Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2023-24 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2023-24 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2023-24 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any six in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Pecuniary bias is bias arising from a financial or proprietary interest, however small, in the subject matter of the proceeding or in one of the parties.
It is the strictest form of the rule against bias: any pecuniary interest disqualifies automatically, and the court makes no inquiry into whether it actually influenced the decision.
Answer
A corporation is an artificial person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal, distinct from the members who compose it, and capable of holding property, contracting, and suing and being sued in its own name.
The species that concerns administrative law is the public corporation: a body created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to run an undertaking on behalf of the State.
Answer
Article 299(1) of the Constitution lays down three essentials:
The ordinary requirements of a valid contract under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 must also be met, and the award is subject to Article 14.
Answer
An irrelevant consideration is a matter which the statute conferring a discretion does not permit the authority to take into account, and upon which the authority nevertheless acts.
Acting on irrelevant considerations, or failing to take relevant ones into account, is a recognised head of abuse of discretion, and the resulting order is liable to be quashed even where the authority was honest.
Answer
Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."
K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.
Sir William Wade, shortest and best: "the law relating to the control of governmental power".
Answer
A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in cases where a prior hearing was not possible because the situation required immediate action. The order is provisional until the hearing is held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered.
Answer
Dismissal in limine means dismissal at the threshold: the summary rejection of a petition at the admission stage, without notice to the other side and without entering upon the merits.
A writ petition may be so dismissed where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where the petitioner is guilty of laches, where no arguable case is disclosed, or where material facts have been suppressed.
Answer
Conditional legislation is legislation which is complete in itself but whose operation depends upon a condition, the fulfilment of which the legislature leaves the executive to determine. The legislature makes the law; the executive decides only when, where or to whom it shall apply.
Answer
Improper purpose, or collateral purpose, is the use of a statutory power for an object other than that for which it was conferred. It is a head of abuse of discretion, and the exercise is void even if the authority acted honestly and believed it was serving the public interest.
Answer
An injunction is an equitable order of a court directing a person to do, or to refrain from doing, a particular act. It is governed by Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, and, for temporary injunctions, by Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
It is temporary or perpetual by duration, and prohibitory or mandatory by form.
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. Meaning. An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints of maladministration against public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The word is Swedish for a representative or agent.
2. Origin and spread. Created in Sweden in 1809, when the Riksdag appointed the Justitieombudsman to supervise the observance of the law by judges and officials. Finland 1919, Denmark 1955, Norway 1962, New Zealand 1962, the United Kingdom's Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in 1967, and thereafter most of the Commonwealth.
3. Characteristics. Independence of the executive, with appointment by and reporting to the legislature and a fixed tenure; jurisdiction over maladministration, meaning bias, neglect, delay, inattention, incompetence, arbitrariness and rudeness, and not merely illegality; easy and cheap access, on a simple complaint without fee, formality or advocate, and often suo motu; wide powers of investigation, including access to files and the power to summon officials; and recommendatory conclusions enforced by report and publicity rather than by decree.
4. In India.
5. Merits. Cheap, quick and informal; reaches conduct that no court can review; can act on its own motion; improves administration by the mere possibility of scrutiny; and gives the ordinary citizen a forum he can use without a lawyer.
6. Limitations. Findings bind nobody; the office depends on the executive for staff and funds; jurisdiction is often hedged with exclusions; appointments in India have frequently been delayed for years, so that the office has stood vacant; and publicity, its real sanction, works only where the press and the legislature take it up.
Answer
1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The purpose is liberty, because concentrated power is abused.
2. Comparative position. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never applied it: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the final court of appeal until 2009. India occupies a middle position.
3. India: what reflects the doctrine.
4. India: what departs from it.
5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the doctrine is not recognised "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions have been "sufficiently differentiated", so no organ may assume a function essentially belonging to another. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, deciding the Prime Minister's election dispute by amendment, was struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): part of the basic structure. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): each organ must stay within its sphere and courts must not enter the field of policy. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the 99th Amendment creating the NJAC struck down.
6. Conclusion. In India separation of powers works as a principle of interpretation and a basic feature, not as a textual rule. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.
