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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7 Administrative Law 2022-23 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Administrative Law

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7

2022-23 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: 1. Figures to the right indicate full marks.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Answer in sin in two sentences 12 Marks

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(1)Definition of Administrative Law by K.C.Davis.[2]

Answer

K.C. Davis: "Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action."

He defined an administrative agency as a governmental authority, other than a court and other than a legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either by adjudication or by rule-making.

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(2)Explain the doctrine of estoppel.[2]

Answer

Estoppel is the rule that a person who by his declaration, act or omission has intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act on that belief shall not afterwards be allowed to deny its truth. It is enacted in Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now Section 121 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.

In administrative law the important form is promissory estoppel: where the Government makes a clear and unequivocal promise intending it to be acted on, and the promisee alters his position on the faith of it, the Government may be held bound even without consideration.

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(3)Explain the writ of mandamus.[2]

Answer

Mandamus, "we command", is a writ issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226 commanding a public authority to perform a public duty which it has failed or refused to perform.

Its conditions are: the applicant must have a legal right; there must be a public duty, statutory or otherwise; there must have been a demand and a refusal; and there must be no other equally efficacious remedy.

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(4)What is post decision hearing?[2]

Answer

A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in cases where a prior hearing was not possible because the circumstances required immediate action.

The order is treated as provisional until the hearing has been held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered the matter.

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(5)Explain the doctrine of rule of law.[2]

Answer

The rule of law means that the State and all its officers are subject to law, that power may be exercised only under and according to law, and that no person is above the law.

Dicey gave it three meanings: supremacy of law and the absence of arbitrary power; equality before the law, all persons being subject to the ordinary law administered by the ordinary courts; and the constitution as the product of the ordinary law, rights in England being the result of judicial decisions.

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(6)What is Judicial Review?[2]

Answer

Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. It flows from Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Its three grounds are illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety, to which proportionality is added where fundamental rights are affected.

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(7)State two function of civil service.[2]

Answer

Two functions are:

  1. to advise the political executive on policy, by supplying the Minister with facts, precedents, expert opinion and the likely consequences of each course, so that policy is made on information rather than impulse; and
  2. to implement and administer the law and the policies decided by the Government: collecting revenue, maintaining order, running services, disbursing welfare and enforcing regulation.

Further functions are delegated legislation, since most rules are drafted in the departments; quasi-judicial adjudication, as in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals; and providing continuity and institutional memory across changes of government.

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(8)What is droit administratif?[2]

Answer

Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed not by the legislature but by the administrative courts, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration, and applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.

Its distinguishing features are that the ordinary civil courts have no jurisdiction over the administration, that conflicts of jurisdiction are settled by the Tribunal des Conflits, and that the law is judge-made and flexible.

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(9)Explain the concept of legitimate expectation.[2]

Answer

Legitimate expectation is the doctrine that where a public authority has made an express promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect that it will continue, and that expectation cannot be defeated without fairness, which at the least means a hearing.

It is not an enforceable substantive right; it is a ground of judicial review, and in India it is treated as an aspect of the non-arbitrariness required by Article 14.

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(10)What is Henry VIII clause?[2]

Answer

A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute which empowers the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power "to remove difficulties" arising in giving effect to it.

It is named after King Henry VIII, who through the Statute of Proclamations, 1539, was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and it is used as a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.

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Q.2

Write Short Notes on any two 12 Marks

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(1)Ombudsman[6]

Answer

1. Meaning. An Ombudsman is an independent, non-partisan officer of the legislature who investigates complaints by citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings, and recommends redress. The word is Swedish and means a representative or agent.

2. Origin. The office was created in Sweden in 1809, when the Justitieombudsman was appointed by the Riksdag to supervise the observance of the law by judges and officials. It spread to Finland (1919), Denmark (1955), Norway (1962), New Zealand (1962), the United Kingdom (Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration, 1967) and thereafter to most of the world.

3. Characteristics.

  1. Independence: appointed by and answerable to the legislature, with a fixed tenure and removal only on stated grounds;
  2. Jurisdiction over maladministration, which includes bias, neglect, delay, inattention, incompetence, arbitrariness and rudeness, and not merely over illegality;
  3. Easy access: a simple complaint, without fee, formality or lawyer, and in most systems a power to act suo motu;
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  1. Wide powers of investigation, including access to files and the power to summon officials;
  2. Recommendatory conclusions, enforced by report and publicity rather than by decree; and
  3. Reports to the legislature, which are his real sanction.

