munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7 Administrative Law 2022-23 - ATKT Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Administrative Law

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7

2022-23 - ATKT Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii
munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

Q.1

Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks

munotes.in 1

(1)Define administrative law.[2]

Answer

Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."

K.C. Davis: it is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.

Sir William Wade puts it shortest: it is "the law relating to the control of governmental power".

munotes.in 2

(2)Define subject matter bias.[2]

Answer

Subject-matter bias, also called official bias, arises where the deciding authority has a general interest in the subject matter of the dispute, as distinct from a personal or a financial interest in the parties, so that it cannot bring an open mind to the decision.

It is the third of the recognised forms of bias, the others being pecuniary, personal and departmental or institutional bias.

munotes.in 3

(3)Define Corporation?[2]

Answer

A corporation is an artificial person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct in law from the persons who compose it, and capable of holding property, entering into contracts, and suing and being sued in its own name.

In administrative law the relevant species is the public corporation, created by a special statute or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State.

munotes.in 4

(4)State the essentials of Government Contract.[2]

Answer

Article 299(1) of the Constitution lays down three essentials:

  1. the contract must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor;
  2. it must be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor; and
  3. it must be executed by a person authorised by the President or the Governor.

In addition the ordinary requirements of a valid contract under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 must be satisfied, and the award must not be arbitrary, since Article 14 applies.

munotes.in 5

(5)What is irrelevant consideration?[2]

Answer

An irrelevant consideration is a matter which the statute conferring a discretion does not permit the authority to take into account, and on which the authority nevertheless acts.

Acting on irrelevant considerations, or failing to consider relevant ones, is a recognised head of abuse of discretion, and an order so made is liable to be quashed even though the authority acted honestly.

munotes.in 6

(6)What is post decisional hearing?[2]

Answer

A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in cases where a prior hearing was not possible because the situation required immediate action. The order remains provisional until the hearing has been held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered.

munotes.in 7

(7)Explain dismissal in limine.[2]

Answer

Dismissal in limine means dismissal at the threshold, that is, the summary rejection of a petition at the admission stage without notice to the other side and without going into the merits.

In writ jurisdiction a petition may be dismissed in limine where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where the petitioner is guilty of laches, where the petition discloses no arguable case, where there is suppression of material facts, or where the matter is one the court will not entertain.

munotes.in 8

(8)What is conditional legislation?[2]

Answer

Conditional legislation, also called contingent legislation, is legislation which is complete in itself but whose operation is made to depend upon a condition, the fulfilment of which the legislature leaves to the executive to determine.

The legislature makes the law; the executive only decides when, where or to whom it shall apply.

munotes.in 9

(9)What is improper purpose?[2]

Answer

Improper purpose, also called collateral purpose, is the use of a statutory power for an object other than that for which the power was conferred. It is a head of abuse of discretion, and it renders the exercise of the power void even if the authority acted honestly and in what it believed to be the public interest.

munotes.in 10

(10)Define kinds of injunction.[2]

Answer

An injunction is an equitable order of a court directing a person to do, or to refrain from doing, an act. Its kinds are:

  1. Temporary (interlocutory), granted during the pendency of a suit and lasting until a specified time or the further order of the court, under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure; and perpetual, granted by the decree at the hearing, under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963;
  2. Prohibitory, restraining the doing of a wrongful act; and mandatory, compelling the performance of an act or the undoing of what has been wrongfully done, under Section 39.
munotes.in 11

Q.2

Write short notes on any two 12 Marks

munotes.in 12

(1)Difference between Court and Tribunal[6]

Answer

1. What each is. A court is a permanent organ of the State, part of the ordinary judicial hierarchy, which exercises the judicial power of the State generally and decides disputes according to law. A tribunal is a statutory body created for a specific field, which decides disputes judicially in substance but stands outside the ordinary hierarchy.

2. The differences.

CourtTribunal
SourcePart of the traditional judicial system, established under the Constitution or by a general lawCreated by a specific statute for a specific purpose
JurisdictionGeneral and civil, over all disputes not excludedConfined to the subject named in its statute
CompositionJudges trained in law, appointed under the ConstitutionA judicial member with an administrative or technical member
munotes.in 13
CourtTribunal
ProcedureBound by the Code of Civil Procedure and the Indian Evidence ActOwn procedure, bound only by natural justice
ApproachDecides on law and the rights of the partiesMay also apply policy and the object of the statute
Position of the StateThe State is a party like any otherThe State is very often itself the other party
PrecedentDecisions bind subordinate courtsGenerally no binding precedent
AppointmentBy the President or the Governor under the constitutional schemeBy the executive under the parent Act
ControlSubject to appeal within the hierarchySubject to writs and to Article 227 superintendence of the High Court

3. What they have in common. Both decide a lis between parties; both must act judicially, that is, objectively on the material; both must observe natural justice; both may summon witnesses and take evidence; and the proceedings of both are judicial proceedings for the purposes of Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.

munotes.in 14

4. The tests the courts use. The classic formulation is that a tribunal has the "trappings of a court" but is not a court. In Bharat Bank Ltd. v. Employees of Bharat Bank (1950) and Durga Shankar Mehta v. Raghuraj Singh (1954), the Supreme Court treated the power to decide a lis judicially, on evidence, with a duty to act judicially, as the mark of a tribunal for the purposes of Article 136. In Associated Cement Companies v. P.N. Sharma (1965) the Court held that the essential test is whether the State has clothed the body with part of its own inherent judicial power.

