun Kodagali. The victim's route is the stronger of the two on these facts, because it does not depend on the State choosing to appeal and it carries no leave requirement to be argued first.

munotes.in 37

(c)Mr. X is arrested for an alleged offence of rape.[6]

  • (i) Can he be released on bail? When?
  • (ii) What is the nature of the offence committed by him? Cite relevant case law.

Answer

The two limbs are answered here in the order (ii) then (i), because the nature of the offence decides the answer on bail and not the other way round. Write them in that order in the exam too, and say in one line that you are doing so.

(ii) The nature of the offence.

Under the First Schedule to the Code, rape under section 376 of the Indian Penal Code is:

  1. cognizable, so the police may register an FIR under section 154 and arrest without warrant;
  2. non-bailable, so bail is not claimable as of right under section 436;
  3. non-compoundable, since section 376 does not appear in either table under section 320, and section 320(9) provides that no offence shall be compounded except as provided by this section;
  4. triable by the Court of Session.
munotes.in 38

Under section 376(1), as it stands after the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018, the punishment is rigorous imprisonment not less than ten years, which may extend to imprisonment for life, and a fine.

(i) Yes, but not from every court, and not at every stage.

Bail is a discretion, not a right. Section 436 does not apply. The application is governed by section 437(1), under which a court other than the High Court or Court of Session may release the accused, but shall not do so if there appear reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Section 376(1) is punishable with imprisonment for life, so where the material discloses reasonable grounds, the Magistrate is barred and the application must go to the Court of Session or the High Court under section 439(1).

munotes.in 39

Where the Magistrate may still act. The first and second provisos to section 437(1) permit release even within the bar where the accused is under sixteen years of age, is a woman, or is sick or infirm, and the third proviso where the court is satisfied it is just and proper for any other special reason. Under section 437(2), if at any stage it appears there are not reasonable grounds for believing he has committed a non-bailable offence, but there are sufficient grounds for further inquiry, he shall be released on bail.

When bail becomes available as of right. Under the proviso to section 167(2)(a)(i), if the investigation is not completed and the chargesheet is not filed within ninety days, the accused shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail. This is default bail, and the Supreme Court has repeatedly held it to be an indefeasible right flowing from Article 21: Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616. Ninety days applies because the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life, which is one of the three limbs of section 167(2)(a)(i). Take care with the other limb. Section 376(1) has carried a minimum of ten years only since the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018; before that the minimum was seven years, so on a pre-2018 fact pattern the ten year limb does not apply and it is the life imprisonment limb that gives the ninety days.

munotes.in 40

The statutory conditions and bars. Section 439(1) proviso requires notice to the Public Prosecutor before the High Court or Court of Session grants bail in an offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session. Section 439(1A), inserted in 2018, requires the presence of the informant or a person authorised by him at the hearing of a bail application in respect of offences under sections 376(3), 376AB, 376DA and 376DB. Section 438(4), also of 2018, excludes anticipatory bail altogether for those four offences.

munotes.in 41

The case law the question asks for. In Aparna Bhat v. State of Madhya Pradesh, decided 18 March 2021, the Supreme Court set aside a bail condition requiring the accused to have a rakhi tied by the survivor, holding that such a condition transforms a molester into a brother by judicial mandate and dilutes the offence. The Court laid down guidelines: bail conditions must be confined to those in section 437(3) and must not mandate or even permit contact between the accused and the victim; the reasoning and language of orders must not reflect stereotypes about women; and gender sensitisation is to form part of the foundational training of judges and of the Bar examination syllabus. On the merits of granting bail, the classic statement is State of Rajasthan v. Balchand, (1977) 4 SCC 308, "the basic rule may perhaps be tersely put as bail, not jail", restated for the modern law in Satender Kumar Antil v. Central Bureau of Investigation, (2022) 10 SCC 51.

munotes.in 42

Conclusion. X may be released on bail, but the discretion belongs in practice to the Court of Session or the High Court under section 439, because section 437(1) bars the Magistrate wherever reasonable grounds appear that he is guilty of an offence punishable with life imprisonment. His clearest entitlement arises on the ninety-first day if no chargesheet has been filed, under the proviso to section 167(2), and that right is his whatever the gravity of the accusation. The offence itself is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable and exclusively triable by the Court of Session, and any bail that is granted must carry conditions that comply with Aparna Bhat.

munotes.in 43

Q.4

Answer the questions

any four · 48 Marks

munotes.in 44

(a)What is an appeal? When can an appeal be filed in an appellate court?[12]

Answer

A. What an appeal is.

An appeal is the judicial examination by a higher court of the decision of a subordinate court, at the instance of a party aggrieved by it. The Code does not define it. The governing principle is in section 372: no appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of a criminal court except as provided for by this Code or by any other law for the time being in force. There is therefore no inherent right of appeal; it is a creature of statute, and a candidate must find the section that gives it.

Chapter XXIX, sections 372 to 394, contains the law.

B. Appeals that lie.

Section 373, appeal from an order requiring security for keeping the peace or good behaviour under section 117, or refusing to accept or rejecting a surety under section 121, to the Court of Session.

