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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7 Administrative Law 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Administrative Law

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7

2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  23 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: 1. Answer all questions. 2. Total marks are indicated in the right.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Write short answers on any Six, not more than 2 to 3 sentences 12 Marks

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(1)What is Bias? Explain types of Bias in Brief.[2]

Answer

Bias is a predisposition or leaning of the mind, arising from interest or prejudice, which prevents an authority from deciding a matter with an open mind. It offends the first rule of natural justice, nemo judex in causa sua, and the test is a real likelihood of bias, not proof of actual bias.

The types:

  1. Pecuniary bias: any financial interest, however small, which disqualifies automatically. Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852).
  2. Personal bias: relationship, friendship, hostility or professional connection. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970).
  3. Subject-matter or official bias: a general interest in the subject decided. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC (1959).
  4. Departmental or institutional bias: the same department prosecuting and deciding, tolerated unless there is a personal interest.
  5. Pre-judgment of the issue: a mind closed before the hearing.
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(2)What is ultra vires?[2]

Answer

Ultra vires means "beyond the powers". An act or a rule is ultra vires when it exceeds the authority conferred by the Constitution, by the parent statute, or by the instrument under which the body acts, and such an act is void.

It has two branches: substantive ultra vires, where the content of the act or rule is beyond the power, and procedural ultra vires, where the power existed but the prescribed procedure was not followed.

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(3)Explain the difference between the concept of laissez Faire State & Welfare State in brief.[2]

Answer

A laissez faire State, also called the police or negative State, confines itself to defence, law and order and the administration of justice, and leaves economic and social life alone. A welfare State assumes positive responsibility for the social and economic well-being of its people, providing education, health, housing, employment and social security and regulating economic activity.

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(4)What is writ of Habeus Corpus?[2]

Answer

Habeas corpus, "you may have the body", is a writ commanding a person who has detained another to produce him before the court and to justify the detention. If the detention is found to be without legal authority, the court orders his immediate release.

It lies under Article 32 and Article 226, against the State and a private person, and it is the principal safeguard of personal liberty under Articles 21 and 22.

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(5)What do you mean by Administrative Discretion?[2]

Answer

Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "reasonable cause" and "in the public interest".

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(6)State the meaning of Judicial Review.[2]

Answer

Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. Its sources are Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and it is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

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(7)What is Ombudsman?[2]

Answer

An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The institution began in Sweden in 1809, and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent.

In India the counterparts are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having created the first by its Act of 1971.

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(8)State the difference Between Constitutional Law & Administrative law.[2]

Answer

Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State, the distribution of powers between its organs and between the Union and the States, and the fundamental rights: it is concerned with the government at rest. Administrative law deals with the exercise of those powers by the administration in the daily working of government: it is concerned with the government in motion.

Constitutional law is the genus, administrative law a species of it.

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(9)What is Red Light theory?[2]

Answer

The red light theory is one of the two competing views of the function of administrative law, described by Harlow and Rawlings in Law and Administration. On this view the primary function of administrative law is to control the executive and to stop it exceeding its powers: the law is a red light which halts the administration, and the courts are the principal check.

Its intellectual parents are Dicey and the classical rule of law: government is a necessary evil, its powers are to be confined, and the citizen's protection lies in the ordinary courts.

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(10)What is Speaking Order?[2]

Answer

A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now treated as the third principle of natural justice.

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Q.2

Write short notes on any two 12 Marks

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(1)PIL & Judicial Activism[6]

Answer

1. Public interest litigation. PIL is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or class who by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position cannot approach the court themselves.

2. Its foundation: the relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, is the foundation: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong is caused to a person or a determinate class who cannot approach the court for relief, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.

3. Its procedural features.

  1. Epistolary jurisdiction: a letter or a postcard has been treated as a petition. Sunil Batra (II) v. Delhi Administration (1980), a letter from a prisoner about the torture of a fellow prisoner; Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984), a letter about bonded labour in stone quarries.
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  1. Investigative commissions: the court appoints a commissioner, an advocate, a journalist or a district judge, to gather facts, since the petitioner has no access to evidence: Bandhua Mukti Morcha.
  2. Non-adversarial procedure: the object is not to defeat the State but to secure compliance, so the State is treated as a partner.
  3. Continuing mandamus: the court retains the matter and issues directions over time. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), which produced the statutory Central Vigilance Commission; the Delhi vehicular pollution and forest conservation matters.
  4. Compensation as a public law remedy: Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983), fourteen years' illegal detention after acquittal; Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), custodial death, where the Court held the remedy to be a public law remedy based on strict liability, distinct from the private law remedy in tort, and that sovereign immunity is no defence.
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4. Its achievements. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979), the undertrial prisoners of Bihar, and the right to a speedy trial; M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Ganga pollution, Oleum gas leak and vehicular pollution cases, from which came absolute liability; Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), the guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace, later enacted in 2013; Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), livelihood as part of Article 21; People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, the right to food and midday meals; D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), custodial safeguards.

5. Judicial activism. Judicial activism is the willingness of a court to go beyond the strict adjudication of the dispute before it, to give an expansive reading to constitutional guarantees, to fill legislative gaps and to issue directions to the executive. Its Indian instruments have been the expansion of Article 21 (Maneka Gandhi, 1978), the basic structure doctrine, PIL, continuing mandamus, and the framing of guidelines with the force of law until Parliament legislates (Vishaka).

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6. The criticism, and the answer to it. Activism is criticised as a breach of the separation of powers, as judicial legislation, as the taking of decisions on policy and resource allocation for which courts have neither the expertise nor the accountability, and, in its degenerate form, as judicial adventurism. PIL is criticised for having become publicity interest litigation and for its abuse by busybodies and by commercial rivals. The Supreme Court itself has acknowledged this: in State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010) it laid down guidelines to prevent abuse, requiring courts to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents, and to encourage genuine PIL while discouraging the rest. Costs are now imposed on frivolous petitioners.

