Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
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Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
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Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
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Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
This subject sits on the join between two codes, so every answer in this volume gives the section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and names the section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 that it replaced. The Sanhita received assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024, repealing the old Code by Section 531(1), but Section 531(2)(a) keeps any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation already pending on that date running under the old Code to its end, so both are still live in the courts and a question may be set on either. Where a question in these papers names an older provision, and the ATKT paper does so twice, asking for remedies under the CrPC and setting an offence under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code, the answer gives the provision now in force and names the one the paper cites. A textbook numbered on the old Code can therefore still be used with these pages, provided every section number and every time limit is checked against the new Sanhita before it is written down.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in one or two sentences
Any Six · 12 Marks
Answer
Section 43(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.46, CrPC): in making an arrest the police officer or other person making it shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to custody by word or action. If the person forcibly resists or attempts to evade arrest, the officer may use all means necessary to effect it (s.43(2)), but not means causing death unless the person is accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment (s.43(4)).
Answer
Section 2(1)(v), BNSS, 2023: a "Public Prosecutor" means any person appointed under section 18, and includes any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor.
He is an officer of the Court, not an agent of the police or of the complainant, and his duty is to place the whole of the evidence fairly before the Court, not to secure a conviction at any cost.
Answer
Plea bargaining is a procedure by which an accused, instead of contesting the charge, applies to the Court for a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case, and on such a disposition being reached receives a reduced sentence. It is governed by Chapter XXIII, ss.289 to 300, BNSS, 2023 (formerly Chapter XXIA, ss.265A to 265L, CrPC).
By s.290(1), the application must be filed by the accused within thirty days from the date of framing of charge, supported by an affidavit that he has preferred it voluntarily and has not previously been convicted of the same offence.
Answer
Section 96(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.93, CrPC): a Court may issue a search-warrant where
Answer
Section 2(1)(f), BNSS, 2023: "charge" includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one.
The Sanhita gives no fuller definition, so the working meaning is taken from the provisions themselves: a charge is the precise formulation, in writing, of the accusation against the accused, telling him exactly what offence he must meet. Its contents are prescribed by s.234, BNSS (formerly s.211, CrPC): the offence, the specific name of the offence if the law gives one, the section of the law against which it is said to have been committed, and a statement that every legal condition required by law to constitute the offence was fulfilled.
Answer
The BNSS provides four types of trial:
| Trial | Chapter and sections | Court | Applies to |
|---|---|---|---|
| Sessions trial | Chapter XIX, ss.248 to 260 | Court of Session | offences exclusively triable by a Court of Session, that is, punishable with death, life or more than seven years |
| Trial | Chapter and sections | Court | Applies to |
|---|---|---|---|
| Warrant case trial | Chapter XX, ss.261 to 273 | Magistrate | a warrant-case, s.2(1)(z): offences punishable with death, life or imprisonment exceeding two years, tried by a Magistrate; in two forms, on a police report (ss.261 to 266) and otherwise than on a police report (ss.267 to 270), with ss.271 to 273 common to both as the conclusion of the trial |
| Trial | Chapter and sections | Court | Applies to |
|---|---|---|---|
| Summons case trial | Chapter XXI, ss.274 to 282 | Magistrate | a summons-case, s.2(1)(x): any case that is not a warrant-case |
| Summary trial | Chapter XXII, ss.283 to 288 | CJM or JMFC | the petty offences listed in s.283, with the sentence limited to three months by s.284 |
Count the chapters carefully: Chapter XVIII is The Charge, and the four trial chapters run XIX, XX, XXI and XXII.
Answer
Section 2(1)(y), BNSS, 2023: a "victim" means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission of the accused person, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.
Answer
Section 2(1)(k), BNSS, 2023 defines "inquiry" as every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by a Magistrate or Court. The Sanhita does not define "trial", so the distinction is drawn from the definition of inquiry and from practice.
| Inquiry | Trial | |
|---|---|---|
| Definition | s.2(1)(k): every inquiry other than a trial by a Magistrate or Court | not defined; judicial proceeding that ends in conviction or acquittal |
| Purpose | to ascertain a fact, or whether there is ground to proceed | to determine guilt or innocence |
| Stage | precedes the trial | follows the inquiry or the framing of charge |
| Inquiry | Trial | |
|---|---|---|
| Ends in | an order, such as commitment, discharge or a direction | conviction or acquittal |
| Examples | proceedings under s.144 (maintenance), s.164 (public nuisance), an inquest under s.196, commitment proceedings | a sessions, warrant, summons or summary trial |
Answer
Section 2(1)(t), BNSS, 2023: a "police report" means a report forwarded by a police officer to a Magistrate under sub-section (3) of section 193.
