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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9 Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS 2025-26 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 9

2025-26 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.

This subject sits on the join between two codes, so every answer in this volume gives the section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and names the section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 that it replaced. The Sanhita received assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024, repealing the old Code by Section 531(1), but Section 531(2)(a) keeps any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation already pending on that date running under the old Code to its end, so both are still live in the courts and a question may be set on either. Where a question in these papers names an older provision, and the ATKT paper does so twice, asking for remedies under the CrPC and setting an offence under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code, the answer gives the provision now in force and names the one the paper cites. A textbook numbered on the old Code can therefore still be used with these pages, provided every section number and every time limit is checked against the new Sanhita before it is written down.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.No.1

Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks

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(a)Define Bailable offence.[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(c), BNSS, 2023: a "bailable offence" means an offence which is shown as bailable in the First Schedule, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force; and "non-bailable offence" means any other offence.

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(b)What is meant by non-cognizable offence?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(o), BNSS, 2023: a "non-cognizable offence" means an offence for which, and a "non-cognizable case" means a case in which, a police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant.

By s.174, BNSS, the police may neither investigate such a case nor arrest in it without the order of a Magistrate competent to try it; the officer records the substance of the information in the prescribed book and refers the informant to the Magistrate.

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(c)Explain petty offences.[2]

Answer

Section 229(2), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.206(2), CrPC): for the purposes of that section a "petty offence" means any offence punishable only with fine not exceeding five thousand rupees, but does not include any offence so punishable under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, or under any other law which provides for convicting the accused in his absence on a plea of guilty.

By s.229(1), where a Magistrate taking cognizance of a petty offence thinks the case may be summarily disposed of, he issues a special summons allowing the accused either to appear, or to plead guilty in writing by post or messenger and remit the fine, or to authorise an advocate to plead guilty and pay on his behalf.

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(d)What is proclaimed offender?[2]

Answer

Under s.84(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.82, CrPC), where a Court has reason to believe that a person against whom it has issued a warrant has absconded or is concealing himself so that the warrant cannot be executed, it may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and time not less than thirty days from the date of publication.

By s.84(4), where the proclamation is in respect of a person accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment of ten years or more, imprisonment for life, or death, and he fails to appear, the Court may, after such inquiry as it thinks fit, pronounce him a proclaimed offender and make a declaration to that effect.

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(e)Explain discharge.[2]

Answer

Discharge is the order by which a criminal Court releases an accused before the charge is framed, on finding that the material does not disclose sufficient ground to proceed against him. The provisions are:

TrialSection, BNSSTest
Court of Sessions.250(2)no sufficient ground for proceeding
Warrant case on police reports.262(2)the charge is groundless
Warrant case on complaints.268no case made out which, if unrebutted, would warrant conviction

New in the BNSS. By s.250(1) and s.262(1) an application for discharge must be made within sixty days, from the date of commitment and from the date of supply of copies of documents respectively. The CrPC prescribed no time limit.

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(f)What shall be the language and content of judgment?[2]

Answer

Section 393(1), BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.354, CrPC): every judgment referred to in s.392

  • (a) shall be written in the language of the Court;
  • (b) shall contain the point or points for determination, the decision thereon and the reasons for the decision;
  • (c) shall specify the offence and the section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita or other law under which the accused is convicted, and the punishment to which he is sentenced;
  • (d) if it is a judgment of acquittal, shall state the offence of which the accused is acquitted and direct that he be set at liberty.
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(g)What is social re-integration?[2]

Answer

Social re-integration is the process, under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, of restoring a child who has been in conflict with law or in need of care and protection to family and community life, so that he does not remain institutionalised. It is dealt with in Chapter VII, "Rehabilitation and Social Re-integration", ss.39 to 55.

By s.39(1), the process begins during the stay of the child in a Child Care Institution and continues after; and by the same section, restoration to the family is the first and preferred option, with institutional care used only as a measure of last resort.

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(h)Explain the references under BNSS, 2023.[2]

Answer

A "reference" is the procedure by which a subordinate Court itself sends a question of law to the High Court for decision. It is governed by s.436, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.395, CrPC).

By s.436(1), where a Court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation, or of any provision of one, and that such provision is invalid or inoperative but has not been so declared by the High Court or the Supreme Court, it shall state a case setting out its opinion and the reasons for it, and refer it to the High Court.

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(i)Who is juvenile?[2]

Answer

Section 2(35), Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: "juvenile" means a child below the age of eighteen years.

Section 2(12) of the same Act defines "child" as a person who has not completed eighteen years of age, and the Act divides children into two classes: a child in conflict with law, s.2(13), being a child alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years on the date of commission of the offence; and a child in need of care and protection, s.2(14).

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(j)What is punishment prescribed for sexual harassment under POCSO?[2]

Answer

Section 12, Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012: whoever commits sexual harassment upon a child shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.

The offence itself is defined in s.11, and "child" means any person below eighteen years under s.2(1)(d).

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Q.No.2

Write short notes on any two 12 Marks

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(a)Sexual harassment under POCSO[6]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition in s.11 clause by clause, the Explanation on sexual intent, the punishment in s.12, the procedural protections, and the place of the offence in the scheme of the Act.

Definition: s.11, POCSO Act, 2012. A person is said to commit sexual harassment upon a child when such person, with sexual intent,

  1. (i) utters any word or makes any sound, or makes any gesture or exhibits any object or part of body, with the intention that such word or sound shall be heard, or such gesture or object or part of body shall be seen, by the child; or
  2. (ii) makes a child exhibit his body or any part of it so as to be seen by such person or any other person; or
  3. (iii) shows any object to a child in any form or media for pornographic purposes; or
  4. (iv) repeatedly or constantly follows or watches or contacts a child, either directly or through electronic, digital or any other means; or
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  1. (v) threatens to use, in any form of media, a real or fabricated depiction through electronic, film or digital or any other mode, of any part of the body of the child or the involvement of the child in a sexual act; or
  2. (vi) entices a child for pornographic purposes or gives gratification therefor.

Explanation: any question which involves "sexual intent" shall be a question of fact.

Punishment: s.12. Imprisonment of either description up to three years, and fine.

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(b)Inherent powers of the High Court[6]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the text of s.528, the three purposes, that the power is recognised and not conferred, the categories in Bhajan Lal, the limits, and the leading cases.

The provision: s.528, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.482, CrPC). "Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect the inherent powers of the High Court to make such orders as may be necessary

  1. to give effect to any order under this Sanhita, or
  2. to prevent abuse of the process of any Court, or
  3. otherwise to secure the ends of justice."

The nature of the power. The section does not confer a power; it saves and recognises a power the High Court already possesses as a court of record under Art 215 of the Constitution. That is why the section opens with "Nothing in this Sanhita shall be deemed to limit or affect". Two consequences: the power is not available to subordinate courts, and it cannot be used to do something the Sanhita expressly forbids.

