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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9

2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.

This subject sits on the join between two codes, so every answer in this volume gives the section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and names the section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 that it replaced. The Sanhita received assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024, repealing the old Code by Section 531(1), but Section 531(2)(a) keeps any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation already pending on that date running under the old Code to its end, so both are still live in the courts and a question may be set on either. Where a question in these papers names an older provision, and the ATKT paper does so twice, asking for remedies under the CrPC and setting an offence under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code, the answer gives the provision now in force and names the one the paper cites. A textbook numbered on the old Code can therefore still be used with these pages, provided every section number and every time limit is checked against the new Sanhita before it is written down.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Answer the following in one or two sentences

Any Six · 12 Marks

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(1)What is the procedure of arrest?[2]

Answer

Section 43(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.46, CrPC): in making an arrest the police officer or other person making it shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to custody by word or action. If the person forcibly resists or attempts to evade arrest, the officer may use all means necessary to effect it (s.43(2)), but not means causing death unless the person is accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment (s.43(4)).

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(2)Who is a Public Prosecutor?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(v), BNSS, 2023: a "Public Prosecutor" means any person appointed under section 18, and includes any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor.

He is an officer of the Court, not an agent of the police or of the complainant, and his duty is to place the whole of the evidence fairly before the Court, not to secure a conviction at any cost.

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(3)What is 'plea bargaining'?[2]

Answer

Plea bargaining is a procedure by which an accused, instead of contesting the charge, applies to the Court for a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case, and on such a disposition being reached receives a reduced sentence. It is governed by Chapter XXIII, ss.289 to 300, BNSS, 2023 (formerly Chapter XXIA, ss.265A to 265L, CrPC).

By s.290(1), the application must be filed by the accused within thirty days from the date of framing of charge, supported by an affidavit that he has preferred it voluntarily and has not previously been convicted of the same offence.

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(4)When may the search warrant be issued?[2]

Answer

Section 96(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.93, CrPC): a Court may issue a search-warrant where

  • (a) it has reason to believe that a person to whom a summons under s.94 or a requisition under s.95(1) has been or might be addressed will not or would not produce the document or thing required; or
  • (b) such document or thing is not known to the Court to be in the possession of any person; or
  • (c) the Court considers that the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding will be served by a general search or inspection.
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(5)Charge means.[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(f), BNSS, 2023: "charge" includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one.

The Sanhita gives no fuller definition, so the working meaning is taken from the provisions themselves: a charge is the precise formulation, in writing, of the accusation against the accused, telling him exactly what offence he must meet. Its contents are prescribed by s.234, BNSS (formerly s.211, CrPC): the offence, the specific name of the offence if the law gives one, the section of the law against which it is said to have been committed, and a statement that every legal condition required by law to constitute the offence was fulfilled.

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(6)Which are different types of trial?[2]

Answer

The BNSS provides four types of trial:

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TrialChapter and sectionsCourtApplies to
Sessions trialChapter XIX, ss.248 to 260Court of Sessionoffences exclusively triable by a Court of Session, that is, punishable with death, life or more than seven years
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TrialChapter and sectionsCourtApplies to
Warrant case trialChapter XX, ss.261 to 273Magistratea warrant-case, s.2(1)(z): offences punishable with death, life or imprisonment exceeding two years, tried by a Magistrate; in two forms, on a police report (ss.261 to 266) and otherwise than on a police report (ss.267 to 270), with ss.271 to 273 common to both as the conclusion of the trial
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TrialChapter and sectionsCourtApplies to
Summons case trialChapter XXI, ss.274 to 282Magistratea summons-case, s.2(1)(x): any case that is not a warrant-case
Summary trialChapter XXII, ss.283 to 288CJM or JMFCthe petty offences listed in s.283, with the sentence limited to three months by s.284

Count the chapters carefully: Chapter XVIII is The Charge, and the four trial chapters run XIX, XX, XXI and XXII.

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(7)Who is called a 'victim'?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(y), BNSS, 2023: a "victim" means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission of the accused person, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.

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(8)Distinguish between 'Inquiry' and 'Trial'.[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(k), BNSS, 2023 defines "inquiry" as every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by a Magistrate or Court. The Sanhita does not define "trial", so the distinction is drawn from the definition of inquiry and from practice.

InquiryTrial
Definitions.2(1)(k): every inquiry other than a trial by a Magistrate or Courtnot defined; judicial proceeding that ends in conviction or acquittal
Purposeto ascertain a fact, or whether there is ground to proceedto determine guilt or innocence
Stageprecedes the trialfollows the inquiry or the framing of charge
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InquiryTrial
Ends inan order, such as commitment, discharge or a directionconviction or acquittal
Examplesproceedings under s.144 (maintenance), s.164 (public nuisance), an inquest under s.196, commitment proceedingsa sessions, warrant, summons or summary trial
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(9)What is police report?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(t), BNSS, 2023: a "police report" means a report forwarded by a police officer to a Magistrate under sub-section (3) of section 193.

That is the report at the conclusion of the investigation, known in practice as the charge sheet, or, where no offence is made out, the final report or closure report.

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(10)Define cognizable offence.[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(g), BNSS, 2023: a "cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and a "cognizable case" means a case in which, a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant.

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Q.2

Write short notes on any four of the following 12 Marks

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(1)Confession before Magistrate[3]

Answer

Section 183, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.164, CrPC) governs the recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate.