That is the report at the conclusion of the investigation, known in practice as the charge sheet, or, where no offence is made out, the final report or closure report.
Answer
Section 2(1)(g), BNSS, 2023: a "cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and a "cognizable case" means a case in which, a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant.
Write short notes on any four of the following 12 Marks
Answer
Section 183, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.164, CrPC) governs the recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate.
Answer
Plea bargaining is the procedure in Chapter XXIII, ss.289 to 300, BNSS, 2023, by which an accused applies for a mutually satisfactory disposition of his case and, if one is reached and accepted by the Court, is sentenced at a reduced rate.
Where it applies, s.289(1). Only where the offence is punishable with less than seven years, and not with death or imprisonment for life. It does not apply to offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, as notified by the Central Government, or to offences against a woman or a child.
Procedure.
Answer
An FIR is the first information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence recorded by an officer in charge of a police station under s.173, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.154, CrPC). It sets the criminal law in motion.
How it is recorded, s.173(1). Every such information, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic communication. If given orally, it is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer, read over to the informant, and signed by him. If given by electronic communication, it is taken on record on being signed within three days by the person giving it. The substance is entered in a book kept for the purpose.
Three provisions of s.173 that are new in the BNSS:
Rights and remedies. By s.173(2) a copy must be given forthwith, free of cost, to the informant or victim. On refusal to register, the informant may go to the Superintendent of Police under s.173(4), to the Magistrate under s.175(3) by an application supported by an affidavit, or file a private complaint under s.223.
Answer
Section 2(14), Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines a "child in need of care and protection" by a list. It means a child
Situational Problems
Any Two · 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the forum, the State's route under s.419, the complainant's route under s.419(4), the victim's own right under the proviso to s.413, the case law, and the standard applied on an appeal against acquittal.
A note on the statute. The paper names s.307 IPC. Attempt to murder is now s.109 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, punishable with up to ten years and fine, and with imprisonment for life if hurt is caused. It is triable by a Court of Session, so on these facts the acquittal is by a Court of Session.
(a) The appeal lies to the High Court.
Section 419(1)(b), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.378, CrPC): the State Government may direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court. By s.419(3), no appeal to the High Court under this section shall be entertained except with the leave of the High Court.
Two variants that must be stated because the examiner is testing whether the forum is known precisely:
(b) Yes. Rajesh has his own right of appeal, and he has two possible routes.
Route 1, the victim's right: proviso to s.413, BNSS. "The victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the Court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation, and such appeal shall lie to the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction of such Court."
Rajesh is a victim within s.2(1)(y), having suffered injury by the act of the accused. So he may appeal in his own name, without the State, and the appeal lies to the High Court, because that is where an appeal against a conviction by a Court of Session would go under s.415(2).
Route 2, special leave for a complainant: s.419(4). Where the acquittal is in a case instituted upon complaint, the complainant may apply to the High Court for special leave to appeal, and if granted may present the appeal. By s.419(5) the application must be made within six months where the complainant is a public servant and sixty days in every other case; by s.419(6), if special leave is refused, no appeal lies under s.419(1) or (2) either. This route applies only if Rajesh had filed a private complaint; on a police case, route 1 is his.
Case law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the classification of the offence with the section, the bail position with s.480 and its provisos, default bail, anticipatory bail, and the case law on the approach to bail in a sexual offence.
(b) The nature of the offence, taken first because the bail answer depends on it.
Rape is now s.63, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly s.375, IPC), punished by s.64 with rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine. Aggravated forms are in s.64(2); gang rape is s.70; rape of a woman under twelve and certain gang rapes carry life imprisonment for the remainder of natural life or death.
Its classification under the First Schedule to the BNSS:
| Cognizable | Yes: the police may arrest without warrant, s.2(1)(g) |
| Non-bailable | Yes, s.2(1)(c): bail is a matter of the Court's discretion, not a right |
| Triable by | Court of Session |
| Compoundable | No. It is not in either table of s.359, and by s.359(9) no offence is compoundable except as provided there |
| Warrant-case | Yes, s.2(1)(z), being punishable with more than two years |
(a) Yes, he can be released on bail, but only by a Court exercising discretion, and subject to conditions.
