Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in sin in two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
K.C. Davis: "Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action."
He defined an administrative agency as a governmental authority, other than a court and other than a legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either by adjudication or by rule-making.
Answer
Estoppel is the rule that a person who by his declaration, act or omission has intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act on that belief shall not afterwards be allowed to deny its truth. It is enacted in Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now Section 121 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
In administrative law the important form is promissory estoppel: where the Government makes a clear and unequivocal promise intending it to be acted on, and the promisee alters his position on the faith of it, the Government may be held bound even without consideration.
Answer
Mandamus, "we command", is a writ issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226 commanding a public authority to perform a public duty which it has failed or refused to perform.
Its conditions are: the applicant must have a legal right; there must be a public duty, statutory or otherwise; there must have been a demand and a refusal; and there must be no other equally efficacious remedy.
Answer
A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in cases where a prior hearing was not possible because the circumstances required immediate action.
The order is treated as provisional until the hearing has been held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered the matter.
Answer
The rule of law means that the State and all its officers are subject to law, that power may be exercised only under and according to law, and that no person is above the law.
Dicey gave it three meanings: supremacy of law and the absence of arbitrary power; equality before the law, all persons being subject to the ordinary law administered by the ordinary courts; and the constitution as the product of the ordinary law, rights in England being the result of judicial decisions.
Answer
Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. It flows from Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Its three grounds are illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety, to which proportionality is added where fundamental rights are affected.
Answer
Two functions are:
Further functions are delegated legislation, since most rules are drafted in the departments; quasi-judicial adjudication, as in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals; and providing continuity and institutional memory across changes of government.
Answer
Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed not by the legislature but by the administrative courts, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration, and applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.
Its distinguishing features are that the ordinary civil courts have no jurisdiction over the administration, that conflicts of jurisdiction are settled by the Tribunal des Conflits, and that the law is judge-made and flexible.
Answer
Legitimate expectation is the doctrine that where a public authority has made an express promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect that it will continue, and that expectation cannot be defeated without fairness, which at the least means a hearing.
It is not an enforceable substantive right; it is a ground of judicial review, and in India it is treated as an aspect of the non-arbitrariness required by Article 14.
Answer
A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute which empowers the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power "to remove difficulties" arising in giving effect to it.
It is named after King Henry VIII, who through the Statute of Proclamations, 1539, was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and it is used as a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.
Write Short Notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
1. Meaning. An Ombudsman is an independent, non-partisan officer of the legislature who investigates complaints by citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings, and recommends redress. The word is Swedish and means a representative or agent.
2. Origin. The office was created in Sweden in 1809, when the Justitieombudsman was appointed by the Riksdag to supervise the observance of the law by judges and officials. It spread to Finland (1919), Denmark (1955), Norway (1962), New Zealand (1962), the United Kingdom (Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration, 1967) and thereafter to most of the world.
3. Characteristics.
4. In India. The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966, chaired by Morarji Desai, recommended a two-tier machinery, the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States.
5. Merits and limitations. He is cheap, quick and informal, can reach conduct that no court can review, and improves administration by the mere fact that officials know they may be examined. Against that, his findings bind nobody, he can look only at what is brought to him unless he acts suo motu, his office is under-resourced, and in India the appointments have often been delayed for years, which is the standing criticism of the institution.
Answer
1. Object. The Act sets out a practical regime of right to information for citizens, to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, and to contain corruption. Its constitutional root is Article 19(1)(a), the right to information having been held part of the freedom of speech and expression in State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975).
2. Salient features.
Answer
1. Meaning. Sub-delegation is the delegation by a delegate of the power delegated to him by the parent statute. The legislature delegates to authority A; A delegates further to B. Where the parent Act itself provides for it, it is spoken of as sub-delegated or second-stage legislation.
2. The rule. Delegatus non potest delegare, "a delegate cannot further delegate". Sub-delegation is therefore invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.
The reason is that the legislature selected a particular authority because it trusted that authority's judgment and its accountability. To permit it to hand the power on would be to substitute a judgment the legislature never chose.
3. Forms it takes. The parent Act may authorise sub-delegation expressly, as where it empowers the Government to make rules and authorises the rules to confer powers on an officer; or the rules may themselves provide for the exercise of a power by "such officer as may be authorised in this behalf". Sub-delegation may go through several tiers: the classic Indian illustration is the Essential Supplies (Temporary Powers) Act, 1946, under which the Central Government made the Cotton Textiles (Control) Order, whose clause 2 empowered the Textile Commissioner to issue directions, and he in turn issued them.
