Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Transfer of Property Act and Easement Act
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Transfer of Property Act and Easement Act
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject three amendments make that distinction matter. A contract relied on for part performance under Section 53A must, since 24 September 2001, itself be registered, so every answer here on part performance gives that requirement and its date, and a textbook printed earlier states the position wrongly. Section 106, which supplies the duration of a lease where the contract is silent, was amended with effect from 31 December 2002 so that the period of a notice to quit runs from the date the notice is received, and the older rule that the notice must expire with the end of a year or month of the tenancy no longer applies. Specific performance, which is the real remedy in most of the sale problems set here, ceased to be discretionary when the Specific Relief Act was amended in 2018. Where a question turns on Section 41 and a benami holding, the answer also states the effect of the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988 as amended in 2016, which now bars the real owner's suit in most cases. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in not more than one or two sentences, any six 12 Marks
Answer
Section 18 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882: an easement may be acquired in virtue of a local custom. Such easements are called customary easements.
The illustration given by the Act: by the custom of a village, every cultivator of village land is entitled, as such, to graze his cattle on the common pasture; A, having become the tenant of a plot of uncultivated land in the village, breaks up and cultivates it; he thereby acquires an easement to graze his cattle in accordance with the custom.
Answer
Section 9: a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law. Such a transfer is an oral transfer.
Answer
Section 3: "instrument" means a non-testamentary instrument, that is a document by which a person deals with property during his lifetime, as opposed to a will, which takes effect on death.
Answer
The Transfer of Property Act does not define moveable property. The definition is in section 3(36) of the General Clauses Act, 1897: "moveable property" shall mean property of every description, except immoveable property.
The Registration Act, 1908, section 2(9), is fuller: it includes standing timber, growing crops and grass, fruit upon and juice in trees, and property of every other description except immoveable property.
Answer
Section 52 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882: where one person grants to another, or to a definite number of other persons, a right to do, or continue to do, in or upon the immoveable property of the grantor, something which would, in the absence of such right, be unlawful, and such right does not amount to an easement or an interest in the property, the right is called a licence.
Answer
Two of the modes in Chapter V of the Indian Easements Act, 1882:
Others include release (section 38), revocation under a reserved power (section 39), expiry of the period or the happening of a dissolving condition (section 40), the end of the necessity (section 41), the easement becoming useless (section 42), and the destruction of either heritage (section 45).
Answer
Section 13 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882: where one person transfers or bequeaths immoveable property to another, or a partition is made of joint property, and an easement in other land is necessary for enjoying the subject of the transfer or the property retained, the person entitled may claim it as an easement of necessity.
The test is absolute necessity, not convenience. The standard case is the landlocked plot with no other access.
Answer
Section 92: a person who redeems a mortgage acquires, so far as regards redemption, foreclosure or sale, the same rights as the mortgagee whose mortgage he redeems had against the mortgagor or any other mortgagee. He is said to be subrogated to that mortgagee's rights.
It is available to the persons in section 91, but not to the mortgagor.
Answer
Section 3: "attested" means attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom has seen the executant sign or affix his mark, or seen another person sign in the presence and by the direction of the executant, or received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of his signature or mark; and each of whom has signed the instrument in the presence of the executant.
It is not necessary that more than one witness was present at the same time, and no particular form is necessary.
Answer
Section 52, expressing ut lite pendente nihil innovetur: during the pendency of a non-collusive suit in a competent Court in which a right to immoveable property is directly and specifically in question, the property cannot be transferred or otherwise dealt with by any party so as to affect the rights of any other party under the decree, except under the authority of the Court.
Write short notes on any two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
The maxim. Quod approbo non reprobo: a person who takes a benefit under an instrument must accept the whole of it, and cannot approbate and reprobate.
Section 35. Where a person professes to transfer property which he has no right to transfer, and as part of the same transaction confers a benefit on the owner of that property, the owner must elect either to confirm the transfer or to dissent from it; if he dissents he must relinquish the benefit, which then reverts to the transferor or his representative.
Three conditions
The charge on dissent. Where the transfer is for consideration, or is gratuitous and the transferor has died or become incapable before the election, the reverting benefit is charged with making good to the disappointed transferee the value of the property attempted to be transferred.
Modes and presumptions. Acceptance of the benefit with knowledge of the duty to elect is an election to confirm. Knowledge or waiver is presumed after two years' enjoyment without dissent, and is inferred from any act making restoration impossible. If the owner does not signify his intention within one year, he may be required to elect and, failing compliance within a reasonable time, is deemed to confirm. A disability postpones the election.