Answer
1. Meaning. Res judicata pro veritate accipitur, a matter adjudged is taken as true. The doctrine bars the re-trial of a matter finally decided between the same parties by a competent court. For civil suits it is enacted in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
2. Its foundations. Three maxims: nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa, no man should be vexed twice for the same cause; interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium, it is in the interest of the State that litigation should end; and res judicata pro veritate accipitur.
3. Conditions under Section 11. The matter must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit; between the same parties or those claiming under them; litigating under the same title; before a court competent to try the later suit; and heard and finally decided. Explanation IV adds constructive res judicata: any ground of attack or defence which might and ought to have been taken in the former suit is deemed to have been in issue.
4. In writ jurisdiction. Section 11 does not apply as such, but the principle does.
5. Res judicata and administrative tribunals. A decision of a tribunal or a quasi-judicial authority acting within its jurisdiction can operate as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the same parties on the same issue, provided it was a judicial determination after hearing.
6. Distinction from res sub judice. Section 10 stays the trial of a suit whose matter is already pending in a previously instituted suit; Section 11 bars a suit whose matter has been already decided.
Answer
1. Meaning. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law; that power may be exercised only under and according to law; and that no person is above the law. Its ancestry runs from Bracton and Coke CJ in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) to Dicey.
2. Dicey's three propositions (1885):
3. The criticism.
4. In India. The doctrine is embodied in the Preamble, Article 13 (inconsistent laws void), Article 14 (equality before the law, and after E.P. Royappa (1974) a guarantee against arbitrariness), Article 19 (restrictions must be reasonable and by law), Article 21 (procedure established by law, read after Maneka Gandhi as right, just and fair), Article 265 and Article 300A (no tax and no deprivation of property except by authority of law), Articles 32 and 226 (enforceable remedies), Article 300 (the State may be sued), and the independence of the judiciary.
5. The Indian cases. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): the rule of law is part of the basic structure. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): the 39th Amendment struck down. ADM Jabalpur (1976): the low-water mark, where the majority denied habeas corpus during the Emergency; Khanna J.'s dissent is now the law, the majority having been overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017). Maneka Gandhi (1978): the substantive rule of law. Som Raj v. State of Haryana (1990): the absence of arbitrary power is the first postulate of the rule of law.
6. The modern content. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi, 1959, restated it as a dynamic concept, covering not only civil and political rights but the social and economic conditions in which human dignity is possible. That is the version that fits the Directive Principles and the expanded reading of Article 21.
Answer any two situational based questions 12 Marks
Answer
The principle relied on is nemo judex in causa sua in its departmental form. Standing alone it does not succeed, because the Act deliberately entrusts the power to the police. The order is bad only if the hearing that the Act itself requires was not given, or if there is a personal interest over and above the departmental one.
Answer
Note on the statute: the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 with effect from 1 July 2024, and the corresponding provision is now Section 163. The case law on Section 144 continues to apply. Write it as Section 144, as the paper does, and add the new number.
Yes, but only within Article 19(2), and a blanket refusal of permission to speak, made without material and without reasons, will not survive.
The grounds, from the section itself, are:
The judicial glosses are: the danger must be imminent, not remote; the order must be proportionate in duration, area and content; the Magistrate must record the material facts in writing; the order must be published; it expires in two months, extendable by the State Government up to six months in specified cases; and the aggrieved person may apply to the Magistrate under sub-section (5) to rescind or alter it and is entitled to be heard, the Magistrate recording reasons if he refuses.
The constitutional authorities are Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961), which upheld the section; Madhu Limaye v. Sub-Divisional Magistrate, Monghyr (1970), a seven-judge Bench, which upheld it while insisting on a genuine emergency and judicial scrutiny; and Anuradha Bhasin (2020).
Answer
Prima facie yes, the rule of audi alteram partem has not been observed. But on these facts the college has a defence, because the students absconded and made service impossible, and impracticability is a recognised exception. The answer turns on what the college actually did to reach them.
Audi alteram partem is excluded or curtailed in the following situations:
Answer
Yes. The appointment can be challenged and the appointee ousted, by a writ of quo warranto under Article 226.
Quo warranto in detail:
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: three definitions and the criticism of each; the nature of the subject in five features; the reasons for its growth; the scope under ten heads; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources.