4. In India. The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966, chaired by Morarji Desai, recommended a two-tier machinery, the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States.

  1. Maharashtra was the first State to act, by the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971;
  2. at the Centre, after eight failed Bills between 1968 and 2011 and the Anna Hazare movement, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 was enacted. It creates a Lokpal of a chairperson and up to eight members, half of them judicial; requires every State to establish a Lokayukta within one year; brings the Prime Minister within its jurisdiction with exclusions for international relations, security, public order, atomic energy and space; and provides an Inquiry Wing under Section 11 and a Prosecution Wing under Section 12. A complaint must be within seven years of the offence under Section 53.
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5. Merits and limitations. He is cheap, quick and informal, can reach conduct that no court can review, and improves administration by the mere fact that officials know they may be examined. Against that, his findings bind nobody, he can look only at what is brought to him unless he acts suo motu, his office is under-resourced, and in India the appointments have often been delayed for years, which is the standing criticism of the institution.

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(2)Salient Features of Right to Information Act, 2005[6]

Answer

1. Object. The Act sets out a practical regime of right to information for citizens, to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, and to contain corruption. Its constitutional root is Article 19(1)(a), the right to information having been held part of the freedom of speech and expression in State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975).

2. Salient features.

  1. Wide definition of information, Section 2(f): records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models and data in any electronic form, and information relating to a private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law.
  2. The right itself, Section 2(j): the right to inspect work, documents and records; to take notes, extracts and certified copies; to take certified samples of material; and to obtain information in electronic form.
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  1. Who is covered, Section 2(h): every authority or body established by the Constitution, by law, or by a Government notification, including any body owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Government and non-governmental organisations substantially financed by it.
  2. Suo motu disclosure, Section 4: every public authority must maintain its records catalogued and indexed and publish, within 120 days, its particulars, functions, duties, the powers of its officers, the procedure of decision-making, the norms it sets, the documents it holds, its budget and its subsidies. This is the most important and the least used provision, because it is intended to reduce the need for applications altogether.
  3. The machinery, Sections 5, 6 and 7: every public authority appoints Public Information Officers; the applicant need give no reason for seeking the information; the fee is prescribed and nil for those below the poverty line; and the reply is due within 30 days, or 48 hours where the life or liberty of a person is concerned.
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  1. Exemptions, Section 8: sovereignty and integrity of India, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests, foreign relations; information forbidden by a court; breach of parliamentary privilege; commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property; information held in a fiduciary relationship; information received in confidence from a foreign government; information endangering life or physical safety or identifying a confidential source; information impeding investigation or prosecution; cabinet papers, subject to disclosure after the decision is taken; and personal information with no relation to public activity. Section 9 allows refusal where disclosure would infringe copyright of a person other than the State.
  2. The public interest override, Section 8(2): information exempt under Section 8 or under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 may still be disclosed if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interest.
  3. Partial access, Section 10: severable non-exempt parts must be given.
  4. Appeals, Sections 19 and 18: a first appeal to a senior officer within 30 days, a second appeal to the Central or State Information Commission within 90 days, and a complaint to the Commission under Section 18.
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  1. Penalty, Section 20: Rs. 250 per day up to Rs. 25,000 on a Public Information Officer who refuses to receive an application, delays without reasonable cause, denies malafide, gives incorrect or misleading information, or destroys information.
  2. Overriding effect, Section 22: the Act prevails over the Official Secrets Act and any inconsistent law.
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(3)Sub-Delegation[6]

Answer

1. Meaning. Sub-delegation is the delegation by a delegate of the power delegated to him by the parent statute. The legislature delegates to authority A; A delegates further to B. Where the parent Act itself provides for it, it is spoken of as sub-delegated or second-stage legislation.

2. The rule. Delegatus non potest delegare, "a delegate cannot further delegate". Sub-delegation is therefore invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.

The reason is that the legislature selected a particular authority because it trusted that authority's judgment and its accountability. To permit it to hand the power on would be to substitute a judgment the legislature never chose.