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(2)Central Vigilance Commission[6]

Answer

1. What it is. The Central Vigilance Commission is the apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union. It exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

2. Origin and status. Set up by a Government resolution in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption chaired by K. Santhanam. It was given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, enacted in consequence of the directions of the Supreme Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), the Jain Hawala case, in which the Court directed that the Commission be given statutory status and that the CBI be insulated from executive interference. It is an independent body answerable only to Parliament.

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3. Composition. A Central Vigilance Commissioner as chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term: four years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Removal only by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after a reference to the Supreme Court, which is the same protection as a judge enjoys and is the guarantee of independence.

4. Functions and powers.

  1. Superintendence over the vigilance administration of the ministries and departments of the Union, and over the CBI in Prevention of Corruption Act matters, with power to review the progress of investigations;
  2. to inquire or cause an inquiry into a complaint that a public servant has committed an offence under that Act;
  3. to tender advice on vigilance matters, first-stage advice before departmental proceedings are initiated and second-stage advice on the penalty;
  4. the powers of a civil court for summoning witnesses, requiring documents and receiving evidence on affidavit;
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  1. to be a member of the committee that recommends the appointment of the Director of the CBI, and to select the Director of Prosecution;
  2. to be the designated agency under the Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution, 2004, the whistle-blower mechanism, and under the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014;
  3. superintendence over the Chief Vigilance Officers in every ministry, department and public sector undertaking, who are its eyes and ears in the organisation.

5. Jurisdiction. Members of the All India Services serving under the Union and Group A officers of the central Government, together with the officers of public sector undertakings, nationalised banks, insurance companies and societies and local authorities owned or controlled by the Union, at the levels notified. State Government servants fall under the State Vigilance Commissions.

6. Limitations. Its advice is advisory only, though a departure must be recorded and reported. It cannot register a criminal case or investigate directly, but must act through the CBI or the departmental machinery. It has no jurisdiction over State servants. And it depends on the Government for staff and infrastructure.

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(3)Kinds of Corporation[6]

Answer

1. What a corporation is. An artificial or juristic person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct from the natural persons composing it, and capable of holding property, contracting, and suing and being sued in its own name.

2. The first division: sole and aggregate.

  1. A corporation sole is an office held in succession by a single natural person, the office being distinguished from its holder, so that property and rights vest in the office and pass to the successor. Examples: the President of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General, the Postmaster General.
  2. A corporation aggregate consists of a number of persons united for a common purpose: a company, a municipal corporation, a university. This is the ordinary case.

3. The second division: by mode of creation.

  1. Chartered corporations, created by royal charter. The East India Company is the great example; of no current importance in India.
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  1. Statutory corporations, created by a special Act of Parliament or of a State legislature which fixes their objects, powers, capital and management. Examples: the Life Insurance Corporation of India (1956), the Reserve Bank of India (1934), the Food Corporation of India (1964), the Damodar Valley Corporation (1948), the Airports Authority of India, and the State Road Transport Corporations under the Road Transport Corporations Act, 1950.
  2. Registered or Government companies, incorporated under the Companies Act. Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines a Government company as one in which not less than 51 per cent of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, a State Government, or partly by both, including its subsidiaries. Examples: Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals, Coal India, ONGC.

4. The third division: by function.

  1. Commercial and industrial: Steel Authority of India, Indian Oil;
  2. Financial: the Reserve Bank, the Life Insurance Corporation, NABARD;
  3. Developmental and promotional: the Damodar Valley Corporation, the National Highways Authority;
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  1. Regulatory: the Securities and Exchange Board of India, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, the Competition Commission of India, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission;
  2. Social service and welfare: State transport, housing and hospital corporations.

5. Why the classification matters in administrative law.

  1. It fixes the source and limit of the powers. A statutory corporation may do only what its Act permits, so its acts and regulations can be attacked as ultra vires; a company's powers come from its memorandum.
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  1. It bears on whether the body is "the State" under Article 12, and so bound by the fundamental rights and amenable to Article 226. Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967); Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975); Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979); Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981), which collected the six tests, being the whole share capital held by the Government, financial assistance meeting almost the entire expenditure, a monopoly conferred or protected by the State, deep and pervasive State control, functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions, and the transfer of a Government department to the corporation; and Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002), restating the test as functional, financial and administrative domination by the Government.
  2. It decides the status of the employees: they are not civil servants, so Article 311 does not protect them, but if the corporation is "the State" they have the protection of Articles 14 and 16.
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(4)Doctrine of Proportionality[6]

Answer

1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that the measure adopted by an authority be no more than is necessary to achieve the object, and that the burden it imposes bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the familiar formulation, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".

2. Origin. It comes from German administrative law (Verhaltnismassigkeit) and passed through the European Court of Justice and the European Convention on Human Rights into English law, where Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985) suggested it might in time become a fourth ground of review alongside illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety.

3. The four-part test, as settled in India by Modern Dental College and Research Centre v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):

  1. the measure must pursue a legitimate aim;
  2. it must be rationally connected to that aim (suitability);
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  1. it must be necessary, in the sense that no less restrictive alternative is reasonably available; and
  2. it must strike a fair balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community (proportionality stricto sensu).

4. Its two fields of operation in Indian administrative law.

  1. Restrictions on fundamental rights. The word "reasonable" in Article 19(2) to (6) has always required something close to proportionality, and the modern cases apply the four-part test expressly: Puttaswamy on privacy, Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) on internet shutdowns and orders under Section 144, where the Court required the least restrictive measure.
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  1. Quantum of punishment. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987): a soldier sentenced to rigorous imprisonment and dismissal for refusing to eat food; the punishment was held "strikingly disproportionate" and set aside, the Court holding that the doctrine of proportionality is part of judicial review and that a penalty which shocks the conscience is itself evidence of an arbitrary exercise of power. Bhagat Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh (1983); Ex-Naik Sardar Singh v. Union of India (1991); and in industrial law Hind Construction and Engineering Co. v. Their Workmen (1965), where dismissal for a single day's absence was held excessive.

