Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 23 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Write short answers on any Six, not more than 2 to 3 sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Bias is a predisposition or leaning of the mind, arising from interest or prejudice, which prevents an authority from deciding a matter with an open mind. It offends the first rule of natural justice, nemo judex in causa sua, and the test is a real likelihood of bias, not proof of actual bias.
The types:
Answer
Ultra vires means "beyond the powers". An act or a rule is ultra vires when it exceeds the authority conferred by the Constitution, by the parent statute, or by the instrument under which the body acts, and such an act is void.
It has two branches: substantive ultra vires, where the content of the act or rule is beyond the power, and procedural ultra vires, where the power existed but the prescribed procedure was not followed.
Answer
A laissez faire State, also called the police or negative State, confines itself to defence, law and order and the administration of justice, and leaves economic and social life alone. A welfare State assumes positive responsibility for the social and economic well-being of its people, providing education, health, housing, employment and social security and regulating economic activity.
Answer
Habeas corpus, "you may have the body", is a writ commanding a person who has detained another to produce him before the court and to justify the detention. If the detention is found to be without legal authority, the court orders his immediate release.
It lies under Article 32 and Article 226, against the State and a private person, and it is the principal safeguard of personal liberty under Articles 21 and 22.
Answer
Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "reasonable cause" and "in the public interest".
Answer
Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. Its sources are Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and it is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Answer
An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The institution began in Sweden in 1809, and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent.
In India the counterparts are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having created the first by its Act of 1971.
Answer
Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State, the distribution of powers between its organs and between the Union and the States, and the fundamental rights: it is concerned with the government at rest. Administrative law deals with the exercise of those powers by the administration in the daily working of government: it is concerned with the government in motion.
Constitutional law is the genus, administrative law a species of it.
Answer
The red light theory is one of the two competing views of the function of administrative law, described by Harlow and Rawlings in Law and Administration. On this view the primary function of administrative law is to control the executive and to stop it exceeding its powers: the law is a red light which halts the administration, and the courts are the principal check.
Its intellectual parents are Dicey and the classical rule of law: government is a necessary evil, its powers are to be confined, and the citizen's protection lies in the ordinary courts.
Answer
A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now treated as the third principle of natural justice.
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. Public interest litigation. PIL is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or class who by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position cannot approach the court themselves.
2. Its foundation: the relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, is the foundation: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong is caused to a person or a determinate class who cannot approach the court for relief, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.
3. Its procedural features.
4. Its achievements. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979), the undertrial prisoners of Bihar, and the right to a speedy trial; M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Ganga pollution, Oleum gas leak and vehicular pollution cases, from which came absolute liability; Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), the guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace, later enacted in 2013; Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), livelihood as part of Article 21; People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, the right to food and midday meals; D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), custodial safeguards.
5. Judicial activism. Judicial activism is the willingness of a court to go beyond the strict adjudication of the dispute before it, to give an expansive reading to constitutional guarantees, to fill legislative gaps and to issue directions to the executive. Its Indian instruments have been the expansion of Article 21 (Maneka Gandhi, 1978), the basic structure doctrine, PIL, continuing mandamus, and the framing of guidelines with the force of law until Parliament legislates (Vishaka).
6. The criticism, and the answer to it. Activism is criticised as a breach of the separation of powers, as judicial legislation, as the taking of decisions on policy and resource allocation for which courts have neither the expertise nor the accountability, and, in its degenerate form, as judicial adventurism. PIL is criticised for having become publicity interest litigation and for its abuse by busybodies and by commercial rivals. The Supreme Court itself has acknowledged this: in State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010) it laid down guidelines to prevent abuse, requiring courts to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents, and to encourage genuine PIL while discouraging the rest. Costs are now imposed on frivolous petitioners.
Answer
1. What it is. The Central Vigilance Commission is the apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union. It exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. Origin and status. Set up by a Government resolution in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption chaired by K. Santhanam. It was given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, enacted in consequence of the directions of the Supreme Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), the Jain Hawala case, in which the Court directed that the Commission be given statutory status and that the CBI be insulated from executive interference. It is an independent body answerable only to Parliament.
3. Composition. A Central Vigilance Commissioner as chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term: four years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Removal only by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after a reference to the Supreme Court, which is the same protection as a judge enjoys and is the guarantee of independence.
