Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in two sentence, any six 12 Marks
Answer
Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."
K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.
Sir William Wade, shortest: "the law relating to the control of governmental power".
Answer
An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress.
The institution began in Sweden in 1809; the word is Swedish for a representative or agent. In India the corresponding offices are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having led with its own Act of 1971.
Answer
A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute empowering the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power to make such provision as appears necessary "for removing any difficulty" in giving effect to the Act.
It is named after King Henry VIII, who by the Statute of Proclamations, 1539 was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and the name is used as a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.
Answer
Substantive ultra vires means that the content of a piece of delegated legislation, or of an administrative act, is beyond the power conferred, as distinguished from procedural ultra vires, where the power existed but the prescribed procedure was not followed.
Answer
A speaking order is an order that speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice.
Answer
Two functions are:
Further functions are drafting delegated legislation, quasi-judicial adjudication in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals, and providing continuity and institutional memory across changes of government.
Answer
Prohibition is a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal, commanding it to stop proceedings which are in excess of its jurisdiction or in violation of the principles of natural justice.
It is preventive: it issues while the proceeding is still pending, before the inferior body has made its order.
Answer
Acting under dictation is a form of failure to exercise discretion: the authority on whom the statute conferred the power does not apply its own mind but acts on the instructions or direction of another, whether a superior, a Minister or another body.
Such an order is void, because the statute required the judgment of the named authority and it has substituted someone else's.
Answer
The three organs are:
Answer
Two of the three requisites in Article 299(1) are that the contract must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor, and that it must be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor. The third is that it must be executed by a person authorised by the President or the Governor.
Write short notes on the following, attempt any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. Meaning. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law; that power may be exercised only under and according to law; and that no person is above the law. The phrase renders the French la principe de legalite, and the idea is older, running from Bracton to Coke CJ in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610).
2. Dicey's three propositions (Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution, 1885):
3. The criticism. The first would make modern government impossible, since discretion is unavoidable; Dicey confused arbitrary power with discretionary power. The second rested on a misreading of droit administratif, whose control over the administration is in some respects stricter than the English courts'. The third describes English history rather than a universal principle, and India's reverse arrangement, rights guaranteed by a written Constitution, is the stronger one.
4. In India. It is embodied in the Preamble; Article 13 (inconsistent laws void); Article 14 (equality before the law, and after E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu, 1974, a guarantee against arbitrariness); Article 19 (restrictions must be reasonable and by law); Article 21 (procedure established by law, which after Maneka Gandhi, 1978, must be right, just and fair); Articles 265 and 300A (no tax and no deprivation of property except by authority of law); Articles 32 and 226 (enforceable remedies); Article 300 (the State may be sued); and the independence of the judiciary.
5. The Indian cases.
6. The departures. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors), Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege), preventive detention under Article 22, the Emergency provisions in Articles 352 to 360, wide administrative discretion, and adjudication by tribunals.
7. The modern content. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi, 1959, restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept, covering not only civil and political rights but the social and economic conditions in which human dignity is possible.
Answer
1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty, because concentrated power is abused.
2. Comparative. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never applied it. India takes a middle position: the functions are differentiated but the organs are not insulated.
3. What reflects the doctrine in India. Article 50 (separation of the judiciary from the executive, a Directive Principle); Articles 53 and 154 (executive power vested in the President and Governors); Articles 121 and 211 (no discussion of a Judge's conduct); Articles 122 and 212 (courts may not inquire into legislative procedure); Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); and the independence of the judiciary under Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231.
4. What departs from it. Ministerial responsibility to the legislature (Articles 74, 75, 163 and 164); ordinances under Articles 123 and 213; the legislature's judicial functions (contempt of itself, impeachment under Article 61, removal of judges); the judiciary's rule-making and appointment powers (Articles 145, 227, 229); the executive's adjudicatory functions through tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B); and delegated legislation.
5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the Constitution has not recognised the doctrine "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions of the different branches have been "sufficiently differentiated", so no organ may assume a function essentially belonging to another. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): part of the basic structure. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): courts must not enter the field of policy. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the 99th Amendment creating the NJAC struck down, judicial primacy in appointments being part of judicial independence.
6. Conclusion. In India separation of powers is a principle of interpretation and a basic feature, not a rule of the text. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.
Answer
1. What it is. The Central Vigilance Commission is the apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union, which exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. Origin and status.