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3. Forms it takes. The parent Act may authorise sub-delegation expressly, as where it empowers the Government to make rules and authorises the rules to confer powers on an officer; or the rules may themselves provide for the exercise of a power by "such officer as may be authorised in this behalf". Sub-delegation may go through several tiers: the classic Indian illustration is the Essential Supplies (Temporary Powers) Act, 1946, under which the Central Government made the Cotton Textiles (Control) Order, whose clause 2 empowered the Textile Commissioner to issue directions, and he in turn issued them.

4. The leading case. Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works Ltd. (1997). Section 3 of the Andhra Pradesh (Agricultural Produce and Livestock) Markets Act, 1966 conferred rule-making power on the Government. Rule 74(2) purported to leave to the market committee the determination of the place where produce would be deemed to be purchased. The Supreme Court held the sub-delegation bad: the power having been given to the Government, it could not be handed to the committee in the absence of authority in the parent Act, and delegatus non potest delegare applies to delegated legislation.

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5. Limits and safeguards. Even where sub-delegation is authorised, the sub-delegate cannot exceed the delegate's own power; the rule made must be consistent with the parent Act and with the rules under which it is made; and the sub-delegated legislation must be published, since Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951) holds that an unpublished law cannot be enforced against a person who had no means of knowing it.

6. Criticism. Sub-delegation carries the law-making power one stage further from the elected legislature; the rules made at the third and fourth tier are rarely laid before the House or examined by the Committee on Subordinate Legislation; and they are often poorly published, so that the citizen may be punished under a rule he could not have found.

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(4)Public Corporations[6]

Answer

1. Definition. A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to run a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality and financial autonomy.

Justice Douglas described it as a device that combines "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".

2. Characteristics. Statutory or corporate creation; separate legal personality, so it may hold property, contract, sue and be sued in its own name; State ownership of the capital; financial autonomy, with its own accounts and no dependence on annual appropriation; staff who are not civil servants and are governed by its own regulations; and freedom from day-to-day departmental control.

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3. Kinds. Statutory corporations (Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, Damodar Valley Corporation, State Road Transport Corporations); Government companies under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013, with not less than 51 per cent Government holding (Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals, Coal India); and chartered corporations, now of historical interest only. By function they are commercial, developmental, financial, promotional or regulatory.

4. Reasons for their creation. To combine public ownership with commercial flexibility; to secure expert management; to take a strategic industry into public hands; to insulate an undertaking from political interference in its daily working while keeping it answerable for results; and to keep its finances outside the Consolidated Fund.

5. Control.

  1. Parliamentary: annual report and audited accounts laid before the House, questions and discussions, the Committee on Public Undertakings (1964), the Public Accounts Committee, and audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General;
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  1. Governmental: appointment and removal of the board, directions on questions of policy, approval of the budget and of regulations, inspection and inquiry, and supersession in default;
  2. Judicial: the doctrine of ultra vires; writs under Article 226; and the fundamental rights, where the corporation is "the State" under Article 12;
  3. Public: the Right to Information Act, 2005, consumer councils, the press, the Central Vigilance Commission and the sectoral regulators.
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6. When is a corporation "the State"? Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967) held a statutory corporation to be "other authorities" under Article 12. Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975) applied this to ONGC, LIC and the Industrial Finance Corporation. Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979) and Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981) laid down the six tests: the entire share capital held by the Government, financial assistance meeting almost the whole expenditure, a monopoly conferred or protected by the State, deep and pervasive State control, functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions, and the transfer of a Government department to the corporation. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002) restated the test as functional, financial and administrative domination by the Government.

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Q.3

Answer any two Situational Based Questions 12 Marks

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(1)A State Transport Undertaking published a scheme for nationalisation of motor transport in the State and invited objections. The objections filed by Mr. X were received and heard by the Secretary and later the scheme was approved by the Chief Minister.[6]

  • (a) Can Mr. X file a writ petition and which is the appropriate writ that can be issued? Give the grounds on which such writ can be issued.
  • (b) Cite the relevant judicial decision and the explain the principle laid down in the said decision.

Answer

These are the facts of Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation, AIR 1959 SC 308, the first Gullapalli case.