Section 374, appeals from convictions. This is the principal section.

munotes.in 45
  1. Section 374(1): a person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary original criminal jurisdiction may appeal to the Supreme Court.
  2. Section 374(2): a person convicted on a trial held by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge, or on a trial held by any other court in which a sentence of imprisonment for more than seven years has been passed, may appeal to the High Court.
  3. Section 374(3): a person convicted on a trial held by a Metropolitan Magistrate, Assistant Sessions Judge, Magistrate of the first class or second class, or sentenced under section 325, or in respect of whom an order has been made or a sentence passed under section 360, may appeal to the Court of Session.

Section 375, no appeal on a plea of guilty, except as to the extent or legality of the sentence.

munotes.in 46

Section 376, no appeal in petty cases: where a High Court passes a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding six months or fine not exceeding one thousand rupees; a Court of Session or Metropolitan Magistrate, imprisonment not exceeding three months or fine not exceeding two hundred rupees; a Magistrate of the first class, a fine not exceeding one hundred rupees; or in a summary trial by an empowered Magistrate, a fine not exceeding two hundred rupees. The proviso allows an appeal if any other punishment is combined with it.

Section 377, appeal by the State against the inadequacy of a sentence, to the Court of Session where the sentence was passed by a Magistrate, and to the High Court in any other case; and where the investigation was by a central agency, by the Central Government. Section 377(3) requires the High Court to give the accused a reasonable opportunity of showing cause, and he may plead for his acquittal or for a reduction.

munotes.in 47

Section 378, appeal in case of acquittal, set out above in the situational answer: the District Magistrate to the Court of Session against a Magistrate's acquittal in a cognizable and non-bailable offence; the State Government to the High Court in any other case, with leave under section 378(3); and the complainant in a complaint case with special leave under section 378(4), applied for within sixty days, or six months where the complainant is a public servant.

The proviso to section 372, appeal by the victim. Inserted with effect from 31 December 2009, giving the victim a right of appeal against acquittal, conviction for a lesser offence, or inadequate compensation, to the court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against a conviction of that court. In Mallikarjun Kodagali v. State of Karnataka, decided 12 October 2018, the Supreme Court held this right requires no leave.

Section 379, appeal against conviction by a High Court in certain cases: where the High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal and sentenced the accused to death, or to imprisonment for life or for ten years or more, he may appeal to the Supreme Court. This reflects section 2 of the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act, 1970.

munotes.in 48

Section 380, special right of appeal in certain cases: where more persons than one are convicted in one trial and an appealable judgment has been passed in respect of any of them, all may appeal.

C. The procedure.

Section 382: every appeal shall be made in the form of a petition in writing, presented by the appellant or his pleader, accompanied by a copy of the judgment or order appealed against.

Section 383: where the appellant is in jail, he may present his petition and the copies to the officer in charge of the jail, who shall forward them to the proper appellate court.

Section 384: summary dismissal. The appellate court may dismiss the appeal if it considers there is no sufficient ground for interfering, but the proviso forbids dismissal without giving the appellant or his pleader a reasonable opportunity of being heard, except where the appeal is against a sentence of fine only, or where it is presented under section 383 and the court considers it frivolous.

munotes.in 49

Section 385: procedure for hearing an appeal not dismissed summarily. Notice to the appellant and to the officer appointed by the State, and the appellate court shall send for the record.

Section 386, powers of the appellate court. In an appeal from an acquittal, it may reverse the order and direct further inquiry or a retrial, or find the accused guilty and pass sentence. In an appeal from a conviction, it may reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused or order a retrial or a commitment; or alter the finding, maintaining the sentence; or with or without altering the finding, alter the nature or the extent of the sentence, but not so as to enhance it. In an appeal for enhancement, it may enhance, but the proviso forbids enhancement without giving the accused an opportunity of showing cause, and the sentence shall not exceed what the trial court might have inflicted.

Sections 389 to 391: suspension of sentence and release of the appellant on bail pending appeal, with reasons in writing where the conviction is for death, life or ten years or more, and notice to the Public Prosecutor; arrest of the accused in an appeal from acquittal; and the power to take further evidence or direct it to be taken.

munotes.in 50

Section 393, finality: judgments and orders passed by an appellate court are final, except as provided in sections 377, 378, 384(4) and Chapter XXX. Section 394, abatement: an appeal under section 377 or section 378 abates on the death of the accused; every other appeal abates on the death of the appellant, except an appeal from a sentence of fine, with a proviso allowing a near relative to apply within thirty days for leave to continue an appeal against a conviction and sentence of death or imprisonment.

Conclusion. The Code's answer to "when can an appeal be filed" is that it can be filed only where a section says so, and the section is chosen by three facts: who is appealing, the accused, the State, the complainant or the victim; what is appealed against, a conviction, an acquittal, a sentence or a security order; and which court decided it, since the forum ascends from the Court of Session to the High Court to the Supreme Court with the seniority of the trial court. Section 372 is the rule and every other section in the Chapter is an exception to it, which is why an appeal that cannot be located in one of them is not an appeal at all but an application in revision.

munotes.in 51

(b)Explain the reformative nature of Probation of offenders Act, 1958.[12]

Answer

A. The theory the Act adopts.

Criminal law has four traditional theories of punishment: deterrent, retributive, preventive and reformative. The reformative theory holds that the offender is a person capable of change, that the object of the sentence is to return him to society as a law abiding member, and that imprisonment often achieves the opposite by exposing a casual or first offender to hardened criminals.