3. Composition. A Central Vigilance Commissioner as chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term: four years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Removal is by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, after a reference to the Supreme Court, which is the same protection given to the judges, and this is what secures its independence.
4. Functions and powers.
5. Jurisdiction. Members of the All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, and Group A officers of the central Government, together with the officers of public sector undertakings, nationalised banks, insurance companies and societies and local authorities owned or controlled by the Union, at the levels notified.
6. Limitations, to be stated honestly. Its advice is advisory only and the disciplinary authority is not bound by it, although departure must be recorded and reported. It has no power to register a criminal case or to investigate directly; it must act through the CBI or the departmental vigilance machinery. It has no jurisdiction over State Government servants, who fall under the State Vigilance Commissions. And it depends on the Government for its staff.
Answer
1. Background. The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966, chaired by Morarji Desai, recommended a Lokpal at the Centre and a Lokayukta in each State on the Scandinavian ombudsman model. Between 1968 and 2011 eight Lokpal Bills lapsed. The Act was passed in December 2013, came into force on 16 January 2014, and the first Lokpal was appointed in March 2019.
2. Salient features.
3. Criticism. The appointment of the first Lokpal took five years; the Inquiry and Prosecution Wings were slow to be constituted; several States have still not appointed a Lokayukta; the Lokpal cannot itself punish; and the exclusion of anything said in Parliament, though constitutionally required, narrows the jurisdiction over legislators.
Answer the situational question, attempt any two 12 Marks
Answer
But the Director made an invariable rule that he will grant exemption only if the person has completed thirteen years of age.
Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "in deserving cases", "where it appears to the authority", and "in the public interest".
Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case. A welfare State must license, allot, exempt, subsidise and regulate, and each of those requires a judgment on facts that vary from case to case. Dicey thought discretion the enemy of the rule of law; the modern answer is that the enemy is not discretion but unstructured and unreviewable discretion.
Its two limits. A discretion is never a free power. The courts control it under two great heads: failure to exercise the discretion, where the authority never brought its own mind to bear, and abuse of the discretion, where it did but on impermissible grounds.
Yes. The Director's invariable rule is bad and can be struck down, and an applicant refused under it is entitled to have his case considered on its merits.
Answer
Yes. Any member of the public acting bona fide may oppose it, by a petition for a writ of quo warranto under Article 226. He need not have been a candidate and need show no personal right.
Quo warranto in detail:
Answer
These are the facts of E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1974) 4 SCC 3, one of the most important cases in Indian constitutional and administrative law.
The legal proposition is that arbitrariness is a breach of Article 14, and if the transfer is shown to be arbitrary it is void. But on the facts of Royappa itself the Supreme Court held the challenge was not made out, and the petition was dismissed.
Only if mala fides is proved, and the burden is on the petitioner. In Royappa it was not discharged.
Answer
These are, almost word for word, the facts of State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933.
The liability is the tortious liability of the State, vicarious for the negligence of its servant in the discharge of a non-sovereign function. The State is liable.
No. The maxim has no application.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning; why it matters, since the question asks for importance; the two rules with their components and cases; the third rule of reasoned decisions; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness the law requires of anyone deciding a matter that affects another's rights or legitimate interests. It has no fixed content: what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual. In India it rests on Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is a constitutional wrong.
2. Its importance in administrative law.
3. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua, the rule against bias. The test is a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but be seen to be done. Its forms:
The exception is the doctrine of necessity: a disqualified authority may act where it is the only one competent and the alternative is that no decision can be made: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990); and see Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985), where a Public Service Commission member whose relative was a candidate withdrew only from that candidate's assessment.
4. The second rule: audi alteram partem, the hearing rule. Its components are notice of the charge and of the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex; he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and decision on the record alone.
Landmarks: Cooper v. Wandsworth (1863); Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), where the House of Lords held the duty to hear does not depend on classifying the decision as judicial; Maneka Gandhi (1978); Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981), where the post-decisional hearing was called a "poor substitute"; Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978); Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985).
5. The third rule: the reasoned or speaking order. Siemens Engineering v. Union of India (1976): recording reasons is "a basic principle of natural justice". S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990): reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with.
6. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970); legislative action; confidentiality and the security of the State; the narrow "useless formality" exception; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; waiver; and the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
7. Effect of breach. The order is void, not voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974). The court quashes it by certiorari and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred; it does not decide the merits.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition with Justice Douglas; the characteristics; the kinds with real Indian examples; the reasons for creating them; then the four heads of control in detail, with the Article 12 case law under judicial control; and a conclusion on the autonomy-accountability tension.
