Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 - ATKT Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 - ATKT examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."
K.C. Davis: it is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.
Sir William Wade puts it shortest: it is "the law relating to the control of governmental power".
Answer
Subject-matter bias, also called official bias, arises where the deciding authority has a general interest in the subject matter of the dispute, as distinct from a personal or a financial interest in the parties, so that it cannot bring an open mind to the decision.
It is the third of the recognised forms of bias, the others being pecuniary, personal and departmental or institutional bias.
Answer
A corporation is an artificial person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct in law from the persons who compose it, and capable of holding property, entering into contracts, and suing and being sued in its own name.
In administrative law the relevant species is the public corporation, created by a special statute or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State.
Answer
Article 299(1) of the Constitution lays down three essentials:
In addition the ordinary requirements of a valid contract under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 must be satisfied, and the award must not be arbitrary, since Article 14 applies.
Answer
An irrelevant consideration is a matter which the statute conferring a discretion does not permit the authority to take into account, and on which the authority nevertheless acts.
Acting on irrelevant considerations, or failing to consider relevant ones, is a recognised head of abuse of discretion, and an order so made is liable to be quashed even though the authority acted honestly.
Answer
A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in cases where a prior hearing was not possible because the situation required immediate action. The order remains provisional until the hearing has been held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered.
Answer
Dismissal in limine means dismissal at the threshold, that is, the summary rejection of a petition at the admission stage without notice to the other side and without going into the merits.
In writ jurisdiction a petition may be dismissed in limine where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where the petitioner is guilty of laches, where the petition discloses no arguable case, where there is suppression of material facts, or where the matter is one the court will not entertain.
Answer
Conditional legislation, also called contingent legislation, is legislation which is complete in itself but whose operation is made to depend upon a condition, the fulfilment of which the legislature leaves to the executive to determine.
The legislature makes the law; the executive only decides when, where or to whom it shall apply.
Answer
Improper purpose, also called collateral purpose, is the use of a statutory power for an object other than that for which the power was conferred. It is a head of abuse of discretion, and it renders the exercise of the power void even if the authority acted honestly and in what it believed to be the public interest.
Answer
An injunction is an equitable order of a court directing a person to do, or to refrain from doing, an act. Its kinds are:
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. What each is. A court is a permanent organ of the State, part of the ordinary judicial hierarchy, which exercises the judicial power of the State generally and decides disputes according to law. A tribunal is a statutory body created for a specific field, which decides disputes judicially in substance but stands outside the ordinary hierarchy.
2. The differences.
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Source | Part of the traditional judicial system, established under the Constitution or by a general law | Created by a specific statute for a specific purpose |
| Jurisdiction | General and civil, over all disputes not excluded | Confined to the subject named in its statute |
| Composition | Judges trained in law, appointed under the Constitution | A judicial member with an administrative or technical member |
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Procedure | Bound by the Code of Civil Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act | Own procedure, bound only by natural justice |
| Approach | Decides on law and the rights of the parties | May also apply policy and the object of the statute |
| Position of the State | The State is a party like any other | The State is very often itself the other party |
| Precedent | Decisions bind subordinate courts | Generally no binding precedent |
| Appointment | By the President or the Governor under the constitutional scheme | By the executive under the parent Act |
| Control | Subject to appeal within the hierarchy | Subject to writs and to Article 227 superintendence of the High Court |
3. What they have in common. Both decide a lis between parties; both must act judicially, that is, objectively on the material; both must observe natural justice; both may summon witnesses and take evidence; and the proceedings of both are judicial proceedings for the purposes of Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.
4. The tests the courts use. The classic formulation is that a tribunal has the "trappings of a court" but is not a court. In Bharat Bank Ltd. v. Employees of Bharat Bank (1950) and Durga Shankar Mehta v. Raghuraj Singh (1954), the Supreme Court treated the power to decide a lis judicially, on evidence, with a duty to act judicially, as the mark of a tribunal for the purposes of Article 136. In Associated Cement Companies v. P.N. Sharma (1965) the Court held that the essential test is whether the State has clothed the body with part of its own inherent judicial power.