(a) Can Mr. X file a writ petition and which is the appropriate writ that can be issued? Give the grounds on which such writ can be issued.

Yes. He may file a writ petition under Article 226, and the appropriate writ is certiorari to quash the approved scheme.

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Why certiorari. The hearing of objections to a nationalisation scheme is a quasi-judicial function: there is a proposal, an objector, a hearing and a decision affecting rights. Certiorari is the writ that quashes an order already made by a body acting judicially or quasi-judicially. If the scheme had not yet been approved, prohibition would have been the remedy, to stop the proceeding; here the approval has been given, so certiorari lies. He may also ask for mandamus directing a fresh hearing according to law.

The grounds.

  1. Breach of natural justice, in the specific form that he who decides must hear. The Secretary heard the objections and the Chief Minister decided them. A person who has not heard the objector cannot weigh his objection, and the objector's oral submissions are lost in a summary prepared by someone else.
  2. Official or departmental bias. The scheme was framed by the Transport Undertaking, and the objections were heard by the Secretary of the very department responsible for it. The department was thus judge in its own cause, contrary to nemo judex in causa sua.
  3. Non-application of mind by the deciding authority, which follows from the first ground.
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  1. No speaking order, if the approval records no reasons for rejecting the objections.
  2. Violation of Article 19(1)(g) of the operators whose permits the scheme extinguishes, and of Article 14, if the scheme is arbitrary.

(b) Cite the relevant judicial decision and the explain the principle laid down in the said decision.

Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959).

Facts. Under Chapter IVA of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1939, the State Transport Undertaking published a scheme for the nationalisation of road transport. Objections were invited. They were heard by the Secretary of the Transport Department, and the scheme was approved by the Chief Minister.

Held. The approval was quashed. The Supreme Court laid down two principles:

  1. "He who decides must hear." The divorce of the hearing from the decision is a violation of natural justice, because personal hearing enables the authority deciding to watch the demeanour of the witnesses and to clear up his own doubts; a summary of the case prepared by another is not the same thing.
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  1. The department could not be judge in its own cause. The Secretary of the department which itself initiated the scheme heard the objections, and the whole department was in substance a party. That gave rise to a reasonable likelihood of bias.

The sequel, which is worth two marks. In Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. State of Andhra Pradesh (AIR 1959 SC 1376), the second Gullapalli case, the rules were amended so that the Chief Minister himself heard the objections and decided. The Supreme Court upheld the scheme. The difference is decisive: in the first case the hearing and the decision were in different hands; in the second they were in the same hands, and the fact that the Minister was politically responsible for the policy did not disqualify him, because ministerial responsibility for policy is not the kind of bias the rule strikes at.

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(2)Few workers of ABP industry remained absent from duty treating a particular day as holiday. ABP employer dismissed those workers from service for remaining absent?[6]

  • (a) Is the action taking by the employer justifiable. Give reason to the answer and also cite the relevant judicial decision?
  • (b) Explain the doctrine of proportionality?

Answer

These are the facts of Hind Construction and Engineering Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen, AIR 1965 SC 917.

(a) Is the action taking by the employer justifiable. Give reason to the answer and also cite the relevant judicial decision?

No. The dismissal is not justifiable. It is a punishment grossly disproportionate to the misconduct, and it is liable to be set aside with reinstatement.

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  1. The facts of Hind Construction. The company allowed fourteen holidays in the year and, by practice, a holiday falling on a Sunday was carried to the following day. Eleven workmen did not attend on 2 January, treating it as a holiday. The company said they had been told that because of pressure of work 2 January would be a working day and a holiday would be given later. They were charge-sheeted, an enquiry was held, and they were dismissed.
  2. The holding. The Industrial Tribunal set aside the dismissals and ordered reinstatement with back wages except for the day of absence, and the Supreme Court upheld that. It held that the absence could have been treated as leave without pay, or met with a warning or a fine, and that it was impossible to think that any reasonable employer would have imposed the extreme punishment of dismissal on its entire permanent staff for a single day's absence in these circumstances.
  3. The principle. Where the punishment is shockingly disproportionate to the misconduct, the tribunal or the court may interfere, and such a punishment may amount to victimisation or an unfair labour practice.
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  1. The added factors here. A genuine and honest belief that the day was a holiday negatives the element of wilful disobedience; the practice of the establishment is relevant to whether that belief was reasonable; and dismissing a body of workmen together suggests victimisation rather than discipline.
  2. The remedy. The workmen may raise an industrial dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and the Labour Court or Tribunal may under Section 11A set aside the order of dismissal and direct reinstatement, or award lesser punishment, on the material on record.