5. Why the distinction matters. It decides whether Article 136 special leave lies; whether certiorari and prohibition lie; whether Article 227 superintendence applies; whether the Evidence Act applies; and whether the body's decisions can be treated as precedent. After L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) the position is settled that a tribunal, however court-like, is subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court and can never displace it.

munotes.in 15

(2)Res Judicata[6]

Answer

1. Meaning. Res judicata pro veritate accipitur, a thing adjudicated is accepted as true. The doctrine bars the re-trial of a matter that has been finally decided between the same parties by a court of competent jurisdiction. It is enacted for civil suits in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

2. The three maxims on which it rests. Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa, no man should be vexed twice for the same cause; interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium, it is in the interest of the State that there be an end to litigation; and res judicata pro veritate occipitur.

3. Conditions under Section 11. The matter must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit; the former suit must have been between the same parties or those claiming under them; they must have litigated under the same title; the former court must have been competent to try the subsequent suit; and the matter must have been heard and finally decided. Explanation IV adds constructive res judicata: a matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.

munotes.in 16

4. Its application in writ jurisdiction. Section 11 does not in terms apply to writ petitions, but the general principle does.

  1. Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1961) is the leading case. The Supreme Court held that where a writ petition under Article 226 has been heard and finally decided on the merits, a subsequent petition under Article 32 on the same facts between the same parties is barred by res judicata, because the rule is founded on public policy and not on a technicality of the Code.
  2. But a petition dismissed in limine or on the ground of laches or of an alternative remedy, by a non-speaking order, does not operate as res judicata, because there has been no adjudication on the merits.
  3. A petition withdrawn without liberty to file afresh bars a second petition on the same cause: Sarguja Transport Service v. State Transport Appellate Tribunal (1987).
  4. Constructive res judicata applies to writ petitions as well: Devilal Modi v. Sales Tax Officer (1965), where a second petition raising a ground that could have been taken in the first was barred, and Forward Construction Co. v. Prabhat Mandal (1986).
munotes.in 17
  1. Habeas corpus is an exception in substance: a fresh petition on fresh grounds is maintainable, because the liberty of the subject is a continuing cause. Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India (1967).
  2. Res judicata does not bar a challenge to a pure question of law decided wrongly where the earlier decision is per incuriam, nor does a decision on an interlocutory matter bind at the final hearing.

5. Distinction from res sub judice. Section 10 of the Code stays the trial of a suit in which the matter is already pending in a previously instituted suit; Section 11 bars a suit in which the matter has been already decided.

munotes.in 18

(3)Kinds of Bias[6]

Answer

1. The rule. Nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause. The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias judged from the standpoint of a reasonable person, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done.

2. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest, however small, in the subject matter disqualifies, and no inquiry is made into whether it in fact influenced the decision.

  1. Dr. Bonham's Case (1610): the College of Physicians fined Dr. Bonham for practising without its licence, and by statute retained half the fine. Coke CJ held that the College could not be judge in its own cause.
  2. Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852): Lord Cottenham LC held shares in the company in whose favour he decreed; the decree was set aside by the House of Lords though nobody suggested he had been influenced.
  3. Jeejeebhoy v. Assistant Collector, Thana (1965): Gajendragadkar CJ reconstituted the Bench when it was found that a judge was a member of the co-operative society that had acquired the land.
munotes.in 19

3. Personal bias. Arising from relationship, friendship, hostility, or a business or professional connection with a party.

  1. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970): a candidate for selection to the Indian Forest Service sat as a member of the Selection Board that judged his rivals; the selection was quashed, and it did not save it that he withdrew when his own name was considered.
  2. Mineral Development Ltd. v. State of Bihar (1960): the Minister who cancelled a mining licence had earlier filed a criminal case against the licensee's proprietor and had opposed him politically.
  3. Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand (1957): the chairman of a Bar Council disciplinary tribunal had appeared for the complainant in an earlier matter; the proceedings were set aside, though no actual bias was alleged.

4. Subject-matter or official bias. A general interest in the subject decided, as distinct from the parties.

Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959): objections to a nationalisation scheme framed by the Transport Undertaking were heard by the Secretary of the same department.

munotes.in 20

5. Departmental or institutional bias. Where the same department prosecutes and adjudicates, or where the whole institution has an interest. It is inherent in administrative adjudication and is therefore tolerated unless the statutory scheme is such that a fair decision is impossible, or unless there is a further personal interest.

6. Bias as to pre-judgment of the issue. Where the authority has made up its mind before the hearing, so that the hearing is a formality, or has committed itself publicly to a conclusion.

7. Policy bias, and the doctrine of necessity. A settled policy is not bias, because an administrator is expected to have one. And under the doctrine of necessity a person otherwise disqualified may act where he is the only authority competent and the alternative is that no decision can be made at all: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990), and Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985), where a member of a Public Service Commission whose relative was a candidate was required to withdraw only from that candidate's assessment.

munotes.in 21

(4)Separation of power under Constitution of India[6]

Answer

1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty, since the concentration of power leads to its abuse.

2. India does not follow it rigidly. There is no Article that enacts the doctrine. What the Constitution does is to differentiate the functions without insulating the organs.

Provisions that reflect it:

  1. Article 50: the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services; a Directive Principle, not enforceable;
  2. Articles 53 and 154: the executive power of the Union and of the States is vested in the President and the Governors;
  3. Articles 121 and 211: no discussion in the legislatures of the conduct of a Judge in the discharge of his duties;
munotes.in 22
  1. Articles 122 and 212: courts may not inquire into the validity of proceedings in the legislature on the ground of irregularity of procedure;
  2. Article 361: the President and the Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise of their powers;
  3. Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231: the independence of the judiciary, by security of tenure, salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund, and removal only by the process in Article 124(4).