5. Why the distinction matters. It decides whether Article 136 special leave lies; whether certiorari and prohibition lie; whether Article 227 superintendence applies; whether the Evidence Act applies; and whether the body's decisions can be treated as precedent. After L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) the position is settled that a tribunal, however court-like, is subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court and can never displace it.
Answer
1. Meaning. Res judicata pro veritate accipitur, a thing adjudicated is accepted as true. The doctrine bars the re-trial of a matter that has been finally decided between the same parties by a court of competent jurisdiction. It is enacted for civil suits in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
2. The three maxims on which it rests. Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa, no man should be vexed twice for the same cause; interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium, it is in the interest of the State that there be an end to litigation; and res judicata pro veritate occipitur.
3. Conditions under Section 11. The matter must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit; the former suit must have been between the same parties or those claiming under them; they must have litigated under the same title; the former court must have been competent to try the subsequent suit; and the matter must have been heard and finally decided. Explanation IV adds constructive res judicata: a matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.
4. Its application in writ jurisdiction. Section 11 does not in terms apply to writ petitions, but the general principle does.
5. Distinction from res sub judice. Section 10 of the Code stays the trial of a suit in which the matter is already pending in a previously instituted suit; Section 11 bars a suit in which the matter has been already decided.
Answer
1. The rule. Nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause. The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias judged from the standpoint of a reasonable person, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done.
2. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest, however small, in the subject matter disqualifies, and no inquiry is made into whether it in fact influenced the decision.
3. Personal bias. Arising from relationship, friendship, hostility, or a business or professional connection with a party.
4. Subject-matter or official bias. A general interest in the subject decided, as distinct from the parties.
Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959): objections to a nationalisation scheme framed by the Transport Undertaking were heard by the Secretary of the same department.
5. Departmental or institutional bias. Where the same department prosecutes and adjudicates, or where the whole institution has an interest. It is inherent in administrative adjudication and is therefore tolerated unless the statutory scheme is such that a fair decision is impossible, or unless there is a further personal interest.
6. Bias as to pre-judgment of the issue. Where the authority has made up its mind before the hearing, so that the hearing is a formality, or has committed itself publicly to a conclusion.
7. Policy bias, and the doctrine of necessity. A settled policy is not bias, because an administrator is expected to have one. And under the doctrine of necessity a person otherwise disqualified may act where he is the only authority competent and the alternative is that no decision can be made at all: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990), and Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985), where a member of a Public Service Commission whose relative was a candidate was required to withdraw only from that candidate's assessment.
Answer
1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty, since the concentration of power leads to its abuse.
2. India does not follow it rigidly. There is no Article that enacts the doctrine. What the Constitution does is to differentiate the functions without insulating the organs.
Provisions that reflect it:
Provisions that depart from it:
3. The cases.
4. Conclusion. In India separation of powers is a principle of constitutional interpretation and part of the basic structure, rather than a rule of the constitutional text. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.
Answer the situational based questions, any two 12 Marks
Answer
The principle invoked is nemo judex in causa sua in its departmental form, but on the scheme of the Bombay Police Act the objection does not succeed by itself. The order is bad only if the procedure the Act itself lays down was not followed, or if there is more than mere departmental interest.
The same department may investigate and decide where:
Answer
Note on the statute: the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, in which the corresponding provision is Section 163. The case law on Section 144 continues to apply. Write it as Section 144, since the paper does, and add the new section number.
Yes, and it has been. The power is valid but it is hedged by constitutional and statutory limits, and an order made outside them is void.
The grounds, taken from the section itself, are:
To these the courts have added that the apprehension must be of an imminent danger and not a remote one; that the order must be proportionate in duration, area and content; that reasons must be recorded; that the order must be published; and that it must be capable of being challenged, whether by an application under Section 144(5), by revision, or by a writ petition under Article 226.
Answer
There is no statutory period of limitation for a writ petition, but there is the equitable bar of laches, and eight years' unexplained delay will ordinarily defeat the petition.
On these facts the petitioner alleges a breach of Articles 14 and 15. That is a fundamental-rights claim, but even a fundamental-rights claim is subject to laches, as Tilokchand Motichand decides. Eight years is well beyond the three-year period for a suit on most causes of action. He will succeed only if he can explain the delay convincingly, or show a continuing wrong, or show that the action is a nullity.