The exception. Where a particular benefit is expressed to be conferred in lieu of the property, the owner who claims the property must relinquish that benefit only, and not other benefits under the same transaction.
The illustrations. The farm of Sultanpur, worth Rs. 800, is C's; A by an instrument of gift professes to transfer it to B and by the same instrument gives Rs. 1,000 to C. C keeps the farm and forfeits the Rs. 1,000; and if A dies before the election, his representative pays Rs. 800 out of the Rs. 1,000 to B. The implied election illustration: C, given a coal-mine, takes possession and exhausts it, and has thereby confirmed the transfer.
Answer
Section 53 deals with two frauds in two sub-sections.
Sub-section (1), transfer to defeat or delay creditors. Every transfer of immoveable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is voidable at the option of any creditor so defeated or delayed.
Three provisos:
Sub-section (2), transfer to defraud a subsequent transferee. Every transfer of immoveable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is voidable at the option of that transferee. No transfer made without consideration is deemed to have been made with such intent by reason only that a subsequent transfer for consideration was made.
Key propositions
Answer
Section 19. Where, on a transfer of property, an interest is created in favour of a person
the interest is vested, unless a contrary intention appears from the terms of the transfer.
A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession, and it passes to his heirs.
The Explanation, which decides most problems: an intention that an interest shall not be vested is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby enjoyment is postponed, or whereby a prior interest in the same property is given to another person, or whereby income is directed to be accumulated until the time of enjoyment arrives, or from a provision that if a particular event happens the interest shall pass to another person.
Characteristics
Vested and contingent interests compared
| Vested interest, section 19 | Contingent interest, section 21 | |
|---|---|---|
| The event | Certain, or none at all | Uncertain |
| Nature of the right | Present right, enjoyment may be postponed | Right depends on the contingency happening |
| Death of the holder before vesting or possession | Passes to his heirs | Fails, unless the contingency happens in his lifetime |
| Transferable | Yes | Yes, but subject to the contingency |
| Section 20 | Unborn person acquires a vested interest on birth | Not applicable |
Section 20: where, on a transfer, an interest is created for the benefit of a person not then living, he acquires, upon his birth, a vested interest, though he may not be entitled to enjoyment immediately.
Answer
Section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882 provides for acquisition by prescription, that is by long enjoyment.
What may be acquired. Where access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed as an easement, and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years; and where a right of way or any other easement has been peaceably and openly enjoyed by any person claiming title thereto as an easement and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years; and where a right to the support of one's building from another's land or building has been so enjoyed; the right is absolute.
The conditions
Section 16, exclusion in favour of the reversioner. Where the servient heritage was, during the period, held under a lease or a life interest, that period may be excluded in computing prescription against the reversioner, if he resists the claim within three years of the determination of that interest.
Section 17, rights which cannot be acquired by prescription. An easement that would tend to the total destruction of the servient heritage or of the property of which it is part; a right to the free passage of light or air to an open space; a right to surface water not flowing in a stream and not permanently collected in a pool or tank; a right to underground water not passing in a defined channel.
Answer any two of the following situational problems with reasons 12 Marks
Answer
Yes, the gift is valid, provided the formalities of section 123 have been observed. The pending government dues do not make it invalid; they make Shankar liable.
The conditions of a valid gift, section 122: a transfer of certain existing moveable or immoveable property, made voluntarily and without consideration, by a donor to a donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor and while he is still capable of giving. Nothing in the facts offends any of these: the property is existing, the transfer is voluntary and gratuitous.
Formalities, section 123. For the immoveable property, a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses. For the moveable property, either such an instrument or delivery. Possession need not be given: registration completes a gift of land.
Does an existing liability invalidate it? No. A donor may give away property that is subject to dues, a mortgage or a charge. The donee simply takes it as it stands, subject to what is already attached to it.
Two qualifications must be stated, because the examiner has put "government dues" into the facts on purpose:
Shankar is a UNIVERSAL DONEE, because the gift is of Atul's whole property, moveable and immoveable. Section 128 therefore applies.
Responsibilities
Rights
Answer
A usufructuary mortgage, under section 58(d).
The section covers a mortgage where the mortgagor delivers possession, or expressly or by implication binds himself to deliver possession, of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain possession until payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property, or any part of them, and to appropriate them in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, or partly in one and partly in the other.
Both marks are present on these facts: possession passes to Raj, and Raj is to recover from the rents.