The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is Parliament's adoption of that theory for a defined class of offenders. Its long title is "An Act to provide for the release of offenders on probation or after due admonition and for matters connected therewith". It received assent on 16 May 1958 and extends to the whole of India.

B. The provisions in which the reformative purpose is carried.

munotes.in 52

1. Section 3, release after admonition. Where a person is found guilty of an offence punishable under sections 379, 380, 381, 404 or 420 of the Indian Penal Code, or of any offence punishable with imprisonment for not more than two years or with fine or both, and no previous conviction is proved, the court may, having regard to the nature of the offence and the character of the offender, release him after due admonition instead of sentencing him. The reformative element is that the criminal law's response is a reprimand and nothing more.

2. Section 4, release on probation of good conduct. Where the offence is not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, the court may, instead of sentencing at once, direct release on a bond, with or without sureties, to appear and receive sentence when called upon within a period not exceeding three years, and meanwhile to keep the peace and be of good behaviour. Section 4(2) obliges the court to consider the probation officer's report; section 4(3) allows a supervision order for not less than one year; and section 4(4) requires the court to explain the terms and conditions to the offender.

munotes.in 53

3. Section 5, compensation and costs. The court may order the released offender to pay compensation for the loss or injury caused and the costs of the proceedings, recoverable as a fine. This is restorative rather than punitive: the victim is compensated without the offender being imprisoned.

4. Section 6, offenders under twenty-one. Where a person under twenty-one years is found guilty of an offence punishable with imprisonment but not with imprisonment for life, the court shall not sentence him to imprisonment unless satisfied that it would not be desirable to deal with him under section 3 or section 4, and if it does, it must record its reasons. Section 6(2) makes the probation officer's report and a consideration of the offender's character and physical and mental condition mandatory. This is the single most strongly worded provision in the Act.

5. Sections 13 and 14, the probation officer. He inquires into the offender's home surroundings, submits reports, supervises probationers, endeavours to find them suitable employment, and assists in the payment of compensation. The Act does not merely refrain from punishing; it puts a person in place to help.

munotes.in 54

6. Section 12, removal of disqualification. A person dealt with under section 3 or section 4 shall not suffer the disqualification, if any, attaching to a conviction under any other law. Without this section the whole scheme would fail, because an offender who kept his liberty but lost his employment or his eligibility would have gained nothing.

7. Section 9, breach. The reformative approach is conditional, not indulgent. On a failure to observe the conditions of the bond, the court may issue a warrant or summons, and on being satisfied may sentence him for the original offence, or on a first failure impose a penalty not exceeding fifty rupees.

8. Section 11, appellate and revisional courts. An order under the Act may be made by any court competent to try and sentence the offender and by the High Court or any other court when the case comes before it on appeal or in revision, so the benefit is not lost by the trial court's failure to consider it. Section 11(3) allows an appellate court, on its own motion or on an application by the convicted person or the probation officer, to call for the record where a court has declined to deal with an offender under twenty-one under section 3 or section 4.

C. How the Act displaces the Code.

munotes.in 55

Section 361 of the Code, inserted in 1973, obliges a court which could have dealt with an accused under section 360 of the Code or under the Probation of Offenders Act, and does not, to record in its judgment the special reasons for not doing so. Section 19 of the Act provides that section 562 of the old Code, which corresponds to section 360 of the 1973 Code, ceases to apply in the areas where the Act has been brought into force, so where the Act applies the court must proceed under the Act.

D. What the courts have made of it.

In Rattan Lal v. State of Punjab, AIR 1965 SC 444, the Supreme Court described the Act as a milestone in the progress of the modern liberal trend of reform in the field of penology, and held that its benefit may be claimed for the first time in appeal or revision, and even where the offence was committed before the Act was applied to the area. In Jugal Kishore Prasad v. State of Bihar, (1972) 2 SCC 633, the Court explained the object as preventing the conversion of youthful offenders into obdurate criminals as a result of their association with hardened criminals of mature age. In Ishar Das v. State of Punjab, (1973) 2 SCC 65, the Court held that the Act applies even to offences under a special law such as the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act unless that law expressly excludes it, though for adults over twenty-one the position under that Act was later altered by amendment.

munotes.in 56

Conclusion. The Act's reformative character is not a matter of tone but of structure. It gives the court a statutory alternative to sentencing (sections 3 and 4), makes the alternative compulsory to consider for the young (section 6) and for everyone (section 361 of the Code), attaches to it an officer whose duty is to help rather than to punish (section 14), compensates the victim without imprisoning the offender (section 5), and then removes the lasting civil consequence of the conviction (section 12), while keeping the original sentence in reserve for the offender who does not keep his bond (section 9). What it does not do is excuse the offence: the finding of guilt stands, and it is the sentence alone that the Act redirects.

munotes.in 57

(c)What is juvenile Justice Board? Explain its constitution and powers under Juvenile Justice Act.[12]

Answer

A. What it is.

The Juvenile Justice Board is the authority constituted under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 to deal exclusively with a child in conflict with law, defined by section 2(13) as a child alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission. It is not an ordinary criminal court, and no court other than the Board or, in the cases the Act provides, the Children's Court, may deal with such a child.