The High Court, exercising a discretionary jurisdiction, may refuse a writ on any of these grounds:
Answer
The Lokpal cannot act on the parliamentary speech as such, but it can act on Mr. Ramesh's complaint if that complaint is in the prescribed form and within jurisdiction. The two are different things and the distinction is the answer.
Its limitations should be stated in a line: the Lokpal has no power to punish, only to inquire, investigate and prosecute before the Special Court; and its own inquiry against the Prime Minister requires the approval of a full Bench of not less than two-thirds of the members in a sitting held in camera.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: three definitions with their criticism; five features of the nature of the subject; the reasons for its growth; ten heads of scope; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources.
1. Definitions.
2. Nature. Administrative law is:
3. Reasons for its growth. The change from the laissez faire State to the welfare State; the inability of the legislature to make detailed law, producing delegated legislation; the inability of the ordinary courts to handle the volume and the technicality, producing tribunals; industrialisation, urbanisation and planning; emergencies; and the value of experiment.
4. Scope. It covers:
5. Distinction from constitutional law.
| Constitutional law | Administrative law |
|---|---|
| Deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of powers | Deals with the exercise of those powers in daily administration |
| Government at rest | Government in motion |
| The genus | A species of it |
| Sources are mainly the Constitution | Sources are mainly statutes, rules and case law |
| Concerned with the rights of the citizen | Concerned with the powers and duties of officials, and remedies against them |
In England, where there is no written constitution, the two were long treated as one; in India, with a written and supreme Constitution, much of administrative law is drawn directly from Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311, so the dependence is close.
6. Sources. The Constitution; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which are the principal source of the governing principles; and administrative directions and departmental practice, which bind internally and may found a legitimate expectation.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning; why it matters, which is what "importance" asks; the two rules with their components and cases; the constitutional status of natural justice in India; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the body of procedural fairness which the law requires of anyone deciding a matter that affects another's rights or legitimate interests. It has no fixed content; what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual.
2. Its importance, stated as reasons.
3. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua. No man may be a judge in his own cause; the test is a real likelihood of bias. Its forms are pecuniary (Dr. Bonham's Case, 1610; Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal, 1852), personal (A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, 1970; Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand, 1957), subject-matter or official (Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC, 1959), departmental, and pre-judgment. The doctrine of necessity is the exception: Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990).
4. The second rule: audi alteram partem. Its components are notice of the charge and of the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material relied on (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex; the rule that he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and decision on the record alone.
The landmark cases are Cooper v. Wandsworth (1863); Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), which held that the duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial; A.K. Kraipak (1970), which extended natural justice to administrative action; Maneka Gandhi (1978); Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981) on the post-decisional hearing; and Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), where pavement dwellers facing eviction were held entitled to be heard.
5. The third rule: the reasoned order. Siemens Engineering v. Union of India (1976): recording reasons is "a basic principle of natural justice". S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990): reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978): an order must stand or fall on the reasons it itself gives.
6. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970); legislative action; confidentiality and the security of the State; "useless formality", narrowly applied; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; and the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
7. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not voidable. It is quashed and the matter remitted, and the authority may decide again after giving a hearing.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why control is necessary; then the three heads, parliamentary, procedural and judicial, with the devices under each and the cases; and an honest assessment of which works.
1. Why control is necessary. Delegated legislation transfers law-making from an elected and debating body to officials. The rules are made without debate, often without consultation, in enormous volume, and they bind the citizen exactly as an Act does. It is not the existence of the power that is objectionable but the absence of scrutiny, and the three systems of control are the answer.
2. Parliamentary control.
(a) At the stage of delegation. The parent Act must lay down the policy and standard; the essential legislative function cannot be delegated (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, 1951; Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, 1960). Parliament also fixes the subject matter, the authority, the duration and the conditions of the power, and debates the delegation clause when the Bill is passed.
(b) Laying before the House. Three forms:
Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the statute merely requires laying, the requirement is directory, and failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is made a condition of validity, it is mandatory.