(b) Explain the doctrine of proportionality?

1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that the measure adopted by an authority must be no more than is necessary to achieve the object, and that the burden imposed must bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the words often used, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".

2. Its two applications in administrative law.

  1. to restrictions on rights, where the court asks whether the restriction is proportionate to the object; and
  2. to punishment, where the court asks whether the penalty is disproportionate to the misconduct.
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3. The four-part test, as settled in Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): the measure must pursue a legitimate aim; it must be rationally connected to that aim; it must be necessary, in the sense that no less restrictive alternative is available; and it must strike a fair balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community.

4. Its relation to Wednesbury unreasonableness. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settled the Indian position: where fundamental rights are affected, the court applies proportionality and acts as a primary reviewing authority; where the challenge is to an administrative decision or to a quantum of punishment, the court applies the Wednesbury standard, and interferes only if the punishment is so disproportionate as to shock the conscience, remitting the matter to the authority rather than substituting its own penalty.

5. Punishment cases. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987): a soldier sentenced to rigorous imprisonment and dismissal for refusing to eat food; the Court held the punishment "strikingly disproportionate" and set it aside. Bhagat Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh (1983) and Ex-Naik Sardar Singh v. Union of India (1991) are to the same effect.

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(3)Mr. Saket is an engineer working in PBC Corporation was appointed by the Municipal Commissioner. He was removed from his office by the Assistant Municipal Commissioner who is subordinate to the Municipal Commissioner. Mr. Saket challenged the removal as violative of Article 311.[6]

  • (a) Does the removal amount to violation of right under Article 311? Explain briefly.
  • (b) Explain the doctrine of pleasure.

Answer

(a) Does the removal amount to violation of right under Article 311? Explain briefly.

The answer turns on one question: does Mr. Saket hold a civil post under the Union or a State? On the facts as stated he is an employee of a municipal corporation, so Article 311 does not apply to him in terms. But he is not without a remedy, and the substance of the protection reaches him by another route.

  1. What Article 311(1) says. No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or of an All India Service or of a civil service of a State, or who holds a civil post under the Union or a State, shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.
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  1. On the facts, the rank objection is well founded. He was appointed by the Municipal Commissioner and removed by the Assistant Municipal Commissioner, who is admittedly subordinate. Had he been the holder of a civil post under the State, the removal would be void at once, because the guarantee is one of rank: State of Madhya Pradesh v. Shardul Singh (1970) holds that the dismissing authority must be of a rank equal to or higher than the appointing authority, though it need not be the same officer, and need not itself conduct the inquiry.
  2. But a municipal corporation is a distinct statutory body. Its employees are servants of the corporation, not of the State, and they do not hold a civil post under a State. Article 311 has consistently been held not to extend to employees of local authorities and statutory corporations, who must look to their own service regulations.
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  1. The protection that does apply. First, the corporation's own service regulations, which almost invariably contain the same rule, that the removing authority must not be subordinate to the appointing authority; a removal contrary to a binding regulation is void. Second, Articles 14 and 16, because a municipal corporation is "the State" within Article 12, so its action in the matter of employment must not be arbitrary. Third, the principles of natural justice, which require notice of the charge, an inquiry and a hearing before removal.
  2. Conclusion to write. The removal is bad, but the ground is the corporation's own regulations read with Articles 14 and 16 and natural justice, and not Article 311 as such. He may move the High Court under Article 226 for certiorari and reinstatement.

(b) Explain the doctrine of pleasure.

1. Meaning. The doctrine of pleasure, durante bene placito, is the rule that a servant of the Crown holds office during the pleasure of the Crown and may be dismissed at will, without notice and without cause.

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2. Its justification. It is put on public policy: the State must be able to dispense at once with the services of a person whose continuance is not in the public interest, and it cannot be compelled to retain an official in whom it has lost confidence.

