Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2½ hours · Total marks 75 · 21 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Write short notes answers on any six 12 Marks
Answer
A writ is a formal written order issued by a superior court commanding a person, authority or inferior tribunal to do or to refrain from doing something. The five writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.
They are issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32, for the enforcement of fundamental rights only, and by the High Courts under Article 226, for fundamental rights and for any other purpose, so the High Court's jurisdiction is the wider of the two.
Answer
The green light theory, described by Harlow and Rawlings in Law and Administration, is the view that the primary function of administrative law is to facilitate good administration rather than to obstruct it. On this view the State exists to do good, its officials are not enemies of the citizen, and the emphasis should fall on internal controls, sound procedure, consultation, planning, ombudsmen and tribunals rather than on litigation after the event. The law is a green light which lets the administration go.
Answer
Bias is a predisposition or leaning of the mind, arising from interest or prejudice, which prevents an authority from bringing an open mind to a decision. It offends the first rule of natural justice, nemo judex in causa sua, and the test is a real likelihood of bias, not proof of actual bias, because justice must not only be done but be seen to be done.
The types:
Answer
A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute empowering the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power to make such provision as appears necessary for removing difficulties in giving effect to the Act.
It is named after King Henry VIII, who by the Statute of Proclamations, 1539 was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and the name is used as a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.
Answer
Conditional delegation, more usually called conditional or contingent legislation, is legislation which is complete in itself but whose operation is made to depend upon a condition, the fulfilment of which the legislature leaves the executive to determine. The legislature makes the law; the executive decides only when, where or to whom it shall apply.
Answer
A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice, alongside the rule against bias and the right to be heard.
Answer
The Central Vigilance Commission is the apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union. It exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, and it tenders advice on vigilance matters.
Answer
The Lokpal is the central anti-corruption ombudsman of India, established by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, which came into force on 16 January 2014. It inquires into allegations of corruption against public functionaries, including the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament and all groups of central Government officials, for offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
Short notes, any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. Meaning. Where a public authority has made a clear and unambiguous promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect that it will be honoured or continued, and that expectation may not be defeated without fairness. It is not an enforceable right to the benefit; it is a ground of judicial review.
2. Its basis in India. It is treated as an aspect of the non-arbitrariness guaranteed by Article 14: Food Corporation of India v. M/s Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993), where the Court held that every legitimate expectation is a relevant factor requiring due consideration by the authority, and that a decision which ignores it is arbitrary.
3. Its two forms.
4. What can found the expectation. An express promise or representation by the authority; a regular, consistent and settled practice; a published policy or scheme on which people have relied. A mere hope, wish or anticipation is not enough, nor is an expectation founded on a promise that is ultra vires or contrary to law.
5. The leading cases.
6. Its limits. It cannot be founded on an ultra vires promise; it yields to an overriding public interest which the authority must justify on material and not merely assert; and it ordinarily secures a hearing rather than the benefit.
7. Its relation to promissory estoppel. Estoppel requires that the promisee has altered his position on the faith of the promise, and can secure the benefit itself: Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979). Legitimate expectation requires no alteration of position, asks instead whether it was fair to defeat the expectation, and yields only a hearing. In practice a petitioner pleads both.
Answer
1. Meaning and origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law; that power may be exercised only under and according to law; and that no person is above the law. The phrase renders la principe de legalite. Its ancestry runs from Bracton to Coke CJ in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610).
2. Dicey's three propositions (1885):
3. The criticism. The first would make modern government impossible, since discretion is unavoidable; Dicey confused arbitrary with discretionary power. The second rested on a misreading of droit administratif, whose control is in some respects stricter than the English courts'. The third describes English history, not a universal truth, and India's reverse arrangement is the stronger one, because a right guaranteed by a written Constitution cannot be removed by ordinary statute.
4. In the Indian Constitution. The Preamble; Article 13 (inconsistent laws void); Article 14 (equality before the law, and after E.P. Royappa, 1974, a guarantee against arbitrariness); Article 19 (restrictions must be reasonable and by law); Article 21 (procedure established by law, which after Maneka Gandhi, 1978, must be right, just and fair); Articles 265 and 300A; Articles 32 and 226 (enforceable remedies); Article 300 (the State may be sued); and the independence of the judiciary.