1. Definitions.
2. Nature. It is a branch of public law; judge-made and uncodified in India, since natural justice, ultra vires and abuse of discretion are entirely the creation of decided cases; functional, studying what agencies do rather than how they are labelled; dynamic, expanding with every new State function; and organised around one idea, power and its control.
3. Reasons for growth. The change from the laissez faire to the welfare State; the inability of the legislature to make detailed law, producing delegated legislation; the delay, cost and rigidity of the ordinary courts, producing tribunals; industrialisation, urbanisation and planning; emergencies; and the value of administrative experiment.
4. Scope. Administrative law covers:
5. Administrative law and constitutional law.
| Constitutional law | Administrative law |
|---|---|
| The structure of the State and the distribution of power | The exercise of power in daily administration |
| Government at rest | Government in motion |
| The genus | A species of the genus |
| Deals with all three organs | Deals chiefly with the executive |
| Its source is mainly the Constitution | Its sources are mainly statutes, rules and case law |
In England, without a written constitution, the two were long treated as one subject. In India, with a written and supreme Constitution, administrative law draws directly on Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311, so the dependence is close and the line is one of emphasis.
6. Sources. The Constitution; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which supply nearly all the governing principles; and administrative directions and departmental practice, which bind internally and may found a legitimate expectation.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and constitutional basis of tribunals; their characteristics; the reasons for their growth; the differences from a court, in a table; the tests the courts use to identify a tribunal; why the distinction matters; and the case law on their control.
1. Meaning. A tribunal is a statutory adjudicating body outside the ordinary court hierarchy, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or in a specialised field, by a procedure that is judicial in substance but simpler and more flexible than that of the courts.
2. Constitutional basis. Article 323A empowers Parliament to provide for administrative tribunals for disputes on recruitment and conditions of service of persons in the public services of the Union, the States and local and other authorities. Article 323B empowers Parliament or a State legislature to provide for tribunals in the matters listed in clause (2): taxation, foreign exchange, import and export, industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on urban property, elections to the legislatures, essential goods, and offences connected with those subjects. Both were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 was made under Article 323A and created the Central Administrative Tribunal.
3. Characteristics. Statutory creation, with only such powers as the statute confers; the "trappings of a court", that is, a lis, evidence, summoning of witnesses and production of documents; a mixed composition of a judicial and a technical or administrative member; freedom from the Code of Civil Procedure and the Evidence Act, but a binding duty to observe natural justice; a duty to act judicially and to pass a speaking order; appointment and tenure fixed by the executive under the parent Act; amenability to certiorari and prohibition and to the superintendence of the High Court under Article 227; and decisions that are generally not binding precedents.
4. Reasons for their growth. The volume of disputes created by a welfare State; the delay and cost of ordinary litigation; the need for technical expertise; the value of flexible procedure; and the need to apply policy alongside law.
5. The differences.
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Creation | Part of the traditional judicial system of the State | Created by a specific statute for a specific field |
| Jurisdiction | General, over all disputes not excluded | Confined to the subject the statute names |
| Composition | Judges trained in law, appointed under the constitutional scheme | A judicial member with a technical or administrative member, appointed by the executive |
| Procedure | Bound by the Code of Civil Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act | Its own procedure, bound only by natural justice |
| Basis of decision | Law and the rights of the parties | Law, and also the policy and object of the statute |
| Position of the State | A party like any other | Very often itself the other party |
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Precedent | Decisions bind subordinate courts | Generally no binding precedent |
| Evidence | Strict rules of evidence | May act on any material logically probative |
| Remedy against it | Appeal within the hierarchy | Writs, and Article 227 superintendence |
| Power exercised | The judicial power of the State | A statutory adjudicatory power |
6. What they share. Both decide a lis between parties; both must act judicially, that is, objectively on the material and after hearing both sides; both must observe natural justice; both may summon witnesses and take evidence on oath; and the proceedings of both are judicial proceedings for Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.