4. The leading case. Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works Ltd. (1997). Section 3 of the Andhra Pradesh (Agricultural Produce and Livestock) Markets Act, 1966 conferred rule-making power on the Government. Rule 74(2) purported to leave to the market committee the determination of the place where produce would be deemed to be purchased. The Supreme Court held the sub-delegation bad: the power having been given to the Government, it could not be handed to the committee in the absence of authority in the parent Act, and delegatus non potest delegare applies to delegated legislation.
5. Limits and safeguards. Even where sub-delegation is authorised, the sub-delegate cannot exceed the delegate's own power; the rule made must be consistent with the parent Act and with the rules under which it is made; and the sub-delegated legislation must be published, since Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951) holds that an unpublished law cannot be enforced against a person who had no means of knowing it.
6. Criticism. Sub-delegation carries the law-making power one stage further from the elected legislature; the rules made at the third and fourth tier are rarely laid before the House or examined by the Committee on Subordinate Legislation; and they are often poorly published, so that the citizen may be punished under a rule he could not have found.
Answer
1. Definition. A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to run a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality and financial autonomy.
Justice Douglas described it as a device that combines "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
2. Characteristics. Statutory or corporate creation; separate legal personality, so it may hold property, contract, sue and be sued in its own name; State ownership of the capital; financial autonomy, with its own accounts and no dependence on annual appropriation; staff who are not civil servants and are governed by its own regulations; and freedom from day-to-day departmental control.
3. Kinds. Statutory corporations (Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, Damodar Valley Corporation, State Road Transport Corporations); Government companies under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013, with not less than 51 per cent Government holding (Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals, Coal India); and chartered corporations, now of historical interest only. By function they are commercial, developmental, financial, promotional or regulatory.
4. Reasons for their creation. To combine public ownership with commercial flexibility; to secure expert management; to take a strategic industry into public hands; to insulate an undertaking from political interference in its daily working while keeping it answerable for results; and to keep its finances outside the Consolidated Fund.
5. Control.
6. When is a corporation "the State"? Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967) held a statutory corporation to be "other authorities" under Article 12. Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975) applied this to ONGC, LIC and the Industrial Finance Corporation. Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979) and Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981) laid down the six tests: the entire share capital held by the Government, financial assistance meeting almost the whole expenditure, a monopoly conferred or protected by the State, deep and pervasive State control, functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions, and the transfer of a Government department to the corporation. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002) restated the test as functional, financial and administrative domination by the Government.
Answer any two Situational Based Questions 12 Marks
Answer
These are the facts of Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation, AIR 1959 SC 308, the first Gullapalli case.
Yes. He may file a writ petition under Article 226, and the appropriate writ is certiorari to quash the approved scheme.
Why certiorari. The hearing of objections to a nationalisation scheme is a quasi-judicial function: there is a proposal, an objector, a hearing and a decision affecting rights. Certiorari is the writ that quashes an order already made by a body acting judicially or quasi-judicially. If the scheme had not yet been approved, prohibition would have been the remedy, to stop the proceeding; here the approval has been given, so certiorari lies. He may also ask for mandamus directing a fresh hearing according to law.
The grounds.
Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959).
Facts. Under Chapter IVA of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1939, the State Transport Undertaking published a scheme for the nationalisation of road transport. Objections were invited. They were heard by the Secretary of the Transport Department, and the scheme was approved by the Chief Minister.
Held. The approval was quashed. The Supreme Court laid down two principles:
The sequel, which is worth two marks. In Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. State of Andhra Pradesh (AIR 1959 SC 1376), the second Gullapalli case, the rules were amended so that the Chief Minister himself heard the objections and decided. The Supreme Court upheld the scheme. The difference is decisive: in the first case the hearing and the decision were in different hands; in the second they were in the same hands, and the fact that the Minister was politically responsible for the policy did not disqualify him, because ministerial responsibility for policy is not the kind of bias the rule strikes at.
Answer
These are the facts of Hind Construction and Engineering Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen, AIR 1965 SC 917.
No. The dismissal is not justifiable. It is a punishment grossly disproportionate to the misconduct, and it is liable to be set aside with reinstatement.