5. Proportionality and Wednesbury: the Indian division of labour. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settled it:

  1. where fundamental rights are affected, the court applies proportionality and acts as a primary reviewing authority, deciding for itself whether the balance was correctly struck;
  2. where the challenge is to an ordinary administrative decision or to the quantum of punishment, the court applies Wednesbury, and interferes only if the decision or the penalty is so disproportionate as to shock the conscience, and then ordinarily remits the matter rather than substituting its own penalty.
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6. The difference between the two tests. Wednesbury asks a question about the decision-maker: could any reasonable authority have decided this way? Proportionality asks a question about the decision: was this much interference needed to secure that much benefit? Proportionality is the stricter test and gives the court a larger role, which is why Indian courts have confined it, outside fundamental rights, to punishments that shock the conscience.

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Q.3

Answer any two 12 Marks

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(1)The Principal of one College passed an order debarring the student from entering the premises of the institute & from attending the classes till the pendency of the Criminal Case in which he was prosecuted under Section 118 of BNS, 2023 for stabbing a co-student.[6]

  • (a) Whether this decision of The Principal Can be challenged on the grounds of denial of Natural Justice?
  • (b) Whether this decision can be covered under any of the exceptions to the Principles of Natural Justice? If yes, then Explain that Principle.

Answer

Note on the statute: Section 118 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 punishes voluntarily causing hurt or grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means, and corresponds to Sections 324 and 326 of the repealed Indian Penal Code.

(a) Whether this decision of The Principal Can be challenged on the grounds of denial of Natural Justice?

It can be challenged, but on these facts the challenge is likely to fail, because the order is an interim preventive measure and not a punishment.

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  1. Natural justice applies to the Principal. A college discharging a public function is amenable to Article 226: Andi Mukta Sadguru Trust v. V.R. Rudani (1989); and where it is "the State" under Article 12 it is bound by Article 14. A decision that keeps a student out of classes affects his career and attracts the duty to act fairly.
  2. But the character of the order is decisive. Debarring a student till the pendency of the criminal case is not a finding of guilt and not a penalty. It is an interim preventive measure, made to protect the other students and to preserve order on the campus while the criminal court decides. It is settled that a prior hearing is not required for an interim protective measure such as a suspension pending inquiry, provided the measure is temporary, proportionate and followed by a decision within a reasonable time.
  3. The gravity and the risk justify it. The allegation is of stabbing a fellow student on the campus. An institution that allowed the accused to attend classes alongside the victim would be failing in its duty to the victim and to every other student. The apprehension is not remote or fanciful.
  4. On what grounds it could still be challenged.
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  1. If the order is indefinite in substance, since criminal trials take years and an order that keeps a student out for the whole of a course is a punishment in effect, whatever it is called in form;
  2. if it is disproportionate, in that a less restrictive course would have served, such as permitting him to attend under conditions, or to appear at examinations, or to shift to another division;
  3. if it records no reasons, since a speaking order is required;
  4. if it was made by an authority not competent under the college or university statutes;
  5. if it is mala fide or made on irrelevant considerations;
  6. and, most importantly, if he was given no opportunity at all, even afterwards, to represent his case, since a preventive order dispenses with a pre-decisional hearing and not with fairness altogether: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978); Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981).
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  1. The presumption of innocence. The pendency of a criminal case does not establish guilt, and the college cannot punish him on the strength of the prosecution alone. But the presumption of innocence governs conviction, not the assessment of risk, and a preventive order is about risk.
  2. The examination question. Courts have generally required that a debarred student be allowed to appear at his examinations, since preventing him from doing so destroys a year and converts prevention into punishment. That is the relief a well-advised student would seek.

(b) Whether this decision can be covered under any of the exceptions to the Principles of Natural Justice? If yes, then Explain that Principle.

Yes. Two exceptions apply: interim preventive action, and emergency or urgency.

  1. Interim or preventive measures. Where an order is provisional and is made to hold the position until a final decision, a prior hearing is not required. Suspension pending inquiry is the standard example, and it is not a punishment: it neither decides guilt nor imposes a penalty. The safeguard is not a prior hearing but the requirement that the final decision follow within a reasonable time, and that the person be heard at that stage.
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  1. Emergency and urgency, with a post-decisional hearing. Where immediate action is necessary to prevent harm, natural justice yields. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) accepted a post-decisional hearing where a passport had been impounded in the public interest without notice. Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981) fixed its limits: a post-decisional hearing is a "poor substitute" for a pre-decisional one, permissible only where a genuine emergency makes a prior hearing impossible, and the words "immediate action" in a statute do not by themselves exclude a prior hearing. On these facts the presence on campus of a student accused of stabbing another is capable of amounting to such an emergency.

The other recognised exceptions, which should be listed to complete the answer:

  1. Statutory exclusion, express or by necessary implication;
  2. Impracticability, as in Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), where mass copying at an entire centre made individual notices unnecessary;
  3. Legislative action, including subordinate legislation of a general character;
  4. Confidentiality and the security of the State;
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  1. "Useless formality", applied narrowly, since S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980) holds that non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice;
  2. Purely administrative or contractual matters affecting no right;
  3. Waiver, where the person participates without objection;
  4. and, in service law, the second proviso to Article 311(2): Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
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(2)The Government of India announced that illegal immigrants would not be deported till their cases would be considered individually on merits. However deportation order passed against Mr. Qureshi without giving him any opportunity.[6]

  • (a) Whether Government of India can take such actions under any law?
  • (b) Which Doctrine is applicable to this case? Explain.

Answer

These are the facts of Attorney General of Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu, [1983] 2 AC 629 (Privy Council), the leading case on legitimate expectation.

(a) Whether Government of India can take such actions under any law?

The Government has the statutory power to deport, but it cannot exercise that power in breach of its own announcement without first hearing the person affected. The deportation order made without an opportunity is bad.