3. In India: Article 310. Every member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an All India Service, and every holder of a civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the President; and every member of a civil service of a State or holder of a civil post under a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. The clause opens with the words "except as expressly provided by this Constitution".

4. Its limitations in India. The doctrine is far narrower here than in England:

  1. Article 311 is the chief express exception, requiring that the removal be by an authority not subordinate to the appointing authority, and only after an inquiry with a reasonable opportunity of being heard;
  2. fixed tenures are guaranteed to the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the Comptroller and Auditor General (Article 148), the Chief Election Commissioner (Article 324) and the Chairman and members of the Public Service Commissions (Article 317);
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  1. Articles 14 and 16 forbid arbitrary or discriminatory exercise of the pleasure;
  2. the pleasure can be exercised only by the President or the Governor or by an officer authorised, and not by anyone else; and
  3. Article 310(2) itself allows a contract of fixed tenure for a person with special qualifications, with compensation if the post is abolished or he is removed for reasons unconnected with misconduct.
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(4)A regulation framed by Air India providing that services of an Air hostess could be terminated if she became pregnant.[6]

  • (a) Is the regulation framed Air India discriminatory in nature? Cite the relevant judicial decision.
  • (b) Explain the concept of delegated legislation.

Answer

These are the facts of Air India v. Nergesh Meerza, (1981) 4 SCC 335.

(a) Is the regulation framed Air India discriminatory in nature? Cite the relevant judicial decision.

Yes. A regulation terminating the services of an air hostess on her first pregnancy is arbitrary, unreasonable and void as violating Article 14.

  1. Air India is "the State". Being a statutory corporation, it is "other authorities" within Article 12, so its regulations are "law" and must satisfy the fundamental rights: Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975), Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981).
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  1. The holding in Nergesh Meerza. Regulation 46 of the Air India Employees Service Regulations provided that an air hostess would retire on attaining 35 years of age, or on marriage if it took place within four years of service, or on first pregnancy, whichever occurred earlier. The Supreme Court:
  2. upheld the bar on marriage within the first four years, as a reasonable condition in the interests of the service and of family planning;
  3. struck down the termination on first pregnancy as "most unreasonable and arbitrary", the Court observing that the provision amounted to compelling a woman not to have children and so to interfere with the ordinary course of human nature, and that having permitted marriage the employer could not then make motherhood a ground of dismissal;
  4. struck down the provision empowering the Managing Director to extend the age of retirement "at his option", as an excessive delegation with no guidelines, opening the door to arbitrariness.
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  1. The reasoning to reproduce. The classification was not founded on any intelligible differentia having a rational relation to the object of the regulation, which was the efficient running of the airline; pregnancy has no permanent effect on efficiency, and leave provisions could meet the temporary difficulty. A rule that forces a choice between employment and motherhood is a rule no reasonable employer needs.
  2. The modern position is stronger still. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, as amended in 2017, gives 26 weeks of paid maternity leave, and Section 12 makes it unlawful to dismiss or discharge a woman during or on account of her absence on maternity leave. Article 42 of the Constitution directs the State to make provision for just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief. On today's law such a regulation would be void several times over.

(b) Explain the concept of delegated legislation.

1. Meaning. Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred by the legislature. It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, schemes and notifications. Salmond: subordinate legislation is that which proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power and is dependent for its validity on some superior authority.

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Note the direct link to part (a): Regulation 46 of Air India is itself a piece of delegated legislation, made under Section 45 of the Air Corporations Act, 1953, and it was struck down partly on a ground peculiar to delegated legislation, that a discretion had been conferred without guidelines.

2. Reasons for its growth. Pressure on parliamentary time; technicality of subject matter; the need for flexibility and rapid amendment; emergency; the value of experiment; local and expert knowledge; and the sheer volume of regulation a welfare State requires.

3. The constitutional limit. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951): the legislature may not delegate its essential legislative function, being the laying down of policy, but may delegate the working out of details; and the power to repeal or modify an Act in its essentials cannot be delegated. Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) struck down a delegation made without any standard.

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4. The controls. Parliamentary, by policy fixed in the parent Act, the laying procedure, and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation; procedural, by prior publication, consultation and publication in the Gazette (Harla v. State of Rajasthan, 1951); and judicial, by substantive and procedural ultra vires, which includes the ground applied in Nergesh Meerza, that a rule conferring an unguided discretion is bad.