Its distinguishing features, which are what an examiner wants:
Formalities. The mortgage-money being Rs. 100 or more, section 59 requires a registered instrument signed by Shree and attested by at least two witnesses.
Raj's duties while in possession, section 76. He must manage the property as a person of ordinary prudence would manage his own; pay government dues out of the income; make necessary repairs; not commit any act destructive or permanently injurious; apply the receipts first to interest and then to principal as the deed directs; and keep clear, full and accurate accounts, which Shree may inspect. If he fails, he may be made to account for what he might have received but for his default.
Shree's right is the right of redemption, and in this kind of mortgage it has a special form in section 62.
Section 62, right of a usufructuary mortgagor to recover possession. In the case of a usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagor has a right to recover possession of the property, together with the mortgage-deed and all documents relating to it in the mortgagee's possession or power:
Section 60, the general right to redeem, applies as well: on payment or tender at a proper time and place Shree may require Raj (i) to deliver up the mortgage-deed and documents, (ii) to deliver possession, and (iii) at Shree's cost, to re-transfer the property or execute an acknowledgement in writing that the mortgagee's right is extinguished.
Two further rights. Under section 60A Shree may require Raj to assign the debt and transfer the property to a nominee of Shree instead of re-conveying. Under section 60B he may inspect and take copies of the title documents while the right to redeem subsists.
And the protection that matters. By the proviso to section 60 the right to redeem is extinguished only by the act of the parties or by a decree of a Court. Any term of this mortgage that would keep Shree out permanently, or hand the property to Raj on default, is void as a clog on the equity of redemption: "once a mortgage, always a mortgage".
Answer
Yes, it is a valid exchange, provided the formalities are observed.
Section 118: when two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only, the transaction is called an exchange.
Every element is present. Two persons, Rishi and Vijay. A mutual transfer of ownership: each gives his flat and takes the other's. Neither thing is money, so it is not a sale. The flats are immoveable property, and it is immaterial that they are in the same building or of different values; the Act nowhere requires the things exchanged to be of equal value, and a difference may be made up in cash without turning the transaction into a sale, because one side is still not money only.
The formalities are the real issue, and this is where the marks are. By the second limb of section 118, a transfer of property in completion of an exchange can be made only in the manner provided for the transfer of such property by sale. So, applying section 54, a flat being tangible immoveable property worth Rs. 100 or more, the exchange must be effected by a registered instrument. An oral exchange of flats, or a mere agreement to exchange, transfers nothing: an agreement to exchange stands in the same position as a contract for sale, and creates no interest in the property.
Two practical conditions on these facts. Each must be competent to transfer under section 7 and must actually own what he purports to give: a person who is only a tenant or a licensee of a flat has nothing to exchange. And if Sky Apartments is a co-operative housing society, the transfer of the flats will also require compliance with the society's bye-laws and the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960, since what the member holds includes shares in the society. Non-compliance is a matter between the members and the society; it does not make the exchange a nullity under this Act.
The governing section is 120. Save as otherwise provided in the chapter, each party has the rights and is subject to the liabilities of a seller as to that which he gives, and the rights and liabilities of a buyer as to that which he takes. So Rishi has two sets of rights at once.
As SELLER of his first floor flat, Rishi is entitled to:
As BUYER of the tenth floor flat, Rishi is entitled to:
The special right in an exchange, section 119. If Rishi, or anyone claiming through him, is deprived of the tenth floor flat, or any part of it, by reason of a defect in Vijay's title, then, unless a contrary intention appears from the terms of the exchange, Rishi is at his option entitled either to
That option is the distinctive remedy of the exchange chapter, and it is what a party to an exchange has that a buyer under a sale does not.
Answer
Read the disposition first. Kiran has created three successive interests: to A (the eldest) and after his life to B, and then to the unborn child of C. A and B are living persons; C's child is not yet born.
The interests of A and B are valid. Both are living persons at the date of the transfer, both take limited interests, and by section 19 with its Explanation their interests are vested, even though B's enjoyment is postponed until A's death. Nothing in sections 13 or 14 touches a transfer to a living person.
The interest of C's unborn child is valid only if two conditions are satisfied.
Condition one, section 13. An interest may be created for the benefit of a person not in existence at the date of the transfer only subject to a prior interest created by the same transfer, and it does not take effect unless it extends to the whole of the remaining interest of the transferor in the property. Here the prior interests in A and B satisfy the first requirement. The second requires that the unborn child take absolutely. If the deed gives him only a life interest, or an interest without the power of alienation, the transfer to him fails altogether, and a life interest cannot be created in favour of an unborn person.