5. The Indian cases.
6. The departures. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege); preventive detention under Article 22; the Emergency provisions, though after the 44th Amendment Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended; wide administrative discretion; and tribunals in place of the ordinary courts.
7. The modern content. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi, 1959, restated it as a dynamic concept covering not only civil and political rights but the social and economic conditions in which human dignity is possible. That is the version Indian courts apply when they read Article 21 to include livelihood, shelter, health and a clean environment.
Answer
1. The constitutional foundation. The right to information is a facet of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), because a citizen cannot form or express an opinion on public affairs of which he knows nothing. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975): "the people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything that is done in a public way by their public functionaries". S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981) and Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995) carried the principle further, and Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002) applied it to the disclosure of candidates' antecedents.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005: its main features.
3. The case law. Central Board of Secondary Education v. Aditi Singh (2011): a candidate is entitled to inspect his own evaluated answer sheets. Reserve Bank of India v. Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015): the RBI could not withhold inspection reports and defaulter lists on a plea of fiduciary relationship, its duty being to the public and not to the banks it regulates. Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019): the office of the Chief Justice of India is a public authority under the Act, subject to the balancing of privacy and independence.
4. Criticism. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to fix the tenure, salary and conditions of service of the Information Commissioners, which had previously been fixed by the Act itself, and this has been criticised as weakening their independence. Other standing criticisms are the number of vacancies in the Commissions, the backlog of second appeals, and the poor implementation of Section 4.
Answer
1. Who they are. The civil service is the body of permanent, professional, salaried officials, recruited on merit, who carry on the administration of the State under the direction of the political executive. Its characteristics are permanence, political neutrality, anonymity, merit recruitment and hierarchy.
2. Classification.
Employees of local authorities and statutory corporations are not civil servants of the Union or a State, and do not have the protection of Article 311.
3. The constitutional framework, Part XIV, Articles 308 to 323. Article 309: recruitment and conditions of service to be regulated by the appropriate legislature, and until then by rules made by the President or the Governor, which are statutory. Article 310: the doctrine of pleasure. Article 311: the safeguards. Article 312: All India Services. Articles 315 to 323: the Public Service Commissions, with independence secured by Article 317, expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund by Article 322, and an annual report to the President under Article 323.
4. Functions. Advising the political executive on policy; implementing the law and Government policy; drafting delegated legislation; quasi-judicial adjudication in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals, where they must observe natural justice and pass speaking orders; financial administration; and supplying continuity across changes of government.
5. Tenure: pleasure and its exceptions. Article 310 enacts that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor, but it opens with "except as expressly provided by this Constitution", and the exceptions are substantial:
6. Controls over them. Ministerial responsibility; parliamentary questions and the financial committees; audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General; judicial review under Article 226 and the Administrative Tribunals under Article 323A, subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court after L. Chandra Kumar (1997); the Central Vigilance Commission and the Lokpal; and the Right to Information Act, 2005.
7. Reform. T.S.R. Subramanian v. Union of India (2013): the Supreme Court directed that civil servants be given a minimum fixed tenure, that a Civil Services Board be constituted to advise on postings and transfers, and that oral instructions from political superiors not be acted upon.
Situational Questions, any two 12 Marks
Answer
They filed a petition on the ground that they were not allowed to talk & discuss with the complainant girls. They complained that it was violation of principles of natural justice.
No. On these facts there is no violation of natural justice. An enquiry was conducted, and the refusal to allow the accused students to "talk and discuss" with the complainants is not a denial of a fair hearing; in a case of sexual harassment it is a required safeguard.
The Principal's defence should be put under six heads:
The Principal should also be candid about what would defeat him: if no committee was constituted, if the complaint and the evidence were never furnished, if the students were given no opportunity to reply, if the enquiry report was not supplied before the penalty (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993), if the order records no reasons, or if the punishment of expulsion is disproportionate to what was proved, then the order will be quashed.
Answer
The tortious liability of the State, vicarious for the negligence of its servant in the discharge of a non-sovereign function. The State is liable.
State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933.
Its facts. A jeep owned and maintained by the State of Rajasthan for the official use of the Collector of Udaipur was being brought back from the workshop after repairs. The driver, a temporary employee, drove rashly and negligently and knocked down Lokumal, a pedestrian walking on the footpath, who died of his injuries. His widow Vidyawati and her infant daughter sued the driver and the State for damages.
