Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.
This subject sits on the join between two codes, so every answer in this volume gives the section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and names the section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 that it replaced. The Sanhita received assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024, repealing the old Code by Section 531(1), but Section 531(2)(a) keeps any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation already pending on that date running under the old Code to its end, so both are still live in the courts and a question may be set on either. Where a question in these papers names an older provision, and the ATKT paper does so twice, asking for remedies under the CrPC and setting an offence under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code, the answer gives the provision now in force and names the one the paper cites. A textbook numbered on the old Code can therefore still be used with these pages, provided every section number and every time limit is checked against the new Sanhita before it is written down.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Section 2(1)(c), BNSS, 2023: a "bailable offence" means an offence which is shown as bailable in the First Schedule, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force; and "non-bailable offence" means any other offence.
Answer
Section 2(1)(o), BNSS, 2023: a "non-cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and a "non-cognizable case" means a case in which, a police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant.
By s.174, BNSS, the police may neither investigate such a case nor arrest in it without the order of a Magistrate competent to try it; the officer records the substance of the information in the prescribed book and refers the informant to the Magistrate.
Answer
Section 229(2), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.206(2), CrPC): for the purposes of that section a "petty offence" means any offence punishable only with fine not exceeding five thousand rupees, but does not include any offence so punishable under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, or under any other law which provides for convicting the accused in his absence on a plea of guilty.
By s.229(1), where a Magistrate taking cognizance of a petty offence thinks the case may be summarily disposed of, he issues a special summons allowing the accused either to appear, or to plead guilty in writing by post or messenger and remit the fine, or to authorise an advocate to plead guilty and pay on his behalf.
Answer
Under s.84(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.82, CrPC), where a Court has reason to believe that a person against whom it has issued a warrant has absconded or is concealing himself so that the warrant cannot be executed, it may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and time not less than thirty days from the date of publication.
By s.84(4), where the proclamation is in respect of a person accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment of ten years or more, imprisonment for life, or death, and he fails to appear, the Court may, after such inquiry as it thinks fit, pronounce him a proclaimed offender and make a declaration to that effect.
Answer
Discharge is the order by which a criminal Court releases an accused before the charge is framed, on finding that the material does not disclose sufficient ground to proceed against him. The provisions are:
| Trial | Section, BNSS | Test |
|---|---|---|
| Court of Session | s.250(2) | no sufficient ground for proceeding |
| Warrant case on police report | s.262(2) | the charge is groundless |
| Warrant case on complaint | s.268 | no case made out which, if unrebutted, would warrant conviction |
New in the BNSS. By s.250(1) and s.262(1) an application for discharge must be made within sixty days, from the date of commitment and from the date of supply of copies of documents respectively. The CrPC prescribed no time limit.
Answer
Section 393(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.354, CrPC): every judgment referred to in s.392
Answer
Social re-integration is the process, under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, of restoring a child who has been in conflict with law or in need of care and protection to family and community life, so that he does not remain institutionalised. It is dealt with in Chapter VII, "Rehabilitation and Social Re-integration", ss.39 to 55.
By s.39(1), the process begins during the stay of the child in a Child Care Institution and continues after; and by the same section, restoration to the family is the first and preferred option, with institutional care used only as a measure of last resort.
Answer
A "reference" is the procedure by which a subordinate Court itself sends a question of law to the High Court for decision. It is governed by s.436, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.395, CrPC).
By s.436(1), where a Court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation, or of any provision of one, and that such provision is invalid or inoperative but has not been so declared by the High Court or the Supreme Court, it shall state a case setting out its opinion and the reasons for it, and refer it to the High Court.
Answer
Section 2(35), Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: "juvenile" means a child below the age of eighteen years.
Section 2(12) of the same Act defines "child" as a person who has not completed eighteen years of age, and the Act divides children into two classes: a child in conflict with law, s.2(13), being a child alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years on the date of commission of the offence; and a child in need of care and protection, s.2(14).