Provisions that depart from it:

  1. the executive is drawn from, and collectively responsible to, the legislature (Articles 74, 75, 163 and 164);
  2. ordinance-making power of the President and the Governors (Articles 123 and 213), which is a legislative power in executive hands;
  3. judicial powers of the legislature: punishment for its own contempt, impeachment of the President under Article 61, and addresses for the removal of judges;
  4. legislative and executive powers of the judiciary: rules of procedure under Articles 145 and 227, and appointment of its own officers under Article 229;
munotes.in 23
  1. judicial powers of the executive: tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B, and departmental adjudication;
  2. delegated legislation on a very large scale.

3. The cases.

  1. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the Constitution has not recognised the doctrine "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions of the different branches have been "sufficiently differentiated", so that no organ may assume a function essentially belonging to another.
  2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which decided the Prime Minister's election dispute by constitutional amendment, was struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function.
  3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): separation of powers is part of the basic structure.
munotes.in 24
  1. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): the three organs must function within their respective spheres, and the judiciary must not enter the field of policy.
  2. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the 99th Amendment creating the National Judicial Appointments Commission was struck down, the primacy of the judiciary in appointments being part of the independence of the judiciary.

4. Conclusion. In India separation of powers is a principle of constitutional interpretation and part of the basic structure, rather than a rule of the constitutional text. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.

munotes.in 25

Q.3

Answer the situational based questions, any two 12 Marks

munotes.in 26

(1)An externment order was passed by the Deputy Commissioner of police under Bombay Police Act. It was challenged on the ground that the prosecutor itself is a judge as they have only investigated and collected evidences.[6]

  • (a) Whether any principle of law violated here? How?
  • (b) When same department can act as prosecutor and judge?

Answer

(a) Whether any principle of law violated here? How?

The principle invoked is nemo judex in causa sua in its departmental form, but on the scheme of the Bombay Police Act the objection does not succeed by itself. The order is bad only if the procedure the Act itself lays down was not followed, or if there is more than mere departmental interest.

  1. The principle relied on. The rule against bias forbids a man from being judge in his own cause, and one form of it is departmental or institutional bias, where the same authority investigates, prosecutes and then decides.
munotes.in 27
  1. But departmental bias is not by itself a disqualification. Administrative adjudication is built on the premise that the department decides; if the mere fact that the deciding officer belongs to the department that investigated were fatal, no licensing, no externment, no disciplinary proceeding and no assessment could ever stand. The test remains a real likelihood of bias, and general departmental interest does not meet it. What does meet it is a personal or pecuniary interest, or the officer having himself been the investigator or the complainant in the particular case.
  2. Where the statute itself entrusts the function, the objection is excluded. Section 56 (formerly 57) of the Bombay Police Act, 1951 empowers the Commissioner, the District Magistrate or an authorised Deputy Commissioner to direct the removal of a person whose movements or acts are causing alarm, danger or harm, or who is engaged or about to engage in offences involving force or violence, where witnesses are not willing to come forward for fear of their safety. The legislature has deliberately given the power to a police authority, and natural justice cannot be used to defeat the express terms of a statute.
munotes.in 28
  1. But the Act builds in a hearing, and that is where the real objection lies. Section 59 requires that before an order of externment is made, the person must be informed in writing of the general nature of the material allegations against him and given a reasonable opportunity of tendering an explanation, with a right to appear by an advocate and a right to lead evidence. He also has a right of appeal to the State Government under Section 60. If those requirements were not complied with, the order is bad, and that is the ground to argue.
munotes.in 29
  1. The authority. Hari Khemu Gawali v. Deputy Commissioner of Police, Bombay (AIR 1956 SC 559) was a petition under Article 32 challenging the vires of Section 57 of the Bombay Police Act, 1951. The Supreme Court upheld the provision, holding that the restrictions on the freedoms under Articles 19(1)(d) and (e) were reasonable in the interests of the general public, and noting that the petitioner had in fact been heard under Section 59. Gurbachan Singh v. State of Bombay (1952) had earlier upheld a similar externment provision.
  2. The real grounds of challenge, therefore, are: non-compliance with Section 59; vagueness of the allegations, so that no effective explanation could be tendered, which is the ground on which externment orders most often fail; the absence of material to support the satisfaction; excessive duration or area; and a non-speaking order.

(b) When same department can act as prosecutor and judge?

The same department may investigate and decide where:

  1. the statute expressly so provides, and the provision is not itself unconstitutional. The legislature may exclude or modify natural justice, and where it entrusts a decision to a departmental officer, the objection of departmental bias is excluded pro tanto;
munotes.in 30
  1. the functions are separated within the department, so that the officer who investigates is not the officer who decides. This is the working solution in disciplinary proceedings, where the investigating officer, the inquiry officer and the disciplinary authority are different persons, and where a departmental representative presents the case;
  2. the deciding officer has no personal interest in the outcome and has not himself been the complainant, the investigator or a witness. A.K. Kraipak is the boundary: a general departmental interest is tolerated, a personal stake is not;
  3. the doctrine of necessity applies, that is, where the authority complained against is the only authority competent to decide and the alternative is that no decision can be made at all: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990);
  4. the decision is subject to an independent appeal or to judicial review, which is what in practice reconciles departmental adjudication with fairness. In externment, Section 60 provides an appeal to the State Government, and the High Court's jurisdiction under Article 226 remains.
munotes.in 31

(2)Section 144 of CrPC gives power to the executive to impose restriction on the freedom of speech and expression. This power was challenged before the Court.[6]

  • (a) Whether such power can be restricted? Provide the reason.
  • (b) On what ground such power can be exercised?