B. Constitution: section 4.

Section 4(1): the State Government shall constitute for every district one or more Juvenile Justice Boards for exercising the powers and discharging the functions relating to children in conflict with law.

munotes.in 58

Section 4(2): the Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class, not being a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate, called the Principal Magistrate, and two social workers selected in the prescribed manner, of whom at least one shall be a woman. The Board forms a Bench and has the powers conferred by the Code of Criminal Procedure on a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.

Section 4(3): no social worker shall be appointed unless he has been actively involved in health, education or welfare activities pertaining to children for at least seven years, or is a practising professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, sociology or law.

Section 4(4): no person shall be eligible for selection as a member of the Board if he has any past record of violation of human rights or child rights, has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude, has been removed or dismissed from government service, or has ever indulged in child abuse, employment of child labour or immoral acts.

Section 4(5): the Magistrate on the Board shall be given special training and orientation.

munotes.in 59

Section 4(6) and (7): the term of office is as prescribed; a member may be terminated after an inquiry for misuse of power, failure to attend proceedings consecutively for three months without valid reason, or failure to attend less than three fourths of the sittings in a year.

Section 5, procedure in case of a member not being present, and section 6, placing of a person who ceases to be a child during the process of inquiry, complete the constitution provisions. Section 7 governs the procedure in relation to the Board: it shall meet at such times and observe such rules as may be prescribed, a child in conflict with law may be produced before an individual member when the Board is not sitting, and no order shall be passed by a Board without the presence of the Principal Magistrate.

C. Powers and functions: section 8.

Section 8(1): notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, and save as otherwise expressly provided in this Act, the Board shall have exclusive power to deal with all proceedings relating to children in conflict with law.

Section 8(2): the powers conferred on the Board may also be exercised by the High Court and the Children's Court when the proceedings come before them under section 19 or in appeal, revision or otherwise.

munotes.in 60

Section 8(3) lists the functions and responsibilities, and this is where the marks lie:

  1. ensuring the informed participation of the child and the parent or guardian in every step of the process;
  2. ensuring the child's rights are protected throughout the process of apprehending, inquiry, aftercare and rehabilitation;
  3. ensuring the availability of legal aid through the legal services institutions;
  4. providing a qualified interpreter or translator wherever necessary;
  5. directing the Probation Officer or Child Welfare Officer or social worker to undertake a social investigation and submit a report within fifteen days from the first date of hearing;
  6. adjudicating and disposing of cases of children in conflict with law in accordance with the process of inquiry specified in section 14;
  7. transferring to the Committee matters concerning a child alleged to be in conflict with law who is found to be a child in need of care and protection;
  8. disposing of the matter and passing a final order including an individual care plan for the child's rehabilitation;
munotes.in 61
  1. conducting an inquiry for declaring a person a fit facility;
  2. conducting at least one inspection visit every month of residential facilities for children in conflict with law and recommending action;
  3. ordering the police for registration of first information report for offences committed against any child in conflict with law under Chapter IX;
  4. ordering the police for registration of an FIR for offences committed against any child in need of care and protection on a complaint by the Committee;
  5. conducting a regular inspection of jails meant for adults to check whether any child is lodged in such jails and taking immediate measures for transfer.

D. The orders the Board may pass: sections 17 and 18.

Section 17 requires the Board, where it finds the child has not committed the offence, to pass an order to that effect.

munotes.in 62

Section 18(1), where the Board is satisfied on inquiry that a child of any age has committed a petty or a serious offence, or a child below sixteen has committed a heinous offence, or a child above sixteen has committed a heinous offence and the Board has after the preliminary assessment under section 15 disposed of the matter, allows it to:

  1. allow the child to go home after advice or admonition with counselling of the child and his parents or guardian;
  2. direct group counselling;
  3. order community service;
  4. order the child, or the parents or guardian, to pay a fine;
  5. direct the child to be released on probation of good conduct in the care of a parent, guardian or fit person on a bond, for up to three years;
  6. direct release on probation under the care and supervision of a fit facility, for up to three years;
  7. direct the child to be sent to a special home for up to three years for reformative services.
munotes.in 63

Section 18(2) allows additional directions to attend school, a vocational training centre, a therapeutic centre, or a de-addiction programme, or to prohibit the child from visiting a specified place.

Section 18(3) empowers the Board, after a preliminary assessment under section 15, to transfer the trial of the case to the Children's Court where it finds a need for the child to be tried as an adult.