1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that the measure adopted by an authority must be no more than is necessary to achieve the object, and that the burden imposed must bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the words often used, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".
2. Its two applications in administrative law.
3. The four-part test, as settled in Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): the measure must pursue a legitimate aim; it must be rationally connected to that aim; it must be necessary, in the sense that no less restrictive alternative is available; and it must strike a fair balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community.
4. Its relation to Wednesbury unreasonableness. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settled the Indian position: where fundamental rights are affected, the court applies proportionality and acts as a primary reviewing authority; where the challenge is to an administrative decision or to a quantum of punishment, the court applies the Wednesbury standard, and interferes only if the punishment is so disproportionate as to shock the conscience, remitting the matter to the authority rather than substituting its own penalty.
5. Punishment cases. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987): a soldier sentenced to rigorous imprisonment and dismissal for refusing to eat food; the Court held the punishment "strikingly disproportionate" and set it aside. Bhagat Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh (1983) and Ex-Naik Sardar Singh v. Union of India (1991) are to the same effect.
Answer
The answer turns on one question: does Mr. Saket hold a civil post under the Union or a State? On the facts as stated he is an employee of a municipal corporation, so Article 311 does not apply to him in terms. But he is not without a remedy, and the substance of the protection reaches him by another route.
1. Meaning. The doctrine of pleasure, durante bene placito, is the rule that a servant of the Crown holds office during the pleasure of the Crown and may be dismissed at will, without notice and without cause.
2. Its justification. It is put on public policy: the State must be able to dispense at once with the services of a person whose continuance is not in the public interest, and it cannot be compelled to retain an official in whom it has lost confidence.
3. In India: Article 310. Every member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an All India Service, and every holder of a civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the President; and every member of a civil service of a State or holder of a civil post under a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. The clause opens with the words "except as expressly provided by this Constitution".
4. Its limitations in India. The doctrine is far narrower here than in England:
Answer
These are the facts of Air India v. Nergesh Meerza, (1981) 4 SCC 335.
Yes. A regulation terminating the services of an air hostess on her first pregnancy is arbitrary, unreasonable and void as violating Article 14.
1. Meaning. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, schemes and notifications. Salmond: subordinate legislation is that which proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power and is dependent for its validity on some superior authority.
Note the direct link to part (a): Regulation 46 of Air India is itself a piece of delegated legislation, made under Section 45 of the Air Corporations Act, 1953, and it was struck down partly on a ground peculiar to delegated legislation, that a discretion had been conferred without guidelines.
2. Reasons for its growth. Pressure on parliamentary time; technicality of subject matter; the need for flexibility and rapid amendment; emergency; the value of experiment; local and expert knowledge; and the sheer volume of regulation a welfare State requires.
3. The constitutional limit. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951): the legislature may not delegate its essential legislative function, being the laying down of policy, but may delegate the working out of details; and the power to repeal or modify an Act in its essentials cannot be delegated. Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) struck down a delegation made without any standard.
4. The controls. Parliamentary, by policy fixed in the parent Act, the laying procedure, and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation; procedural, by prior publication, consultation and publication in the Gazette (Harla v. State of Rajasthan, 1951); and judicial, by substantive and procedural ultra vires, which includes the ground applied in Nergesh Meerza, that a rule conferring an unguided discretion is bad.
Answer any two in detail 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: what a tribunal is; seven advantages and seven disadvantages; the text of Articles 323A and 323B; the four-case line on their constitutionality from Sampath Kumar to Madras Bar Association; and a conclusion.
1. What a tribunal is. A statutory adjudicating body outside the ordinary court hierarchy which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or in a specialised field, judicially in substance but by a simpler procedure.
2. Advantages.
3. Disadvantages.
4. Articles 323A and 323B. Both were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
5. The constitutionality: the case law.
Note carefully: L. Chandra Kumar did not strike down Articles 323A and 323B themselves. It struck down only the exclusion clauses within them, and it modified Sampath Kumar to the extent that the tribunal is a supplement to, and not a substitute for, the High Court.
6. Conclusion. Articles 323A and 323B are constitutionally valid, and tribunals are a permanent and necessary part of Indian adjudication. What the courts have refused to permit is the exclusion of the High Court's supervision and the executive capture of the tribunals' personnel. The pattern of the case law is that the more nearly a tribunal replaces a court, the more nearly it must resemble one in independence, tenure and qualification.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the theory and its author; its three propositions; its position in the United States and England; its position in India, both the provisions that reflect it and the provisions that depart from it; five judicial decisions; and the modern functional statement.