Answer

Note on the statute: the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, in which the corresponding provision is Section 163. The case law on Section 144 continues to apply. Write it as Section 144, since the paper does, and add the new section number.

(a) Whether such power can be restricted? Provide the reason.

Yes, and it has been. The power is valid but it is hedged by constitutional and statutory limits, and an order made outside them is void.

munotes.in 32
  1. The power. Section 144 empowers a District Magistrate, a Sub-divisional Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered, in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger, to direct a person to abstain from a certain act or to take order with property in his possession, where he considers that such direction is likely to prevent obstruction, annoyance or injury, danger to human life, health or safety, or a disturbance of the public tranquillity, or a riot or an affray.
  2. The constitutional test. A restriction on Article 19(1)(a) and (b) must be reasonable and must fall within the grounds in Article 19(2) and 19(3), that is, public order, decency, morality, the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
  3. The limits the courts have imposed.
  4. Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961) upheld the constitutionality of Section 144, holding that the power is exercisable in an emergency, that the restriction is temporary, and that the safeguards, an order for a limited period, the right to move the Magistrate to rescind it, and revision, make it reasonable.
munotes.in 33
  1. Madhu Limaye v. Sub-Divisional Magistrate, Monghyr (1970), a seven-judge Bench, again upheld the section, but held that the power is to be used only where the emergency is genuine and immediate, that the Magistrate's satisfaction must rest on material, and that the order is open to judicial scrutiny.
  2. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) is the modern statement. The Supreme Court held that Section 144 cannot be used to suppress the legitimate expression of opinion or grievance or the exercise of any democratic right; that the power is remedial as well as preventive but must be exercised on material facts showing an emergency; that orders must be published so that they can be challenged; that they must state reasons; and that the proportionality test applies, the least restrictive measure being required. It also held that repetitive orders would be an abuse of power.
munotes.in 34
  1. Ramlila Maidan Incident, In re (2012): the use of Section 144 to disperse a sleeping crowd at midnight was held to be an abuse; the Court emphasised that the power must be exercised in a just, fair and reasonable manner.
  2. The procedural safeguards in the section itself. The order is normally ex parte but the Magistrate must record the material facts; it must be in writing; it may be directed to a particular individual, or to the public generally frequenting a particular place; it expires in two months, extendable by the State Government up to six months in the cases specified; and the Magistrate may rescind or alter it on the application of an aggrieved person, who is entitled to be heard, and must record reasons if he refuses.

(b) On what ground such power can be exercised?

The grounds, taken from the section itself, are:

  1. that there is an urgent case of nuisance or apprehended danger;
munotes.in 35
  1. that the Magistrate is satisfied on material facts that immediate prevention or speedy remedy is desirable; and
  2. that the direction is likely to prevent, or tends to prevent, one of the specified consequences: obstruction, annoyance or injury to any person lawfully employed; danger to human life, health or safety; or a disturbance of the public tranquillity, a riot or an affray.

To these the courts have added that the apprehension must be of an imminent danger and not a remote one; that the order must be proportionate in duration, area and content; that reasons must be recorded; that the order must be published; and that it must be capable of being challenged, whether by an application under Section 144(5), by revision, or by a writ petition under Article 226.

munotes.in 36

(3)A person approaches the High court under its writ jurisdiction complaining of infraction of Arts.14 and 15, eight years after the impugned government action.[6]

  • (a) Is there any limitation to approach the court in such matters? Explain those limitation if any.
  • (b) On what ground court can refuse to entertain such petition? Explain it.

Answer

(a) Is there any limitation to approach the court in such matters? Explain those limitation if any.

There is no statutory period of limitation for a writ petition, but there is the equitable bar of laches, and eight years' unexplained delay will ordinarily defeat the petition.

  1. No statutory limitation. The Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to proceedings under Articles 32 and 226. Neither Article prescribes any period.
  2. But delay is fatal in practice. The writ jurisdiction is discretionary and equitable, and the maxim vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt, the law assists the vigilant and not those who sleep on their rights, applies. The court refuses relief where the petitioner has been guilty of laches.
munotes.in 37
  1. The reasons for the rule. Third-party rights may have accrued in the interval; evidence and records may have been lost; the administration has acted on the footing that the order stands; and to unsettle a long-completed transaction disturbs public administration. In service and seniority matters especially, a belated challenge can upset the position of many who were not before the court.
  2. The tests the courts apply. There is no fixed period. The court asks: how long is the delay, and is it explained? A satisfactory explanation, such as pursuing an alternative remedy in good faith, illness, or ignorance of the order because it was never communicated, may excuse very long delay. The court also asks whether third-party rights have intervened, whether the petitioner acquiesced, and whether the illegality is of a kind that goes to jurisdiction.
munotes.in 38
  1. The authorities. State of Madhya Pradesh v. Bhailal Bhai (1964): although the Limitation Act does not apply, the maximum period fixed by the legislature for a suit is a reasonable standard by which to measure delay in a writ petition, and a petition filed after that period will normally be refused. Tilokchand Motichand v. H.B. Munshi (1969): the Supreme Court refused relief under Article 32 after nine years, Hidayatullah CJ holding that the party must come within a reasonable time and that the court will not enquire into belated and stale claims. Rabindranath Bose v. Union of India (1970): no relief after a long delay even in a fundamental-rights case.
  2. The exceptions. Delay is not fatal where the order is a nullity or wholly without jurisdiction; where there is a continuing wrong or a continuing cause of action, such as the continued denial of a pension or a continuing illegal detention; where the delay is explained by the pursuit of an alternative remedy; where the petition raises a pure question of law affecting many; where the impugned provision has been declared unconstitutional in another case, though even then the relief may be limited to the future; and in habeas corpus, where liberty is at stake.
munotes.in 39