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When it is exercised. The commonest use is to quash an FIR, an investigation, a complaint or criminal proceedings. The exhaustive categories are in State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal, 1992 Supp (1) SCC 335, where the Supreme Court listed seven situations, of which the most examinable are:

  1. where the allegations in the FIR, taken at their face value and accepted in their entirety, do not prima facie constitute any offence;
  2. where the allegations do not disclose a cognizable offence justifying investigation without a Magistrate's order;
  3. where the uncontroverted allegations and the evidence collected do not disclose the commission of any offence;
  4. where the allegations constitute only a non-cognizable offence and no Magistrate's order has been obtained;
  5. where the allegations are so absurd and inherently improbable that no prudent person could ever reach a just conclusion that there is sufficient ground to proceed;
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  1. where there is an express legal bar to the institution or continuance of the proceeding;
  2. where the proceeding is manifestly attended with mala fides or is instituted with an ulterior motive for wreaking vengeance and with a view to spite the accused.

The limits. The Court in Bhajan Lal itself warned that the power is to be exercised sparingly, with circumspection, and in the rarest of rare cases, and that the High Court must not embark upon an inquiry into the reliability or genuineness of the allegations, which is the trial court's function.

Quashing on settlement. In Gian Singh v. State of Punjab, (2012) 10 SCC 303, a three-judge Bench held that the power under s.482 is wider than, and different from, the power to compound under s.320: where the offence is predominantly civil in flavour, arising from commercial, financial, matrimonial or partnership disputes, and the parties have settled, the High Court may quash even a non-compoundable offence. But it must not do so for heinous and serious offences such as murder, rape and dacoity, or for offences under special statutes such as the Prevention of Corruption Act, because those are crimes against society and not against an individual. Narinder Singh v. State of Punjab, (2014) 6 SCC 466, laid down guidelines applying this to attempt to murder.

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(c)Classes of Criminal court[6]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the four classes in s.6, the abolition of the Metropolitan Magistrate, how each court is constituted, the sentencing powers, and the executive magistracy.

The provision: s.6, BNSS, 2023. Besides the High Courts and the Courts constituted under any law other than the Sanhita, there shall be, in every State, the following classes of Criminal Courts:

  1. Courts of Session;
  2. Judicial Magistrates of the first class;
  3. Judicial Magistrates of the second class; and
  4. Executive Magistrates.

The change to note. The CrPC's s.6 listed five classes, the fifth being Metropolitan Magistrates, and ran a parallel structure of Chief Metropolitan Magistrates for metropolitan areas, meaning cities with a population of a million or more. The BNSS abolishes that structure entirely. There is now one uniform magistracy across the country, and the powers formerly exercised by a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate are exercised by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.

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How each is constituted.

CourtSectionEstablished byPresiding officer appointed by
Court of Session, one for every sessions divisions.8State GovernmentHigh Court
Additional Sessions Judgess.8(3)High Court
Judicial Magistrates, first and second classs.9State Government after consultation with the High CourtHigh Court
Chief Judicial Magistrate, Additional CJM, Sub-divisional Judicial Magistrates.10High Court
Special Judicial Magistratess.11High Court, on request of the Central or State Governmentfor a term not exceeding one year at a time
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CourtSectionEstablished byPresiding officer appointed by
Executive Magistrates, District Magistrate, Additional DM, Sub-divisional Magistrates.14State GovernmentState Government
Special Executive Magistratess.15State Governmentfor a particular area or particular functions

s.7 provides the territorial framework: every State is a sessions division or consists of sessions divisions, every division is a district or consists of districts, and the State Government may alter their limits in consultation with the High Court.

Sentencing powers.

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CourtSectionMay pass
High Courts.22(1)any sentence authorised by law
Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judges.22(2)any sentence authorised by law, but a death sentence requires confirmation by the High Court
Assistant Sessions Judges.22(3)any sentence except death, life, or imprisonment exceeding ten years
Chief Judicial Magistrates.23(1)any sentence except death, life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years
Judicial Magistrate first classs.23(2)up to three years, fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both, and community service
Judicial Magistrate second classs.23(3)up to one year, fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both, and community service
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Note the numbering: s.21 is Courts by which offences are triable, s.22 is Sentences which High Courts and Sessions Judges may pass, and s.23 is Sentences which Magistrates may pass. Writing s.21 for the High Court's sentencing power is the commonest slip in this answer.

Three changes here are new: the fine limits are raised from ten thousand and five thousand rupees respectively, those being the CrPC figures as they stood after the amendment of 2005; community service appears as a sentence a Magistrate may impose; and the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate's row disappears.

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(d)Procedure and grounds to transfer the criminal case[6]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the three levels of transfer power, the grounds in s.447(1), the procedure in s.447(2) to (7), the compensation for a frivolous application, and the governing principle.

The three levels. Chapter XXXIII of the BNSS gives the power of transfer to three courts:

  1. Supreme Court, s.446: may transfer a case or appeal from one High Court to another, or from a Criminal Court subordinate to one High Court to another Criminal Court of equal or superior jurisdiction subordinate to another High Court, whenever it appears expedient for the ends of justice. It acts only on the application of the Attorney-General of India or a party interested, by motion supported by affidavit.
  2. High Court, s.447: transfers within the State.
  3. Sessions Judge, s.448: transfers from one Criminal Court to another within his sessions division, on the report of the lower Court, on the application of a party, or on his own initiative. By s.448(3) the procedure of s.447 applies.

The grounds: s.447(1). The High Court may act whenever it is made to appear:

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  • (a) that a fair and impartial inquiry or trial cannot be had in any Criminal Court subordinate to it; or
  • (b) that some question of law of unusual difficulty is likely to arise; or
  • (c) that an order is required by any provision of the Sanhita, or will tend to the general convenience of the parties or witnesses, or is expedient for the ends of justice.

What it may order: s.447(1)(i) to (iv). That the offence be inquired into or tried by a Court not qualified under ss.197 to 205 but otherwise competent; that a particular case or appeal, or class of them, be transferred to another Criminal Court of equal or superior jurisdiction; that a particular case be committed for trial to a Court of Session; or that a case or appeal be transferred to and tried before the High Court itself.

The procedure: s.447(2) to (7).