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Q.4

Answer any two in detail 24 Marks

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(1)What are the advantages and disadvantages of tribunals. Discuss the Constitutionality of Articles 323 A and 323 B of the Indian Constitution. Substantiate your answer with judicial decisions.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: what a tribunal is; seven advantages and seven disadvantages; the text of Articles 323A and 323B; the four-case line on their constitutionality from Sampath Kumar to Madras Bar Association; and a conclusion.

1. What a tribunal is. A statutory adjudicating body outside the ordinary court hierarchy which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or in a specialised field, judicially in substance but by a simpler procedure.

2. Advantages.

  1. Speed. Free of the Code of Civil Procedure and of the crowded lists of the ordinary courts.
  2. Cheapness. Low or no court fee, appearance in person often permitted, no long trial.
  3. Expertise. A technical member who understands the field sits with a judicial member.
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  1. Flexibility of procedure, and freedom from the technical rules of evidence.
  2. Ability to apply policy and to have regard to the object of the statute and the public interest.
  3. Relief of the ordinary courts, which are already overburdened.
  4. Preventive and continuing supervision: a regulator can license, inspect and set standards before harm occurs, which a court acting on a suit cannot.

3. Disadvantages.

  1. Absence of legal training in some members, leading to erratic application of the law.
  2. Departmental bias: the State is very often the other party, and the tribunal's members are appointed by it.
  3. Threat to independence through executive control of appointment, tenure, reappointment, salary and infrastructure.
  4. No uniform procedure: each tribunal has its own, so the citizen cannot know what to expect.
  5. Reasons not always given, and no consistent system of precedent, so like cases may be decided unlike.
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  1. Exclusion of the ordinary courts, and the fragmentation of the legal system into a hundred separate jurisdictions.
  2. Practical difficulties: benches sitting only at a few places, and long vacancies in the office of chairperson and members.

4. Articles 323A and 323B. Both were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

  1. Article 323A empowers Parliament alone to provide by law for the adjudication by administrative tribunals of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Union or of a State or of a local or other authority. Clause (2)(d) permitted such a law to exclude the jurisdiction of all courts except the Supreme Court under Article 136.
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  1. Article 323B empowers Parliament or a State legislature to provide for tribunals for the matters listed in clause (2): taxation, foreign exchange and import and export, industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on urban property, elections to Parliament and the State legislatures, production and supply of essential goods, and offences and ancillary matters in respect of those subjects. Clause (3)(d) contained a similar exclusion clause.
  2. Parliament made the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 under Article 323A, creating the Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative Tribunals.

5. The constitutionality: the case law.

  1. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987). The Administrative Tribunals Act was challenged as excluding the High Court's jurisdiction under Article 226 and so destroying the basic structure. The Supreme Court upheld the Act, but only after the Government agreed to amendments strengthening the tribunal's independence. The principle laid down was that judicial review is a basic feature, but Parliament may substitute another effective institutional mechanism for the High Court, provided the substitute is as effective as the institution it replaces.
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  1. J.B. Chopra v. Union of India (1987) held that a tribunal under the Act can decide the constitutional validity of rules and regulations.
  2. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), a seven-judge Bench, is the decisive case. It held:
  3. the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32 is an integral and essential feature of the Constitution, part of the basic structure;
  4. clause (2)(d) of Article 323A and clause (3)(d) of Article 323B, to the extent that they exclude the jurisdiction of the High Courts and the Supreme Court under Articles 226, 227 and 32, are unconstitutional, as are the provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act to the same effect;
  5. tribunals will nevertheless continue to function as courts of first instance in their fields, and a litigant may not approach the High Court directly;
  6. all decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court within whose jurisdiction the tribunal falls;
  7. tribunals are competent to test the vires of statutory provisions and rules, but not of their own parent statute.
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Note carefully: L. Chandra Kumar did not strike down Articles 323A and 323B themselves. It struck down only the exclusion clauses within them, and it modified Sampath Kumar to the extent that the tribunal is a supplement to, and not a substitute for, the High Court.