E. Limits on the Board's powers.

Section 21: no child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or to life imprisonment without the possibility of release. Section 22: no proceedings under Chapter VIII of the Code may be instituted against a child. Section 12: bail is the rule for a child, and a child alleged to be in conflict with law shall be released on bail whether the offence is bailable or not, unless there appear reasonable grounds for believing that release is likely to bring him into association with known criminals, expose him to moral, physical or psychological danger, or defeat the ends of justice, and if bail is refused he is sent to an observation home, never to a police lockup or jail. Section 10 requires a child apprehended to be placed under the charge of the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the designated Child Welfare Police Officer and produced before the Board within twenty-four hours.

munotes.in 64

Section 14 fixes the time: the inquiry shall be completed within four months, extendable by a further two months with reasons recorded, and for a petty offence the proceedings terminate if not concluded within six months.

Cite Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2020) 2 SCC 787. A heinous offence under section 2(33) is one for which the minimum punishment under the Penal Code or any other law is imprisonment for seven years or more. An offence whose maximum is seven years or more but which prescribes no minimum is therefore not heinous, and the Supreme Court held that such an offence falls to be dealt with as a serious offence under section 2(54). The distinction decides the case, because only a heinous offence opens the section 15 preliminary assessment and with it the possibility of a trial as an adult.

munotes.in 65

Conclusion. The Board is the Act's answer to the question of who should judge a child. Its composition, one judicial officer and two social workers of whom one must be a woman, is the visible expression of that answer, and its powers are correspondingly different from a criminal court's: exclusive jurisdiction under section 8(1), a duty to investigate the child's social circumstances before disposing of the case, a menu of dispositions in section 18 that runs from admonition to a special home with no imprisonment in it at all, presumptive bail under section 12, and an absolute bar on death and irredeemable life sentences under section 21. Its one power to send a child to the ordinary process, section 18(3) read with section 15, is confined to a child above sixteen accused of a heinous offence, and even then the Children's Court must decide the question afresh under section 19.

munotes.in 66

(d)State the procedure of trial of warrant cases by Magistrate.[12]

Answer

A. What a warrant case is.

Section 2(x) of the Code defines a warrant case as a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years. The trial of warrant cases by Magistrates is governed by Chapter XIX, sections 238 to 250, and the Chapter is in two parts, because the procedure differs according to how the case was instituted:

  1. Part A, sections 238 to 243, cases instituted on a police report;
  2. Part B, sections 244 to 247, cases instituted otherwise than on a police report, that is on a complaint;
  3. Part C, sections 248 to 250, the conclusion of the trial, common to both.

B. Cases instituted on a police report.

munotes.in 67

Section 238, compliance with section 207. When the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate at the commencement of the trial, the Magistrate shall satisfy himself that he has complied with section 207, that is, that copies of the police report, the FIR, the statements recorded under section 161 of the persons the prosecution proposes to examine, any confession or statement under section 164, and any other document forwarded with the police report have been furnished free of cost to the accused.

Section 239, when the accused shall be discharged. The Magistrate shall consider the police report and the documents sent with it under section 173, may examine the accused if he thinks necessary, and after giving the prosecution and the accused an opportunity of being heard, if he considers the charge against the accused to be groundless, he shall discharge the accused and record his reasons.

Section 240, framing of charge. If, upon such consideration, examination and hearing, the Magistrate is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence triable under this Chapter which he is competent to try and could adequately punish, he shall frame a charge in writing. The charge shall then be read and explained to the accused, who shall be asked whether he pleads guilty or claims to be tried.

munotes.in 68

Section 241, conviction on a plea of guilty. If the accused pleads guilty, the Magistrate shall record the plea and may in his discretion convict him on it.

Section 242, evidence for the prosecution. If the accused refuses to plead, does not plead, claims to be tried, or is not convicted on his plea, the Magistrate shall fix a date for the examination of witnesses. On the application of the prosecution he may issue summons to any witness to attend or produce a document. He shall then take all such evidence as may be produced in support of the prosecution, and may permit the cross-examination of any witness to be deferred until any other witness has been examined, or recall a witness for further cross-examination.

Section 243, evidence for the defence. The accused shall then be called upon to enter upon his defence and produce his evidence, and if he puts in a written statement, the Magistrate shall file it with the record. If the accused applies for process to compel the attendance of a witness or the production of a document, the Magistrate shall issue it unless he considers, for reasons to be recorded, that the application is made for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of justice.

C. Cases instituted otherwise than on a police report.

munotes.in 69

Section 244, evidence for the prosecution. When the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate, the Magistrate shall proceed to hear the prosecution and take all such evidence as may be produced in support of it. He may issue summons to any witness on the application of the prosecution.

Section 245, when the accused shall be discharged. If, upon taking all the evidence referred to in section 244, the Magistrate considers, for reasons to be recorded, that no case against the accused has been made out which, if unrebutted, would warrant his conviction, he shall discharge him. Sub-section (2) allows the Magistrate to discharge the accused at any previous stage if he considers the charge groundless.

munotes.in 70

Section 246, procedure where the accused is not discharged. If, when the evidence referred to in section 244 has been taken, or at any previous stage, the Magistrate is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence triable under this Chapter which he is competent to try and could adequately punish, he shall frame a charge in writing. The charge is read and explained; if the accused pleads guilty the Magistrate may convict him. If he claims to be tried, he shall be asked at the beginning of the next hearing, or immediately if the Magistrate so thinks fit, whether he wishes to cross-examine any of the witnesses whose evidence has already been taken; and those he names shall be recalled and, after cross-examination and re-examination, discharged. The evidence of any remaining witnesses for the prosecution shall then be taken.