  • s.447(2): the High Court may act on the report of the lower Court, on the application of a party interested, or on its own initiative.
  • Proviso: no application lies to the High Court to transfer a case from one Criminal Court to another in the same sessions division unless an application has first been made to the Sessions Judge and rejected by him.
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  • s.447(3): every application shall be made by motion, supported by affidavit or affirmation, except where the applicant is the Advocate-General.
  • s.447(4): where the applicant is an accused person, the High Court may direct him to execute a bond or bail bond for payment of any compensation it may award.
  • s.447(5): an accused applicant must give the Public Prosecutor written notice with a copy of the grounds, and no order shall be made on the merits unless twenty-four hours have elapsed between the notice and the hearing.
  • s.447(6): pending disposal, the High Court may stay the proceedings below, though the stay does not affect the subordinate Court's power of remand under s.346.
  • s.447(7): if the application is dismissed as frivolous or vexatious, the High Court may order the applicant to pay compensation to the person who opposed it.
  • s.447(8): where the High Court tries the case itself, it follows the same procedure the transferring Court would have followed.
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Q.No.3

Answer any two situation-based questions 12 Marks

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(1)Nana, an under trail accused not attending the court even after charge sheet is submitted.[6]

  • (a) What is the procedure to compel Nana to attend trial? Explain.
  • (b) Whether in the absence of Nana, a trial can be conducted? Explain.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the ladder of compulsion from summons to attachment, the sections at each rung, the general rule that trial requires presence, the exceptions in ss.355 and 356, and the safeguards in s.356(2) and (3).

(a) The procedure to compel attendance: Chapter VI, BNSS, 2023. The Sanhita provides a ladder, and the Court must climb it in order.

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  1. Summons, ss.63 to 71. The first step. A summons is issued in writing in duplicate, signed and sealed by the presiding officer (s.63), and served personally by a police officer or an officer of the Court on the person summoned, who signs a receipt (s.64). New in the BNSS: by s.63(2) a summons may be served by electronic communication, and by s.64(2) service by such means shall be deemed due service. If the person cannot be found after due diligence, service may be on an adult male member of his family (s.65) or by affixing a copy to a conspicuous part of his house (s.66).
  2. Warrant of arrest, ss.72 to 83. If Nana does not appear on summons, the Court issues a warrant (s.72), which is in writing, signed and sealed and remains in force until executed or cancelled (s.72(2)). It may be a bailable warrant under s.73, directing that if he executes a bond with sureties he be released. A warrant may be directed to any police officer (s.74) or, in certain cases, to any person (s.75), and may be executed anywhere in India (s.78).
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  1. Proclamation, s.84. If the Court has reason to believe Nana has absconded or is concealing himself so that the warrant cannot be executed, it publishes a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and time not less than thirty days away. It is read publicly in his town or village, affixed to his house and to the Court house, and may be published in a daily newspaper.
  2. Declaration as a proclaimed offender, s.84(4). Where the offence is punishable with ten years or more, life or death, and he fails to appear, the Court may declare him a proclaimed offender.
  3. Attachment of property, ss.85 to 88. By s.85 the Court may, for reasons recorded in writing, order attachment of his movable or immovable property, and may do so simultaneously with the proclamation if satisfied that he is about to dispose of or remove it. Section 86 is new: the identification, attachment and forfeiture of property that is the proceeds of crime of a proclaimed person, including property outside India. Section 87 deals with claims and objections by third parties, made within six months. Then s.88 governs the outcome, and its three sub-sections must be kept apart:
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  • s.88(1): if he appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the property is released from attachment.
  • s.88(2): if he does not appear within that time, the property is at the disposal of the State Government, but it may not be sold for six months, nor until any claim under s.87 is disposed of, unless it is subject to speedy and natural decay or a sale would benefit the owner.
  • s.88(3): if, within two years from the date of the attachment, he appears or is brought before the Court and proves that he did not abscond or conceal himself and had no notice of the proclamation, the property is restored to him. The two years is the window in which he can get the property back, not the time he has before the State takes it.
  1. Forfeiture of the bond, s.491, where he was released on bond and failed to appear, and prosecution for absconding under s.262, BNS, 2023.

(b) Can the trial go on in his absence? As a rule, no. There are now two exceptions.

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The general rule is that a criminal trial requires the presence of the accused, because he must be able to hear the evidence, instruct counsel and cross-examine. Section 308, BNSS (formerly s.273, CrPC) requires that, except as otherwise expressly provided, all evidence taken in the course of a trial or other proceeding shall be taken in the presence of the accused or, when his personal attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his advocate, including through audio-video electronic means at a place notified by the State Government. This applies to every trial, not only a warrant case, and it follows from Art 21 and the right to a fair trial.

Exception 1: attendance dispensed with, s.355, BNSS (formerly s.317, CrPC). Where the Judge or Magistrate is satisfied, for reasons to be recorded, that the personal attendance of the accused is not necessary in the interests of justice, or that he persistently disturbs the proceedings, he may dispense with his attendance and proceed, provided the accused is represented by an advocate. This is a dispensation the accused himself usually seeks; it is not a trial in absentia.

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Exception 2: trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, s.356, BNSS. This is entirely new. Where a person declared a proclaimed offender has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him, that shall be deemed to operate as a waiver of his right to be present, and the Court shall, after recording reasons in writing, in the interest of justice, proceed with the trial as if he were present, and pronounce the judgment.

The safeguards, which must be stated or the answer is incomplete:

  • Proviso to s.356(1): the trial shall not commence unless ninety days have lapsed from the date of framing of the charge.
  • s.356(2): before proceeding the Court must ensure four steps: two consecutive warrants of arrest at an interval of at least thirty days; publication in a national or local daily circulating at his last known address, warning that the trial will begin in his absence if he does not appear within thirty days; informing a relative or friend; and affixing information at his house and displaying it at the police station of the district of his last known address.
  • s.356(3): where he is not represented, he shall be provided an advocate at the expense of the State.
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  • s.356(4): depositions already recorded are evidence against him, but if he is arrested or appears during the trial the Court may allow him to examine any evidence taken in his absence.
  • s.356(5): the depositions are, as far as practicable, recorded by audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone.
  • s.356(7): no appeal lies against such a judgment unless he presents himself before the appellate Court, and no appeal against conviction lies after three years from the date of judgment.

Applied to Nana. Nana has not been declared a proclaimed offender on these facts; he is simply an undertrial not attending. So the correct answer is: the Court must proceed up the ladder, issuing summons, then a warrant, then a proclamation, and it may attach his property. Only if he is declared a proclaimed offender under s.84(4), which requires the offence to be punishable with ten years or more, and only after the s.356(2) steps and the ninety-day wait, can the trial proceed in his absence. If the offence is a lesser one, s.356 is unavailable however long he stays away, and the case simply waits.

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(2)An offence was committed in Zebranagar police station jurisdiction, but still Mr. Suryakanat want to register FIR in Kamalnagar police station. As for some reason he cannot leave Kamalnagar for next one week.[6]

  • (a) Is it legal to register the FIR outside jurisdiction of the police station? Explain.
  • (b) Whether police are bound to take FIR? Discuss the procedure if police refuse to register FIR.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the Zero FIR answer with the words of s.173(1), the mandatory nature of registration under Lalita Kumari, the s.173(3) qualification, the three remedies on refusal, and the punishment for the officer.