Condition two, section 14. The interest must vest not later than the lifetime of persons living at the date of the transfer plus the minority of the ultimate beneficiary. Here the lives in being are A and B, and the ultimate beneficiary is C's child. The interest is to vest on the death of the survivor of A and B, which is within the period. So section 14 is satisfied, provided the child is in existence (or in the womb) at that time and takes not later than his minority.
Conclusion. The transfer is valid if the unborn child of C is given the whole of the remaining interest and is in existence when B's interest ends. It is invalid as to the child if he is given anything less than the whole remaining interest, and it fails if no child of C is then in existence, in which case the property reverts to Kiran or her estate on the death of the survivor of A and B. By section 30, the failure of the ulterior disposition does not affect the prior interests of A and B, which stand.
One further point peculiar to a gift. This is a gift, so section 122 requires acceptance by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor, and an unborn person cannot accept. In practice a gift for the benefit of an unborn person is made through a trust, the trustees accepting and holding for him; and by section 20 the unborn person acquires a vested interest upon his birth, though not the right to immediate enjoyment. The gift must also satisfy section 123: a registered instrument, signed by Kiran and attested by two witnesses.
The Act's illustration to section 13 shows rule 3 at work: a transfer to B in trust for A and his intended wife successively for their lives, and after the survivor's death to the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death to A's second son. The eldest son's interest does not take effect, because it is only a life interest.
Answer any two of the following in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: section 105 with the four defined terms, the essentials, sections 106 and 107, the lessor's and lessee's rights and liabilities from section 108 with clause letters, section 111, and the lease against licence contrast.
Definition, section 105. A lease of immoveable property is a transfer of a right to enjoy such property, made for a certain time, express or implied, or in perpetuity, in consideration of a price paid or promised, or of money, a share of crops, service or any other thing of value, to be rendered periodically or on specified occasions to the transferor by the transferee, who accepts the transfer on those terms.
The transferor is the lessor, the transferee the lessee, the price the premium, and the money, share, service or other thing to be so rendered the rent.
Essentials
Section 107, how made. A lease from year to year, for a term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent can be made only by a registered instrument executed by both parties. All other leases may be made by registered instrument or by oral agreement with delivery of possession.
Section 106, duration where the contract is silent. A lease for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be from year to year, terminable by six months' notice; any other lease is month to month, terminable by fifteen days' notice. Since the 2002 amendment the period runs from the receipt of the notice, a short notice is saved where the suit is filed after the period expires, and the notice must be in writing, signed and served as sub-section (4) provides.
LESSOR: liabilities, section 108(a) to (c)
LESSOR: rights
LESSEE: rights, section 108(d) to (j)
LESSEE: liabilities, section 108(k) to (q)
Section 111, determination: efflux of time; happening of a specified event; termination of the lessor's interest; merger; express surrender; implied surrender; forfeiture; and expiry of a notice to quit. Sections 112 and 113 deal with waiver, section 114 with relief against forfeiture for non-payment of rent, section 114A with notice before forfeiture for other breaches, and section 116 with holding over.
Lease and licence
| Lease | Licence | |
|---|---|---|
| Creates | An interest in property | A bare permission, section 52 Easements Act |
| Possession | Exclusive to the lessee | Legal possession stays with the grantor |
| Transferable, heritable | Yes, clause (j) | No, sections 56 and 62 |
| Binds a purchaser | Yes, section 109 | No, section 59 |
The test is exclusive possession and the parties' intention, not the label: Associated Hotels of India v. R. N. Kapoor (AIR 1959 SC 1262).
Answer
For full marks, cover: section 25 and what makes a condition bad, conditions precedent and subsequent with sections 26 and 29, the different consequence of a void condition under sections 25 and 32, sections 27, 28, 30, 31, 33 and 34, and the neighbouring restraints in sections 10, 11 and 12.
What a conditional transfer is. A transfer is conditional when the interest created is made to depend on the happening or not happening of an event. The Act deals with such transfers in sections 25 to 34, and the scheme is: first ask whether the condition is lawful (section 25), then whether it is a condition precedent or subsequent, and then apply the rules of compliance and of failure that go with each.
Section 25, conditional transfer. An interest created on a transfer of property and dependent upon a condition fails if the fulfilment of the condition is:
The Act's illustrations: a transfer to B on condition that he shall murder C is void; a transfer to B on condition that he shall leave India within three months is void as unlawful under the general law of the time. A condition in general restraint of marriage is void as opposed to public policy, though a condition against a particular marriage, or against remarriage of a widow, has been upheld.