Case law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the classification of theft, the mandatory rule in Lalita Kumari, why "minor issue" is not a ground, the four remedies with sections, and the officer's liability.
A note on the statute. The paper asks for remedies "under CrPC". The CrPC was repealed on 1 July 2024 by s.531(1), BNSS, 2023, and this paper was set on 10 April 2026. The remedies are therefore given below on the BNSS, with the CrPC section each replaced named alongside.
(a) No. The refusal is illegal.
Theft is a cognizable offence. It is s.303, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly ss.378 and 379, IPC), and the First Schedule to the BNSS classifies theft under s.303(2) as cognizable and non-bailable, triable by any Magistrate. Under s.2(1)(g), BNSS, that means a police officer may arrest without warrant, and under s.173(1) the information must be recorded.
One point of precision the First Schedule forces on you. The entry for s.303(2) has a second row: where the value of the stolen property is less than five thousand rupees and the accused is a first-time offender who returns the property, the offence is shown as non-cognizable and bailable, the punishment being community service. So the classification of A's case turns on what the phone was worth, and a careful answer says so. On the facts as given the value is not stated; if it is five thousand rupees or more, the offence is plainly cognizable and the analysis below applies in full. If it is less, the officer would still have to act on the information under s.174 and refer A to the Magistrate, and he still could not simply turn A away.
Registration is mandatory. Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, (2014) 2 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench, held that registration of an FIR is mandatory under s.154 CrPC if the information discloses a cognizable offence, that the officer has no discretion to weigh the credibility or reasonableness of the information at that stage, and that a preliminary inquiry is permissible only in a narrow class of cases, which does not include theft.
"Minor issue" is not a ground known to law. The value of the property stolen affects only which Court tries the case and whether it may be tried summarily under s.283, and not whether an FIR is registered. Refusal on this ground is a plain breach of s.173(1). Satvinder Kaur v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi), (1999) 8 SCC 728, made the same point about territorial jurisdiction: it is a reason to transfer, never to refuse.
One qualification, and it does not help this officer. By s.173(3), BNSS, a preliminary enquiry of up to fourteen days is permitted, with the prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, only where the offence is punishable with three years or more but less than seven. Theft on a first conviction carries up to three years under s.303(2), BNS, while the First Schedule shows the offence as carrying rigorous imprisonment of not less than one year extending to five years on a second or subsequent conviction, so on either reading it is arguably inside that band rather than below it. But the qualification still does not save this officer, for two reasons that do not depend on the argument: he took no DSP's permission, and s.173(3) permits an enquiry into whether a prima facie case exists, never a refusal to receive the information at all. Do not rest the answer on the band; rest it on those two points.
(b) A's remedies.
A should also note two practical rights: by s.173(2) he is entitled to a copy of the FIR forthwith and free of cost once it is registered, and by s.193(3)(ii) the police must inform him of the progress of the investigation within ninety days.
Answer
For full marks, cover: that the arrest may be lawful in its origin but the detention is not, the s.35(1)(b) checklist, each right violated with both the statutory and constitutional source, the consequences for the officer, and the effect on the trial.
(a) The arrest may have been lawful in its origin; the detention is plainly unlawful.
The arrest. Theft is a cognizable offence under s.303, BNS, 2023, so s.35(1), BNSS permits arrest without a warrant. But because theft under s.303(2) is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to three years, it falls in the class governed by s.35(1)(b), and there the power is conditional. The officer may arrest only if
and the officer shall record his reasons in writing while making the arrest. If no such reasons were recorded, the arrest itself is bad. Further, by s.35(3) the officer should ordinarily have issued a notice of appearance instead of arresting, and only arrested on non-compliance.
The detention is unlawful without more. Section 58, BNSS (formerly s.57, CrPC) provides that no police officer shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for longer than is reasonable, and in no case beyond twenty-four hours excluding the time necessary for the journey to the Magistrate's Court, without a special order of a Magistrate under s.187. Detention beyond twenty-four hours without production is therefore illegal, and it is also a breach of Art 22(2) of the Constitution.