  • s.183(1): any Magistrate of the district in which the information about the offence has been registered may, whether or not he has jurisdiction in the case, record a confession or statement made in the course of an investigation, or at any time afterwards but before the commencement of the inquiry or trial.
  • First proviso, new in the BNSS: the confession or statement may also be recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the advocate of the person accused.
  • Second proviso: no confession shall be recorded by a police officer on whom the powers of a Magistrate have been conferred.
  • s.183(2): before recording, the Magistrate shall explain to the person that he is not bound to make a confession and that if he does, it may be used as evidence against him; and the Magistrate shall not record it unless, on questioning, he has reason to believe it is being made voluntarily.
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  • s.183(3): if the person says he is not willing to make the confession, the Magistrate shall not authorise his detention in police custody.
  • s.183(4): the confession is recorded in the manner provided by s.316 and signed by the person making it, and the Magistrate appends a memorandum in the prescribed form certifying that the explanation was given and that he believes the confession was voluntary.
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(2)Plea bargaining[3]

Answer

Plea bargaining is the procedure in Chapter XXIII, ss.289 to 300, BNSS, 2023, by which an accused applies for a mutually satisfactory disposition of his case and, if one is reached and accepted by the Court, is sentenced at a reduced rate.

Where it applies, s.289(1). Only where the offence is punishable with less than seven years, and not with death or imprisonment for life. It does not apply to offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, as notified by the Central Government, or to offences against a woman or a child.

Procedure.

  1. s.290(1): the accused applies within thirty days from the date of framing of charge, with an affidavit that the application is voluntary and that he has not been previously convicted of the same offence. The thirty-day limit is new in the BNSS.
  2. s.290(3) and (4): the Court issues notice to the Public Prosecutor or complainant and to the accused, then examines the accused in camera, in the other party's absence, to satisfy itself that the application is voluntary.
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  1. s.290(4)(a): satisfied, the Court gives them not more than sixty days to work out a mutually satisfactory disposition, which may include compensation and expenses to the victim. The sixty-day limit is also new.
  2. s.291: the report of the disposition is signed by the presiding officer and all the parties.
  3. s.292: on a disposition, the Court awards compensation to the victim, hears the parties on the quantum of sentence, and may release the accused on probation, or sentence him to half the minimum punishment where a minimum is provided, or to one-fourth of the punishment provided or extendable where none is.
  4. s.293: the judgment is delivered in open Court and signed by the presiding officer.
  5. s.297: the judgment is final, and no appeal lies against it, except a special leave petition under Art 136 or a writ under Arts 226 and 227.
  6. s.299: statements or facts stated by the accused in his application shall not be used for any other purpose.
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(3)First Information Report (FIR)[3]

Answer

An FIR is the first information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence recorded by an officer in charge of a police station under s.173, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.154, CrPC). It sets the criminal law in motion.

How it is recorded, s.173(1). Every such information, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic communication. If given orally, it is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer, read over to the informant, and signed by him. If given by electronic communication, it is taken on record on being signed within three days by the person giving it. The substance is entered in a book kept for the purpose.

Three provisions of s.173 that are new in the BNSS:

  • Zero FIR, in the words "irrespective of the area where the offence is committed": the FIR may be registered at any police station and is then transferred to the station with jurisdiction.
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  • e-FIR, by electronic communication, signed within three days.
  • s.173(3): for a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven, the officer may, with the prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days, or proceed with investigation where a prima facie case exists.

Rights and remedies. By s.173(2) a copy must be given forthwith, free of cost, to the informant or victim. On refusal to register, the informant may go to the Superintendent of Police under s.173(4), to the Magistrate under s.175(3) by an application supported by an affidavit, or file a private complaint under s.223.

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(4)Child in need of care and protection[3]

Answer

Section 2(14), Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines a "child in need of care and protection" by a list. It means a child

  1. found without any home or settled place of abode and without any ostensible means of subsistence;
  2. found working in contravention of labour laws, or begging, or living on the street;
  3. who resides with a person (whether a guardian or not) who has injured, exploited, abused or neglected the child, or threatened to kill, injure, exploit or abuse him with a reasonable likelihood of the threat being carried out, or has killed, abused, neglected or exploited some other child with a reasonable likelihood of the same happening to this child;
  4. who is mentally ill or mentally or physically challenged or suffering from a terminal or incurable disease, with no one to support him or with parents unfit to care for him;
  5. who has a parent or guardian found unfit or incapacitated by the Committee or the Board;
  6. who does not have parents and no one is willing to care for him, or who is abandoned or surrendered;
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  1. who is missing or a run away, or whose parents cannot be found after reasonable inquiry;
  2. who has been, is being, or is likely to be abused, tortured or exploited for the purpose of sexual abuse or illegal acts;
  3. who is found vulnerable and likely to be inducted into drug abuse or trafficking;
  4. who is being or is likely to be abused for unconscionable gains;
  5. who is a victim of, or affected by, any armed conflict, civil unrest or natural calamity; or
  6. who is at imminent risk of marriage before attaining the lawful age.
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Q.3

Situational Problems

Any Two · 12 Marks

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(1)Ramesh is tried for an offence of attempt to murder Rajesh, punishable under Section 307 IPC and is acquitted.[6]

  • (a) To which court may an appeal be filed against the above order?
  • (b) Can Rajesh prefer an appeal against the said order? Cite relevant case law.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the forum, the State's route under s.419, the complainant's route under s.419(4), the victim's own right under the proviso to s.413, the case law, and the standard applied on an appeal against acquittal.

A note on the statute. The paper names s.307 IPC. Attempt to murder is now s.109 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, punishable with up to ten years and fine, and with imprisonment for life if hurt is caused. It is triable by a Court of Session, so on these facts the acquittal is by a Court of Session.

(a) The appeal lies to the High Court.

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Section 419(1)(b), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.378, CrPC): the State Government may direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court. By s.419(3), no appeal to the High Court under this section shall be entertained except with the leave of the High Court.

Two variants that must be stated because the examiner is testing whether the forum is known precisely:

  • Where the acquittal is by a Magistrate in a cognizable and non-bailable offence, the District Magistrate may direct the Public Prosecutor to appeal to the Court of Session under s.419(1)(a).
  • Where the offence was investigated by an agency under a Central Act other than the Sanhita, such as the CBI or NIA, the Central Government may direct the appeal, under s.419(2).