1. Definition. A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds, and freedom from ordinary departmental and budgetary procedure.
Justice Douglas of the United States Supreme Court described it as a device combining "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency, with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
2. Characteristics. Statutory or corporate creation; separate legal personality with perpetual succession and a common seal; capacity to hold property, contract, and sue and be sued in its own name; State ownership of the capital; financial autonomy, keeping its own accounts outside the Consolidated Fund; staff who are not civil servants, governed by its own regulations, so that Article 311 does not apply to them; and freedom from day-to-day departmental control.
3. Kinds. Statutory corporations (Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, Damodar Valley Corporation, Airports Authority of India, the State Road Transport Corporations); Government companies under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013, with not less than 51 per cent Government shareholding (Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals, Coal India, ONGC); and chartered corporations, now historical. Functionally they are commercial, financial, developmental, promotional or regulatory (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, Securities and Exchange Board of India, Competition Commission of India).
4. Why they are created. To combine public ownership with commercial flexibility; to secure expert management free of departmental interference; to give the undertaking its own personality and funds; to hold a strategic monopoly; and to employ staff on business terms.
5. Control.
A. Parliamentary control.
B. Governmental or executive control.
C. Judicial control.
D. Public control. The Right to Information Act, 2005, which applies to bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Government; consumer and user consultative councils; the press; the Central Vigilance Commission and the Lokpal, whose jurisdiction under Section 14 extends to the officers of such bodies; and the sectoral regulator, where one exists.
6. Conclusion. The design problem of the public corporation is that the two things asked of it pull against each other. Autonomy is the reason for creating it; accountability is the reason it exists at all. Too much control and it becomes a department under another name; too little and public money is spent without answer. The Indian settlement has been to leave management free and to control policy, appointments, finance and legality, with the Article 12 line of cases ensuring that a corporation cannot escape the fundamental rights merely by taking a company's form.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why judicial control carries the weight; substantive ultra vires under nine heads with a case for each; procedural ultra vires with the publication cases; the presumption of validity and the limits of review; and the effect of a rule being struck down.
1. Why judicial control is the effective control. Parliamentary control is weak: thousands of instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, at the instance of the person affected, through the doctrine of ultra vires.
2. Substantive ultra vires.
3. Procedural ultra vires. Where the parent Act prescribes a procedure, the question is whether it is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal.
4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden lies on the challenger. The court will not strike a rule down because it thinks it unwise, harsh or capable of improvement; it is not a court of appeal on policy. It reviews legality, not merit.
5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and treated as never having been made. Severance is possible where the offending part can be separated and the remainder can operate independently. Acts already done under it may in some circumstances be protected, and the court may mould relief prospectively.
6. The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or Article 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and the rule may also be attacked collaterally, by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on it.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definitions briefly; the nature in five features; eight reasons for growth, each with a concrete illustration, since the question puts growth third and expects it to be substantial; the scope under ten heads; and the relation to constitutional law.
1. Definitions, briefly. Ivor Jennings: "the law relating to the administration; it determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, especially the law governing judicial review. Sir William Wade: "the law relating to the control of governmental power."
2. Nature. A branch of public law; judge-made and uncodified in India, since there is no Administrative Procedure Act and natural justice, ultra vires and abuse of discretion are all creations of case law; functional rather than conceptual, which is why the judicial and administrative labels lost their force after A.K. Kraipak (1970); dynamic, growing with each new function of the State; and organised around power and its control.
3. Reasons for its growth.
4. Scope. The organisation of administrative authorities; delegated legislation and its control; administrative adjudication and tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B; the principles of natural justice; administrative discretion and the grounds of its review; judicial review and the writs under Articles 32 and 226 with the ordinary remedies; State liability in tort under Article 300 and in contract under Article 299, with promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation; the civil services under Articles 308 to 323, the doctrine of pleasure and Article 311; public undertakings and Article 12; and the institutional controls, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas, the Central Vigilance Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act, 2005.
5. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of power, the government at rest; administrative law deals with the exercise of power in the daily working of government, the government in motion. Constitutional law is the genus and administrative law a species. In India the dependence is close, because Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311 are the source of much of the subject.
No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.
Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.
Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.
The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.
Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license
This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT 60/40 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
Also from munotes.in
Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.