(b) The rights violated.
| Right violated | Statute | Constitution |
|---|---|---|
| To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or the grounds of arrest | s.47(1), BNSS | Art 22(1) |
| To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey time | s.58 and s.187(1), BNSS | Art 22(2) |
| To have reasons for the arrest recorded in writing where the offence is punishable up to seven years | s.35(1)(b) | Art 21 |
| To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and the place of detention, and to be told of that right on reaching the station | s.48(1) and (2) | Art 21 |
| Right violated | Statute | Constitution |
|---|---|---|
| To be told, in a bailable case, of his right to bail and to arrange sureties. Theft under s.303(2) is shown in the First Schedule as non-bailable, so s.47(2) is not engaged on these facts unless the value of the property is below five thousand rupees, in which row the offence is bailable. Say which way you are taking it rather than asserting the right flatly | s.47(2) | Art 21 |
| To consult and be defended by an advocate of his choice, and to meet him during interrogation | s.38 | Art 22(1) |
| Right violated | Statute | Constitution |
|---|---|---|
| To an arresting officer bearing accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by B | s.36 | Art 21, Art 22(1) |
| To a medical examination soon after arrest, recording any injuries or marks of violence, with a copy to him | s.53 | Art 21 |
| To liberty, of which he has been deprived otherwise than by a procedure established by law | Art 21 |
The consequences.
One thing that does not follow. An illegal arrest or detention does not by itself vitiate the trial or entitle B to an acquittal. That was settled in H. N. Rishbud v. State of Delhi, AIR 1955 SC 196, where the Supreme Court held that an illegality or irregularity in the investigation does not vitiate the trial or the resulting conviction unless it has caused prejudice to the accused and a miscarriage of justice; and in the line of cases since, holding that an irregularity in arrest goes to the officer's liability and to the weight of anything obtained, not to the Court's jurisdiction. What it does do is make the detention illegal, entitle B to release and to compensation, and make any confession obtained during that custody inadmissible under s.23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Answer any two of the following 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: what the Board is, its constitution under s.4, qualifications and disqualifications, its exclusive powers under s.8, its functions, the procedure of inquiry under s.14, the orders under s.18, the preliminary assessment under s.15, and how it differs from a criminal court.
1. What it is. The Juvenile Justice Board is the authority created by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 to deal with children in conflict with law, defined by s.2(13) as a child alleged or found to have committed an offence, who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission of the offence. It is the mirror of the Child Welfare Committee, which deals with children in need of care and protection.
2. Constitution, s.4.
3. Powers, s.8.
4. Procedure, s.14. The inquiry is to be completed within four months from the date of first production, extendable by two months by the Board for reasons recorded in writing. For a petty offence, if the inquiry remains inconclusive after that extended period, the proceedings shall stand terminated. For a serious or heinous offence, further extension is granted by the Chief Judicial Magistrate for reasons recorded. Note that by s.14(3) the preliminary assessment in a heinous offence under s.15 must be disposed of within three months from the date of first production of the child. Read it with s.14(5), which routes each class of case: a petty offence goes by summary proceedings, clause (d); a serious offence by the summons-case procedure, clause (e); and a heinous offence by clause (f), which sends a child below sixteen back to clause (e) and a child above sixteen to the s.15 preliminary assessment.
5. Orders, s.18. Where the Board is satisfied that a child has committed a petty, serious or heinous offence, and the child is below sixteen, or is sixteen or above but the Board decides against trial as an adult, it may pass any of these orders:
The Board may in addition, under s.18(2), order the child to attend school, a vocational training centre or a de-addiction programme.
6. Trial as an adult, ss.15 and 18(3). Where the offence is heinous under s.2(33), being one for which the minimum punishment is seven years or more, and the child has completed sixteen years, the Board conducts a preliminary assessment into his mental and physical capacity to commit the offence, his ability to understand its consequences, and the circumstances. The Explanation to s.15 says the assessment is not a trial. If the Board finds a need to try him as an adult, it may under s.18(3) transfer the trial to the Children's Court, which then decides for itself under s.19(1).
Answer
For full marks, cover: the constitutional guarantees, then each statutory right with its section, the special rights of women and the vulnerable, the rights at trial, D. K. Basu and the other leading cases, and the consequence of a breach.