Section 247, evidence for the defence: the accused shall be called upon to enter on his defence, and section 243 applies.

D. The two crucial differences between the two procedures.

munotes.in 71

When the charge is framed. In a police report case the charge is framed before any evidence is taken, on the material forwarded under section 173. In a complaint case the charge is framed after the prosecution evidence has been taken under section 244.

The test for discharge. In a police report case, section 239 asks whether the charge is groundless, judged on documents. In a complaint case, section 245 asks whether the evidence, if unrebutted, would warrant a conviction, which is a stricter and evidence based test.

The right to recall. Section 246(4) gives the accused in a complaint case the right to have the prosecution witnesses recalled for cross-examination after the charge, because they were examined before he knew what the charge would be. There is no equivalent in a police report case, since no evidence has been taken before the charge.

E. The conclusion of the trial, Part C.

munotes.in 72

Section 248, acquittal or conviction. If the Magistrate finds the accused not guilty, he shall record an order of acquittal. If he finds him guilty, then, subject to section 325, he shall, after hearing the accused on the question of sentence under section 248(2), pass sentence according to law. Section 248(3) allows the Magistrate, where he has convicted on a previous conviction charged under section 211(7) and the accused does not admit it, to take evidence on it.

Section 249, absence of the complainant. Where the proceedings were instituted upon complaint, and on any day fixed for hearing the complainant is absent, and the offence may be lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence, the Magistrate may, in his discretion and at any time before the charge is framed, discharge the accused.

Section 250, compensation for accusation without reasonable cause. Where a person is accused before a Magistrate of an offence triable by him, and the Magistrate acquits or discharges the accused and is of opinion that there was no reasonable ground for making the accusation, he may call upon the informant or complainant to show cause and may order him to pay compensation not exceeding the amount of fine the Magistrate is empowered to impose. Sub-section (3) requires reasons to be recorded, and sub-section (8) preserves the right to a civil or criminal remedy notwithstanding the payment.

munotes.in 73

Section 251A does not exist in the 1973 Code; the corresponding provision of the 1898 Code was replaced by sections 238 to 243.

The test for discharge is the same at every one of those stages. Union of India v. Prafulla Kumar Samal, (1979) 3 SCC 4: the judge is not a mere post office or a mouthpiece of the prosecution; he must sift and weigh the material to see whether a prima facie case is made out, but must not conduct a roving enquiry into the probability of conviction. Grave suspicion justifies a charge; mere suspicion does not. State of Bihar v. Ramesh Singh, (1977) 4 SCC 39, is to the same effect.

Conclusion. The Chapter is built on one idea: a warrant case is serious enough that the accused must not be put to a full trial unless a judicial filter has been applied first, and the filter is applied at the point where the material actually exists. Where the police have investigated and supplied their material, section 239 lets the Magistrate discharge on the documents before any witness is called; where a private complaint is the only material, section 245 makes him take the evidence first and then decide. Everything else in the Chapter, section 246(4)'s right of recall, section 248(2)'s hearing on sentence, section 250's compensation for a baseless accusation, follows from the same concern with not letting a serious accusation become a punishment in itself.

munotes.in 74

(e)What are the various rights available to an arrested person?[12]

Answer

The rights of an arrested person come from Articles 20, 21 and 22 of the Constitution, from Chapter V of the Code, and from the directions of the Supreme Court in Joginder Kumar, D. K. Basu and Arnesh Kumar, most of which were enacted into the Code by the amendments of 2005 and 2008.

1. The right that the arrest itself be necessary. Section 41, as substituted in 2009, requires a police officer arresting without warrant in a case punishable with imprisonment up to seven years to be satisfied, on reasons recorded in writing, that the arrest is necessary on one of the stated grounds: to prevent a further offence, for proper investigation, to prevent the disappearance of evidence, to prevent inducement or threats to a witness, or to secure his presence in court. Section 41A requires the officer instead to issue a notice of appearance, and a person who complies with it shall not be arrested unless the officer records reasons. Section 60A provides that no arrest shall be made except in accordance with the provisions of this Code or of any other law providing for arrest.

munotes.in 75

In Joginder Kumar v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1994) 4 SCC 260, the Supreme Court held that no arrest can be made merely because it is lawful for the police officer to do so; the existence of the power is not the justification for its exercise. In Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, (2014) 8 SCC 273, the Court directed police officers not to arrest automatically in cases carrying up to seven years, to complete the section 41 checklist and forward it to the Magistrate, and directed Magistrates not to authorise detention casually, with departmental action and contempt for non-compliance.

2. The right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Article 22(1) and section 50(1): every person arrested without warrant shall be forthwith communicated full particulars of the offence for which he is arrested or the grounds of arrest. Under section 55, where an officer deputes a subordinate to arrest, the subordinate shall notify the substance of the written order; and under section 75, where the arrest is under a warrant, the substance of the warrant shall be notified and the warrant shown if required.