(b) Yes. Rajesh has his own right of appeal, and he has two possible routes.

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Route 1, the victim's right: proviso to s.413, BNSS. "The victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the Court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation, and such appeal shall lie to the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction of such Court."

Rajesh is a victim within s.2(1)(y), having suffered injury by the act of the accused. So he may appeal in his own name, without the State, and the appeal lies to the High Court, because that is where an appeal against a conviction by a Court of Session would go under s.415(2).

Route 2, special leave for a complainant: s.419(4). Where the acquittal is in a case instituted upon complaint, the complainant may apply to the High Court for special leave to appeal, and if granted may present the appeal. By s.419(5) the application must be made within six months where the complainant is a public servant and sixty days in every other case; by s.419(6), if special leave is refused, no appeal lies under s.419(1) or (2) either. This route applies only if Rajesh had filed a private complaint; on a police case, route 1 is his.

Case law.

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  • Mallikarjun Kodagali v. State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752: the leading decision on the victim's right of appeal. The Supreme Court held that the proviso to s.372 CrPC (now the proviso to s.413, BNSS) gives the victim a substantive and independent right of appeal, that it must be read purposively in favour of the victim, and that the victim need not seek leave under s.378(3) to exercise it. The Court traced the right to the long neglect of the victim in the criminal process.
  • Satya Pal Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh, (2015) 15 SCC 613: an earlier view requiring the victim to obtain leave, now to be read with Mallikarjun Kodagali.
  • Chandrappa v. State of Karnataka, (2007) 4 SCC 415, and the line from Sheo Swarup v. King Emperor, AIR 1934 PC 227(2): on an appeal against acquittal the appellate Court has full power to review, reappreciate and reconsider the evidence, and the Sanhita puts no restriction on that power; but it must give proper weight to the presumption of innocence, which is reinforced by the acquittal, and where two reasonable views are possible on the evidence, it should not disturb the acquittal merely because it prefers the other. It may reverse only where the trial Court's view is perverse or wholly unreasonable. Chandrappa states these as five general principles and is the case to name.
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(2)Mr. X is arrested for an alleged offence of rape.[6]

  • (a) Can he be released on bail? When?
  • (b) What is the nature of the offence committed by him? Cite relevant case law.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the classification of the offence with the section, the bail position with s.480 and its provisos, default bail, anticipatory bail, and the case law on the approach to bail in a sexual offence.

(b) The nature of the offence, taken first because the bail answer depends on it.

Rape is now s.63, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly s.375, IPC), punished by s.64 with rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine. Aggravated forms are in s.64(2); gang rape is s.70; rape of a woman under twelve and certain gang rapes carry life imprisonment for the remainder of natural life or death.

Its classification under the First Schedule to the BNSS:

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CognizableYes: the police may arrest without warrant, s.2(1)(g)
Non-bailableYes, s.2(1)(c): bail is a matter of the Court's discretion, not a right
Triable byCourt of Session
CompoundableNo. It is not in either table of s.359, and by s.359(9) no offence is compoundable except as provided there
Warrant-caseYes, s.2(1)(z), being punishable with more than two years

(a) Yes, he can be released on bail, but only by a Court exercising discretion, and subject to conditions.

  1. Regular bail, s.480, BNSS (formerly s.437). Because the offence is non-bailable, s.480(1) governs, and the two bars apply: bail shall not be granted by a Magistrate if there appear reasonable grounds for believing he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, or if he has the previous convictions described in clause (ii). Since s.64 extends to imprisonment for life, clause (i) is attracted on its face; the Court must look at whether reasonable grounds exist on the material.
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  • Fourth proviso to s.480(1): where the offence is punishable with death, life or seven years or more, no bail without giving the Public Prosecutor an opportunity of hearing. This applies here.
  • Third proviso: the mere fact that he may be needed for identification by witnesses or for police custody beyond the first fifteen days is not sufficient ground to refuse bail.
  • s.480(3): because the offence carries seven years or more, the Court shall impose the conditions that he attend as required, not commit a similar offence, and not tamper with the evidence or threaten witnesses.
  1. The Court of Session or High Court, s.483 (formerly s.439), has wider powers and may grant bail in any case, including one where the Magistrate is barred, and may impose or set aside conditions.
  2. Default bail, s.187(3). If the charge sheet is not filed within ninety days (the period for offences punishable with death, life, or ten years or more, and s.64 is one), he is entitled to be released on bail if he applies and furnishes bail. This is an indefeasible right while it lasts: Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616. It is lost once the charge sheet is filed.
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  1. Bail under s.479 on completing one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment as an undertrial is not available here, because s.479(1) excludes offences for which imprisonment for life is one of the punishments.
  2. Anticipatory bail, s.482, is not available now that he is arrested; and note that in offences under s.65(1) and 65(2), BNS (rape of a woman under sixteen or under twelve) anticipatory bail is expressly excluded.

Case law.

  • Sanjay Chandra v. CBI, (2012) 1 SCC 40: bail is the rule; the seriousness of the charge alone is not a ground for refusal, and detention before conviction must not be punitive. The relevant considerations are the risk of absconding, tampering with evidence and influencing witnesses.
  • Gudikanti Narasimhulu v. Public Prosecutor, AIR 1978 SC 429, and State of Rajasthan v. Balchand, AIR 1977 SC 2447: "bail, not jail", and the list of considerations.
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  • Aparna Bhat v. State of Madhya Pradesh, (2021) 16 SCC 549: a decision every student of this subject should be able to cite. The Supreme Court held that in granting bail in a sexual offence, courts must not impose conditions that trivialise the offence or suggest a compromise with the victim, such as directing the accused to visit the complainant's house, to have a rakhi tied by her, or to marry her. It laid down guidelines on the language and reasoning of such orders and directed gender sensitisation for judges and prosecutors.
  • It is also settled that an order granting or refusing bail must record reasons, though it must not contain a detailed appreciation of the evidence, because anything said at that stage would prejudice the trial.
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(3)A goes to the police station to lodge a complaint that his mobile phone has been stolen. The police officer refuses to register an FIR, saying it is a minor issue.[6]

  • (a) Is the police officer justified in refusing to register the FIR?
  • (b) What remedies are available to A under CrPC?