1. The constitutional foundation.
2. The statutory rights, BNSS, 2023.
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or other grounds of arrest | s.47(1) |
| To be informed, in a bailable case, of the right to be released on bail and to arrange sureties | s.47(2) |
| To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and of the place of detention, and to be told of this right on reaching the station; the information also goes to the designated police officer of the district | s.48(1) to (3) |
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To have the names and addresses of persons arrested and the offence charged prominently displayed, including in digital mode, at the police station and district headquarters | s.37 |
| To no unnecessary restraint beyond what is needed to prevent escape | s.46 |
| To have the reasons for arrest recorded in writing where the offence is punishable up to seven years, and, where no arrest is made, the reasons for not arresting | s.35(1)(b) and its proviso |
| To a notice of appearance instead of arrest where arrest is not required, and not to be arrested while complying with it | s.35(3) to (5) |
| For a person infirm or above sixty, in an offence punishable with less than three years: no arrest without the prior permission of an officer not below DSP | s.35(7) |
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To consult and be defended by an advocate, and to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation | s.38, s.341 |
| To an arresting officer bearing accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by the arrested person | s.36 |
| To have his custodian take reasonable care of his health and safety | s.56 |
| To medical examination by a medical officer soon after arrest, with the record of injuries and marks of violence and their approximate time, and a copy furnished to him or his nominee | s.53 |
| Where his identification by a witness is required, to have it directed and supervised by the Court, and, where the identifying person is disabled, conducted before a Magistrate and recorded by audio-video electronic means | s.54 |
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey time | s.58, s.187(1) |
| To default bail if the charge sheet is not filed within sixty or ninety days | s.187(3) |
| To be released as an undertrial on completing one-half of the maximum sentence, or one-third if a first-time offender, the jail Superintendent being bound to apply | s.479 |
| Not to be discharged except on bond, on bail or under a Magistrate's special order | s.60 |
| To free legal aid where he cannot engage a lawyer | s.341, and the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 |
| To a fair and speedy trial, an open court, and a copy of the police report and documents within fourteen days | s.230, Art 21 |
3. Special rights of women.
4. The case law.
5. Consequence of a breach. An illegal arrest or detention entitles the person to release on habeas corpus under Arts 32 and 226, to compensation, and makes the officer liable to departmental action and contempt. It also makes any confession obtained in that custody inadmissible under s.23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. But it does not by itself vitiate the trial or entitle the accused to an acquittal.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning of "property", the whole of s.497 including the four new sub-sections, s.498 at the conclusion of trial, ss.499 to 504, the attachment of proceeds of crime under ss.106 and 107, appeal, and the reason the chapter was rewritten.
1. What "property" means. The Explanation to s.497(1), BNSS, 2023 says property includes (a) property of any kind or document produced before the Court or in its custody, and (b) any property regarding which an offence appears to have been committed or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence. Section 498(5) adds that property includes not only what was originally in a party's possession, but anything into which it has been converted or exchanged, and anything acquired by that conversion or exchange.
2. Pending trial: s.497, BNSS (formerly s.451, CrPC). This section has been substantially rewritten and is where most of the marks are.
3. Interim custody: s.503, BNSS (formerly s.457, CrPC). Where the seizure of property is reported to a Magistrate and the property is not produced before a Court during an inquiry or trial, the Magistrate may make such order as he thinks fit for the disposal of the property or its delivery to the person entitled to possession. Where that person is unknown, the Magistrate may detain the property and issue a proclamation specifying the articles, requiring any person claiming them to appear within six months.
4. At the conclusion of trial: s.498, BNSS (formerly s.452, CrPC).
5. The connected provisions.
6. Proceeds of crime: ss.106 and 107, BNSS. These are new and should be mentioned because they change the picture. Section 106 empowers a police officer to seize any property alleged or suspected to have been stolen or found in circumstances creating suspicion of an offence, reporting the seizure to the Magistrate. Section 107 allows a police officer, with the approval of the Superintendent or Commissioner of Police, to apply to the Court for attachment of property derived from criminal activity, on which the Court issues a show cause notice of fourteen days and, if satisfied, orders attachment and distribution of the proceeds to the victims.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the stage before the trial, then each step from s.248 to s.260 in order, the new time limits, the alternatives at each stage, and the principles behind the s.351 examination and the s.258(2) hearing on sentence.
1. Before the trial: commitment. A Court of Session cannot take cognizance of an offence as a court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a Magistrate under s.213, BNSS (formerly s.193, CrPC). Where the offence is exclusively triable by a Court of Session, the Magistrate, on cognizance, commits the case under s.232 (formerly s.209), sends the record and documents, remands the accused, and notifies the Public Prosecutor. Copies of the police report and the connected documents must have been supplied under s.230 (formerly s.207) within fourteen days, a time limit new in the BNSS.
2. The steps of the trial, Chapter XIX, ss.248 to 260.
3. The provisions that run through the trial and must be added.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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