On these facts the petitioner alleges a breach of Articles 14 and 15. That is a fundamental-rights claim, but even a fundamental-rights claim is subject to laches, as Tilokchand Motichand decides. Eight years is well beyond the three-year period for a suit on most causes of action. He will succeed only if he can explain the delay convincingly, or show a continuing wrong, or show that the action is a nullity.

(b) On what ground court can refuse to entertain such petition? Explain it.

The High Court, exercising a discretionary jurisdiction, may refuse a writ on any of these grounds:

  1. Laches or unreasonable delay, as above;
  2. Adequate alternative remedy: where a statutory appeal, revision or reference is available and efficacious, the court will normally require it to be exhausted, save where the order is without jurisdiction, where a fundamental right is breached, where natural justice has been violated, or where the vires of the statute are challenged;
  3. Disputed questions of fact, which require oral evidence and are better tried in a suit;
munotes.in 40
  1. Suppression of material facts or unclean hands: a petitioner who misleads the court is turned away without a hearing on the merits;
  2. No locus standi, where the petitioner has no legal right and the case is not a public interest matter;
  3. Res judicata, a petition finally decided on the merits barring a second petition on the same cause: Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1961), including constructive res judicata under Devilal Modi v. Sales Tax Officer (1965);
  4. Infructuous or academic petitions, where no effective relief can be granted;
  5. Acquiescence or waiver of an ordinary legal right, though fundamental rights cannot be waived: Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax (1959);
  6. The petition is against a private body performing no public duty;
  7. The matter is one of policy, or of pure academic or political character.
munotes.in 41

(4)The leader of opposition made allegation in Parliament against sitting Minister. Mr. Ramesh made complaint to the Lokpal requesting to take action on the basis of allegation made in Parliament.[6]

  • (a) Whether Lokpal can take action on such allegation? How?
  • (b) State the power of Lokpal.

Answer

(a) Whether Lokpal can take action on such allegation? How?

The Lokpal cannot act on the parliamentary speech as such, but it can act on Mr. Ramesh's complaint if that complaint is in the prescribed form and within jurisdiction. The two are different things and the distinction is the answer.

  1. A speech in Parliament is not a complaint, and cannot be made the foundation of proceedings against the speaker. Article 105(2) provides that no member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament. But that privilege protects the member who spoke; it is not a bar to an inquiry into the conduct of the Minister who is the subject of the allegation.
munotes.in 42
  1. The Lokpal acts on a complaint, not on news. Under Section 2(1)(e) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, a "complaint" means a complaint made in such form as may be prescribed, alleging that a public servant has committed an offence punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. The Lokpal (Complaint) Rules, 2020 prescribe the form, and the complaint must be accompanied by an affidavit and by supporting evidence.
  2. Jurisdiction over a Minister. Under Section 14(1) the Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to the Prime Minister, with exclusions for allegations relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space, and subject to the special safeguards in Section 14(1)(a); to Ministers of the Union under Section 14(1)(b); to members of either House under Section 14(1)(c), but not in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament, which repeats the Article 105(2) privilege; and to officers and employees of the Union and of bodies substantially financed by it.
munotes.in 43
  1. The procedure once a complaint is received. Under Section 20, the Lokpal may order a preliminary inquiry by its Inquiry Wing (Section 11) or by any agency including the Delhi Special Police Establishment, to ascertain whether there exists a prima facie case, ordinarily to be completed within 90 days. Before ordering it, the Lokpal must give the public servant an opportunity of being heard on the material available. If a prima facie case is found, it may order an investigation, and thereafter grant sanction and direct its Prosecution Wing (Section 12) to file a case in the Special Court constituted under Section 35.
  2. The limitation. Under Section 53 the Lokpal shall not inquire into any complaint if the complaint is made after seven years from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
munotes.in 44
  1. The safeguard against frivolous complaints. Section 46 provides that a person who makes a false and frivolous or vexatious complaint is punishable with imprisonment up to one year and fine up to Rs. 1,00,000, on a complaint made by the public servant concerned and after the Lokpal's own inquiry.
  2. So the answer to write: the Lokpal cannot take cognizance merely because something was said in Parliament, since that is neither a complaint in the prescribed form nor evidence; but if Mr. Ramesh files a complaint in the prescribed form with an affidavit, within seven years, against a Minister, alleging an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, the Lokpal has jurisdiction, and must proceed by preliminary inquiry after hearing the Minister.

(b) State the power of Lokpal.