Condition precedent and condition subsequent
| Condition precedent | Condition subsequent | |
|---|---|---|
| When it operates | Before the interest vests | After it has vested, to divest it |
| Governing section | 26 | 29 |
| Standard of compliance | Substantial compliance suffices | Strict compliance required |
| Condition precedent | Condition subsequent | |
|---|---|---|
| If the condition is void | The transfer fails with it, section 25 | The condition is ignored and the transfer becomes absolute, section 32 |
| Example | "To B if he marries with the consent of C, D and E" | "To B, but if B does not take up residence within three years, then to C" |
Section 26, fulfilment of a condition precedent. Where the terms of a transfer impose a condition to be fulfilled before a person can take an interest, the condition shall be deemed to have been fulfilled if it has been substantially complied with. Illustration (a): the consent of C, D and E is required; E dies; B marries with the consent of C and D; the condition is fulfilled. Illustration (b): B marries without their consent and obtains it afterwards; the condition is not fulfilled.
Section 29, fulfilment of a condition subsequent. An ulterior disposition of the kind contemplated by section 28 cannot take effect unless the condition is strictly fulfilled. Illustration: a transfer to A with a provision that if he does not go to England within three years the interest shall pass to B; A does not go within three years; the transfer to B takes effect.
The rest of the group
The neighbouring restraints, which are not the same thing
Answer
For full marks, cover: who may impose and who may acquire (sections 8 to 12), then each mode in turn, grant express and implied, necessity and quasi easement under section 13 with section 14, prescription under section 15 with sections 16 and 17, and custom under section 18, with a table at the end.
First, the two capacity sections.
Section 8, who may impose. An easement may be imposed by any one in the circumstances, and to the extent, in and to which he may transfer his interest in the heritage on which the liability is to be imposed. A lessee with a transferable term may impose one for the term or less; a life tenant cannot, without the remainderman's consent, impose one that outlasts his interest; one co-owner cannot impose one without the others' consent. Section 9 allows a servient owner to impose further easements not lessening the utility of an existing one; section 10 allows a lessor or mortgagor to impose easements that do not derogate from the lessee's rights or render the security insufficient; section 11 forbids a lessee or other derivative holder to impose an easement to the prejudice of another's interest.
Section 12, who may acquire. An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immoveable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or on his behalf by any person in possession of it. A lessee of immoveable property cannot acquire, for the property leased, an easement over other property of his lessor. Two or more co-owners may acquire one for their joint benefit.
THE MODES OF ACQUISITION
1. By express grant. The servient owner may grant the easement by an instrument. Where the servient heritage is immoveable property of the value of Rs. 100 or more, the grant must be in writing and registered, since an easement is an interest in immoveable property. The grant may be for a limited period or subject to a condition, by section 6.
2. By implied grant or reservation. The law implies an easement where the circumstances show that the parties must have intended it. The main instances are the easement of necessity and the quasi easement in section 13, but an implied grant also arises where a person grants land describing it in a way that presupposes a right, or grants it for a purpose that cannot be achieved without one.
3. Easement of necessity, section 13(a), (c) and (e). Where one person transfers or bequeaths immoveable property to another, or a partition is made of joint property, and an easement in other land is necessary for enjoying the subject of the transfer (clause (a)) or the property retained (clause (c)), the person entitled may claim it. The test is absolute necessity, not convenience; the standard case is a landlocked plot.
Section 14 provides how the way is fixed: the person bound to grant it is entitled to fix a convenient way, and if he refuses or neglects, the person entitled may fix it, subject to the requirement that it be reasonably convenient for the dominant owner and least onerous to the servient owner.
Section 41: an easement of necessity is extinguished when the necessity ends.
4. Quasi easement, section 13(b), (d) and (f). Where, on a transfer or partition, an easement is apparent and continuous and necessary for enjoying the subject of the transfer as it was enjoyed when the transfer took effect, the transferee is entitled to it. Its conditions are that there was one owner of the whole, the right was apparent, continuous, necessary for enjoyment as then enjoyed, and in actual use at the time.
Note the asymmetry between the transferee and the transferor: a grantor may not derogate from his grant, so a buyer readily gets his quasi easements, while a seller who wants to keep a right over what he has sold must reserve it expressly or prove necessity.
5. By prescription, section 15. Where access and use of light or air to a building, or a right of way or any other easement, or a right to the support of one's building, has been peaceably and openly enjoyed by a person claiming title as an easement, as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right is absolute. The period must be one ending within two years next before the institution of the suit in which the claim is contested. Against property belonging to the Government the period is thirty years.