(a) Yes. It is not merely legal, it is his right.

Section 173(1), BNSS, 2023 provides that every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic communication to an officer in charge of a police station. The words "irrespective of the area where the offence is committed" were inserted by the BNSS and did not appear in s.154, CrPC.

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So Kamalnagar police station must register Suryakant's FIR even though the offence occurred within Zebranagar's limits. This is the Zero FIR: an FIR registered at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction, numbered "0" instead of with a regular serial number, and then transferred to the station having jurisdiction, which registers it afresh with its own number and investigates under ss.175 and 176.

Suryakant has a second option on these facts, and it is worth naming because it fits his difficulty exactly: s.173(1)(ii) allows the information to be given by electronic communication, taken on record on being signed within three days by the person giving it. He need not travel at all.

Two further rights: by s.173(2) a copy of the FIR must be given to him forthwith, free of cost; and the position was settled even before the BNSS in Satvinder Kaur v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi), (1999) 8 SCC 728, that a police officer cannot refuse to register an FIR on the ground of territorial jurisdiction.

(b) Yes, the police are bound to register it, with one qualification.

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The rule is Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, (2014) 2 SCC 1, a Constitution Bench: registration of an FIR is mandatory if the information discloses a cognizable offence, and no preliminary inquiry is permissible in such a case. The officer has no discretion to test the truth or credibility of the information at that stage. The Court did allow a preliminary inquiry in a limited class of cases, such as matrimonial and family disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence, corruption, and cases of abnormal delay in reporting, and directed that it be completed within a stated period.

The qualification, new in the BNSS. By s.173(3), on receipt of information about a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, and considering the nature and gravity of the offence, either conduct a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days to see whether a prima facie case exists, or proceed with the investigation where one does. So for that band of offences a preliminary enquiry now has statutory sanction, but it is time-bound and requires the permission of a senior officer.

Procedure if the police refuse.

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  1. s.173(4), BNSS (formerly s.154(3)): send the substance of the information in writing and by post to the Superintendent of Police. If satisfied that it discloses a cognizable offence, the SP shall either investigate the case himself or direct an investigation by a subordinate officer, who then has all the powers of an officer in charge.
  2. s.175(3), BNSS (formerly s.156(3)): apply to the Magistrate empowered under s.210 to order an investigation. Two requirements are new: the application must be supported by an affidavit and must follow an application under s.173(4), and the Magistrate must make such inquiry as he thinks necessary and consider the submission of the police officer. This puts into the statute the directions in Priyanka Srivastava v. State of U.P., (2015) 6 SCC 287, given to stop frivolous s.156(3) applications.
  3. Private complaint to the Magistrate under s.223, who may examine the complainant on oath and proceed. Note the new proviso to s.223(1): no cognizance shall be taken on a complaint without giving the accused an opportunity of being heard.
  4. Writ petition under Art 226, or a complaint to the Police Complaints Authority or the State Human Rights Commission.
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Punishment of the officer. In the specified sexual offence cases, a public servant who fails to record information relating to a cognizable offence commits an offence under s.199, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly s.166A(c), IPC), punishable with rigorous imprisonment of not less than six months, extending to two years, and fine. In Lalita Kumari the Court also directed departmental action against officers who do not register FIRs on information disclosing a cognizable offence.

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(3)A 13 years old girl is detained by police for suspected theft without informing her parents or producing her before the Juvenile Justice Board. During interrogation, she allegedly confesses.[6]

  • (a) Examine whether the police action is valid under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015?
  • (b) Provide the legality of confession under the JJ Act and constitutional protections.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the four distinct illegalities in the police action, the sections breached, the inadmissibility of the confession under the evidence law, the additional protection of s.94 and the JJ Act's own principles, and the constitutional guarantees.

(a) The police action is illegal on four separate counts.

The girl is 13, so she is a child under s.2(12) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and if suspected of theft she is a child in conflict with law under s.2(13). The Act, not the ordinary criminal procedure, governs what may be done to her.

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  1. She should have been placed with the Special Juvenile Police Unit, not with the ordinary police. Section 10(1): as soon as a child alleged to be in conflict with law is apprehended, the child shall be placed under the charge of the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the designated Child Welfare Police Officer. An ordinary investigating officer has no authority to hold her.
  2. She should have been produced before the Board within twenty-four hours. The same sub-section requires production before the Juvenile Justice Board without any loss of time and in any case within twenty-four hours of apprehension, excluding journey time. Not producing her is a breach of s.10(1) and of Art 22(2) of the Constitution.
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  1. She must never be in a police lockup or jail. The proviso to s.10(1) is absolute: "in no case shall a child alleged to be in conflict with law be placed in a police lockup or lodged in a jail." If she was held at the station, that alone makes the detention illegal.
  2. Her parents should have been informed. Section 13(1) requires the officer in charge of the police station or the Special Juvenile Police Unit to inform the parent or guardian of the child and direct them to be present at the Board, and to inform the probation officer so that a social investigation report can be prepared. Under Rule 8 of the Juvenile Justice Model Rules, 2016, this is to be done immediately.

Two more provisions complete the answer. Under s.12, a child alleged to have committed a bailable or non-bailable offence shall be released on bail with or without surety, or placed under the supervision of a probation officer or in the care of a fit person, unless release is likely to bring her into association with known criminals, expose her to moral, physical or psychological danger, or defeat the ends of justice, and the Board must record reasons for refusing. Theft by a 13-year-old is precisely the case in which bail is the norm. And where bail is refused, s.12(2) requires that she be kept only in an observation home or place of safety, never in custody.

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The word used throughout the Act is "apprehended", not "arrested", and that is deliberate: it signals that what follows is a care and protection process, not a criminal arrest.

(b) The confession is not admissible.

First, on the ordinary law of evidence. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible against the maker. Under s.23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (formerly s.25, Indian Evidence Act, 1872), no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence; and under s.23(2) (formerly s.26), no confession made while in police custody shall be proved against him unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. Both bars apply here and they are absolute; they apply to adults, and a child has at least the same protection.

Second, on the manner of recording. A confession by a child must be recorded by a Magistrate and not by the police, following the procedure in s.183, BNSS, and read with the JJ Act, the child must be told she is not bound to make it and that it may be used against her, and it must be voluntary.

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Third, on the JJ Act's own principles. Section 3 of the Act lists the general principles the Board and the police must follow, and three of them are breached here: the principle of presumption of innocence (a child is presumed innocent of any mala fide or criminal intent up to eighteen years), the principle of dignity and worth, and the principle of right to be heard. Section 3 also states the principle of best interest and the principle of family responsibility, which is why her parents had to be informed.

Fourth, on the Constitution.