  1. Jurisdiction over the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament, and all groups of central Government officials, and over the officers of bodies and societies substantially financed by the Union or receiving foreign contributions above the prescribed limit (Section 14).
munotes.in 45
  1. Power of superintendence and direction over any investigating agency, including the Delhi Special Police Establishment, for cases referred by it (Section 25); and the transfer of an officer of the agency investigating such a case cannot be made without the Lokpal's approval.
  2. Power to order a preliminary inquiry and an investigation (Section 20), and to grant sanction for prosecution (Section 23), which displaces the requirement of sanction from the Government.
  3. Powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for summoning and examining witnesses on oath, discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavit, and requisitioning public records (Section 27).
  4. Power to attach and confiscate property derived from corruption, through the Special Court, under Sections 29 and 30, and to order provisional attachment for 90 days extendable.
  5. Power to recommend action, including transfer or suspension of the public servant during an inquiry (Section 32), and to give directions to prevent the destruction of records (Section 33).
munotes.in 46
  1. An Inquiry Wing under Section 11 headed by a Director of Inquiry, and a Prosecution Wing under Section 12 headed by a Director of Prosecution.
  2. Administrative and financial autonomy: its expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Section 18), and it appoints its own officers.
  3. Power to act suo motu and to inquire on a reference.

Its limitations should be stated in a line: the Lokpal has no power to punish, only to inquire, investigate and prosecute before the Special Court; and its own inquiry against the Prime Minister requires the approval of a full Bench of not less than two-thirds of the members in a sitting held in camera.

munotes.in 47

Q.4

Answer any two in detail 24 Marks

munotes.in 48

(1)Define administrative law. Discuss its nature and scope.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: three definitions with their criticism; five features of the nature of the subject; the reasons for its growth; ten heads of scope; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources.

1. Definitions.

  1. Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." Criticism: too wide, since it covers much of constitutional law, and it omits the element of control, which is the centre of the subject.
  2. K.C. Davis: "the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action." Criticism: it concentrates on agencies that adjudicate and says little about rule-making, and it is drawn from a system with a codified Administrative Procedure Act.
munotes.in 49
  1. Sir William Wade: "the law relating to the control of governmental power", which he calls the first approximation to a definition and the best short one.
  2. The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure by which relief is obtained and the control exercised by the legislature over the administration.

2. Nature. Administrative law is:

  1. a branch of public law, concerned with the relation of the individual to the State;
  2. judge-made and uncodified in India: there is no general statute, and natural justice, ultra vires and abuse of discretion are entirely the creation of case law;
  3. functional, in that it studies what agencies actually do rather than how they are classified;
  4. dynamic, growing with every new function the State assumes; and
  5. organised around a single idea, power and its control.
munotes.in 50

3. Reasons for its growth. The change from the laissez faire State to the welfare State; the inability of the legislature to make detailed law, producing delegated legislation; the inability of the ordinary courts to handle the volume and the technicality, producing tribunals; industrialisation, urbanisation and planning; emergencies; and the value of experiment.

4. Scope. It covers:

  1. the organisation and composition of administrative authorities, tribunals, commissions, corporations and local bodies;
  2. delegated legislation and its parliamentary, procedural and judicial control;
  3. administrative adjudication and tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B;
  4. the principles of natural justice and the duty to act fairly;
  5. administrative discretion, its failure and its abuse;
  6. judicial review, the writs under Articles 32 and 226, and the ordinary remedies of suit, injunction, declaration and damages;
  7. the liability of the State in tort under Article 300 and in contract under Article 299, with promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation;
munotes.in 51
  1. the civil services under Articles 308 to 323, the doctrine of pleasure and Article 311;
  2. public undertakings and their accountability, including Article 12; and
  3. institutional controls: Lokpal and Lokayuktas, the Central Vigilance Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General, and the Right to Information Act, 2005.

5. Distinction from constitutional law.

Constitutional lawAdministrative law
Deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of powersDeals with the exercise of those powers in daily administration
Government at restGovernment in motion
The genusA species of it
Sources are mainly the ConstitutionSources are mainly statutes, rules and case law
Concerned with the rights of the citizenConcerned with the powers and duties of officials, and remedies against them

In England, where there is no written constitution, the two were long treated as one; in India, with a written and supreme Constitution, much of administrative law is drawn directly from Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311, so the dependence is close.

munotes.in 52

6. Sources. The Constitution; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which are the principal source of the governing principles; and administrative directions and departmental practice, which bind internally and may found a legitimate expectation.

munotes.in 53

(2)State the importance of Principle of natural justice with relevant case laws.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning; why it matters, which is what "importance" asks; the two rules with their components and cases; the constitutional status of natural justice in India; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.

1. Meaning. Natural justice is the body of procedural fairness which the law requires of anyone deciding a matter that affects another's rights or legitimate interests. It has no fixed content; what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual.

2. Its importance, stated as reasons.

  1. It improves the quality of decisions. An authority that hears the person affected learns facts it would never otherwise have. Most administrative error is error of fact, and the hearing rule is the cheapest correction available.
  2. It is the citizen's only procedural protection in a field with no code. India has no Administrative Procedure Act. Natural justice supplies, case by case, the procedure the legislature did not write.
munotes.in 54
  1. It gives judicial review something to review. A reasoned order can be tested; an unreasoned one cannot. Without the duty to give reasons and to decide on disclosed material, review would be a formality.
  2. It confers legitimacy. A person who has been heard accepts an adverse decision as he never accepts one taken behind his back, which is why the rule matters even where the outcome would have been the same.
  3. It restrains the abuse of power, by forcing the decision into the open and requiring the decision-maker to face the case against his own view.
  4. It is a constitutional guarantee in India, not merely a rule of practice. After Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), a procedure that denies a hearing is not "right, just and fair" and so violates Articles 14 and 21. A breach is therefore a breach of a fundamental right, enforceable under Article 32.
  5. It fills the gaps in statutes, since the courts read the requirement into every statute that does not exclude it: Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), "the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature".
munotes.in 55

3. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua. No man may be a judge in his own cause; the test is a real likelihood of bias. Its forms are pecuniary (Dr. Bonham's Case, 1610; Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal, 1852), personal (A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, 1970; Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand, 1957), subject-matter or official (Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC, 1959), departmental, and pre-judgment. The doctrine of necessity is the exception: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990).