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  1. The power exists. The Foreigners Act, 1946, by Section 3(2)(c), empowers the Central Government to make orders directing that a foreigner shall not remain in India, and the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 and the Foreigners Order supplement it. The power to expel a foreigner is an attribute of sovereignty and is very wide: Hans Muller of Nurenburg v. Superintendent, Presidency Jail, Calcutta (1955) held that the Government's power to expel foreigners is absolute and unfettered by the Constitution save as provided.
  2. But the exercise of it is controlled. Article 21 applies to "any person" and not only to citizens, so a foreigner is entitled to the protection of life and personal liberty according to a procedure that is right, just and fair: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978); National Human Rights Commission v. State of Arunachal Pradesh (1996), the Chakma refugees case, where the Court held that the State must protect the life and liberty of every human being within its territory. Article 14 likewise applies to any person and forbids arbitrary action.
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  1. The announcement changes the position. Having publicly announced that illegal immigrants would not be deported until each case was considered individually on its merits, the Government created a legitimate expectation that Mr. Qureshi's case would be so considered. To deport him without any consideration is to defeat that expectation without fairness.
  2. The authority. Ng Yuen Shiu is squarely in point. An illegal immigrant from Macau in Hong Kong was told by a Government announcement that each illegal entrant would be interviewed and each case treated on its merits. He was made the subject of a removal order without such an interview. The Privy Council quashed the order, Lord Fraser holding that when a public authority has promised to follow a certain procedure, it is in the interest of good administration that it should act fairly and implement its promise, so long as implementation does not interfere with its statutory duty.
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  1. In India the doctrine is an aspect of Article 14: Food Corporation of India v. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993). Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1993) holds that a legitimate expectation may be defeated by an overriding public interest, and the change of policy is then reviewed only on Wednesbury grounds; the Government must place material before the court, and cannot merely assert it.
  2. Conclusion to write. The Government has the power to deport, but it must first give Mr. Qureshi the individual consideration it publicly promised. The order is liable to be quashed by certiorari, with a mandamus requiring his case to be considered on its merits before any fresh order. Quashing does not entitle him to remain: it entitles him to be heard.

(b) Which Doctrine is applicable to this case? Explain.

The doctrine of legitimate expectation.

  1. Meaning. Where a public authority has made a clear and unambiguous promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect it to be honoured or continued, and that expectation may not be defeated without fairness.
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  1. Its source in a promise or a practice. A mere hope or wish is not enough. The promise must be clear, unambiguous and without relevant qualification, and the practice must be regular and settled.
  2. Its two forms.
  3. Procedural legitimate expectation: a right to be heard or consulted before the promise or practice is departed from. This is well established and is what applies here.
  4. Substantive legitimate expectation: a claim to the benefit itself. Indian courts recognise it but apply it cautiously, and it does not survive a change of policy made in the public interest.
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  1. The leading cases. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983), above; Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985), the GCHQ case, where an expectation of consultation arose from settled practice but was overridden by national security; Food Corporation of India v. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993), locating the doctrine in Article 14; Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1993), on the public interest override and the Wednesbury standard of review; Punjab Communications Ltd. v. Union of India (1999) and Sethi Auto Service Station v. Delhi Development Authority (2009), confirming that it confers no enforceable right to the benefit.
  2. Its limits. It cannot be founded on a promise that is ultra vires or contrary to law; it yields to an overriding public interest which the authority must justify on material; and it gives, ordinarily, only a hearing and not the benefit.
  3. Its relation to promissory estoppel. Estoppel requires that the promisee has altered his position on the faith of the promise, and can secure the benefit itself: Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979). Legitimate expectation requires no alteration of position and ordinarily secures only the right to be heard. In practice a petitioner pleads both.
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(3)Few workers of XYZ Industry remained absent from duty treating a particular day as Holiday. XYZ's Employer dismissed those workers from service for remaining absent.[6]

  • (a) Whether the action taken by the employer is justifiable? Give reasons.
  • (b) Which Doctrine is applicable to this situation? Explain with relevant case laws.

Answer

These are the facts of Hind Construction and Engineering Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen, AIR 1965 SC 917.

(a) Whether the action taken by the employer is justifiable? Give reasons.

No. The dismissal is not justifiable. The punishment is grossly disproportionate to the misconduct and is liable to be set aside, with reinstatement.

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  1. The facts of Hind Construction. The company allowed fourteen holidays in the year, and by an established practice a holiday falling on a Sunday was carried to the following day. Eleven workmen did not attend on 2 January, treating it as a holiday. The company's case was that they had been told that because of pressure of work 2 January would be a working day and a holiday would be given in lieu on a later day. They were charge-sheeted, an enquiry was held, and they were dismissed.
  2. The holding. The Industrial Tribunal set aside the dismissals and ordered reinstatement with back wages except for the day of absence, and the Supreme Court upheld that. The absence could have been treated as leave without pay, or met with a warning or a fine, and it was impossible to think that any reasonable employer would have imposed the extreme punishment of dismissal on its entire permanent staff for a single day's absence in those circumstances.
  3. The principle. Where the punishment is shockingly disproportionate to the misconduct, the tribunal or the court may interfere, and such a punishment may amount to victimisation or an unfair labour practice.
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  1. The aggravating factors on these facts. A genuine and honest belief that the day was a holiday negatives wilful disobedience, and the practice of the establishment is relevant to whether the belief was reasonable. Dismissing a body of workmen together suggests victimisation rather than discipline. And a single day's absence, without more, is not misconduct grave enough to destroy a livelihood.
  2. Procedural requirements the employer must also satisfy. A charge sheet stating the misconduct; a domestic enquiry conducted fairly, with an opportunity to defend and to cross-examine; a finding on the evidence; and a proportionate punishment. A dismissal without a proper enquiry is bad on that ground alone.
  3. The remedy. The workmen may raise an industrial dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Under Section 11A the Labour Court or Tribunal, if satisfied that the discharge or dismissal was not justified, may set aside the order and direct reinstatement on such terms as it thinks fit, or award any lesser punishment, and it may do so on the materials on record. That section expressly gives the tribunal power over the quantum of punishment, which is what makes the disproportionality argument decisive here.
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(b) Which Doctrine is applicable to this situation? Explain with relevant case laws.