  • Art 20(3): no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. A confession extracted during unlawful custody, from a 13-year-old, without a parent or guardian and without any Magistrate, is the paradigm case of compulsion. In Nandini Satpathy v. P. L. Dani, (1978) 2 SCC 424, the Supreme Court held that Art 20(3) extends to the investigation stage and that the accused is entitled to the presence of a lawyer during interrogation.
  • Art 22(1): the right to be informed of the grounds and to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of one's choice.
  • Art 22(2): production before the nearest Magistrate within twenty-four hours.
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  • Art 21: the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to a fair procedure, and, under Art 39(f) and Art 45, the State's obligation to protect children.
  • D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416: the eleven mandatory requirements for any arrest and detention, including a memo of arrest attested by a witness and information to a relative, all of which were breached.

Conclusion. The detention was illegal, the confession is inadmissible in evidence and cannot be used against her, the officers are liable to departmental action and to contempt under D. K. Basu, and the girl is entitled to be produced before the Board and released on bail under s.12 or placed in the care of her parents. If the Board finds she needs care and protection rather than an inquiry, it may refer the matter to the Child Welfare Committee.

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(4)Few ruffians stabbed Mr. A and left him injured on street. Two persons with help of auto driver take him to nearest private hospital and request them to start the treatment. Hospital refused to treat as it appears as criminal case.[6]

  • (a) Define victim. What is right of victim under BNSS, 2023.
  • (b) State the liability on private hospital in this respect.

Answer

For full marks, cover: the s.2(1)(y) definition, a list of the victim's rights with sections, the specific duty in s.397, whether it covers this victim, and the general legal duty of a doctor under Art 21 and Pandurang Kalate.

(a) Definition: s.2(1)(y), BNSS, 2023. A "victim" means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission of the accused person, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.

Mr. A has suffered bodily injury by the act of the ruffians, so he is a victim. Had he died, his legal heirs would themselves be victims within the definition.

The rights of a victim under the BNSS.

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RightSection
To have his information registered at any police station, irrespective of where the offence occurred, and by electronic communications.173(1)
To a free copy of the FIR, forthwiths.173(2)
To be informed of the progress of the investigation within ninety days, including by electronic communications.193(3)(ii)
To free first-aid and medical treatment at any hospitals.397
To have his statement recorded by a Magistrate, and in sexual offences by a woman Magistrate where practicables.183(6)
To be heard before the prosecution is withdrawns.360
To engage an advocate of his choice to assist the prosecution, with the Court's permissionproviso to s.18(8)
To compensation ordered by the Court out of the fine or otherwises.395
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RightSection
To compensation under the State's victim compensation scheme, even on acquittal or discharge, and even where the offender is never traceds.396
To appeal against an acquittal, a conviction for a lesser offence, or inadequate compensationproviso to s.413
To a copy of the police report and connected documents, supplied within fourteen dayss.230
To the protection of a witness protection scheme framed by the States.398

(b) The hospital is under a statutory duty, and its refusal is unlawful.

Section 397, BNSS, 2023 is the direct answer: "All hospitals, public or private, whether run by the Central Government, the State Government, local bodies or any other person, shall immediately provide the first-aid or medical treatment, free of cost, to the victims of any offence covered under ss.64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 70, 71 or 124(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, or under ss.4, 6, 8 or 10 of the POCSO Act, 2012, and shall immediately inform the police of such incident."

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A qualification that must be stated honestly. The offences listed in s.397 are the sexual offences and acid attack. A stabbing is grievous hurt under s.118, BNS, or attempt to murder under s.109, and is not in the s.397 list. So s.397 does not by its own terms compel this hospital.

But the hospital is still liable, on three independent grounds:

  1. The professional and constitutional duty to treat an emergency. Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, (1989) 4 SCC 286, is directly on these facts: the Supreme Court held that every doctor, whether at a government hospital or otherwise, has a professional obligation to extend his services to protect life, that there is no legal impediment to a medical man attending an injured person immediately, and that medico-legal formalities cannot be a ground to delay treatment. The Court held that preservation of human life is of paramount importance under Art 21.
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  1. Article 21. In Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal, (1996) 4 SCC 37, the Supreme Court held that a failure to provide timely medical treatment to a person in need violates the right to life, and awarded compensation where a man with head injuries was turned away from a series of hospitals.
  2. The general law of negligence and professional discipline. A hospital that refuses emergency care may be liable in tort for negligence, before the consumer forum for deficiency in service, and to disciplinary action by the State Medical Council under the professional conduct regulations, which require a physician not to refuse emergency treatment.

The correct course for the hospital was to give first aid at once, stabilise Mr. A, and then inform the police, which is what s.397 itself requires and what s.194, BNSS contemplates in the case of an unnatural death.

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Q.No.4

Answer any two in detail 24 Marks

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(a)Explain the provision relating to maintenance for wives, children and parent with relevant case laws.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the object of the section, who may claim under s.144(1)(a) to (d), who is liable, the conditions, interim maintenance, the grounds of disentitlement in s.144(4) and (5), procedure and enforcement, and the case law including the 2024 decision.

1. The provision and its object. Section 144, BNSS, 2023 (formerly s.125, CrPC) is the summary remedy for maintenance. It is not a religious or personal law provision: it applies to persons of every religion, and it exists to prevent vagrancy and destitution. As the Supreme Court put it in Bhuwan Mohan Singh v. Meena, (2015) 6 SCC 353, the object is to enable a deserted wife and helpless children to live with dignity, and the proceeding is not to be treated as an ordinary civil suit.

2. Who may claim: s.144(1). If any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain:

  • (a) his wife, unable to maintain herself;
  • (b) his legitimate or illegitimate child, whether married or not, unable to maintain itself;
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  • (c) his legitimate or illegitimate child (not being a married daughter) who has attained majority, where the child is by reason of any physical or mental abnormality or injury unable to maintain itself;
  • (d) his father or mother, unable to maintain himself or herself,

a Magistrate of the first class may, on proof of such neglect or refusal, order a monthly allowance at such rate as he thinks fit.

Proviso: the Magistrate may order the father of a female child under clause (b) to pay until she attains majority, if satisfied that her husband, if she is married, is not possessed of sufficient means.

Explanation to s.144(1): "wife" includes a woman who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband and has not remarried.

3. Interim maintenance. By the second proviso to s.144(1), the Magistrate may, during the pendency of the proceeding, order interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceeding; and by the third proviso, such an application shall as far as possible be disposed of within sixty days from the date of service of notice.

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4. From when it is payable. Section 144(2): the allowance is payable from the date of the order, or, if so ordered, from the date of the application.

5. The four conditions. Each must be proved: (i) the person has sufficient means; (ii) he has neglected or refused to maintain; (iii) the claimant is unable to maintain herself or itself; and (iv) the relationship in clauses (a) to (d) exists. "Sufficient means" does not mean actual income: an able-bodied man is presumed capable of earning, and unemployment is no answer.