The holding. The Supreme Court, affirming the High Court, held the State liable. It held that:
The contrast to note. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1965), decided three years later, held the State not liable where gold seized by the police under statutory powers of arrest and seizure was misappropriated, that being a sovereign function. Gajendragadkar CJ himself expressed dissatisfaction with the state of the law and urged legislation, which has never come. Both cases stand, and the reconciliation is that Vidyawati concerns an activity any private employer could carry on, while Kasturilal concerns a power only the State possesses.
Answer
The rule is valid if it is within the rule-making power conferred by the parent Act and consistent with it, and on the law as it stands it is. The question is one of substantive ultra vires, and the leading authority is squarely in point.
Meaning. A parent Act, also called the enabling Act or the primary legislation, is the statute passed by the legislature which confers the power to make delegated legislation and fixes the field within which that power may be exercised. The rules, regulations and bye-laws made under it are the child legislation, and their validity is measured against it.
Two important features:
Further features worth adding: the parent Act names the authority on whom the power is conferred, so that sub-delegation is bad unless it authorises it (Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works, 1997); it may prescribe a procedure, such as prior publication or consultation, non-compliance with which is procedural ultra vires; it usually provides for laying the rules before the legislature; and its own validity is the first question, since if the parent Act is unconstitutional everything made under it falls with it.
Answer
Yes, it can be challenged, but the ground and the forum matter. A change of policy in the public interest is a lawful reason to cancel; what the contractor can insist on is that the decision be taken fairly, on relevant material, after hearing him, and that he be compensated.
Answer Any three 39 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definitions with criticism; the nature of the subject; nine reasons for growth, each with a concrete illustration, since the question asks for growth and acceptance; the two institutional consequences; the position in England and India; the scope; and a conclusion.
1. What administrative law is. Ivor Jennings: "the law relating to the administration; it determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review. Sir William Wade, shortest and best: "the law relating to the control of governmental power." The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure for obtaining relief and the legislative control of the administration.
Criticism: Jennings is too wide and says nothing about control; Davis concentrates on adjudication and neglects rule-making.
2. Its nature. A branch of public law; judge-made and uncodified in India, natural justice, ultra vires and the control of discretion being entirely the creation of decided cases; functional rather than conceptual; dynamic, growing with every new function of the State; and organised around one idea, power and its control.
3. Reasons for its vast acceptance and growth.
4. The two institutional consequences. The growth expressed itself in two forms: the administration began to legislate (delegated legislation) and to adjudicate (tribunals and departmental adjudication). Both offend the doctrine of separation of powers, and administrative law is the law that permits them under conditions: the essential legislative function must remain with the legislature, and the High Court's power of review must remain with the High Court.
5. In England and in India. Dicey, writing in 1885, denied that England had any administrative law at all, because in a laissez faire State there was little executive power to control. Within fifty years the Committee on Ministers' Powers (Donoughmore), 1932 and the Franks Committee, 1957 had been appointed precisely because delegated legislation and tribunals had grown so large. In India the same growth was compressed into the decades after 1950 and driven by the Directive Principles, and it was accompanied from the outset by a written Constitution with enforceable rights and guaranteed remedies under Articles 32 and 226. That is why Indian administrative law is more constitutional in character than English: a breach of natural justice here is also a breach of Articles 14 and 21.
6. Its scope today. The organisation of administrative authorities; delegated legislation and its control; tribunals; natural justice; administrative discretion; judicial review and the writs; State liability in tort and contract; the civil services; public undertakings and Article 12; and the institutional controls.
7. Conclusion. Administrative law did not grow because lawyers wanted it. It grew because the State did. Every reason above is a description of the State taking on a new power, and the law followed to control it. Its newest chapters, environmental regulation, competition, telecom, data protection under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, have exactly the same structure as its oldest, which is the surest sign that its organising idea has not changed.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition with Justice Douglas; the characteristics; the classification under three heads with real Indian examples; the reasons for creating them; then control, with the government control asked for in most detail but the parliamentary, judicial and public controls named too; the Article 12 case law; and the autonomy-accountability conclusion.
1. Definition. A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds, and freedom from ordinary departmental and budgetary procedure.
Justice Douglas of the United States Supreme Court described it as a device combining "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency, with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
2. Characteristics. Created by statute or incorporation; a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal; capacity to hold property, contract and sue and be sued in its own name; State ownership of the capital; financial autonomy, keeping its own accounts outside the Consolidated Fund and free of the annual appropriation; staff who are not civil servants, governed by its own regulations, so that Article 311 does not protect them; and freedom from day-to-day departmental control.