Answer
Section 12, Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012: whoever commits sexual harassment upon a child shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
The offence itself is defined in s.11, and "child" means any person below eighteen years under s.2(1)(d).
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition in s.11 clause by clause, the Explanation on sexual intent, the punishment in s.12, the procedural protections, and the place of the offence in the scheme of the Act.
Definition: s.11, POCSO Act, 2012. A person is said to commit sexual harassment upon a child when such person, with sexual intent,
Explanation: any question which involves "sexual intent" shall be a question of fact.
Punishment: s.12. Imprisonment of either description up to three years, and fine.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the text of s.528, the three purposes, that the power is recognised and not conferred, the categories in Bhajan Lal, the limits, and the leading cases.
The provision: s.528, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.482, CrPC). "Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect the inherent powers of the High Court to make such orders as may be necessary
The nature of the power. The section does not confer a power; it saves and recognises a power the High Court already possesses as a court of record under Art 215 of the Constitution. That is why the section opens with "Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect". Two consequences: the power is not available to subordinate courts, and it cannot be used to do something the Sanhita expressly forbids.
When it is exercised. The commonest use is to quash an FIR, an investigation, a complaint or criminal proceedings. The exhaustive categories are in State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal, 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335, where the Supreme Court listed seven situations, of which the most examinable are:
The limits. The Court in Bhajan Lal itself warned that the power is to be exercised sparingly, with circumspection, and in the rarest of rare cases, and that the High Court must not embark upon an inquiry into the reliability or genuineness of the allegations, which is the trial court's function.
Quashing on settlement. In Gian Singh v. State of Punjab, (2012) 10 SCC 303, a three-judge Bench held that the power under s.482 is wider than, and different from, the power to compound under s.320: where the offence is predominantly civil in flavour, arising from commercial, financial, matrimonial or partnership disputes, and the parties have settled, the High Court may quash even a non-compoundable offence. But it must not do so for heinous and serious offences such as murder, rape and dacoity, or for offences under special statutes such as the Prevention of Corruption Act, because those are crimes against society and not against an individual. Narinder Singh v. State of Punjab, (2014) 6 SCC 466, laid down guidelines applying this to attempt to murder.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the four classes in s.6, the abolition of the Metropolitan Magistrate, how each court is constituted, the sentencing powers, and the executive magistracy.
The provision: s.6, BNSS, 2023. Besides the High Courts and the Courts constituted under any law other than the Sanhita, there shall be, in every State, the following classes of Criminal Courts:
The change to note. The CrPC's s.6 listed five classes, the fifth being Metropolitan Magistrates, and ran a parallel structure of Chief Metropolitan Magistrates for metropolitan areas, meaning cities with a population of a million or more. The BNSS abolishes that structure entirely. There is now one uniform magistracy across the country, and the powers formerly exercised by a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate are exercised by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
How each is constituted.
| Court | Section | Established by | Presiding officer appointed by |
|---|---|---|---|
| Court of Session, one for every sessions division | s.8 | State Government | High Court |
| Additional Sessions Judges | s.8(3) | High Court | |
| Judicial Magistrates, first and second class | s.9 | State Government after consultation with the High Court | High Court |
| Chief Judicial Magistrate, Additional CJM, Sub-divisional Judicial Magistrate | s.10 | High Court | |
| Special Judicial Magistrates | s.11 | High Court, on request of the Central or State Government | for a term not exceeding one year at a time |
| Court | Section | Established by | Presiding officer appointed by |
|---|---|---|---|
| Executive Magistrates, District Magistrate, Additional DM, Sub-divisional Magistrate | s.14 | State Government | State Government |
| Special Executive Magistrates | s.15 | State Government | for a particular area or particular functions |
s.7 provides the territorial framework: every State is a sessions division or consists of sessions divisions, every division is a district or consists of districts, and the State Government may alter their limits in consultation with the High Court.