(c) Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964) examine whether the rules are within the power conferred; whether they impose a tax; whether they oust the jurisdiction of the courts; whether they have retrospective effect without authority; whether they involve unusual or unexpected use of the power; and whether there has been unjustifiable delay in laying or publication. They report to the House.
3. Procedural control.
4. Judicial control. This is where the real law is. It operates through the doctrine of ultra vires.
(a) Substantive ultra vires, that the rule is beyond the power:
(b) Procedural ultra vires: failure to observe a mandatory procedural requirement of the parent Act, that is, prior publication, consultation, or publication in the Gazette.
(c) The presumption of validity. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden is on the challenger; the court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks it unwise or capable of improvement.
5. Which control actually works. Parliamentary control is weak: thousands of instruments are laid each year, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House, and the committees can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control is therefore the effective one, and the ground that most often succeeds is the plainest, that the rule contradicts or exceeds the parent Act.
Answer
For full marks, cover: each of the three at about four marks, with a definition, the essentials, the case law and the limits. They are connected, and saying how they connect at the end is worth a mark.
1. The general rule. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now Section 121 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023: where one person has by his declaration, act or omission intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief, neither he nor his representative shall be allowed in any suit or proceeding between himself and that person to deny the truth of that thing.
2. Promissory estoppel, which is the form that matters in administrative law. Where a party makes a clear and unequivocal promise intending to create a legal relation, knowing or intending that it will be acted on, and the other party alters his position on the faith of it, the promisor is bound, even in the absence of consideration and even though there is no concluded contract.
3. Against the Government. Union of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies (1968): the Government having announced an export promotion scheme, and the exporter having acted on it, the Government was held bound. Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979) is the leading case: a three-year sales tax exemption was announced, the company set up a plant on the faith of it, and the State resiled. Bhagwati J. held the State bound, and laid down that promissory estoppel is available against the Government in the exercise of its governmental, public or executive functions; that the party need not show detriment in the sense of damage; and that if the Government wishes to resile it must place material before the court showing that the public interest requires it, and the court will decide.
4. The limits.
1. Meaning. Mandamus, "we command", is a command issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226 to a person, corporation or inferior tribunal, requiring it to do a public duty which it is bound to do and has failed or refused to do.
2. Conditions.
3. Against whom it lies. Against the State, public officers, statutory bodies, tribunals, and a company or society performing a public duty (Praga Tools Corporation v. C.V. Imanual, 1969; Andi Mukta Sadguru Trust v. V.R. Rudani, 1989, where mandamus was issued to a private aided college).
4. Against whom it does not lie. A private individual; the President or a Governor (Article 361); to enforce a contract of personal service; to compel the legislature to enact or refrain from enacting a law; to compel a discretionary power to be exercised in a particular way; and where the duty has become impossible of performance.
5. What it can achieve. It can compel the performance of a duty; compel an authority to exercise a discretion it has wrongly refused to exercise, or to consider a case it has refused to consider; forbid the enforcement of an invalid law; and, in the Indian form under Article 226, be moulded to the justice of the case: Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986), where the Supreme Court held that the High Court is not confined to the technical limits of the English writ and may direct the authority to act in a particular manner where injustice would otherwise result.
6. Kinds. Alternative (a nisi rule, calling on the respondent to show cause) and peremptory (absolute), and continuing mandamus, developed in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), where the court keeps the matter on its board and monitors compliance over time.
1. Meaning. Where a public authority has made a clear and unambiguous promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect that it will be honoured or continued, and the authority may not depart from it without acting fairly.
2. Its two forms.
3. The cases.
4. The limits. The expectation must arise from an express promise or a settled practice; it must be legitimate, not merely hoped for; it cannot be founded on a promise that is ultra vires or contrary to law; and it yields to an overriding public interest, which the authority must justify.
How the three connect. All three are ways in which the law holds a public authority to what it has led a citizen to believe. Estoppel works through evidence and equity and requires an alteration of position. Legitimate expectation works through Article 14 and requires only a promise or a practice, but ordinarily yields a hearing rather than the benefit. Mandamus is the remedy that enforces the duty once it exists. In practice a petitioner pleads all three and the court decides which fits.
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This volume prints the 2022-23 - ATKT Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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