Answer

For full marks, cover: the classification of theft, the mandatory rule in Lalita Kumari, why "minor issue" is not a ground, the four remedies with sections, and the officer's liability.

A note on the statute. The paper asks for remedies "under CrPC". The CrPC was repealed on 1 July 2024 by s.531(1), BNSS, 2023, and this paper was set on 10 April 2026. The remedies are therefore given below on the BNSS, with the CrPC section each replaced named alongside.

(a) No. The refusal is illegal.

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Theft is a cognizable offence. It is s.303, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly ss.378 and 379, IPC), and the First Schedule to the BNSS classifies theft under s.303(2) as cognizable and non-bailable, triable by any Magistrate. Under s.2(1)(g), BNSS, that means a police officer may arrest without warrant, and under s.173(1) the information must be recorded.

One point of precision the First Schedule forces on you. The entry for s.303(2) has a second row: where the value of the stolen property is less than five thousand rupees and the accused is a first-time offender who returns the property, the offence is shown as non-cognizable and bailable, the punishment being community service. So the classification of A's case turns on what the phone was worth, and a careful answer says so. On the facts as given the value is not stated; if it is five thousand rupees or more, the offence is plainly cognizable and the analysis below applies in full. If it is less, the officer would still have to act on the information under s.174 and refer A to the Magistrate, and he still could not simply turn A away.

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Registration is mandatory. Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, (2014) 2 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench, held that registration of an FIR is mandatory under s.154 CrPC if the information discloses a cognizable offence, that the officer has no discretion to weigh the credibility or reasonableness of the information at that stage, and that a preliminary inquiry is permissible only in a narrow class of cases, which does not include theft.

"Minor issue" is not a ground known to law. The value of the property stolen affects only which Court tries the case and whether it may be tried summarily under s.283, and not whether an FIR is registered. Refusal on this ground is a plain breach of s.173(1). Satvinder Kaur v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi), (1999) 8 SCC 728, made the same point about territorial jurisdiction: it is a reason to transfer, never to refuse.

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One qualification, and it does not help this officer. By s.173(3), BNSS, a preliminary enquiry of up to fourteen days is permitted, with the prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, only where the offence is punishable with three years or more but less than seven. Theft on a first conviction carries up to three years under s.303(2), BNS, while the First Schedule shows the offence as carrying rigorous imprisonment of not less than one year extending to five years on a second or subsequent conviction, so on either reading it is arguably inside that band rather than below it. But the qualification still does not save this officer, for two reasons that do not depend on the argument: he took no DSP's permission, and s.173(3) permits an enquiry into whether a prima facie case exists, never a refusal to receive the information at all. Do not rest the answer on the band; rest it on those two points.

(b) A's remedies.

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  1. Complaint to the Superintendent of Police, s.173(4), BNSS (formerly s.154(3), CrPC). A may send the substance of the information in writing and by post to the Superintendent of Police. If satisfied that it discloses a cognizable offence, the SP shall either investigate the case himself or direct an investigation by a subordinate officer, who then has all the powers of an officer in charge of a police station.
  2. Application to the Magistrate, s.175(3), BNSS (formerly s.156(3), CrPC). A may apply to the Magistrate empowered under s.210 to order an investigation. Two requirements are new: the application must be supported by an affidavit, and must follow an application under s.173(4); and the Magistrate must make such inquiry as he thinks necessary and consider the submission of the police officer. These put into the Sanhita the directions in Priyanka Srivastava v. State of U.P., (2015) 6 SCC 287.
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  1. Private complaint to the Magistrate, s.223, BNSS (formerly s.200, CrPC). The Magistrate examines the complainant and the witnesses on oath and may take cognizance and issue process under s.227. Note the new proviso to s.223(1): no cognizance shall be taken on a complaint without giving the accused an opportunity of being heard.
  2. Writ petition under Art 226 of the Constitution for a direction to register and investigate, or a complaint to the Police Complaints Authority, the State Human Rights Commission, or the officer's superiors for departmental action, which Lalita Kumari expressly directed.

A should also note two practical rights: by s.173(2) he is entitled to a copy of the FIR forthwith and free of cost once it is registered, and by s.193(3)(ii) the police must inform him of the progress of the investigation within ninety days.

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(4)B is arrested without a warrant for theft. The police do not inform him of the grounds of arrest and detain him for more than 24 hours without producing him before a Magistrate.[6]

  • (a) Whether arrest and detention are lawful?
  • (b) What rights of B have been violated?

Answer

For full marks, cover: that the arrest may be lawful in its origin but the detention is not, the s.35(1)(b) checklist, each right violated with both the statutory and constitutional source, the consequences for the officer, and the effect on the trial.

(a) The arrest may have been lawful in its origin; the detention is plainly unlawful.

The arrest. Theft is a cognizable offence under s.303, BNS, 2023, so s.35(1), BNSS permits arrest without a warrant. But because theft under s.303(2) is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to three years, it falls in the class governed by s.35(1)(b), and there the power is conditional. The officer may arrest only if

  • (i) he has reason to believe on the complaint, information or suspicion that the person committed the offence; and
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  • (ii) he is satisfied that the arrest is necessary for one of five purposes: to prevent a further offence; for proper investigation; to prevent the disappearance or tampering of evidence; to prevent inducement, threat or promise to a witness; or because his presence in Court cannot otherwise be ensured;

and the officer shall record his reasons in writing while making the arrest. If no such reasons were recorded, the arrest itself is bad. Further, by s.35(3) the officer should ordinarily have issued a notice of appearance instead of arresting, and only arrested on non-compliance.