The doctrine of proportionality.

  1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that the measure adopted be no more than is necessary to achieve the object, and that the burden imposed bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the familiar formulation, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".
  2. Applied to punishment, it means that the penalty must fit the misconduct, and that a penalty which shocks the conscience is itself evidence that the power has been exercised arbitrarily.
  3. The four-part test, from Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): a legitimate aim; a rational connection to it; necessity, in that no less restrictive alternative is available; and a fair balance.
  4. The case law on punishment.
  5. Hind Construction (1965), above: dismissal for a single day's absence, "no reasonable employer" would have imposed it.
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  1. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987): a soldier sentenced to rigorous imprisonment and dismissal for refusing to eat food. The Supreme Court held the punishment "strikingly disproportionate" and set it aside, holding that the doctrine of proportionality is part of judicial review and that irrationality and perversity are recognised grounds.
  2. Bhagat Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh (1983) and Ex-Naik Sardar Singh v. Union of India (1991) to the same effect.
  3. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settles the standard of review: in punishment cases the court applies Wednesbury and interferes only where the penalty is so disproportionate as to shock the conscience, and then ordinarily remits the matter to the authority rather than substituting its own penalty; proportionality as a primary standard is reserved for cases affecting fundamental rights.
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  1. Proportionality against Wednesbury. Wednesbury asks about the decision-maker: could any reasonable authority have decided this way? Proportionality asks about the decision: was this much interference needed to secure that much benefit? The second is the stricter test.
  2. A related doctrine worth naming. The employer's action may also be attacked as an unfair labour practice under Schedule V of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and under the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 in Maharashtra, where discharge by way of victimisation or for patently false reasons is listed as such.
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(4)A Car was owned & maintained by State for Official use of Collector. While the driver was bringing the Car back from workshop, it knocked down one pedestrian by rash & negligent driving, who died later on. A suit was filed by his heirs & claimed damages.[6]

  • (a) What type of Liability is applicable to this case? Explain.
  • (b) Whether 'King can do no wrong' principle is applicable to this case?

Answer

These are the facts of State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933.

(a) What type of Liability is applicable to this case? Explain.

The tortious liability of the State, vicarious for the negligence of its servant in the discharge of a non-sovereign function. The State is liable.

  1. Vicarious liability. A master answers for the tort of his servant committed in the course of employment. The driver was the State's servant and was bringing the Collector's car back from the workshop in the course of his duty, so the State answers for his rash and negligent driving.
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  1. The constitutional provision. Article 300(1) permits the State to be sued "in the like cases" as the corresponding Province could have been sued before the Constitution, which carries the liability back through Section 176 of the Government of India Act, 1935 and Section 32 of the 1915 Act to Section 65 of the Government of India Act, 1858, and so to the liability of the East India Company.
  2. The sovereign and non-sovereign test. Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary of State (1861): the State is not liable for acts done in the exercise of sovereign powers, but is liable for acts done in the conduct of undertakings which a private person might also carry on. Maintaining and driving a motor vehicle is of the second kind.
  3. The holding in Vidyawati: the State of Rajasthan was held liable. The Court held that employing a driver to drive a car for the use of a civil servant is "in no sense" a sovereign function, and that a State carrying on many activities like an ordinary citizen cannot claim the immunity of a feudal monarch.
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  1. The modern position. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994) held that Kasturilal has lost much of its relevance and that only inalienable functions, which no private person can perform, retain immunity; State of Andhra Pradesh v. Challa Ramkrishna Reddy (2000) held that sovereign immunity is no defence where Article 21 is violated; and the constitutional tort line, Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983) and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), awards compensation in a writ petition on a strict public-law liability.
  2. The claim. The heirs sue under the Fatal Accidents Act, 1855, or today before the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, where liability attaches to the owner and the insurer and compensation is assessed on the multiplier method.

(b) Whether 'King can do no wrong' principle is applicable to this case?

No.

  1. Rex non potest peccare, "the King can do no wrong", was a feudal English doctrine, resting on the proposition that the Crown could not be sued in its own courts, because the courts were the King's own and no lord could be sued in his own court.
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  1. It was abolished in England by the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, which made the Crown liable in tort like a private person.
  2. In Vidyawati the Supreme Court held in terms that the maxim, founded on the personal position of a feudal sovereign, has no place in a republic with a written Constitution which by Article 300 expressly permits the State to be sued, and which runs railways, transport, factories and hospitals.
  3. All that survives of the idea is the narrow sovereign function immunity, and Nagendra Rao and Challa Ramkrishna Reddy have cut that down almost to nothing.
  4. On these facts the function was not sovereign at all, so the question of immunity does not arise.
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Q.4

Long Note. Answer any two 24 Marks

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(1)What is delegated legislation? Explain in detail the reasons for its growth, its classification & functions which may be delegated & functions which may not be delegated?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition and forms; eight reasons for growth with illustrations; four heads of classification; the Delhi Laws Act test; then two lists, what may and what may not be delegated, with a case for each head.

1. Definition. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority". Sir Cecil Carr: "a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork".

Its forms are rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions, and Indian statutes use the terms loosely.

2. Reasons for its growth.

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  1. Pressure on parliamentary time: Parliament passes a few dozen Acts a year while the executive makes thousands of rules under them;
  2. Technicality of subject matter: drug schedules, food standards, pollution limits, telecom tariffs and banking norms;
  3. Flexibility and speed of amendment: a rate or a schedule may need to change with the season or the market, and an Act cannot be amended at that speed;
  4. Emergency: war, epidemic, flood and economic crisis, the rules under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 during the COVID-19 pandemic being the most recent instance;
  5. Experimentation: a new scheme cannot be got right at once, and rule-making allows the administration to try, observe and adjust;
  6. The demands of the welfare State, whose social and economic legislation is necessarily skeletal;
  7. Local and expert knowledge, which bye-laws made by a municipality or a market committee can reflect;
  8. Confidentiality, in fields such as exchange control, where advance publication would defeat the measure.