3. Classification.
(a) By mode of creation:
(b) By function: commercial and industrial (Steel Authority, Indian Oil); financial (Reserve Bank, LIC, NABARD); developmental and promotional (Damodar Valley Corporation, National Highways Authority); regulatory (SEBI, TRAI, the Competition Commission, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission); and social service (State transport, housing and hospital corporations).
(c) The older jurisprudential division into corporation sole, an office held in succession by one person, such as the President of India, and corporation aggregate, a body of persons united for a common purpose.
4. Why they are created. To combine public ownership with commercial flexibility; to secure expert management free of departmental interference; to give the undertaking its own personality and funds; to hold a strategic monopoly; and to employ staff on business rather than civil-service terms.
5. Government control, which is what the question asks for.
6. The other three heads of control, which must be named for completeness.
7. When is a corporation "the State"? Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967) held a statutory corporation to be "other authorities" under Article 12. Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975) applied it to ONGC, LIC and the Industrial Finance Corporation and held their regulations to have the force of law. Ramana Dayaram Shetty (1979) developed the instrumentality test, and Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981) collected it into six factors: the entire share capital held by the Government; financial assistance meeting almost the whole expenditure; a monopoly conferred or protected by the State; deep and pervasive State control; functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions; and a Government department transferred to the corporation. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002), seven judges, restated the test as whether the body is functionally, financially and administratively dominated by the Government, the control being deep and pervasive and not merely regulatory.
8. Conclusion. The design problem of the public corporation is that the two things asked of it pull against each other. Autonomy is the reason for creating it; accountability is the reason it exists at all. Too much control and it becomes a department under another name, losing the very flexibility for which it was created; too little and public money is spent without answer. The Indian settlement is to leave management free while controlling policy, appointments, finance and legality.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the doctrine and its author; its three propositions; the position in the United States and England; then the Indian political scenario, which the question asks for, under two lists, what reflects and what departs from the doctrine; six judicial decisions; the modern functional statement; and a conclusion.
1. The doctrine. Baron de Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748), building on Aristotle, Locke and his reading of the English constitution. Its three propositions:
The purpose was liberty: "when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person, or in the same body of magistrates, there can be no liberty", because power tends to be abused.
2. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances: the presidential veto, the Senate's power over appointments and treaties, impeachment, and judicial review. England has never accepted it: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the highest court until the Constitutional Reform Act, 2005 created the Supreme Court in 2009.
3. The Indian scenario: what reflects the doctrine.
4. The Indian scenario: what departs from it.
5. The judicial decisions.
6. The modern functional statement. In India the doctrine operates not as a rule that each organ must confine itself to its own work, but as a rule that no organ may take over the essential function of another. Delegated legislation and tribunals are tolerated because the essential function stays where the Constitution placed it. A statute deciding a particular case, or a court framing general economic policy, is not.
7. Conclusion. Separation of powers in India is a principle of constitutional interpretation and a basic feature, and not a rule of the text. It appears in the cases as a ground for striking down an amendment or a statute rather than as an Article a litigant can point to. And administrative law exists precisely because it is not applied rigidly: the constitutional answer to an administration that legislates and adjudicates is control, not prohibition.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and constitutional basis; the characteristics; the distinction from a court; then the importance in contemporary times, which the question asks for, under seven or eight heads with real examples of modern tribunals; the criticism; the case law from Sampath Kumar to the decision of 19 November 2025; and a conclusion.
1. Meaning. A tribunal is a statutory adjudicating body outside the ordinary hierarchy of courts, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or in a specialised field, by a procedure that is judicial in substance but simpler and more flexible than that of the courts.
2. Constitutional basis. Article 323A empowers Parliament to provide for administrative tribunals for disputes on the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Union, the States and local and other authorities. Article 323B empowers Parliament or a State legislature to provide for tribunals in respect of taxation, foreign exchange, import and export, industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on urban property, elections to the legislatures, essential goods, and offences connected with those subjects. Both were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976, and the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 was made under Article 323A.