Sentencing powers.
| Court | Section | May pass |
|---|---|---|
| High Court | s.22(1) | any sentence authorised by law |
| Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judge | s.22(2) | any sentence authorised by law, but a death sentence requires confirmation by the High Court |
| Assistant Sessions Judge | s.22(3) | any sentence except death, life, or imprisonment exceeding ten years |
| Chief Judicial Magistrate | s.23(1) | any sentence except death, life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years |
| Judicial Magistrate first class | s.23(2) | up to three years, fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both, and community service |
| Judicial Magistrate second class | s.23(3) | up to one year, fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both, and community service |
Note the numbering: s.21 is Courts by which offences are triable, s.22 is Sentences which High Courts and Sessions Judges may pass, and s.23 is Sentences which Magistrates may pass. Writing s.21 for the High Court's sentencing power is the commonest slip in this answer.
Three changes here are new: the fine limits are raised from ten thousand and five thousand rupees respectively, those being the CrPC figures as they stood after the amendment of 2005; community service appears as a sentence a Magistrate may impose; and the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate's row disappears.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the three levels of transfer power, the grounds in s.447(1), the procedure in s.447(2) to (7), the compensation for a frivolous application, and the governing principle.
The three levels. Chapter XXXIII of the BNSS gives the power of transfer to three courts:
The grounds: s.447(1). The High Court may act whenever it is made to appear:
What it may order: s.447(1)(i) to (iv). That the offence be inquired into or tried by a Court not qualified under ss.197 to 205 but otherwise competent; that a particular case or appeal, or class of them, be transferred to another Criminal Court of equal or superior jurisdiction; that a particular case be committed for trial to a Court of Session; or that a case or appeal be transferred to and tried before the High Court itself.
The procedure: s.447(2) to (7).
Answer any two situation-based questions 12 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the ladder of compulsion from summons to attachment, the sections at each rung, the general rule that trial requires presence, the exceptions in ss.355 and 356, and the safeguards in s.356(2) and (3).
(a) The procedure to compel attendance: Chapter VI, BNSS, 2023. The Sanhita provides a ladder, and the Court must climb it in order.
(b) Can the trial go on in his absence? As a rule, no. There are now two exceptions.
The general rule is that a criminal trial requires the presence of the accused, because he must be able to hear the evidence, instruct counsel and cross-examine. Section 308, BNSS (formerly s.273, CrPC) requires that, except as otherwise expressly provided, all evidence taken in the course of a trial or other proceeding shall be taken in the presence of the accused or, when his personal attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his advocate, including through audio-video electronic means at a place notified by the State Government. This applies to every trial, not only a warrant case, and it follows from Art 21 and the right to a fair trial.
Exception 1: attendance dispensed with, s.355, BNSS (formerly s.317, CrPC). Where the Judge or Magistrate is satisfied, for reasons to be recorded, that the personal attendance of the accused is not necessary in the interests of justice, or that he persistently disturbs the proceedings, he may dispense with his attendance and proceed, provided the accused is represented by an advocate. This is a dispensation the accused himself usually seeks; it is not a trial in absentia.
Exception 2: trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, s.356, BNSS. This is entirely new. Where a person declared a proclaimed offender has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him, that shall be deemed to operate as a waiver of his right to be present, and the Court shall, after recording reasons in writing, in the interest of justice, proceed with the trial as if he were present, and pronounce the judgment.
The safeguards, which must be stated or the answer is incomplete:
Applied to Nana. Nana has not been declared a proclaimed offender on these facts; he is simply an undertrial not attending. So the correct answer is: the Court must proceed up the ladder, issuing summons, then a warrant, then a proclamation, and it may attach his property. Only if he is declared a proclaimed offender under s.84(4), which requires the offence to be punishable with ten years or more, and only after the s.356(2) steps and the ninety-day wait, can the trial proceed in his absence. If the offence is a lesser one, s.356 is unavailable however long he stays away, and the case simply waits.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the Zero FIR answer with the words of s.173(1), the mandatory nature of registration under Lalita Kumari, the s.173(3) qualification, the three remedies on refusal, and the punishment for the officer.
(a) Yes. It is not merely legal, it is his right.