3. Classification.

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  1. By the authority that makes it: rules by the Government, regulations by a statutory corporation, bye-laws by a local authority;
  2. By its nature: normal delegation, where the limits are clearly stated, and exceptional or exceptional-form delegation, which includes the power to modify an Act, to give a rule the force of an Act, or to remove difficulties (the Henry VIII clause);
  3. Conditional or contingent legislation, where the law is complete and only its application is left to the executive, and which is not open to the objection of excessive delegation at all;
  4. Sub-delegation, where the delegate delegates further, valid only if the parent Act authorises it: Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works (1997).

4. The test: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (AIR 1951 SC 332). The Supreme Court held that the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, which is the laying down of the policy of the law and its enactment into a binding rule of conduct; that having laid down the policy it may delegate the working out of details; and that the power to repeal or modify an existing law is in general beyond the permissible limit. The question in every case is therefore whether the parent Act supplies a policy and a standard.

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5. Functions which MAY be delegated.

  1. Commencement of an Act, or its extension to a specified area, class or period: conditional legislation;
  2. Supply of details: forms, fees, procedure, conditions, returns and registers;
  3. Exemptions and exceptions, where the standard is laid down;
  4. Suspension of the operation of a provision in stated circumstances;
  5. Application of an existing law with modifications that do not alter its essential policy: Rajnarain Singh v. Chairman, Patna Administration Committee (1954);
  6. Fixing of rates, prices and tariffs within limits or by a standard fixed in the Act;
  7. Removal of difficulties, the Henry VIII clause in its narrow form, consistently with the Act and usually for a limited period;
  8. Retrospective operation, where the parent Act expressly authorises it.

6. Functions which MAY NOT be delegated.

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  1. The essential legislative function, the laying down of policy: Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960), where a power to add "any other disease" to a statutory list with no standard was struck down; Ajoy Kumar Banerjee v. Union of India (1984);
  2. The power to repeal an Act or modify it in its essential features: Delhi Laws Act;
  3. The power to impose a tax: Article 265 requires that no tax be levied except by authority of law, though a rate within statutory limits may be fixed by the executive;
  4. The power to create an offence and prescribe a punishment without legislative guidance as to the conduct penalised and the maximum penalty;
  5. The power to give a rule retrospective effect where the Act is silent;
  6. The power to oust the jurisdiction of the courts;
  7. The power to make rules inconsistent with the parent Act or with the Constitution, delegated legislation being "law" under Article 13(3)(a): Air India v. Nergesh Meerza (1981);
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  1. The power to sub-delegate without authority: Shalimar Chemical Works (1997);
  2. Any exercise amounting to an abdication by the legislature of its own function, or the creation of a parallel legislature.

7. The controls, briefly. Parliamentary: policy in the parent Act, the three forms of laying (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979, holding a bare laying requirement directory), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation. Procedural: prior publication, consultation and Gazette publication (Harla v. State of Rajasthan, 1951). Judicial: substantive and procedural ultra vires.

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(2)Explain in detail Judicial & other remedies under Administrative Law.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the constitutional remedies, that is, the five writs under Articles 32 and 226; the ordinary or private-law remedies of suit, declaration, injunction and damages; the statutory and administrative remedies, appeal, revision and review; the institutional remedies, Lokpal, Central Vigilance Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act; and the limitations on each.

A. Constitutional remedies: the writs.

Source. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights only, and the right to move it is itself a fundamental right. Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue them for fundamental rights and for any other purpose, so its jurisdiction is wider. Article 227 gives the High Court a power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals in its territory, which is distinct from Article 226 and is exercised sparingly. Article 136 gives the Supreme Court special leave to appeal from any court or tribunal.

The five writs.

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  1. Habeas corpus: production of a detained person and justification of the detention; lies against the State and a private person; locus standi relaxed (Sunil Batra (II), 1980); res judicata relaxed (Ghulam Sarwar, 1967).
  2. Mandamus: a command to perform a public duty. Conditions: a legal right, a public duty, a demand and refusal, and no equally efficacious alternative. Does not lie against a private person, against the President or a Governor (Article 361), or to enforce a contract of personal service. Praga Tools Corporation v. C.V. Imanual (1969); Andi Mukta Sadguru Trust v. V.R. Rudani (1989). Continuing mandamus: Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998).
  3. Prohibition: preventive, to stop an inferior court or tribunal exceeding its jurisdiction while the proceeding is pending.
  4. Certiorari: curative, to quash an order already made, on the grounds of want or excess of jurisdiction, breach of natural justice, or error of law apparent on the face of the record: Syed Yakoob v. K.S. Radhakrishnan (1964).
  5. Quo warranto: to oust the holder of a public office who has no title: University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965); locus standi relaxed.
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The compensation jurisdiction, a modern addition: Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983) and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), where compensation for the violation of a fundamental right was held to be a public law remedy based on strict liability, distinct from the private law remedy in tort, and to which sovereign immunity is no defence; D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997).

B. Ordinary or private-law remedies.

  1. Suit for damages in tort against the State under Article 300, for the wrongs of its servants in non-sovereign functions: State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati (1962); N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994). The officer is personally liable in any event.
  2. Suit on contract, subject to Article 299, with a claim in restitution under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act where the formality was not complied with but the Government enjoyed the benefit: State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons (1962).
  3. Declaration under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, that an order or a rule is void, useful where no consequential relief is needed.
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  1. Injunction under Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, temporary or perpetual, prohibitory or mandatory; note the bar in Section 41 against interfering with the public duties of a Government department or a public officer.
  2. Notice under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, two months, is a condition precedent to a suit against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act done in his official capacity, though the court may grant urgent relief without it under Section 80(2).

C. Statutory and administrative remedies. Appeal, revision and review provided by the parent Act; departmental representation and memorial; and the exhaustion rule, that a writ court will ordinarily require an adequate statutory remedy to be exhausted first, save where the order is without jurisdiction, where natural justice has been violated, where a fundamental right is breached, or where the vires of the statute are in question.