4. Functions and powers.
5. Jurisdiction. Members of the All India Services serving under the Union and Group A officers of the central Government, together with the officers of public sector undertakings, nationalised banks, insurance companies and societies and local authorities owned or controlled by the Union, at the levels notified. State Government servants fall under the State Vigilance Commissions.
6. Limitations. Its advice is advisory only, though a departure must be recorded and reported. It cannot register a criminal case or investigate directly, but must act through the CBI or the departmental machinery. It has no jurisdiction over State servants. And it depends on the Government for staff and infrastructure.
Answer
1. What a corporation is. An artificial or juristic person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct from the natural persons composing it, and capable of holding property, contracting, and suing and being sued in its own name.
2. The first division: sole and aggregate.
3. The second division: by mode of creation.
4. The third division: by function.
5. Why the classification matters in administrative law.
Answer
1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that the measure adopted by an authority be no more than is necessary to achieve the object, and that the burden it imposes bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the familiar formulation, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".
2. Origin. It comes from German administrative law (Verhaltnismassigkeit) and passed through the European Court of Justice and the European Convention on Human Rights into English law, where Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985) suggested it might in time become a fourth ground of review alongside illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety.
3. The four-part test, as settled in India by Modern Dental College and Research Centre v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):
4. Its two fields of operation in Indian administrative law.
5. Proportionality and Wednesbury: the Indian division of labour. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settled it:
6. The difference between the two tests. Wednesbury asks a question about the decision-maker: could any reasonable authority have decided this way? Proportionality asks a question about the decision: was this much interference needed to secure that much benefit? Proportionality is the stricter test and gives the court a larger role, which is why Indian courts have confined it, outside fundamental rights, to punishments that shock the conscience.
Answer any two 12 Marks
Answer
Note on the statute: Section 118 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 punishes voluntarily causing hurt or grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means, and corresponds to Sections 324 and 326 of the repealed Indian Penal Code.
It can be challenged, but on these facts the challenge is likely to fail, because the order is an interim preventive measure and not a punishment.
Yes. Two exceptions apply: interim preventive action, and emergency or urgency.
The other recognised exceptions, which should be listed to complete the answer:
Answer
These are the facts of Attorney General of Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu, [1983] 2 AC 629 (Privy Council), the leading case on legitimate expectation.
The Government has the statutory power to deport, but it cannot exercise that power in breach of its own announcement without first hearing the person affected. The deportation order made without an opportunity is bad.
The doctrine of legitimate expectation.
Answer
These are the facts of Hind Construction and Engineering Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen, AIR 1965 SC 917.
No. The dismissal is not justifiable. The punishment is grossly disproportionate to the misconduct and is liable to be set aside, with reinstatement.
The doctrine of proportionality.
Answer
These are the facts of State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933.
The tortious liability of the State, vicarious for the negligence of its servant in the discharge of a non-sovereign function. The State is liable.
No.
Long Note. Answer any two 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and forms; eight reasons for growth with illustrations; four heads of classification; the Delhi Laws Act test; then two lists, what may and what may not be delegated, with a case for each head.
1. Definition. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority". Sir Cecil Carr: "a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork".
Its forms are rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions, and Indian statutes use the terms loosely.
2. Reasons for its growth.
3. Classification.
4. The test: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (AIR 1951 SC 332). The Supreme Court held that the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, which is the laying down of the policy of the law and its enactment into a binding rule of conduct; that having laid down the policy it may delegate the working out of details; and that the power to repeal or modify an existing law is in general beyond the permissible limit. The question in every case is therefore whether the parent Act supplies a policy and a standard.
5. Functions which MAY be delegated.
6. Functions which MAY NOT be delegated.
7. The controls, briefly. Parliamentary: policy in the parent Act, the three forms of laying (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979, holding a bare laying requirement directory), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation. Procedural: prior publication, consultation and Gazette publication (Harla v. State of Rajasthan, 1951). Judicial: substantive and procedural ultra vires.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the constitutional remedies, that is, the five writs under Articles 32 and 226; the ordinary or private-law remedies of suit, declaration, injunction and damages; the statutory and administrative remedies, appeal, revision and review; the institutional remedies, Lokpal, Central Vigilance Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act; and the limitations on each.