Section 173(1), BNSS, 2023 provides that every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic communication to an officer in charge of a police station. The words "irrespective of the area where the offence is committed" were inserted by the BNSS and did not appear in s.154, CrPC.
So Kamalnagar police station must register Suryakant's FIR even though the offence occurred within Zebranagar's limits. This is the Zero FIR: an FIR registered at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction, numbered "0" instead of with a regular serial number, and then transferred to the station having jurisdiction, which registers it afresh with its own number and investigates under ss.175 and 176.
Suryakant has a second option on these facts, and it is worth naming because it fits his difficulty exactly: s.173(1)(ii) allows the information to be given by electronic communication, taken on record on being signed within three days by the person giving it. He need not travel at all.
Two further rights: by s.173(2) a copy of the FIR must be given to him forthwith, free of cost; and the position was settled even before the BNSS in Satvinder Kaur v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi), (1999) 8 SCC 728, that a police officer cannot refuse to register an FIR on the ground of territorial jurisdiction.
(b) Yes, the police are bound to register it, with one qualification.
The rule is Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, (2014) 2 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench: registration of an FIR is mandatory if the information discloses a cognizable offence, and no preliminary inquiry is permissible in such a case. The officer has no discretion to test the truth or credibility of the information at that stage. The Court did allow a preliminary inquiry in a limited class of cases, such as matrimonial and family disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence, corruption, and cases of abnormal delay in reporting, and directed that it be completed within a stated period.
The qualification, new in the BNSS. By s.173(3), on receipt of information about a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, and considering the nature and gravity of the offence, either conduct a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days to see whether a prima facie case exists, or proceed with the investigation where one does. So for that band of offences a preliminary enquiry now has statutory sanction, but it is time-bound and requires the permission of a senior officer.
Procedure if the police refuse.
Punishment of the officer. In the specified sexual offence cases, a public servant who fails to record information relating to a cognizable offence commits an offence under s.199, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly s.166A(c), IPC), punishable with rigorous imprisonment of not less than six months, extending to two years, and fine. In Lalita Kumari the Court also directed departmental action against officers who do not register FIRs on information disclosing a cognizable offence.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the four distinct illegalities in the police action, the sections breached, the inadmissibility of the confession under the evidence law, the additional protection of s.94 and the JJ Act's own principles, and the constitutional guarantees.
(a) The police action is illegal on four separate counts.
The girl is 13, so she is a child under s.2(12) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and if suspected of theft she is a child in conflict with law under s.2(13). The Act, not the ordinary criminal procedure, governs what may be done to her.
Two more provisions complete the answer. Under s.12, a child alleged to have committed a bailable or non-bailable offence shall be released on bail with or without surety, or placed under the supervision of a probation officer or in the care of a fit person, unless release is likely to bring her into association with known criminals, expose her to moral, physical or psychological danger, or defeat the ends of justice, and the Board must record reasons for refusing. Theft by a 13-year-old is precisely the case in which bail is the norm. And where bail is refused, s.12(2) requires that she be kept only in an observation home or place of safety, never in custody.
The word used throughout the Act is "apprehended", not "arrested", and that is deliberate: it signals that what follows is a care and protection process, not a criminal arrest.
(b) The confession is not admissible.
First, on the ordinary law of evidence. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible against the maker. Under s.23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (formerly s.25, Indian Evidence Act, 1872), no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence; and under s.23(2) (formerly s.26), no confession made while in police custody shall be proved against him unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. Both bars apply here and they are absolute; they apply to adults, and a child has at least the same protection.
Second, on the manner of recording. A confession by a child must be recorded by a Magistrate and not by the police, following the procedure in s.183, BNSS, and read with the JJ Act, the child must be told she is not bound to make it and that it may be used against her, and it must be voluntary.
Third, on the JJ Act's own principles. Section 3 of the Act lists the general principles the Board and the police must follow, and three of them are breached here: the principle of presumption of innocence (a child is presumed innocent of any mala fide or criminal intent up to eighteen years), the principle of dignity and worth, and the principle of right to be heard. Section 3 also states the principle of best interest and the principle of family responsibility, which is why her parents had to be informed.