3. The right to be informed of the right to bail. Section 50(2): where a police officer arrests without warrant a person accused of a bailable offence, he shall inform him that he is entitled to be released on bail and that he may arrange for sureties.

munotes.in 76

4. The right to have a relative or friend informed. Section 50A, inserted in 2005: the officer shall forthwith give information about the arrest and the place of detention to any friend, relative or other person nominated by the arrested person; shall inform him of that right as soon as he is brought to the police station; shall make an entry in a book kept in the station; and the Magistrate before whom the person is produced shall satisfy himself that this has been complied with.

5. The right to be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours. Article 22(2) and sections 56 and 57: a person arrested without warrant shall not be detained for more than twenty-four hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the journey, without a special order of a Magistrate under section 167. This is an absolute constitutional guarantee, and detention beyond it without a Magistrate's order is illegal.

munotes.in 77

6. The right to default bail. The proviso to section 167(2): the Magistrate may authorise detention pending investigation for no more than ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, and sixty days for any other offence, on the expiry of which the accused shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail. Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616, describes it as an indefeasible right flowing from Article 21.

7. The right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner. Article 22(1), section 41D and section 303: the arrested person is entitled to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout. Section 304 requires the court to assign a pleader at the State's expense where an accused in a sessions trial is unrepresented and lacks means, and Khatri (II) v. State of Bihar, (1981) 1 SCC 627, holds that free legal aid is a right under Article 21 available from the first production before the Magistrate.

munotes.in 78

8. The right against unnecessary restraint and against handcuffing. Section 49: the person arrested shall not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to prevent his escape. In Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration, (1980) 3 SCC 526, the Supreme Court held handcuffing to be prima facie inhuman, permissible only on recorded grounds of a clear and present danger of escape, and required the escorting authority to justify it before the Magistrate.

9. The right to a medical examination. Section 54, as substituted in 2009: an arrested person shall be examined by a medical officer soon after the arrest, and where the arrested person is a female, by or under the supervision of a female medical officer; the report shall record any injuries and the approximate time of their infliction, and a copy shall be furnished to the arrested person or his nominee. Section 55A places a duty on the person having custody of the accused to take reasonable care of his health and safety. Section 53 and section 53A govern examination at the request of the police, including the DNA profile of a person accused of rape.

munotes.in 79

10. The right against self-incrimination. Article 20(3) and section 161(2): a person is bound to answer truly, except questions the answers to which would tend to expose him to a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture. In Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263, the Supreme Court held that narco-analysis, polygraph and brain electrical activation profile tests conducted without consent violate Article 20(3) and Article 21, and that results obtained from a compelled test are inadmissible.

11. Special protections for women. The proviso to section 46(1): submission to custody on an oral intimation shall be presumed, and unless the officer is a female, she shall not be touched. Section 46(4): no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise save in exceptional circumstances, and then only by a woman police officer with the prior written permission of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class. Section 51(2): a female shall be searched only by another female with strict regard to decency. The proviso to section 160(1): a woman shall not be required to attend at any place other than her residence.

munotes.in 80

12. The D. K. Basu safeguards. In D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416, the Supreme Court laid down eleven requirements for every arrest and detention, since largely enacted as sections 41B, 41C, 41D, 50A and 54: accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags; a memo of arrest with the time and date, attested by at least one witness who is a family member or a respectable person of the locality and countersigned by the arrestee; the right to have one friend or relative informed; an entry in the diary at the place of detention naming the friend informed and the officers in custody; a medical examination every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on a panel; copies of all documents to the Magistrate; permission to meet his lawyer during interrogation; and a police control room where the arrest is notified and displayed.

13. The right to a speedy and fair trial, and to compensation. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, (1980) 1 SCC 81, held a speedy trial to be implicit in Article 21. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 4 SCC 141, awarded compensation under Article 32 for illegal detention. Section 358 allows a Magistrate to award compensation to a person groundlessly arrested, and section 41(2) read with section 57 ensures the arrest is judicially reviewed within a day.

munotes.in 81

Conclusion. The Code now controls an arrest at three separate moments and a good answer is organised on that basis. Before the arrest, sections 41, 41A and 60A with Joginder Kumar and Arnesh Kumar require the officer to justify arresting at all rather than merely to have the power. At the arrest, sections 46, 49, 50, 50A and 41B require him to inform, to record, to notify a relative and to restrain himself. After it, sections 54, 55A, 56, 57 and 167 place the person before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, examine him medically, and give him default bail if the investigation does not finish in time. The judicial contribution, from D. K. Basu onward, has been largely absorbed into the statute, so an answer that cites only the cases and not the sections is now an out of date answer.

munotes.in 82

(f)Discuss the provisions relating to disposal of property pending trial and at the conclusion of trial.[12]

Answer

The Code deals with property in Chapter XXXIV, sections 451 to 459, headed "Disposal of property", and with search and seizure in sections 102 and 165.

A. Seizure: section 102.

Section 102(1): any police officer may seize any property which may be alleged or suspected to have been stolen, or which may be found under circumstances which create suspicion of the commission of any offence. Section 102(2) requires a subordinate officer to report the seizure to his superior. Section 102(3) requires the officer to report the seizure forthwith to the Magistrate having jurisdiction, and, where the property cannot conveniently be transported to the court or where there is difficulty in securing proper accommodation, or where its continued retention is unnecessary, to give custody to any person on his executing a bond to produce the property when required.