A. Constitutional remedies: the writs.
Source. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights only, and the right to move it is itself a fundamental right. Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue them for fundamental rights and for any other purpose, so its jurisdiction is wider. Article 227 gives the High Court a power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals in its territory, which is distinct from Article 226 and is exercised sparingly. Article 136 gives the Supreme Court special leave to appeal from any court or tribunal.
The five writs.
The compensation jurisdiction, a modern addition: Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983) and Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), where compensation for the violation of a fundamental right was held to be a public law remedy based on strict liability, distinct from the private law remedy in tort, and to which sovereign immunity is no defence; D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997).
B. Ordinary or private-law remedies.
C. Statutory and administrative remedies. Appeal, revision and review provided by the parent Act; departmental representation and memorial; and the exhaustion rule, that a writ court will ordinarily require an adequate statutory remedy to be exhausted first, save where the order is without jurisdiction, where natural justice has been violated, where a fundamental right is breached, or where the vires of the statute are in question.
D. Institutional and non-judicial remedies.
E. The limitations on the judicial remedies. The court will refuse relief for laches; where there is an adequate alternative remedy; where disputed questions of fact require evidence; for suppression of material facts; where the matter is one of policy; where the petition is academic or infructuous; and where res judicata applies: Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1961), with constructive res judicata in Devilal Modi v. Sales Tax Officer (1965).
Answer
For full marks, cover the five things the question names, in its own order: meaning, nature, scope, sources, and growth.
1. Meaning. Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review. Sir William Wade, shortest and best: "the law relating to the control of governmental power." The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure by which relief is obtained and the control exercised by the legislature.
Criticism: Jennings is too wide and omits control; Davis concentrates on adjudication and neglects rule-making.
2. Nature. Administrative law is:
3. Scope. It covers:
4. Sources.
5. Reasons for growth.
6. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law is concerned with the structure of the State, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In India the dependence is close, because Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311 supply so much of the subject.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin; Dicey's three propositions and the criticism of each; the modern restatement; the references in the Indian Constitution, which the question asks for by name; six Indian judgments; and the departures.
1. Meaning and origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law; that power may be exercised only under and according to law; and that no person is above the law. The phrase renders the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry is long: Bracton in the thirteenth century, and Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I, asserting that the King is under God and the law.
2. Dicey's three propositions, Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885):
3. The criticism.
4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi, 1959, restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. This is the version that fits a welfare State and the Directive Principles.
5. References in the Indian Constitution.
6. The Indian case law.
7. The departures. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege); preventive detention under Article 22; the Emergency provisions in Articles 352 to 360, though after the 44th Amendment Articles 20 and 21 can no longer be suspended; wide administrative discretion; and adjudication by tribunals in place of the ordinary courts.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the change in locus standi; the origin and the reasons for it; the procedural innovations with cases; then the role of the Supreme Court under subject heads with the leading cases; the criticism; and the safeguards the Court has itself laid down.
1. Meaning. Public interest litigation is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed, but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or a class who by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position are unable to approach the court themselves. It is also called social action litigation.
2. The foundation: relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, changed it: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong is caused to a person or a determinate class who cannot approach the court for relief, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.
3. Why it arose. Because the ordinary machinery of justice does not reach the poor. Litigation is costly, slow and technical; the illiterate and the destitute do not know their rights, cannot draft a petition and cannot afford a lawyer. Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid, and PIL is the judicial answer to the same problem.
4. The procedural innovations.
5. The role of the Supreme Court as protector of rights, by subject.
6. The criticism. That PIL breaches the separation of powers and amounts to judicial legislation; that courts decide questions of policy and resource allocation for which they have neither expertise nor accountability; that orders are often unenforceable and go unmonitored; that PIL has become publicity interest and private interest litigation, used by busybodies, by commercial rivals and for political ends; and that it has been used against the very poor whom it was created to protect, as in some eviction and street-vendor matters.
7. The safeguards the Court has itself laid down. State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010): the Supreme Court directed the High Courts to frame rules for PIL, to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents before entertaining a petition, to be satisfied that substantial public interest is involved, and to discourage petitions filed for extraneous motives, imposing exemplary costs where necessary.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 23 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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