The detention is unlawful without more. Section 58, BNSS (formerly s.57, CrPC) provides that no police officer shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for longer than is reasonable, and in no case beyond twenty-four hours excluding the time necessary for the journey to the Magistrate's Court, without a special order of a Magistrate under s.187. Detention beyond twenty-four hours without production is therefore illegal, and it is also a breach of Art 22(2) of the Constitution.

(b) The rights violated.

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Right violatedStatuteConstitution
To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or the grounds of arrests.47(1), BNSSArt 22(1)
To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey times.58 and s.187(1), BNSSArt 22(2)
To have reasons for the arrest recorded in writing where the offence is punishable up to seven yearss.35(1)(b)Art 21
To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and the place of detention, and to be told of that right on reaching the stations.48(1) and (2)Art 21
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Right violatedStatuteConstitution
To be told, in a bailable case, of his right to bail and to arrange sureties. Theft under s.303(2) is shown in the First Schedule as non-bailable, so s.47(2) is not engaged on these facts unless the value of the property is below five thousand rupees, in which row the offence is bailable. Say which way you are taking it rather than asserting the right flatlys.47(2)Art 21
To consult and be defended by an advocate of his choice, and to meet him during interrogations.38Art 22(1)
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Right violatedStatuteConstitution
To an arresting officer bearing accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by Bs.36Art 21, Art 22(1)
To a medical examination soon after arrest, recording any injuries or marks of violence, with a copy to hims.53Art 21
To liberty, of which he has been deprived otherwise than by a procedure established by lawArt 21

The consequences.

  1. The detention is illegal and B must be released. He may move a writ of habeas corpus under Art 226 or Art 32, and the burden is on the State to justify the detention.
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  1. The officers are liable. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416, laid down eleven mandatory requirements for arrest and detention, and held that failure to comply renders the officer liable to departmental action and to punishment for contempt of court, in any High Court having territorial jurisdiction.
  2. Compensation may be awarded. In Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 4 SCC 141, and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746, the Supreme Court held that compensation is a public law remedy for a breach of Art 21 by the State, awarded in the writ jurisdiction and independent of any private law claim in tort.
  3. Wrongful confinement. An officer who detains a person knowing the detention to be unlawful may himself be liable for wrongful confinement under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, and s.198, BNS, 2023 (formerly s.166, IPC) punishes a public servant who knowingly disobeys a direction of the law with intent to cause injury, with simple imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both. (Do not confuse it with s.199, BNS, which punishes a public servant who fails to record information under s.173(1), BNSS, in the specified sexual offence and trafficking cases.)
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One thing that does not follow. An illegal arrest or detention does not by itself vitiate the trial or entitle B to an acquittal. That was settled in H. N. Rishbud v. State of Delhi, AIR 1955 SC 196, where the Supreme Court held that an illegality or irregularity in the investigation does not vitiate the trial or the resulting conviction unless it has caused prejudice to the accused and a miscarriage of justice; and in the line of cases since, holding that an irregularity in arrest goes to the officer's liability and to the weight of anything obtained, not to the Court's jurisdiction. What it does do is make the detention illegal, entitle B to release and to compensation, and make any confession obtained during that custody inadmissible under s.23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.

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Q.4

Answer any two of the following 24 Marks

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(1)What is the Juvenile Justice Board? Explain its constitution and powers.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: what the Board is, its constitution under s.4, qualifications and disqualifications, its exclusive powers under s.8, its functions, the procedure of inquiry under s.14, the orders under s.18, the preliminary assessment under s.15, and how it differs from a criminal court.

1. What it is. The Juvenile Justice Board is the authority created by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 to deal with children in conflict with law, defined by s.2(13) as a child alleged or found to have committed an offence, who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission of the offence. It is the mirror of the Child Welfare Committee, which deals with children in need of care and protection.

2. Constitution, s.4.

  • s.4(1): notwithstanding anything in the general criminal procedure, the State Government shall constitute for every district one or more Boards.
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  • s.4(2) composition: a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class, not being a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate, called the Principal Magistrate, with at least three years' experience, and two social workers, of whom at least one shall be a woman. The three form a Bench, and the Bench has the powers of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
  • s.4(3) qualification of social workers: at least seven years of active involvement in health, education or welfare activities pertaining to children, or a practising professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, sociology or law.
  • s.4(4) disqualification: any past record of violation of human or child rights; a conviction involving moral turpitude not reversed or pardoned; removal or dismissal from government service; or any history of child abuse, employment of child labour or other violation of human rights.
  • s.4(5) training: the State Government must provide induction training and sensitisation of all members, including the Principal Magistrate, within sixty days of appointment.
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  • s.4(7) removal: a member other than the Principal Magistrate may be removed after inquiry for misuse of power, absence for three consecutive months, failure to attend three-fourths of the sittings in a year, or becoming ineligible.
  • s.5: no proceeding is invalid merely by reason of a vacancy or defect in the constitution of the Board.
  • s.7: the Board shall meet at such times and observe such rules of procedure as prescribed; it must sit in a child-friendly premises, not a regular court, and not in a court building; a majority decision prevails, and where there is no majority the Principal Magistrate's opinion prevails; the Board must sit on all working days unless otherwise notified.