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6. Disentitlement: s.144(4) and (5). No wife is entitled to maintenance or interim maintenance if she is living in adultery, or if without sufficient reason she refuses to live with her husband, or if they are living separately by mutual consent. On proof of any of these after an order is made, the Magistrate shall cancel the order. By the second proviso to s.144(3), if the husband offers to maintain her on condition of her living with him and she refuses, the Magistrate considers the grounds of refusal and may still order maintenance if he is satisfied there is just ground for the refusal. The Explanation to s.144(3) settles the commonest case: if the husband has contracted marriage with another woman or keeps a mistress, that is by itself just ground for the wife's refusal to live with him. (This is in sub-section (3), among the enforcement provisions; s.144(1) has only three provisos, for the female child, for interim maintenance and for the sixty-day disposal.)

7. Procedure and enforcement.

  • s.145(1): proceedings may be taken in any district (a) where he is, (b) where he or his wife resides, (c) where he last resided with his wife or with the mother of the illegitimate child, or (d) where his father or mother resides. Clause (d) is new in the BNSS, added so that aged parents need not travel.
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  • s.145(2): evidence is taken in the presence of the person against whom the order is proposed, or his advocate, in the manner prescribed for summons cases.
  • s.144(3): on failure to comply without sufficient cause, the Magistrate may issue a warrant for levying the amount as a fine, and may sentence the defaulter to imprisonment up to one month for each month's unpaid allowance, or until payment if sooner made.
  • Proviso: no warrant shall issue unless application is made within one year from the date the amount became due.
  • s.146: alteration of the allowance on a change in circumstances, and cancellation where a divorced wife has remarried or has received the whole sum payable under any customary or personal law.

8. Case law.

  • Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945: s.125 applies to a divorced Muslim woman, and mehr paid on divorce does not discharge the husband's obligation. Parliament responded with the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986.
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  • Danial Latifi v. Union of India, (2001) 7 SCC 740: the 1986 Act was upheld but read down, so that a Muslim husband must make a reasonable and fair provision for the future of the divorced wife extending beyond the iddat period.
  • Mohd. Abdul Samad v. State of Telangana, 2024 INSC 506, decided 10 July 2024: a divorced Muslim woman may claim maintenance under s.125 CrPC (now s.144, BNSS), and the 1986 Act is in addition to and not in derogation of it. She may choose either statute, or both. The Court said maintenance is not charity but a right. This is the current law and it settles a forty-year controversy.
  • Chanmuniya v. Virendra Kumar Singh Kushwaha, (2011) 1 SCC 141: a broad and expansive interpretation of "wife" was favoured so that a woman in a long-term relationship in the nature of marriage is not left remediless, read with the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.
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  • Rajnesh v. Neha, (2021) 2 SCC 324: comprehensive guidelines, of which three must be stated: a standard Affidavit of Disclosure of Assets and Liabilities must be filed by both parties in every maintenance proceeding; maintenance is payable from the date of the application, not the date of the order; and where maintenance is claimed under more than one statute, the earlier award must be adjusted in the later, to avoid overlapping.
  • Bhuwan Mohan Singh v. Meena, (2015) 6 SCC 353: family courts must dispose of maintenance applications as expeditiously as possible, ideally within sixty days.
  • Vimala v. Veeraswamy, (1991) 2 SCC 375: where a man has married a second time, the second wife may claim, and the burden of proving that his first marriage subsists is on him.
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(b)Define Bail and Bond. Discuss types of bails. State the conditions on which bail can be given.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: all four definitions in s.2(1), the four types of bail, the conditions in s.478 and s.480, the new s.479, anticipatory bail under s.482, cancellation, and the governing principle with cases.

1. The definitions, all new in the BNSS. The CrPC never defined bail. The BNSS defines the whole family in s.2(1):

TermSectionDefinition
Bails.2(1)(b)the release of a person accused of or suspected of commission of an offence from the custody of law upon certain conditions imposed by an officer or Court on execution by such person of a bond or a bail bond
Bail bonds.2(1)(d)an undertaking for release with surety
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TermSectionDefinition
Bonds.2(1)(e)a personal bond or an undertaking for release without surety
Bailable offences.2(1)(c)an offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule or made bailable by any other law; non-bailable means any other offence

The distinction between bond and bail bond is the presence of a surety, and it is the point of the definitions: a bond is the accused's own undertaking, a bail bond brings in a third person who stands behind him.

2. Types of bail. There are four, and they should be set out with their sections.

(i) Regular bail in a bailable offence, s.478. When a person not accused of a non-bailable offence is arrested or detained without warrant, or appears before a Court, and is prepared to give bail, he shall be released on bail. It is a right, and the police officer in charge may grant it.

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  • Proviso: the officer or Court may, and shall if the person is indigent and unable to furnish surety, release him on his own bond instead of taking a bail bond.
  • Explanation: where a person is unable to give bail bond within a week of arrest, that is sufficient ground to presume he is indigent. This proviso and Explanation are new, and they are aimed squarely at the undertrial who is in jail only because he is poor.
  • s.478(2): if he has breached the conditions of an earlier bond as to time and place of attendance, the Court may refuse bail on a subsequent occasion in the same case.

(ii) Bail in a non-bailable offence, s.480. A discretion, not a right. Bail may be granted, but:

  • s.480(1)(i): not if there appear reasonable grounds for believing he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life;
  • s.480(1)(ii): not if the offence is cognizable and he has been previously convicted of an offence punishable with death, life or seven years or more, or previously convicted on two or more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven.
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  • First proviso: the Court may nonetheless grant bail to a person in clause (i) or (ii) if he is a child, a woman, or is sick or infirm.
  • Second proviso: bail may be granted in a clause (ii) case for any other special reason that is just and proper.
  • Third proviso: the mere fact that the accused may be needed for identification by witnesses, or for police custody beyond the first fifteen days, is not sufficient ground to refuse bail if he is otherwise entitled and undertakes to comply with directions.
  • Fourth proviso: where the offence is punishable with death, life or seven years or more, no bail without giving the Public Prosecutor an opportunity of hearing.

(iii) Default or statutory bail, s.187(3). Where the investigation is not completed and the charge sheet not filed within sixty days, or ninety days for offences punishable with death, life or ten years or more, the accused shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail. This is an indefeasible right, held to be a fundamental right flowing from Art 21 in Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab, (2020) 10 SCC 616, though it is lost if the accused does not apply before the charge sheet is filed.

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(iv) Anticipatory bail, s.482. Where a person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Session for a direction that in the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail. The Court may impose conditions, including that he make himself available for interrogation, that he not induce or threaten any witness, and that he not leave India without permission.