4. The second rule: audi alteram partem. Its components are notice of the charge and of the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material relied on (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex; the rule that he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and decision on the record alone.

The landmark cases are Cooper v. Wandsworth (1863); Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), which held that the duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial; A.K. Kraipak (1970), which extended natural justice to administrative action; Maneka Gandhi (1978); Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981) on the post-decisional hearing; and Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), where pavement dwellers facing eviction were held entitled to be heard.

munotes.in 56

5. The third rule: the reasoned order. Siemens Engineering v. Union of India (1976): recording reasons is "a basic principle of natural justice". S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990): reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978): an order must stand or fall on the reasons it itself gives.

6. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970); legislative action; confidentiality and the security of the State; "useless formality", narrowly applied; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; and the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).

7. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not voidable. It is quashed and the matter remitted, and the authority may decide again after giving a hearing.

munotes.in 57

(3)Discuss how delegated legislation controlled?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: why control is necessary; then the three heads, parliamentary, procedural and judicial, with the devices under each and the cases; and an honest assessment of which works.

1. Why control is necessary. Delegated legislation transfers law-making from an elected and debating body to officials. The rules are made without debate, often without consultation, in enormous volume, and they bind the citizen exactly as an Act does. It is not the existence of the power that is objectionable but the absence of scrutiny, and the three systems of control are the answer.

2. Parliamentary control.

(a) At the stage of delegation. The parent Act must lay down the policy and standard; the essential legislative function cannot be delegated (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, 1951; Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, 1960). Parliament also fixes the subject matter, the authority, the duration and the conditions of the power, and debates the delegation clause when the Bill is passed.

(b) Laying before the House. Three forms:

munotes.in 58
  1. simple laying, for information only, the rule taking effect regardless;
  2. laying subject to negative resolution: the rule is effective at once but ceases if the House annuls it, usually within thirty days of sitting; this is the commonest Indian form;
  3. laying subject to affirmative resolution: the rule has no effect until approved.

Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the statute merely requires laying, the requirement is directory, and failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is made a condition of validity, it is mandatory.

(c) Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964) examine whether the rules are within the power conferred; whether they impose a tax; whether they oust the jurisdiction of the courts; whether they have retrospective effect without authority; whether they involve unusual or unexpected use of the power; and whether there has been unjustifiable delay in laying or publication. They report to the House.

3. Procedural control.

munotes.in 59
  1. Prior publication of the draft and consideration of objections, where the parent Act requires it. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 lays down the standard procedure where an Act says rules are to be made "after previous publication".
  2. Consultation of an affected interest or of a named advisory body. Whether the requirement is mandatory or directory depends on the object of the provision and the consequences of non-compliance: Raza Buland Sugar Co. v. Municipal Board, Rampur (1965); compare Banwarilal Agarwalla v. State of Bihar (1961).
  3. Publication in the Official Gazette, which is generally mandatory. Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951): a resolution of the Council of Ministers of the former Jaipur State was held unenforceable because it had never been published, the Court holding that natural justice requires that a law be made known before a person can be convicted under it. State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George (1965) on the sufficiency of publication.

4. Judicial control. This is where the real law is. It operates through the doctrine of ultra vires.

(a) Substantive ultra vires, that the rule is beyond the power:

munotes.in 60
  1. the parent Act is unconstitutional, so everything under it falls;
  2. the delegation is excessive, that is, the Act lays down no policy or standard: Delhi Laws Act, Hamdard Dawakhana;
  3. the rule exceeds or contradicts the parent Act, the commonest ground: General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988); State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983);
  4. the rule violates the Constitution, being "law" within Article 13(3)(a): Air India v. Nergesh Meerza (1981); Narendra Kumar v. Union of India (1960);
  5. the rule is manifestly unreasonable or arbitrary (Kruse v. Johnson, 1898; and in India, arbitrariness as a breach of Article 14): Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985);
  6. mala fides;
  7. unauthorised sub-delegation: Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works (1997);
  8. retrospective operation without express authority;
  9. exclusion of the jurisdiction of courts, or the creation of a tax or an offence, without clear authority.
munotes.in 61

(b) Procedural ultra vires: failure to observe a mandatory procedural requirement of the parent Act, that is, prior publication, consultation, or publication in the Gazette.

(c) The presumption of validity. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden is on the challenger; the court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks it unwise or capable of improvement.

5. Which control actually works. Parliamentary control is weak: thousands of instruments are laid each year, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House, and the committees can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control is therefore the effective one, and the ground that most often succeeds is the plainest, that the rule contradicts or exceeds the parent Act.

munotes.in 62

(4)Discuss in short:[12]

  • (a) Estoppel
  • (b) Writ of Mandamus
  • (c) Legitimate Expectation

Answer

For full marks, cover: each of the three at about four marks, with a definition, the essentials, the case law and the limits. They are connected, and saying how they connect at the end is worth a mark.