3. Powers, s.8.

  • s.8(1): the Board has power to deal exclusively with all proceedings under the Act relating to children in conflict with law within its jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other law.
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  • s.8(2): the same powers may be exercised by the High Court and the Children's Court when proceedings come before them under s.19 or in appeal or revision.
  • s.8(3) functions, of which the principal ones are: ensuring the informed participation of the child and the parent or guardian at every step; ensuring the child's rights are protected throughout apprehension, inquiry, aftercare and rehabilitation; ensuring legal aid through the legal services institutions; providing an interpreter or translator where needed; directing the Probation Officer or Child Welfare Officer to conduct a social investigation report; adjudicating and disposing of cases of children in conflict with law under s.18; transferring matters to the Committee where the child is found to be in need of care and protection; conducting the preliminary assessment under s.15 for heinous offences; inspecting observation homes at least once a month; ordering the release of a child where the apprehension is found unlawful; and conducting inquiry into reports of abuse of children in an observation or special home.
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4. Procedure, s.14. The inquiry is to be completed within four months from the date of first production, extendable by two months by the Board for reasons recorded in writing. For a petty offence, if the inquiry remains inconclusive after that extended period, the proceedings shall stand terminated. For a serious or heinous offence, further extension is granted by the Chief Judicial Magistrate for reasons recorded. Note that by s.14(3) the preliminary assessment in a heinous offence under s.15 must be disposed of within three months from the date of first production of the child. Read it with s.14(5), which routes each class of case: a petty offence goes by summary proceedings, clause (d); a serious offence by the summons-case procedure, clause (e); and a heinous offence by clause (f), which sends a child below sixteen back to clause (e) and a child above sixteen to the s.15 preliminary assessment.

5. Orders, s.18. Where the Board is satisfied that a child has committed a petty, serious or heinous offence, and the child is below sixteen, or is sixteen or above but the Board decides against trial as an adult, it may pass any of these orders:

  1. allow the child to go home after advice or admonition;
  2. direct the child to participate in group counselling;
  3. order the child to perform community service;
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  1. order the child or his parent to pay a fine;
  2. direct the child to be released on probation of good conduct and placed under the care of a parent, guardian or fit person on a bond, for up to three years;
  3. direct release on probation under the care of a fit facility, for up to three years;
  4. direct the child to be sent to a special home for a period of not less than three years for reformative services.

The Board may in addition, under s.18(2), order the child to attend school, a vocational training centre or a de-addiction programme.

6. Trial as an adult, ss.15 and 18(3). Where the offence is heinous under s.2(33), being one for which the minimum punishment is seven years or more, and the child has completed sixteen years, the Board conducts a preliminary assessment into his mental and physical capacity to commit the offence, his ability to understand its consequences, and the circumstances. The Explanation to s.15 says the assessment is not a trial. If the Board finds a need to try him as an adult, it may under s.18(3) transfer the trial to the Children's Court, which then decides for itself under s.19(1).

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(2)What are the various rights available to an arrested person?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the constitutional guarantees, then each statutory right with its section, the special rights of women and the vulnerable, the rights at trial, D. K. Basu and the other leading cases, and the consequence of a breach.

1. The constitutional foundation.

  • Art 20(3): no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
  • Art 21: no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law, which after Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248, must be fair, just and reasonable.
  • Art 22(1): no person arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest, nor denied the right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
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  • Art 22(2): every person arrested shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey time, and not detained beyond that without the Magistrate's authority.
  • Art 39A: the State shall provide free legal aid so that opportunities for securing justice are not denied by reason of economic or other disability.

2. The statutory rights, BNSS, 2023.

RightSection
To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or other grounds of arrests.47(1)
To be informed, in a bailable case, of the right to be released on bail and to arrange suretiess.47(2)
To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and of the place of detention, and to be told of this right on reaching the station; the information also goes to the designated police officer of the districts.48(1) to (3)
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RightSection
To have the names and addresses of persons arrested and the offence charged prominently displayed, including in digital mode, at the police station and district headquarterss.37
To no unnecessary restraint beyond what is needed to prevent escapes.46
To have the reasons for arrest recorded in writing where the offence is punishable up to seven years, and, where no arrest is made, the reasons for not arrestings.35(1)(b) and its proviso
To a notice of appearance instead of arrest where arrest is not required, and not to be arrested while complying with its.35(3) to (5)
For a person infirm or above sixty, in an offence punishable with less than three years: no arrest without the prior permission of an officer not below DSPs.35(7)
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RightSection
To consult and be defended by an advocate, and to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogations.38, s.341
To an arresting officer bearing accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by the arrested persons.36
To have his custodian take reasonable care of his health and safetys.56
To medical examination by a medical officer soon after arrest, with the record of injuries and marks of violence and their approximate time, and a copy furnished to him or his nominees.53
Where his identification by a witness is required, to have it directed and supervised by the Court, and, where the identifying person is disabled, conducted before a Magistrate and recorded by audio-video electronic meanss.54
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RightSection
To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey times.58, s.187(1)
To default bail if the charge sheet is not filed within sixty or ninety dayss.187(3)
To be released as an undertrial on completing one-half of the maximum sentence, or one-third if a first-time offender, the jail Superintendent being bound to applys.479
Not to be discharged except on bond, on bail or under a Magistrate's special orders.60
To free legal aid where he cannot engage a lawyers.341, and the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
To a fair and speedy trial, an open court, and a copy of the police report and documents within fourteen dayss.230, Art 21

3. Special rights of women.

  • Proviso to s.43(1): a woman's submission to custody on oral intimation is presumed, and a male officer shall not touch her person to effect the arrest.
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  • s.43(5): no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise save in exceptional circumstances, and then only on the prior permission of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class, obtained by a woman police officer on a written report.
  • s.49(2): a woman shall be searched only by another woman, with strict regard to decency.
  • s.53, second proviso: her medical examination shall be only by or under the supervision of a female medical officer.
  • s.480(1), first proviso: the Court may grant bail even in the barred categories where the accused is a child, a woman, or is sick or infirm.