Fourth, on the Constitution.
Conclusion. The detention was illegal, the confession is inadmissible in evidence and cannot be used against her, the officers are liable to departmental action and to contempt under D. K. Basu, and the girl is entitled to be produced before the Board and released on bail under s.12 or placed in the care of her parents. If the Board finds she needs care and protection rather than an inquiry, it may refer the matter to the Child Welfare Committee.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the s.2(1)(y) definition, a list of the victim's rights with sections, the specific duty in s.397, whether it covers this victim, and the general legal duty of a doctor under Art 21 and Pandurang Kalate.
(a) Definition: s.2(1)(y), BNSS, 2023. A "victim" means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission of the accused person, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.
Mr. A has suffered bodily injury by the act of the ruffians, so he is a victim. Had he died, his legal heirs would themselves be victims within the definition.
The rights of a victim under the BNSS.
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To have his information registered at any police station, irrespective of where the offence occurred, and by electronic communication | s.173(1) |
| To a free copy of the FIR, forthwith | s.173(2) |
| To be informed of the progress of the investigation within ninety days, including by electronic communication | s.193(3)(ii) |
| To free first-aid and medical treatment at any hospital | s.397 |
| To have his statement recorded by a Magistrate, and in sexual offences by a woman Magistrate where practicable | s.183(6) |
| To be heard before the prosecution is withdrawn | s.360 |
| To engage an advocate of his choice to assist the prosecution, with the Court's permission | proviso to s.18(8) |
| To compensation ordered by the Court out of the fine or otherwise | s.395 |
| Right | Section |
|---|---|
| To compensation under the State's victim compensation scheme, even on acquittal or discharge, and even where the offender is never traced | s.396 |
| To appeal against an acquittal, a conviction for a lesser offence, or inadequate compensation | proviso to s.413 |
| To a copy of the police report and connected documents, supplied within fourteen days | s.230 |
| To the protection of a witness protection scheme framed by the State | s.398 |
(b) The hospital is under a statutory duty, and its refusal is unlawful.
Section 397, BNSS, 2023 is the direct answer: "All hospitals, public or private, whether run by the Central Government, the State Government, local bodies or any other person, shall immediately provide the first-aid or medical treatment, free of cost, to the victims of any offence covered under ss.64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 70, 71 or 124(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, or under ss.4, 6, 8 or 10 of the POCSO Act, 2012, and shall immediately inform the police of such incident."
A qualification that must be stated honestly. The offences listed in s.397 are the sexual offences and acid attack. A stabbing is grievous hurt under s.118, BNS, or attempt to murder under s.109, and is not in the s.397 list. So s.397 does not by its own terms compel this hospital.
But the hospital is still liable, on three independent grounds:
The correct course for the hospital was to give first aid at once, stabilise Mr. A, and then inform the police, which is what s.397 itself requires and what s.194, BNSS contemplates in the case of an unnatural death.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the object of the section, who may claim under s.144(1)(a) to (d), who is liable, the conditions, interim maintenance, the grounds of disentitlement in s.144(4) and (5), procedure and enforcement, and the case law including the 2024 decision.
1. The provision and its object. Section 144, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.125, CrPC) is the summary remedy for maintenance. It is not a religious or personal law provision: it applies to persons of every religion, and it exists to prevent vagrancy and destitution. As the Supreme Court put it in Bhuwan Mohan Singh v. Meena, (2015) 6 SCC 353, the object is to enable a deserted wife and helpless children to live with dignity, and the proceeding is not to be treated as an ordinary civil suit.
2. Who may claim: s.144(1). If any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain:
a Magistrate of the first class may, on proof of such neglect or refusal, order a monthly allowance at such rate as he thinks fit.
Proviso: the Magistrate may order the father of a female child under clause (b) to pay until she attains majority, if satisfied that her husband, if she is married, is not possessed of sufficient means.