1. The theory. Baron de Montesquieu in L'Esprit des Lois (1748), building on Aristotle, Locke and his own reading of the English constitution, propounded that the three powers of the State should be separated. Its three propositions are:
Its purpose was liberty: "when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person, or in the same body of magistrates, there can be no liberty".
2. In the United States it is applied strictly by the text of the Constitution, tempered by checks and balances: the presidential veto, the Senate's power over appointments and treaties, impeachment, and judicial review.
3. In England it has never been accepted: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the highest court until the Constitutional Reform Act, 2005 created the Supreme Court in 2009.
4. In India: the provisions that reflect it.
5. In India: the departures.
6. The judicial decisions.
7. The modern functional statement. The Indian doctrine is not a rule that each organ must confine itself to its own work; it is a rule that no organ may take over the essential function of another. Delegated legislation and tribunals are tolerated because the essential function remains where the Constitution placed it; a statute deciding a particular case, or a court framing general economic policy, is not.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reason the rules have no fixed content; the rule against bias with its four forms and cases; the hearing rule with its seven components and cases; the reasoned-order rule; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness that the law requires of anyone who decides a question affecting the rights or legitimate interests of another. It is not a code and it has no fixed content: what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual. In India it is grounded in Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is not merely an irregularity but a constitutional wrong.
2. First principle: nemo judex in causa sua, the rule against bias.
The test, settled since A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970), is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased but whether there was a real likelihood of bias in the mind of a reasonable person, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly be seen to be done.
Two qualifications must be stated. The doctrine of necessity permits a biased authority to act where it is the only authority competent to act and the alternative is that no decision can be made at all (Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, 1990). And statutory authorisation may exclude the objection, since the legislature may direct a particular officer to decide although he has departmental interest.
3. Second principle: audi alteram partem, the hearing rule.
Its components are notice stating the charge and the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material relied on (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex or the other side is professionally represented; the rule that he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and a decision on the material on record and nothing else.
The landmark decisions are Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), where Byles J. said the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature; Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), where the House of Lords held that the duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), where the impounding of a passport without a hearing was held to violate Articles 14 and 21 and the rule was held excludable only by express words or necessary implication; and Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981), where a post-decisional hearing was called a poor substitute for a pre-decisional one.
4. Third principle: the reasoned or speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976) held that recording reasons is a basic principle of natural justice. S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990) held that reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) held that an order must be judged by the reasons it itself gives and cannot be supported by reasons supplied later in an affidavit.
5. Exceptions. Express or implied statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970, mass copying at a whole centre); legislative action; confidentiality and security of the State (Ex parte Hosenball); the "useless formality" exception, which the courts apply narrowly; purely administrative or contractual matters; and interim preventive measures such as suspension pending inquiry. Under the second proviso to Article 311(2), as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985), the inquiry itself may be dispensed with on the three stated grounds.
6. Effect of a breach. An order made in breach of natural justice is void, not voidable. The court quashes it and remits the matter to the authority to be decided afresh from the point at which the illegality occurred; it does not itself decide the merits.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; the two great heads, substantive and procedural ultra vires; the sub-heads under each with a case; the presumption of validity; and the effect of a rule being held ultra vires.
1. Why judicial control matters. Parliamentary control is weak: the volume of rules defeats scrutiny, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control depends on the parent Act saying so. Judicial control is therefore where the real law is, and it operates through the doctrine of ultra vires, which has two branches.
2. Substantive ultra vires: the rule is beyond the power.
3. Procedural ultra vires: the rule was made in the wrong way.
Where the parent Act prescribes a procedure for making rules, the question is whether the requirement is mandatory or directory. Breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal; breach of a directory one is not.
4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Delegated legislation carries a presumption of validity, and the burden is on the person challenging it. The court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks the rule unwise, inexpedient or capable of improvement; it is not the judge of policy. In Indian Express Newspapers the Court said that subordinate legislation does not carry the same degree of immunity as a statute, but that it may still be questioned only on the recognised grounds.
5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and is treated as never having been made, though acts done under it before it was struck down may in some cases be protected. Severance is possible: the offending part may be struck down and the rest allowed to stand if the remainder can operate independently.
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This volume prints the 2022-23 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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