(a) Estoppel

1. The general rule. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now Section 121 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023: where one person has by his declaration, act or omission intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief, neither he nor his representative shall be allowed in any suit or proceeding between himself and that person to deny the truth of that thing.

munotes.in 63

2. Promissory estoppel, which is the form that matters in administrative law. Where a party makes a clear and unequivocal promise intending to create a legal relation, knowing or intending that it will be acted on, and the other party alters his position on the faith of it, the promisor is bound, even in the absence of consideration and even though there is no concluded contract.

3. Against the Government. Union of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies (1968): the Government having announced an export promotion scheme, and the exporter having acted on it, the Government was held bound. Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979) is the leading case: a three-year sales tax exemption was announced, the company set up a plant on the faith of it, and the State resiled. Bhagwati J. held the State bound, and laid down that promissory estoppel is available against the Government in the exercise of its governmental, public or executive functions; that the party need not show detriment in the sense of damage; and that if the Government wishes to resile it must place material before the court showing that the public interest requires it, and the court will decide.

4. The limits.

munotes.in 64
  1. No estoppel against a statute. The doctrine cannot compel an authority to act contrary to law or to exceed its powers: Excise Commissioner, U.P. v. Ram Kumar (1976).
  2. No estoppel against the legislature in the exercise of its legislative function, nor against a change of law.
  3. It yields to an overriding public interest, which the Government must establish and not merely assert.
  4. It is a rule of evidence and equity, not a cause of action in itself in the strict sense, though in India it is enforceable in a writ petition.

(b) Writ of Mandamus

1. Meaning. Mandamus, "we command", is a command issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226 to a person, corporation or inferior tribunal, requiring it to do a public duty which it is bound to do and has failed or refused to do.

2. Conditions.

  1. The applicant must have a legal right to the performance of the duty;
munotes.in 65
  1. there must be a public duty, imposed by the Constitution, a statute, common law or custom, and not a duty of a purely private or contractual character;
  2. the duty must be subsisting at the time of the application;
  3. there must have been a demand and a refusal, express or implied; and
  4. there must be no other equally efficacious remedy, though this is a rule of discretion and not of jurisdiction.

3. Against whom it lies. Against the State, public officers, statutory bodies, tribunals, and a company or society performing a public duty (Praga Tools Corporation v. C.V. Imanual, 1969; Andi Mukta Sadguru Trust v. V.R. Rudani, 1989, where mandamus was issued to a private aided college).

4. Against whom it does not lie. A private individual; the President or a Governor (Article 361); to enforce a contract of personal service; to compel the legislature to enact or refrain from enacting a law; to compel a discretionary power to be exercised in a particular way; and where the duty has become impossible of performance.

munotes.in 66

5. What it can achieve. It can compel the performance of a duty; compel an authority to exercise a discretion it has wrongly refused to exercise, or to consider a case it has refused to consider; forbid the enforcement of an invalid law; and, in the Indian form under Article 226, be moulded to the justice of the case: Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986), where the Supreme Court held that the High Court is not confined to the technical limits of the English writ and may direct the authority to act in a particular manner where injustice would otherwise result.

6. Kinds. Alternative (a nisi rule, calling on the respondent to show cause) and peremptory (absolute), and continuing mandamus, developed in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), where the court keeps the matter on its board and monitors compliance over time.

(c) Legitimate Expectation

1. Meaning. Where a public authority has made a clear and unambiguous promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect that it will be honoured or continued, and the authority may not depart from it without acting fairly.

2. Its two forms.

munotes.in 67
  1. Procedural legitimate expectation: the expectation of being consulted or heard before the practice or promise is departed from. This is well settled.
  2. Substantive legitimate expectation: the expectation of the benefit itself. Indian courts recognise it but apply it cautiously, and it will not be enforced against a change of policy made in the public interest.

3. The cases.

  1. Attorney General of Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983): the Government announced that illegal immigrants from Macau would be interviewed and each case treated on its merits; a removal order made without a hearing was quashed.
  2. Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985), the GCHQ case: the unions had a legitimate expectation of consultation before the terms of service were changed, arising from a settled practice, though on the facts the expectation was overridden by national security.
  3. Food Corporation of India v. M/s Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993): the doctrine is an aspect of the non-arbitrariness required by Article 14; the expectation is not a right, but the authority must give it "due consideration".
munotes.in 68
  1. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1993): a legitimate expectation may be defeated by a change of policy in the public interest, and the court reviews the change only on Wednesbury grounds. The expectation must be founded on a promise or practice and must be "reasonable, logical and valid".
  2. Punjab Communications Ltd. v. Union of India (1999) and Sethi Auto Service Station v. Delhi Development Authority (2009) confirm that the doctrine confers no enforceable right to the benefit and that mere anticipation is not enough.

4. The limits. The expectation must arise from an express promise or a settled practice; it must be legitimate, not merely hoped for; it cannot be founded on a promise that is ultra vires or contrary to law; and it yields to an overriding public interest, which the authority must justify.

munotes.in 69

How the three connect. All three are ways in which the law holds a public authority to what it has led a citizen to believe. Estoppel works through evidence and equity and requires an alteration of position. Legitimate expectation works through Article 14 and requires only a promise or a practice, but ordinarily yields a hearing rather than the benefit. Mandamus is the remedy that enforces the duty once it exists. In practice a petitioner pleads all three and the court decides which fits.

munotes.in 70

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 71

Colophon

This volume prints the 2022-23 - ATKT Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

munotes.in 72
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!