Explanation to s.144(1): "wife" includes a woman who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband and has not remarried.
3. Interim maintenance. By the second proviso to s.144(1), the Magistrate may, during the pendency of the proceeding, order interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceeding; and by the third proviso, such an application shall as far as possible be disposed of within sixty days from the date of service of notice.
4. From when it is payable. Section 144(2): the allowance is payable from the date of the order, or, if so ordered, from the date of the application.
5. The four conditions. Each must be proved: (i) the person has sufficient means; (ii) he has neglected or refused to maintain; (iii) the claimant is unable to maintain herself or itself; and (iv) the relationship in clauses (a) to (d) exists. "Sufficient means" does not mean actual income: an able-bodied man is presumed capable of earning, and unemployment is no answer.
6. Disentitlement: s.144(4) and (5). No wife is entitled to maintenance or interim maintenance if she is living in adultery, or if without sufficient reason she refuses to live with her husband, or if they are living separately by mutual consent. On proof of any of these after an order is made, the Magistrate shall cancel the order. By the second proviso to s.144(3), if the husband offers to maintain her on condition of her living with him and she refuses, the Magistrate considers the grounds of refusal and may still order maintenance if he is satisfied there is just ground for the refusal. The Explanation to s.144(3) settles the commonest case: if the husband has contracted marriage with another woman or keeps a mistress, that is by itself just ground for the wife's refusal to live with him. (This is in sub-section (3), among the enforcement provisions; s.144(1) has only three provisos, for the female child, for interim maintenance and for the sixty-day disposal.)
7. Procedure and enforcement.
8. Case law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: all four definitions in s.2(1), the four types of bail, the conditions in s.478 and s.480, the new s.479, anticipatory bail under s.482, cancellation, and the governing principle with cases.
1. The definitions, all new in the BNSS. The CrPC never defined bail. The BNSS defines the whole family in s.2(1):
| Term | Section | Definition |
|---|---|---|
| Bail | s.2(1)(b) | the release of a person accused of or suspected of commission of an offence from the custody of law upon certain conditions imposed by an officer or Court on execution by such person of a bond or a bail bond |
| Bail bond | s.2(1)(d) | an undertaking for release with surety |
| Term | Section | Definition |
|---|---|---|
| Bond | s.2(1)(e) | a personal bond or an undertaking for release without surety |
| Bailable offence | s.2(1)(c) | an offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule or made bailable by any other law; non-bailable means any other offence |
The distinction between bond and bail bond is the presence of a surety, and it is the point of the definitions: a bond is the accused's own undertaking, a bail bond brings in a third person who stands behind him.
2. Types of bail. There are four, and they should be set out with their sections.
(i) Regular bail in a bailable offence, s.478. When a person not accused of a non-bailable offence is arrested or detained without warrant, or appears before a Court, and is prepared to give bail, he shall be released on bail. It is a right, and the police officer in charge may grant it.
(ii) Bail in a non-bailable offence, s.480. A discretion, not a right. Bail may be granted, but:
(iii) Default or statutory bail, s.187(3). Where the investigation is not completed and the charge sheet not filed within sixty days, or ninety days for offences punishable with death, life or ten years or more, the accused shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail. This is an indefeasible right, held to be a fundamental right flowing from Art 21 in Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616, though it is lost if the accused does not apply before the charge sheet is filed.
(iv) Anticipatory bail, s.482. Where a person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Session for a direction that in the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail. The Court may impose conditions, including that he make himself available for interrogation, that he not induce or threaten any witness, and that he not leave India without permission.
3. Bail for an undertrial who has served part of the sentence: s.479. This is the most changed provision in the chapter (formerly s.436A, CrPC).
4. Conditions that may be imposed. By s.480(3), where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, or is under Chapters VI, VII or XVII of the BNS, or is an abetment, conspiracy or attempt at such an offence, the Court shall impose the conditions that the accused attend as required by the bond, not commit a similar offence, and not tamper with evidence or threaten witnesses, and may impose such other conditions as it considers necessary in the interests of justice.