4. The case law.

  • Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P., (1994) 4 SCC 260: no arrest merely because it is lawful to arrest; the officer must be able to justify it. Arrest brings humiliation and a lasting scar, and the arrestee has a right to have a friend or relative informed and to be told of that right.
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  • D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416: eleven mandatory requirements, including accurate, visible identification and name tags for the arresting officers, a memo of arrest attested by a witness and countersigned by the arrestee with the time and date, information to a friend or relative, an entry in the diary, an inspection memo of injuries signed by both, medical examination every forty-eight hours in custody, and copies of all documents sent to the Magistrate. Non-compliance renders the officer liable to departmental action and contempt of court. The identification of the officer and the attested, countersigned memorandum of arrest are now s.36 of the BNSS; the rest are in ss.47, 48 and 53. Saying that the judgment has become the statute is what lifts this from a list to an answer.
  • Nandini Satpathy v. P. L. Dani, (1978) 2 SCC 424: Art 20(3) protects a person from the investigation stage and not only at trial, and he is entitled to a lawyer's presence during interrogation.
  • Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, (1980) 1 SCC 98: the right to a speedy trial is part of Art 21, and free legal aid is a fundamental right for an indigent accused.
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  • Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra, (1983) 2 SCC 96: directions for the protection of women in police custody, including separate lock-ups guarded by women constables and interrogation only in the presence of a woman officer.
  • Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration, AIR 1980 SC 1535: routine handcuffing is unconstitutional.
  • Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, (2014) 8 SCC 273: for offences punishable up to seven years, a notice of appearance must be issued and the necessity of arrest recorded; a Magistrate must not authorise detention mechanically.
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  • Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI, (2022) 10 SCC 51: finding that Arnesh Kumar was still being ignored, the Supreme Court issued fresh directions binding on the police, the Magistracy and the High Courts, including that non-compliance with the notice procedure entitles the accused to bail, that States frame standing orders implementing the checklist, and that bail applications be decided within two weeks. It is the most current authority on this chapter and on what a breach of these rights actually gets the arrested person.
  • Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 4 SCC 141, and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746: compensation is a public law remedy for the violation of Art 21 by unlawful detention or custodial death.

5. Consequence of a breach. An illegal arrest or detention entitles the person to release on habeas corpus under Arts 32 and 226, to compensation, and makes the officer liable to departmental action and contempt. It also makes any confession obtained in that custody inadmissible under s.23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. But it does not by itself vitiate the trial or entitle the accused to an acquittal.

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(3)Discuss the provisions relating to disposal of property pending trial and at the conclusion of trial.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning of "property", the whole of s.497 including the four new sub-sections, s.498 at the conclusion of trial, ss.499 to 504, the attachment of proceeds of crime under ss.106 and 107, appeal, and the reason the chapter was rewritten.

1. What "property" means. The Explanation to s.497(1), BNSS, 2023 says property includes (a) property of any kind or document produced before the Court or in its custody, and (b) any property regarding which an offence appears to have been committed or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence. Section 498(5) adds that property includes not only what was originally in a party's possession, but anything into which it has been converted or exchanged, and anything acquired by that conversion or exchange.

2. Pending trial: s.497, BNSS (formerly s.451, CrPC). This section has been substantially rewritten and is where most of the marks are.

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  • s.497(1): when any property is produced before a Criminal Court or a Magistrate during any investigation, inquiry or trial, the Court may make such order as it thinks fit for the proper custody of the property pending the conclusion of the proceeding; and if the property is subject to speedy and natural decay, or if it is otherwise expedient, the Court may, after recording such evidence as it thinks necessary, order it to be sold or otherwise disposed of.
  • s.497(2), new: the Court shall, within fourteen days of the property being produced, prepare a statement of the property containing its description, in the form the State Government prescribes by rules.
  • s.497(3), new: the Court shall cause to be taken a photograph, and if necessary a videograph, on a mobile phone or other electronic media, of the property.
  • s.497(4), new: that statement and the photograph or videograph shall be used as evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding.
  • s.497(5), new: the Court shall, within thirty days after the statement and the photograph have been taken, order the disposal, destruction, confiscation or delivery of the property.
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3. Interim custody: s.503, BNSS (formerly s.457, CrPC). Where the seizure of property is reported to a Magistrate and the property is not produced before a Court during an inquiry or trial, the Magistrate may make such order as he thinks fit for the disposal of the property or its delivery to the person entitled to possession. Where that person is unknown, the Magistrate may detain the property and issue a proclamation specifying the articles, requiring any person claiming them to appear within six months.

4. At the conclusion of trial: s.498, BNSS (formerly s.452, CrPC).

  • s.498(1): when an investigation, inquiry or trial is concluded, the Court may make such order as it thinks fit for the disposal of the property, by destruction, confiscation, or delivery to any person claiming to be entitled to possession, of any property produced before it or in its custody, or regarding which an offence appears to have been committed, or which has been used in committing an offence.
  • s.498(2): delivery may be unconditional, or on condition that the person executes a bond, with or without sureties, undertaking to restore the property if the order is modified or set aside on appeal or revision.
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  • s.498(3): a Court of Session may, instead of making the order itself, direct the property to be delivered to the Chief Judicial Magistrate, who deals with it under ss.503 to 505.
  • s.498(4): except where the property is livestock or subject to speedy and natural decay, or where a bond has been taken, the order shall not be carried out for two months, or, where an appeal is presented, until the appeal is disposed of. This is the safeguard: property is not handed over while the case may still be reversed.

5. The connected provisions.

  • s.499 (formerly s.453): payment to an innocent purchaser of money found on a convicted person, where he bought stolen property without knowing it was stolen.
  • s.500 (formerly s.454): appeal against an order made under s.498 or s.499, to the Court to which appeals ordinarily lie from convictions by that Court.
  • s.501 (formerly s.455): destruction of libellous and other matter, on a conviction for defamation or obscenity.
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  • s.502 (formerly s.456): power to restore possession of immovable property to a person dispossessed by criminal force or show of force, within thirty days of the conviction.
  • s.504 (formerly s.458): procedure where no claimant appears within six months of the proclamation, when the property is at the disposal of the State Government and may be sold.
  • s.505 (formerly s.459): the power to sell perishable property, of a value under ten thousand rupees or subject to speedy and natural decay.