D. Institutional and non-judicial remedies.

  1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas under the Act of 2013 and the Maharashtra Act of 1971, for corruption and maladministration;
  2. the Central Vigilance Commission under the Act of 2003;
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  1. the Comptroller and Auditor General under Article 148, and the parliamentary financial committees;
  2. the Right to Information Act, 2005, which is a remedy in itself, because disclosure often secures redress without litigation;
  3. National and State Human Rights Commissions, the National Commission for Women, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and sectoral regulators and ombudsmen such as the Banking Ombudsman and the Insurance Ombudsman;
  4. Tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B, which are the first-instance forum in whole classes of dispute after L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997).

E. The limitations on the judicial remedies. The court will refuse relief for laches; where there is an adequate alternative remedy; where disputed questions of fact require evidence; for suppression of material facts; where the matter is one of policy; where the petition is academic or infructuous; and where res judicata applies: Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1961), with constructive res judicata in Devilal Modi v. Sales Tax Officer (1965).

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(3)Explain meaning, nature, Scope & Sources of Administrative law. Explain various reasons for growth of of Administrative law.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover the five things the question names, in its own order: meaning, nature, scope, sources, and growth.

1. Meaning. Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review. Sir William Wade, shortest and best: "the law relating to the control of governmental power." The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure by which relief is obtained and the control exercised by the legislature.

Criticism: Jennings is too wide and omits control; Davis concentrates on adjudication and neglects rule-making.

2. Nature. Administrative law is:

  1. a branch of public law, governing the relation of the individual to the State;
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  1. judge-made and uncodified in India: there is no Administrative Procedure Act, and natural justice, ultra vires and the control of discretion are entirely the creation of decided cases;
  2. functional rather than conceptual, studying what agencies do rather than how they are labelled, which is why the judicial and administrative classification lost its force after A.K. Kraipak (1970);
  3. dynamic, expanding with every new function the State assumes;
  4. remedial, in that its content is largely a law of remedies; and
  5. organised around a single idea, power and its control.

3. Scope. It covers:

  1. the organisation and composition of administrative authorities, tribunals, commissions, corporations and local bodies;
  2. delegated legislation and its parliamentary, procedural and judicial control;
  3. administrative adjudication and tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B;
  4. the principles of natural justice and the duty to act fairly;
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  1. administrative discretion, its failure and its abuse;
  2. judicial review and the writs under Articles 32 and 226, with the ordinary remedies of suit, declaration, injunction and damages;
  3. the liability of the State in tort under Article 300 and in contract under Article 299, with promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation;
  4. the civil services under Articles 308 to 323, the doctrine of pleasure and Article 311;
  5. public undertakings and their accountability, including Article 12; and
  6. institutional controls: the Lokpal and Lokayuktas, the Central Vigilance Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act, 2005.

4. Sources.

  1. the Constitution, the primary source: Articles 12 and 13, 14, 19 and 21, 32 and 226, 299 and 300, 308 to 323, and 323A and 323B;
  2. statutes, which create the authorities and confer their powers;
  3. delegated legislation made under those statutes;
  4. judicial decisions, which supply nearly all the governing principles, none of which is enacted in India;
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  1. administrative directions, circulars and departmental practice, which bind internally and may found a legitimate expectation; and
  2. reports of committees, persuasive rather than binding: the Donoughmore Committee (1932) and the Franks Committee (1957) in England, and the Administrative Reforms Commissions of 1966 and 2005 in India.

5. Reasons for growth.

  1. The change from the police State to the welfare State, under the Directive Principles. This is the first reason and every other follows from it.
  2. Inadequacy of the legislature, which cannot make detailed law, producing delegated legislation.
  3. Inadequacy of the ordinary courts, slow, costly and rigid, producing tribunals.
  4. Technicality of modern administration, producing the expert regulator: the RBI, SEBI, TRAI and the Competition Commission.
  5. Industrialisation, urbanisation and planning: acquisition, zoning, rationing, price control and licensing.
  6. Emergency and crisis, from the Defence of India Rules to the rules made under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
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  1. The value of experiment, since a new social scheme cannot be got right at once.
  2. The expansion of rights and public interest litigation: Maneka Gandhi (1978) and S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981).
  3. The demand for open and accountable government, producing the Right to Information Act, 2005, the statutory Central Vigilance Commission in 2003 and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

6. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law is concerned with the structure of the State, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In India the dependence is close, because Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311 supply so much of the subject.

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(4)Explain in detail Doctrine of Rule Of law with relevant case laws. Highlight its references under Indian Constitution.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin; Dicey's three propositions and the criticism of each; the modern restatement; the references in the Indian Constitution, which the question asks for by name; six Indian judgments; and the departures.

1. Meaning and origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law; that power may be exercised only under and according to law; and that no person is above the law. The phrase renders the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry is long: Bracton in the thirteenth century, and Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I, asserting that the King is under God and the law.

2. Dicey's three propositions, Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885):

  1. Supremacy of law, the absence of arbitrary power: no man may be punished except for a distinct breach of law established in the ordinary courts. "Wherever there is discretion there is room for arbitrariness."
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  1. Equality before the law: every man, whatever his rank or condition, is subject to the ordinary law and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals, so there is no separate administrative law and no administrative court, as there is in France.
  2. The constitution is the result of the ordinary law of the land: in England the general principles of the constitution are the outcome of judicial decisions in particular cases, and are not the source of, but the consequence of, individual rights.

3. The criticism.

  1. The first would make modern government impossible: discretion is unavoidable in a welfare administration, and Dicey confused arbitrary power with discretionary power. The remedy is to confine, structure and check discretion, not to abolish it.
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  1. The second rested on a misreading of droit administratif, whose control over the administration is in several respects stricter than the English courts'; and English law itself had special rules for public bodies.
  2. The third is a description of English constitutional history, not a universal truth. The Indian arrangement is the reverse and is stronger: a right guaranteed by a written Constitution cannot be removed by an ordinary statute, while a right resting on judicial decision can.