3. Characteristics. Statutory creation, with only such powers as the statute confers; the "trappings of a court", that is, a lis, evidence, and power to summon witnesses and compel production; a mixed composition of judicial and technical members; freedom from the Code of Civil Procedure and the Evidence Act but a binding duty to observe natural justice; a duty to decide objectively and pass a speaking order; appointment and tenure fixed under the parent Act; amenability to certiorari and prohibition and to the superintendence of the High Court under Article 227; and decisions that are generally not binding precedents.
4. Court and tribunal distinguished. A court is part of the traditional judicial system and exercises the judicial power of the State generally; a tribunal is created by a specific statute and exercises a statutory adjudicatory power in a named field. A court is manned by trained judges appointed under the constitutional scheme; a tribunal by a judicial member with a technical or administrative member appointed by the executive. A court is bound by the CPC and the Evidence Act; a tribunal by natural justice alone. A court decides on law and the rights of the parties; a tribunal may also give effect to the policy of the statute. In a court the State is a party like any other; before a tribunal the State is very often itself the other party. Associated Cement Companies v. P.N. Sharma (1965): the essential test is whether the State has clothed the body with part of its own inherent judicial power.
5. The importance of tribunals in contemporary times.
6. The criticism, which must be given. Members may lack legal training; the State is often the other party and appoints the adjudicators; there is a threat to independence through executive control of appointment, tenure, reappointment, salary and infrastructure; procedure varies from tribunal to tribunal; reasons are not always given and there is no consistent system of precedent; the multiplication of tribunals fragments the legal system; and in practice there are long vacancies, few benches, and inadequate infrastructure, so that the promised speed is often not delivered.
7. The constitutional case law.
8. Conclusion. Tribunals are now indispensable, and Articles 323A and 323B are valid. What forty years of case law has refused to permit is the exclusion of the High Court's supervision and the executive capture of tribunal personnel. The rule that emerges is simple: the more nearly a tribunal replaces a court, the more nearly it must resemble one in independence, tenure and qualification. The proposal of a National Tribunal Commission, first mooted in R. Gandhi and now directed in November 2025, is the institutional answer to that.
Answer
For full marks, cover the three things the question names: the definition and forms; eight reasons for growth with illustrations; and then the three control mechanisms, parliamentary, procedural and judicial, in detail, with a case for every head.
1. Definition. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority". Sir Cecil Carr: "a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork, and capable of attending to minor matters, while the parent manages the main business."
Its forms are rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions, and Indian statutes use the terms loosely. Its species are normal and exceptional delegation, conditional or contingent legislation, and sub-delegation.
2. Reasons for its growth.
3. The constitutional limit, which frames all three controls. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951): the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, the laying down of the policy of the law; having laid it down it may delegate the working out of details; and the power to repeal or modify an Act is in general beyond the permissible limit. Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) is the standard illustration of a delegation struck down for want of any standard.
4. CONTROL MECHANISM ONE: Parliamentary control.
(a) At the stage of delegation. Parliament fixes the policy and standard in the parent Act, and also the authority, the subject matter, the duration and the conditions of the power. The delegation clause is debated when the Bill is passed, and that is the point at which a Henry VIII clause or an unusually wide power should be resisted.
(b) Laying before the House, in three forms:
Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the statute merely requires laying, the requirement is directory, so failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is made a condition of validity, it is mandatory.
(c) Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, constituted in the Lok Sabha in 1953 and the Rajya Sabha in 1964, each of fifteen members with no Minister among them, examines whether a rule is within the power conferred, and in particular whether it imposes a tax, bars the jurisdiction of the courts, has retrospective effect without authority, involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, makes an unusual or unexpected use of the power, or has been laid or published after unjustifiable delay.
5. CONTROL MECHANISM TWO: Procedural control.
6. CONTROL MECHANISM THREE: Judicial control, which is the effective one, through the doctrine of ultra vires.
(a) Substantive ultra vires, that the content is beyond the power:
(b) Procedural ultra vires: failure to comply with a mandatory requirement of prior publication, consultation or Gazette publication.
(c) The presumption of validity. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid, the burden lies on the challenger, and the court will not strike down a rule merely because it thinks it unwise or capable of improvement. It reviews legality, not merit.
(d) The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and a collateral challenge by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on the rule.
7. Which control actually works. Parliamentary control is weak: several thousand instruments are laid each year, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House and is almost never used successfully, and the committees can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control does the real work, and within it the ground that succeeds most often is the plainest, that the rule contradicts or exceeds the parent Act.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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