3. Bail for an undertrial who has served part of the sentence: s.479. This is the most changed provision in the chapter (formerly s.436A, CrPC).

  • s.479(1): where a person has, during investigation, inquiry or trial of an offence not punishable with death or life, undergone detention up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment for that offence, he shall be released on bail.
  • First proviso, new: a first-time offender, who has never been convicted of any offence, shall be released on bond at one-third of the maximum period.
  • Second proviso: the Court may, after hearing the Public Prosecutor and for reasons recorded in writing, order continued detention beyond one-half.
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  • Third proviso: in no case shall he be detained longer than the maximum period of imprisonment provided for the offence.
  • Explanation: the period of detention caused by delay attributable to the accused is excluded.
  • s.479(2), new and restrictive: where investigation, inquiry or trial in more than one offence or in multiple cases is pending against a person, he shall not be released on bail under this section.
  • s.479(3), new: the Superintendent of the jail shall himself apply in writing to the Court on completion of the one-half or one-third period. This puts the duty on the State rather than on a prisoner who may not know his rights.

4. Conditions that may be imposed. By s.480(3), where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, or is under Chapters VI, VII or XVII of the BNS, or is an abetment, conspiracy or attempt at such an offence, the Court shall impose the conditions that the accused attend as required by the bond, not commit a similar offence, and not tamper with evidence or threaten witnesses, and may impose such other conditions as it considers necessary in the interests of justice.

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5. Cancellation. Section 483(3) empowers the High Court or Court of Session to direct that a person released on bail be arrested and committed to custody; s.480(5) empowers the Court which granted it to cancel it. The grounds are settled: misuse of liberty, tampering with evidence, threatening witnesses, absconding, or the discovery of new material. In Dolat Ram v. State of Haryana, (1995) 1 SCC 349, the Supreme Court distinguished rejection of bail from cancellation of bail already granted, holding that cancellation calls for cogent and overwhelming circumstances.

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(c)Explain the procedure of arrest of women, proclaimed offender. Discuss the rights of the arrestee in general.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the general mode of arrest in s.43, the special rules for women, the separate route for a proclaimed offender, the full list of an arrestee's rights with sections, the constitutional guarantees, and D. K. Basu.

1. The general mode of arrest: s.43(1), BNSS, 2023. In making an arrest the police officer or other person shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to custody by word or action. If the person forcibly resists or attempts to evade, the officer may use all means necessary to effect the arrest (s.43(2)), but s.43(4) forbids causing the death of a person not accused of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life.

2. Arrest of women: four special rules.

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  • Proviso to s.43(1): where a woman is to be arrested, unless the circumstances indicate to the contrary, her submission to custody on an oral intimation of arrest shall be presumed, and unless the police officer is a female, the officer shall not touch the person of the woman to make her arrest.
  • s.43(5): save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise; where such circumstances exist, the woman police officer must, by making a written report, obtain the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose local jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made.
  • s.49(2): whenever it is necessary to search a woman, the search shall be made by another woman, with strict regard to decency.
  • s.53(1), second proviso: where the arrested person is a female, the medical examination of the body shall be made only by or under the supervision of a female medical officer, and in her absence a female registered medical practitioner.
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Two related provisions are worth adding. Section 179, on the attendance of witnesses, provides that no woman (nor a male person under fifteen or above sixty, a person with a mental or physical disability, or a person with an acute illness) shall be required to attend at any place other than the place in which she resides, though the BNSS permits the police to examine her at that place. And in a rape case, the information under s.173(1) must be recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer.

3. Arrest of a proclaimed offender.

  • s.35(1)(d): any police officer may, without a warrant and without a Magistrate's order, arrest a person who has been proclaimed an offender either under the Sanhita or by order of the State Government. No further condition applies: the checklist in s.35(1)(b) is not attracted.
  • The status arises under s.84: a proclamation under s.84(1) requiring appearance in not less than thirty days, and, where the offence is punishable with ten years or more, life or death, a declaration under s.84(4) that he is a proclaimed offender.
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  • s.85 allows attachment of his property, simultaneously with the proclamation if he is about to dispose of or remove it; by s.88(2), if he does not appear within the time specified in the proclamation, the property is at the disposal of the State Government, and by s.88(3) he may recover it if he appears within two years of the attachment and proves that he did not abscond and had no notice.
  • s.86 is new: the Court may, on a written request from a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent or Commissioner of Police, initiate the process of identification, attachment and forfeiture of property said to be proceeds of crime of the proclaimed person, including property outside India.
  • s.356: he may be tried and sentenced in his absence, subject to the ninety-day wait and the four steps in s.356(2).
  • Section 262, BNS, 2023 makes it an offence to fail to appear at the specified place and time as required by a proclamation.

4. The rights of an arrested person.

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RightSection, BNSSConstitutional source
To be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or grounds of arrests.47(1)Art 22(1)
To be told, in a bailable case, that he is entitled to bail and may arrange suretiess.47(2)
To have a relative, friend or nominated person informed of the arrest and the place of detention, and to be told of this right on reaching the stations.48(1) and (2)Art 21
To have the arrest entered in a book at the station, and the information given to the designated police officer of the districts.48(3), s.37
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RightSection, BNSSConstitutional source
To no unnecessary restraint beyond what is needed to prevent escapes.46Art 21
To consult and be defended by an advocate, and to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogations.38Art 22(1)
To an arresting officer who bears accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, and to a memorandum of arrest attested by a family member or a respectable member of the locality and countersigned by the arrested persons.36Art 21, Art 22(1)
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RightSection, BNSSConstitutional source
To medical examination soon after arrest, by a female officer if the arrestee is female, with the record of injuries or marks of violence and a copy to the arrested persons.53Art 21
To have his custodian take reasonable care of his health and safetys.56Art 21
To be produced before a Magistrate within twenty-four hours, excluding journey times.58, s.187Art 22(2)
Not to be discharged except on bond, on bail, or under a Magistrate's special orders.60
To free legal aid if unable to engage a lawyerLegal Services Authorities Act, 1987Art 39A, Art 21
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RightSection, BNSSConstitutional source
Not to be compelled to be a witness against himselfs.23, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023Art 20(3)
For a woman: no arrest after sunset before sunrise without a Magistrate's permission; no touching by a male officer; search and medical examination by a womanss.43(1) proviso, 43(5), 49(2), 53Art 21
For a person infirm or above sixty, in an offence punishable with less than three years: no arrest without the prior permission of an officer not below DSPs.35(7)