The conditions are usually remembered as nec vi, nec clam, nec precario: without force, without secrecy, without permission. For light and air the words "as of right" are not required. By the Explanation, nothing is an interruption unless the party interrupted has submitted to or acquiesced in the obstruction for one year after notice of it.
Section 16 allows the period of a lease or life interest in the servient heritage to be excluded as against the reversioner in the circumstances it states. Section 17 lists what cannot be acquired by prescription: an easement tending to the total destruction of the servient heritage; a right to the free passage of light or air to an open space; a right to surface water not flowing in a stream and not permanently collected; and a right to underground water not passing in a defined channel.
6. By custom, section 18. An easement may be acquired in virtue of a local custom, called a customary easement. The custom must be ancient, certain, reasonable and continuous. The Act's illustration is the villager's right to graze cattle on the common pasture, which the tenant of a plot acquires when he breaks up and cultivates it.
7. By transfer of the dominant heritage, section 19. Where the dominant heritage is transferred or devolves, the easement passes with it, together with the incidents of the easement, unless a different intention appears.
Summary table
| Mode | Section | Essential requirement |
|---|---|---|
| Express grant | 4, 8, and the general law | An instrument, registered where the value is Rs. 100 or more |
| Implied grant | 13 and the general law | The parties' presumed intention |
| Necessity | 13(a), (c), (e), with 14 | Absolute necessity on severance |
| Quasi easement | 13(b), (d), (f) | Apparent, continuous, in use at severance |
| Prescription | 15, with 16 and 17 | 20 years (30 against Government), peaceably, openly, as of right, uninterrupted, ending within 2 years of suit |
| Custom | 18 | An ancient, certain, reasonable, continuous local custom |
| Transfer of the dominant heritage | 19 | The easement passes with the land |
Answer
For full marks, cover: who an ostensible owner is, the Jayadayal Poddar tests, section 41 in full, the five conditions expanded, Ramcoomar Koondoo and the equity behind the section, what reasonable care and good faith require, the effect on the real owner, and the reach of the Benami Act.
Who is an ostensible owner. An ostensible owner is a person who, with the express or implied consent of the real owner, is held out to the world as the owner of property and has all the outward marks of ownership, though the beneficial ownership is in another. The property stands in his name, he deals with it as owner, and a stranger dealing with him has no reason to look behind the appearance.
He is not a mere agent, manager, servant or caretaker in charge of property, because such a person is not held out as owner. The real owner must have clothed him with the appearance of ownership.
How ostensible ownership is proved: Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazra (1974) 1 SCC 3. Whether a person is an ostensible owner is a question of fact, and the Supreme Court set out the considerations:
Can he transfer the property? Yes, and section 41 protects the transferee if five conditions are met.
Section 41. Where, with the consent, express or implied, of the persons interested in immoveable property, a person is the ostensible owner of such property and transfers the same for consideration, the transfer shall not be voidable on the ground that the transferor was not authorised to make it; provided that the transferee, after taking reasonable care to ascertain that the transferor had power to make the transfer, has acted in good faith.
The five conditions, all of which the transferee must prove
The principle: Ramcoomar Koondoo v. John and Maria McQueen (1872) 11 Beng LR 46 (PC). The general rule is nemo dat quod non habet, that no one can give a better title than he has. Section 41 is a statutory exception founded on the equity stated by the Privy Council in that case: where one of two innocent persons must suffer by the fraud of a third, the loss should fall on the one whose own act or conduct enabled the fraud to be committed. The real owner, having allowed his property to stand in another's name, created the very appearance the purchaser relied on, and it is he who must bear the loss.
Effect where the section applies. The transfer is not voidable at the instance of the real owner. He is left to his personal remedies against the ostensible owner, for the price received or for damages. The purchaser keeps the property.
Effect where it does not. If any one of the five conditions fails, the section gives no protection, and the transfer is voidable at the real owner's instance. He may sue to recover the property, subject to limitation.
Other exceptions to nemo dat in this Act, worth naming for contrast: section 43, feeding the grant by estoppel, where the transferor afterwards acquires the interest he purported to transfer; section 38, transfer by a person authorised only in certain circumstances; section 39, transfer where a third person is entitled to maintenance; and section 53A, part performance, which protects possession rather than title.
No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.
Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.
Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.
The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.
Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license
This volume prints the 2022-23 - ATKT Transfer of Property Act and Easement Act paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.