B. Pending trial: sections 451 and 452 read together with 457.

munotes.in 83

Section 451, order for custody and disposal of property pending trial in certain cases. When any property is produced before any Criminal Court during an inquiry or trial, the court may make such order as it thinks fit for the proper custody of the property pending the conclusion of the inquiry or trial; and if the property is subject to speedy and natural decay, or if it is otherwise expedient so to do, the court may, after recording such evidence as it thinks necessary, order it to be sold or otherwise disposed of.

The Explanation defines "property" widely: it includes property of any kind or document which is produced before the court or is in its custody, or regarding which any offence appears to have been committed, or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence.

Section 457, procedure by police upon seizure of property. Where the seizure of property by a police officer is reported to a Magistrate under this Code, and the property is not produced before a Criminal Court during an inquiry or trial, the Magistrate may make such order as he thinks fit for the disposal of the property or for its delivery to the person entitled to possession; and if that person is unknown, the Magistrate may detain it and issue a proclamation specifying the articles and requiring any person claiming them to appear before him within six months.

munotes.in 84

Section 458: where no claimant appears within six months and the person in whose possession the property was found cannot show that he acquired it legally, the Magistrate may order the property to be at the disposal of the State Government and to be sold. Section 458(2) gives an appeal against such an order to the court to which appeals ordinarily lie from convictions by that Magistrate.

C. At the conclusion of the trial: section 452.

Section 452(1): when an inquiry or trial in any Criminal Court is concluded, the court may make such order as it thinks fit for the disposal, by destruction, confiscation or delivery to any person claiming to be entitled to possession thereof or otherwise, of any property or document produced before it or in its custody, or regarding which any offence appears to have been committed, or which has been used for the commission of any offence.

Section 452(2): an order may be made for the delivery of property to any person claiming to be entitled to possession, without any condition, or on condition that he executes a bond, with or without sureties, to restore it to the court if the order is modified or set aside on appeal or revision.

munotes.in 85

Section 452(3): a Court of Session may direct that the property be delivered to the Chief Judicial Magistrate, who shall then deal with it as if it had been seized by the police and produced before him.

Section 452(4): except where the property is livestock or subject to speedy and natural decay, and except where a bond has been executed under sub-section (2), the order shall not be carried out for two months, or if an appeal is presented, until the appeal is disposed of.

D. Restoration to the rightful owner: section 453 and section 456.

Section 453, payment to an innocent purchaser of money found on the accused. Where a person is convicted of an offence which includes, or amounts to, theft or receiving stolen property, and it is proved that another person bought the stolen property from him without knowing or having reason to believe it was stolen, and money has been taken from the accused's possession, the court may order that out of that money a sum not exceeding the price paid be delivered to the purchaser.

munotes.in 86

Section 456, power to restore possession of immovable property. Where a person is convicted of an offence attended by criminal force or show of force or by criminal intimidation, and it appears that by that force or show of force or intimidation any person has been dispossessed of any immovable property, the court may, if it thinks fit, order that possession be restored to that person. The order must be made within one month from the date of conviction, or where an appeal is presented, within one month of its disposal. Sub-section (4) preserves the right of any person to a civil suit to establish title.

E. Other provisions.

Section 454, appeal against an order under section 452 or 453, to the court to which appeals ordinarily lie. Section 455, destruction of libellous and other matter. Section 459, power to sell property subject to speedy and natural decay, and the disposal of the proceeds.

F. The principle the courts apply.

munotes.in 87

In Sunderbhai Ambalal Desai v. State of Gujarat, (2002) 10 SCC 283, the Supreme Court held that the powers under section 451 should be exercised expeditiously and judiciously, and that it serves no purpose to keep seized articles in police custody for years: vehicles rust in police stations, valuable articles are stolen or damaged, and the owner is deprived of their use. The Court directed that where the property is a vehicle, it should be released to the owner on a supurdnama after preparing a panchnama, photographing it and taking a detailed inventory, with a bond and security; that currency and valuables should be returned after taking photographs and a detailed panchnama, and that in no case should they be retained in the malkhana; and that the practical rule is that the court should pass appropriate orders immediately, taking a bond that the property will be produced if required.

munotes.in 88

Conclusion. The Code's scheme for property runs on a single principle: the court's custody is a means of preserving evidence, not an end, and property is to be held only for as long as the trial actually requires. Section 451 governs the interim, allowing custody, and sale where the property will decay; section 452 governs the end, allowing destruction, confiscation or delivery, subject to the two-month stay in section 452(4) so that an appeal is not defeated; sections 453 and 456 restore the innocent purchaser and the dispossessed occupant; and Sunderbhai Ambalal Desai supplies the working direction that seized property should be photographed, inventoried and released on a bond rather than left to rot in a police compound. The BNSS has enacted that direction: section 497(2) to (5) requires a statement of seized property to be prepared and photographs and videography taken within fourteen days.

munotes.in 89

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 90

Colophon

This volume prints the 2022-23 CRPC paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

munotes.in 91
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!