5. The case law.

  • Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P., (1994) 4 SCC 260: no arrest merely because it is lawful to arrest; the officer must justify it, and arrest brings humiliation, curtailment of freedom and a lasting scar.
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  • D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997) 1 SCC 416: eleven mandatory requirements, including accurate, visible identification of the arresting officers, a memo of arrest attested by a witness and countersigned by the arrestee, information to a friend or relative, entry in a diary, an inspection memo of injuries, medical examination every forty-eight hours in custody, and copies of all documents to the Magistrate. Breach makes the officer liable to departmental action and contempt of court. The first two of those requirements are now s.36 of the BNSS, which is the point worth making: the judgment has become the statute.
  • Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, (2014) 8 SCC 273: for offences punishable up to seven years, the police must first issue a notice of appearance, and must satisfy themselves on the statutory checklist that arrest is necessary; Magistrates must not authorise detention mechanically. Sections 35(1)(b) and 35(3) of the BNSS are this judgment written into the statute.
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  • Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI, (2022) 10 SCC 51: finding that Arnesh Kumar was still being ignored, the Supreme Court issued fresh directions binding on the police, the Magistracy and the High Courts, including that non-compliance with the notice procedure entitles the accused to bail, that States frame standing orders to implement the checklist, and that bail applications be decided within two weeks. This is the current authority on what follows from a breach.
  • Nandini Satpathy v. P. L. Dani, (1978) 2 SCC 424: Art 20(3) extends to the investigation stage, and the accused is entitled to a lawyer's presence during interrogation.
  • Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration, AIR 1980 SC 1535: routine handcuffing is unconstitutional; it requires justification recorded before a Court.
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(d)Discuss the several offences under the POCSO Act.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the scheme of the Act, each substantive offence with its defining section and its punishing section, the aggravating circumstances, the abetment and reporting offences, the presumptions, and the two rules on overlap and on the Act prevailing.

1. The scheme. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 applies to any person below eighteen years, defined as a "child" by s.2(1)(d), and it is gender neutral in respect of both victim and offender. It is built on a pattern that must be reproduced: a section defines each offence, and the next section punishes it. The punishments were substantially enhanced by the POCSO (Amendment) Act, 2019.

2. The offences.

(i) Penetrative sexual assault, s.3, punished by s.4. A person commits it if he penetrates his penis into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of a child or makes the child do so with him or any other person; inserts any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into any of those; manipulates any part of the body of the child so as to cause penetration; or applies his mouth to those parts of a child or makes the child do so.

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  • Punishment, s.4: not less than twenty years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine. Where the child is below sixteen years, not less than twenty years extendable to imprisonment for the remainder of natural life, and fine.

(ii) Aggravated penetrative sexual assault, s.5, punished by s.6. The same act committed in any of the aggravating circumstances in s.5, of which the principal ones are: by a police officer, member of the armed forces, public servant, or the staff or management of a jail, remand home, hospital or educational institution; gang penetrative sexual assault; use of deadly weapons, fire or corrosive substance; causing grievous hurt, physical or mental incapacity, or injury to the sexual organs; causing the child to become pregnant; infecting the child with HIV or another life-threatening disease; committed on a child below twelve years; by a relative or a person in a position of trust or authority; repeatedly or persistently; or on a child with a mental or physical disability.

  • Punishment, s.6: not less than twenty years, extendable to imprisonment for the remainder of the natural life of the offender, and fine, or with death. The fine must be just and reasonable and paid to the victim to meet medical expenses and rehabilitation.
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(iii) Sexual assault, s.7, punished by s.8. With sexual intent, touching the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child, or making the child touch those of the offender or any other person, or any other act with sexual intent involving physical contact without penetration.

  • Punishment, s.8: three to five years and fine.

(iv) Aggravated sexual assault, s.9, punished by s.10. Sexual assault in the same categories of aggravating circumstance as s.5.

  • Punishment, s.10: five to seven years and fine.

(v) Sexual harassment, s.11, punished by s.12. With sexual intent: uttering a word or making a sound or gesture or exhibiting an object or part of the body intending it to be heard or seen by the child; making the child exhibit his body; showing any object for pornographic purposes; repeatedly or constantly following, watching or contacting the child, directly or electronically; threatening to use a real or fabricated depiction of the child's body or involvement in a sexual act; or enticing the child for pornographic purposes. The Explanation makes "sexual intent" a question of fact.

  • Punishment, s.12: up to three years and fine.
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(vi) Use of a child for pornographic purposes, s.13, punished by s.14. Using a child in any form of media for sexual gratification, including representation of the sexual organs of a child, use of a child in real or simulated sexual acts, or the indecent or obscene representation of a child.

  • Punishment, s.14: on first conviction not less than five years; on a subsequent conviction not less than seven years and fine. Where the use is accompanied by an offence under ss.3, 5, 7 or 9, the punishment of that offence applies in addition.

(vii) Storage or possession of pornographic material involving a child, s.15. Three distinct offences after the 2019 amendment: failing to delete, destroy or report such material with an intention to share or transmit it, punishable with fine of not less than five thousand rupees and, on a second offence, not less than ten thousand; transmitting, propagating, displaying or distributing it, punishable with up to three years or fine or both; and storing or possessing it for a commercial purpose, punishable with three to five years or fine or both, and more on a subsequent conviction.

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(viii) Abetment, s.16, punished by s.17. Abetment is defined on the model of the general penal law, and by s.17 an abettor whose abetment results in the offence being committed is punished with the punishment provided for the offence itself.

(ix) Attempt, s.18. Punishable with up to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence, or with fine, or both.

(x) Failure to report or to record a case, s.19 read with s.21. Section 19 obliges any person who has apprehension that an offence is likely to be committed, or knowledge that one has been committed, to report it to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police. Section 21(1): failure to report or to record an offence is punishable with up to six months or fine or both. Section 21(2): a person in charge of a company or an institution who fails to report an offence by a subordinate is punishable with up to one year and fine. Section 21(3) exempts a child from liability under this section. Section 19(6) requires the police to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court within twenty-four hours.

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(xi) False complaint or false information, s.22. Making a false complaint or giving false information solely with intent to humiliate, extort, threaten or defame is punishable with up to six months or fine or both; a false complaint against a child is punishable with six months to one year. Section 22(2) exempts a child from prosecution under it.

(xii) Breach of the media rules, s.23. Reporting without complete and authentic information, or disclosing the identity of the child, punishable with six months to one year, or fine, or both, with the publisher or owner jointly and severally liable.

3. The presumptions, ss.29 and 30. In a prosecution under ss.3, 5, 7 or 9, the Special Court shall presume that the accused has committed the offence unless the contrary is proved. Under s.30, the Court shall presume the existence of a culpable mental state, and the accused must prove its absence beyond reasonable doubt. Note that s.29 does not apply to ss.11, 13 or 15.

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4. Two rules on overlap. Section 42: where an act constitutes an offence both under this Act and under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (or ss.67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000), the offender is liable to the punishment greater in degree. Section 42A: the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law, and in case of inconsistency the POCSO Act prevails.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 9, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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