6. Proceeds of crime: ss.106 and 107, BNSS. These are new and should be mentioned because they change the picture. Section 106 empowers a police officer to seize any property alleged or suspected to have been stolen or found in circumstances creating suspicion of an offence, reporting the seizure to the Magistrate. Section 107 allows a police officer, with the approval of the Superintendent or Commissioner of Police, to apply to the Court for attachment of property derived from criminal activity, on which the Court issues a show cause notice of fourteen days and, if satisfied, orders attachment and distribution of the proceeds to the victims.

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(4)Write the procedure of the Sessions Trial.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the stage before the trial, then each step from s.248 to s.260 in order, the new time limits, the alternatives at each stage, and the principles behind the s.351 examination and the s.258(2) hearing on sentence.

1. Before the trial: commitment. A Court of Session cannot take cognizance of an offence as a court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a Magistrate under s.213, BNSS (formerly s.193, CrPC). Where the offence is exclusively triable by a Court of Session, the Magistrate, on cognizance, commits the case under s.232 (formerly s.209), sends the record and documents, remands the accused, and notifies the Public Prosecutor. Copies of the police report and the connected documents must have been supplied under s.230 (formerly s.207) within fourteen days, a time limit new in the BNSS.

2. The steps of the trial, Chapter XIX, ss.248 to 260.

  1. s.248: the prosecution is conducted by a Public Prosecutor. In every trial before a Court of Session, and by no one else.
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  1. s.249: opening the case for the prosecution. The prosecutor opens his case by describing the charge and stating by what evidence he proposes to prove the guilt of the accused.
  2. s.250: discharge. The accused may apply for discharge within sixty days from the date of commitment, a limit new in the BNSS. If, on consideration of the record and documents and after hearing both sides, the Judge considers that there is not sufficient ground for proceeding, he shall discharge the accused and record his reasons.
  3. s.251: framing of charge. If the Judge is of opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused committed an offence which
  • (a) is not exclusively triable by the Court of Session, he frames a charge and transfers the case to the Chief Judicial Magistrate or a JMFC, to be tried as a warrant case on a police report; or
  • (b) is exclusively triable by the Court, he frames a charge in writing within sixty days from the date of first hearing on charge. That time limit is new.
  • s.251(2): the charge is read and explained to the accused, present physically or through audio-video electronic means, and he is asked whether he pleads guilty or claims to be tried.
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  1. s.252: conviction on a plea of guilty. If he pleads guilty, the Judge records the plea and may, in his discretion, convict him on it.
  2. s.253: date for prosecution evidence. If he refuses to plead, does not plead, claims to be tried, or is not convicted on his plea, the Judge fixes a date for the examination of witnesses, and may on the prosecutor's application issue process to compel attendance of a witness or production of a document.
  3. s.254: evidence for the prosecution. The Judge takes all the evidence produced in support of the prosecution.
  • Proviso: the evidence of a witness may be recorded by audio-video electronic means.
  • s.254(2): the deposition of a public servant may be taken through audio-video electronic means.
  • s.254(3): the Judge may defer cross-examination of a witness until others have been examined, or recall a witness for further cross-examination.
  1. s.255: acquittal. If, after taking the prosecution evidence, examining the accused and hearing both sides, the Judge considers that there is no evidence that the accused committed the offence, he shall record an order of acquittal. This is the "no case to answer" stage.
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  1. s.256: entering upon the defence. Where the accused is not acquitted under s.255, he is called upon to enter on his defence and adduce evidence. Any written statement he puts in is filed with the record. He may apply for process to compel attendance, which the Judge shall issue unless satisfied that the application is made for vexation or delay or to defeat the ends of justice.
  2. s.257: arguments. When the defence evidence is complete, the prosecutor sums up his case and the accused or his advocate is entitled to reply. Where the accused raises a point of law, the prosecution may make submissions on it with the Judge's permission.
  3. s.258: judgment. After hearing arguments and points of law, the Judge gives judgment as soon as possible, within thirty days from the completion of arguments, extendable to forty-five days for reasons recorded in writing. This limit is new.
  • s.258(2): if the accused is convicted, the Judge shall, unless he proceeds under s.401 (release on probation or after admonition), hear the accused on the question of sentence and then pass sentence according to law.
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  1. s.259: previous conviction. Where the charge alleges a previous conviction and the accused does not admit it, the Judge may, after convicting him under s.252 or s.258, take evidence of the previous conviction and record a finding; that charge is not read out before he is convicted of the present offence.
  2. s.260: procedure in a case instituted under s.222(2), the special procedure for defamation of high public functionaries, where the Court of Session tries the case as a warrant case instituted otherwise than on a police report.

3. The provisions that run through the trial and must be added.

  • s.351 (formerly s.313): the examination of the accused. The Court may at any stage question him, and shall, after the prosecution evidence and before he is called on for his defence, question him generally on the case, so that he may personally explain any circumstance appearing in the evidence against him. No oath is administered, and his answers are not evidence, but they may be considered. This is a valuable right of the accused, not a formality: Nar Singh v. State of Haryana, (2015) 1 SCC 496.
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  • s.346 (formerly s.309): adjournments, which the BNSS restricts. The proceedings shall be held as expeditiously as possible, and in a trial for a sexual offence the trial shall be completed within two months from the date of filing of the charge sheet; no adjournment shall be granted at the request of a party unless the circumstances are beyond that party's control, and not more than two adjournments may be granted to any one party.
  • s.530: any trial, inquiry or proceeding, including the recording of evidence and the examination of the accused or witnesses, may be held in electronic mode.
  • s.356: a proclaimed offender who has absconded may be tried and sentenced in his absence, subject to the safeguards there.
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