5. Cancellation. Section 483(3) empowers the High Court or Court of Session to direct that a person released on bail be arrested and committed to custody; s.480(5) empowers the Court which granted it to cancel it. The grounds are settled: misuse of liberty, tampering with evidence, threatening witnesses, absconding, or the discovery of new material. In Dolat Ram v. State of Haryana, (1995) 1 SCC 349, the Supreme Court distinguished rejection of bail from cancellation of bail already granted, holding that cancellation calls for cogent and overwhelming circumstances.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the general mode of arrest in s.43, the special rules for women, the separate route for a proclaimed offender, the full list of an arrestee's rights with sections, the constitutional guarantees, and D. K. Basu.
1. The general mode of arrest: s.43(1), BNSS, 2023. In making an arrest the police officer or other person shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to custody by word or action. If the person forcibly resists or attempts to evade, the officer may use all means necessary to effect the arrest (s.43(2)), but s.43(4) forbids causing the death of a person not accused of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life.
2. Arrest of women: four special rules.
Two related provisions are worth adding. Section 179, on the attendance of witnesses, provides that no woman (nor a male person under fifteen or above sixty, a person with a mental or physical disability, or a person with an acute illness) shall be required to attend at any place other than the place in which she resides, though the BNSS permits the police to examine her at that place. And in a rape case, the information under s.173(1) must be recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer.
3. Arrest of a proclaimed offender.
4. The rights of an arrested person.
| Right | Section, BNSS | Constitutional source |
|---|---|---|
| To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or grounds of arrest | s.47(1) | Art 22(1) |
| To be told, in a bailable case, that he is entitled to bail and may arrange sureties | s.47(2) | |
| To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and the place of detention, and to be told of this right on reaching the station | s.48(1) and (2) | Art 21 |
| To have the arrest entered in a book at the station, and the information given to the designated police officer of the district | s.48(3), s.37 |
| Right | Section, BNSS | Constitutional source |
|---|---|---|
| To no unnecessary restraint beyond what is needed to prevent escape | s.46 | Art 21 |
| To consult and be defended by an advocate, and to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation | s.38 | Art 22(1) |
| To an arresting officer who bears accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by the arrested person | s.36 | Art 21, Art 22(1) |
| Right | Section, BNSS | Constitutional source |
|---|---|---|
| To medical examination soon after arrest, by a female officer if the arrestee is female, with the record of injuries or marks of violence and a copy to the arrested person | s.53 | Art 21 |
| To have his custodian take reasonable care of his health and safety | s.56 | Art 21 |
| To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey time | s.58, s.187 | Art 22(2) |
| Not to be discharged except on bond, on bail, or under a Magistrate's special order | s.60 | |
| To free legal aid if unable to engage a lawyer | Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 | Art 39A, Art 21 |
| Right | Section, BNSS | Constitutional source |
|---|---|---|
| Not to be compelled to be a witness against himself | s.23, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 | Art 20(3) |
| For a woman: no arrest after sunset before sunrise without a Magistrate's permission; no touching by a male officer; search and medical examination by a woman | ss.43(1) proviso, 43(5), 49(2), 53 | Art 21 |
| For a person infirm or above sixty, in an offence punishable with less than three years: no arrest without the prior permission of an officer not below DSP | s.35(7) |
5. The case law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the scheme of the Act, each substantive offence with its defining section and its punishing section, the aggravating circumstances, the abetment and reporting offences, the presumptions, and the two rules on overlap and on the Act prevailing.
1. The scheme. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 applies to any person below eighteen years, defined as a "child" by s.2(1)(d), and it is gender neutral in respect of both victim and offender. It is built on a pattern that must be reproduced: a section defines each offence, and the next section punishes it. The punishments were substantially enhanced by the POCSO (Amendment) Act, 2019.
2. The offences.
(i) Penetrative sexual assault, s.3, punished by s.4. A person commits it if he penetrates his penis into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of a child or makes the child do so with him or any other person; inserts any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into any of those; manipulates any part of the body of the child so as to cause penetration; or applies his mouth to those parts of a child or makes the child do so.