4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi, 1959, restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. This is the version that fits a welfare State and the Directive Principles.

5. References in the Indian Constitution.

  1. the Preamble, resolving to secure justice, liberty and equality;
  2. Article 13: laws inconsistent with the fundamental rights are void, which subordinates the legislature to the Constitution;
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  1. Article 14: equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws, the textual home of Dicey's second proposition, and, after E.P. Royappa (1974), a guarantee against arbitrariness;
  2. Article 19: restrictions on the freedoms must be reasonable and imposed by law;
  3. Article 20: no ex post facto criminal law, no double jeopardy, no compelled self-incrimination;
  4. Article 21: no deprivation of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law, read after Maneka Gandhi as requiring a procedure that is right, just and fair;
  5. Article 22: safeguards on arrest and preventive detention;
  6. Article 265: no tax except by authority of law; Article 300A: no deprivation of property save by authority of law;
  7. Articles 32 and 226: the remedy is itself a right;
  8. Article 300: the State may sue and be sued, so the government is not above the ordinary law;
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  1. Articles 50, 124 to 147 and 214 to 231: the independence of the judiciary, without which the rule of law is a form of words;
  2. Articles 309 to 311: the services, and the protection of the civil servant.

6. The Indian case law.

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): the rule of law is part of the basic structure, beyond even the amending power.
  2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which took the Prime Minister's election dispute out of every court, was struck down; a legislature cannot decide a particular dispute by declaring the result.
  3. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976): the majority held that during the Emergency, Article 21 being suspended, no habeas corpus petition lay. It is the low-water mark of the doctrine in India, and Justice H.R. Khanna's lone dissent, that the State has no power to deprive a person of life or liberty without the authority of law even in an emergency, is now the accepted position; the majority was expressly overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017).
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  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): the golden triangle of Articles 14, 19 and 21, and the conversion of a formal rule of law into a substantive one.
  2. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1982), Bhagwati J.: the rule of law excludes arbitrariness, its postulate being "intelligence without passion and reason freed from desire".
  3. Som Raj v. State of Haryana (1990): the absence of arbitrary power is the first postulate of the rule of law, on which the whole constitutional edifice depends.

7. The departures. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege); preventive detention under Article 22; the Emergency provisions in Articles 352 to 360, though after the 44th Amendment Articles 20 and 21 can no longer be suspended; wide administrative discretion; and adjudication by tribunals in place of the ordinary courts.

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(5)What do you mean by Public Interest Litigation? Discuss the role of Supreme Court as protector of our rights through PIL.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and the change in locus standi; the origin and the reasons for it; the procedural innovations with cases; then the role of the Supreme Court under subject heads with the leading cases; the criticism; and the safeguards the Court has itself laid down.

1. Meaning. Public interest litigation is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed, but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or a class who by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position are unable to approach the court themselves. It is also called social action litigation.

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2. The foundation: relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, changed it: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong is caused to a person or a determinate class who cannot approach the court for relief, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.

3. Why it arose. Because the ordinary machinery of justice does not reach the poor. Litigation is costly, slow and technical; the illiterate and the destitute do not know their rights, cannot draft a petition and cannot afford a lawyer. Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid, and PIL is the judicial answer to the same problem.

4. The procedural innovations.

  1. Epistolary jurisdiction: a letter or postcard treated as a petition. Sunil Batra (II) v. Delhi Administration (1980), a prisoner's letter about the torture of another prisoner; Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984), a letter about bonded labour.
  2. Investigative commissions appointed by the court to gather facts, since the petitioner has no access to evidence: Bandhua Mukti Morcha.
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  1. Non-adversarial procedure: the object is compliance, not defeat of the State.
  2. Continuing mandamus: the court retains the matter and monitors compliance: Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998); the vehicular pollution and forest conservation matters.
  3. Compensation as a public law remedy: Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983), fourteen years' illegal detention; Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), custodial death, holding the remedy to be based on strict liability and unanswerable by sovereign immunity.
  4. Guidelines with the force of law until Parliament legislates: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

5. The role of the Supreme Court as protector of rights, by subject.

  1. Personal liberty and the criminal process. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979): thousands of undertrials in Bihar had been in jail longer than the maximum sentence for their offence; the Court held the right to a speedy trial to be part of Article 21 and ordered their release. Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra (1983), women in custody. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the eleven custodial safeguards.
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  1. Bonded and child labour. Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984), bonded labour in the stone quarries of Faridabad; M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu (1996), child labour in the Sivakasi match factories.
  2. Environment. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India: the Ganga pollution cases, the Oleum gas leak case (1987), which laid down absolute liability for hazardous industry, and the vehicular pollution matters. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle.
  3. Livelihood and shelter. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985): the right to livelihood is part of the right to life under Article 21, and pavement dwellers were entitled to be heard before eviction.
  4. Women and dignity. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace, later enacted as the Act of 2013.
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  1. Food, health and education. People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, the right to food and the midday meal scheme; Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal (1996), emergency medical treatment; Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993), education as part of Article 21, later Article 21A.
  2. Accountability and probity in government. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), which produced the statutory Central Vigilance Commission; Common Cause v. Union of India, on the arbitrary allotment of public largesse.

6. The criticism. That PIL breaches the separation of powers and amounts to judicial legislation; that courts decide questions of policy and resource allocation for which they have neither expertise nor accountability; that orders are often unenforceable and go unmonitored; that PIL has become publicity interest and private interest litigation, used by busybodies, by commercial rivals and for political ends; and that it has been used against the very poor whom it was created to protect, as in some eviction and street-vendor matters.

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7. The safeguards the Court has itself laid down. State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010): the Supreme Court directed the High Courts to frame rules for PIL, to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents before entertaining a petition, to be satisfied that substantial public interest is involved, and to discourage petitions filed for extraneous motives, imposing exemplary costs where necessary.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 23 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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