7. The tests used to identify a tribunal. In Bharat Bank Ltd. v. Employees of Bharat Bank (1950) and Durga Shankar Mehta v. Raghuraj Singh (1954) the Supreme Court treated the power to decide a lis judicially, with a duty to act judicially, as the mark of a "tribunal" for the purposes of Article 136. Associated Cement Companies v. P.N. Sharma (1965) put it best: the essential test is whether the State has clothed the body with part of its own inherent judicial power. A body that merely advises, or that decides on policy without a lis, is neither court nor tribunal.
8. Why the distinction matters. It determines whether Article 136 special leave lies; whether certiorari and prohibition lie; whether Article 227 superintendence applies; whether the Evidence Act binds; and whether the decisions can be cited as precedent.
9. Control of tribunals. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987) upheld the Administrative Tribunals Act on the footing that the tribunal was an effective substitute for the High Court. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), seven judges, held that judicial review under Articles 226, 227 and 32 is part of the basic structure, struck down the exclusion clauses in Articles 323A(2)(d) and 323B(3)(d), and held that tribunals are courts of first instance whose decisions are subject to scrutiny by a Division Bench of the High Court. Union of India v. R. Gandhi (2010) laid down standards for the composition of tribunals that replace courts, and on 19 November 2025 in Madras Bar Association v. Union of India the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 on appointment, tenure and service conditions as giving excessive executive control, and directed the Union to set up a National Tribunal Commission.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why control is necessary; parliamentary control in its three stages; procedural control with the publication cases; judicial control under substantive and procedural ultra vires with a case for each ground; and an assessment of which control actually works.
1. Why control is necessary. Delegated legislation moves law-making from an elected and debating body to officials. The rules are made without debate, often without consultation, in very large volume, and they bind the citizen exactly as an Act does. The objection is not to the existence of the power but to the absence of scrutiny, and the three systems of control are the answer to that objection.
2. Parliamentary control.
(a) At the stage of delegation. The parent Act must lay down the policy and standard; the essential legislative function cannot be delegated: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951); Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960), where a power to add "any other disease" to a statutory list, with no standard, was struck down. Parliament also fixes the authority, the subject, the duration and the conditions of the power.
(b) Laying before the House, in three forms:
Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the Act merely requires laying, the requirement is directory and failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is a condition of validity, it is mandatory.
(c) Committee scrutiny. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964) examine whether a rule is within the power conferred; whether it imposes a tax; whether it excludes the jurisdiction of courts; whether it is retrospective without authority; whether it makes an unusual or unexpected use of the power; and whether there has been unjustifiable delay in laying or publishing it.
3. Procedural control.
4. Judicial control. The effective control, exercised through the doctrine of ultra vires.
(a) Substantive ultra vires.
(b) Procedural ultra vires. Failure to comply with a mandatory procedural requirement of the parent Act: prior publication, consultation, or Gazette publication.
(c) The presumption of validity. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid, the burden lies on the challenger, and the court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks another rule would be better. It is not the judge of policy.
5. Which control works. Parliamentary control is weak: thousands of instruments are laid each year, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House, and the committees can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control does the real work, and within it the ground that succeeds most often is the plainest: that the rule contradicts or exceeds the parent Act.
Answer
For full marks, cover: each part at about six marks. For estoppel, the general rule, promissory estoppel against the Government with Motilal Padampat, and the three limits. For the second part, eight factors, each with a concrete illustration.
1. The general rule. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now Section 121 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023: where one person has by his declaration, act or omission intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief, neither he nor his representative shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding between themselves, to deny the truth of that thing. It is a rule of evidence, and it operates as a bar on a party, not as an independent cause of action at common law.
2. Kinds. Estoppel by record (which is res judicata), estoppel by deed, and estoppel by conduct, of which promissory estoppel and equitable estoppel are branches.
3. Promissory estoppel, the branch that matters here. Where a party makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to create a legal relation, knowing that it will be acted on, and the promisee alters his position on the faith of it, the promisor is bound by the promise although there is no consideration and no concluded contract. Its origin is Central London Property Trust v. High Trees House (1947).
4. Against the Government.
5. The limits.
6. Its relation to legitimate expectation. Estoppel requires that the promisee has altered his position; legitimate expectation does not, and asks whether it was fair to defeat the expectation. Estoppel can secure the benefit itself; legitimate expectation ordinarily secures only a hearing before the benefit is withdrawn.
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This volume prints the 2023-24 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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