(ii) Aggravated penetrative sexual assault, s.5, punished by s.6. The same act committed in any of the aggravating circumstances in s.5, of which the principal ones are: by a police officer, member of the armed forces, public servant, or the staff or management of a jail, remand home, hospital or educational institution; gang penetrative sexual assault; use of deadly weapons, fire or corrosive substance; causing grievous hurt, physical or mental incapacity, or injury to the sexual organs; causing the child to become pregnant; infecting the child with HIV or another life-threatening disease; committed on a child below twelve years; by a relative or a person in a position of trust or authority; repeatedly or persistently; or on a child with a mental or physical disability.
(iii) Sexual assault, s.7, punished by s.8. With sexual intent, touching the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child, or making the child touch those of the offender or any other person, or any other act with sexual intent involving physical contact without penetration.
(iv) Aggravated sexual assault, s.9, punished by s.10. Sexual assault in the same categories of aggravating circumstance as s.5.
(v) Sexual harassment, s.11, punished by s.12. With sexual intent: uttering a word or making a sound or gesture or exhibiting an object or part of the body intending it to be heard or seen by the child; making the child exhibit his body; showing any object for pornographic purposes; repeatedly or constantly following, watching or contacting the child, directly or electronically; threatening to use a real or fabricated depiction of the child's body or involvement in a sexual act; or enticing the child for pornographic purposes. The Explanation makes "sexual intent" a question of fact.
(vi) Use of a child for pornographic purposes, s.13, punished by s.14. Using a child in any form of media for sexual gratification, including representation of the sexual organs of a child, use of a child in real or simulated sexual acts, or the indecent or obscene representation of a child.
(vii) Storage or possession of pornographic material involving a child, s.15. Three distinct offences after the 2019 amendment: failing to delete, destroy or report such material with an intention to share or transmit it, punishable with fine of not less than five thousand rupees and, on a second offence, not less than ten thousand; transmitting, propagating, displaying or distributing it, punishable with up to three years or fine or both; and storing or possessing it for a commercial purpose, punishable with three to five years or fine or both, and more on a subsequent conviction.
(viii) Abetment, s.16, punished by s.17. Abetment is defined on the model of the general penal law, and by s.17 an abettor whose abetment results in the offence being committed is punished with the punishment provided for the offence itself.
(ix) Attempt, s.18. Punishable with up to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence, or with fine, or both.
(x) Failure to report or to record a case, s.19 read with s.21. Section 19 obliges any person who has apprehension that an offence is likely to be committed, or knowledge that one has been committed, to report it to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police. Section 21(1): failure to report or to record an offence is punishable with up to six months or fine or both. Section 21(2): a person in charge of a company or an institution who fails to report an offence by a subordinate is punishable with up to one year and fine. Section 21(3) exempts a child from liability under this section. Section 19(6) requires the police to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court within twenty-four hours.
(xi) False complaint or false information, s.22. Making a false complaint or giving false information solely with intent to humiliate, extort, threaten or defame is punishable with up to six months or fine or both; a false complaint against a child is punishable with six months to one year. Section 22(2) exempts a child from prosecution under it.
(xii) Breach of the media rules, s.23. Reporting without complete and authentic information, or disclosing the identity of the child, punishable with six months to one year, or fine, or both, with the publisher or owner jointly and severally liable.
3. The presumptions, ss.29 and 30. In a prosecution under ss.3, 5, 7 or 9, the Special Court shall presume that the accused has committed the offence unless the contrary is proved. Under s.30, the Court shall presume the existence of a culpable mental state, and the accused must prove its absence beyond reasonable doubt. Note that s.29 does not apply to ss.11, 13 or 15.
4. Two rules on overlap. Section 42: where an act constitutes an offence both under this Act and under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (or ss.67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000), the offender is liable to the punishment greater in degree. Section 42A: the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law, and in case of inconsistency the POCSO Act prevails.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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