  1. Union of India v. R. Gandhi, President, Madras Bar Association (2010) laid down standards for the composition of tribunals replacing courts, and the Madras Bar Association line of cases has applied them since. Most recently, on 19 November 2025, in Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing appointment, tenure and conditions of service, as giving excessive executive control and violating judicial independence and the separation of powers, and directed the Union to establish a National Tribunal Commission.

6. Conclusion. Articles 323A and 323B are constitutionally valid, and tribunals are a permanent and necessary part of Indian adjudication. What the courts have refused to permit is the exclusion of the High Court's supervision and the executive capture of the tribunals' personnel. The pattern of the case law is that the more nearly a tribunal replaces a court, the more nearly it must resemble one in independence, tenure and qualification.

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(2)Discuss the theory of separation of powers in the context of Indian Constitution with the help of judicial decisions.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the theory and its author; its three propositions; its position in the United States and England; its position in India, both the provisions that reflect it and the provisions that depart from it; five judicial decisions; and the modern functional statement.

1. The theory. Baron de Montesquieu in L'Esprit des Lois (1748), building on Aristotle, Locke and his own reading of the English constitution, propounded that the three powers of the State should be separated. Its three propositions are:

  1. one organ should not exercise the functions of another;
  2. one organ should not interfere with the functions of another; and
  3. one person should not be a member of more than one organ.

Its purpose was liberty: "when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person, or in the same body of magistrates, there can be no liberty".

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2. In the United States it is applied strictly by the text of the Constitution, tempered by checks and balances: the presidential veto, the Senate's power over appointments and treaties, impeachment, and judicial review.

3. In England it has never been accepted: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the highest court until the Constitutional Reform Act, 2005 created the Supreme Court in 2009.

4. In India: the provisions that reflect it.

  1. Article 50, a Directive Principle, directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services;
  2. Articles 53 and 154 vest the executive power of the Union and the States in the President and the Governors;
  3. Articles 121 and 211 forbid discussion in the legislatures of the conduct of a Judge in the discharge of his duties;
  4. Articles 122 and 212 bar the courts from inquiring into the validity of proceedings in the legislature on the ground of irregularity of procedure;
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  1. Article 361 exempts the President and the Governors from the jurisdiction of the courts in respect of the exercise of their powers;
  2. the independence of the judiciary, secured by Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231, security of tenure, salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund, and removal only by the process in Article 124(4).

5. In India: the departures.

  1. the executive is drawn from and collectively responsible to the legislature (Articles 74 and 75, 163 and 164);
  2. the President and the Governors have the legislative power to promulgate ordinances (Articles 123 and 213), and to assent to, withhold assent from or reserve Bills;
  3. the legislature exercises judicial power in punishing for contempt of itself and in the impeachment of the President (Article 61) and in addresses for the removal of judges;
  4. the judiciary exercises legislative power in making rules of procedure (Articles 145 and 227) and executive power in the appointment of its own staff (Article 229);
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  1. the executive exercises judicial power through tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B) and departmental adjudication;
  2. Parliament may confer delegated legislative power on the executive without limit save that of the essential legislative function.

6. The judicial decisions.

  1. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955). The State of Punjab took over the publication of school textbooks by executive action, without a statute. The Supreme Court upheld it and, on separation of powers, Mukherjea CJ said the Indian Constitution "has not indeed recognised the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute rigidity, but the functions of the different parts or branches of the Government have been sufficiently differentiated", so that one organ cannot assume functions essentially belonging to another.
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  1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975). Clause 4 of the 39th Amendment declared the election of the Prime Minister valid and beyond challenge in any court. It was struck down. The Court held that the adjudication of a specific dispute is a judicial function which Parliament cannot exercise even by constitutional amendment, and that the amendment violated the rule of law, free elections and separation of powers, all of them basic features.
  2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). Separation of powers is part of the basic structure and cannot be destroyed by amendment.
  3. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989). The Court restated the working rule: "although the doctrine of separation of powers has not been recognised under the Constitution in its absolute rigidity, the Constitution makers have meticulously defined the functions of various organs of the State", and courts must not enter the field of policy.
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  1. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) and State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala (2014) reaffirmed that a legislature cannot directly overrule a judicial decision, though it may retrospectively remove the basis on which the decision rested.
  2. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015), the NJAC case, struck down the 99th Amendment on the ground that the primacy of the judiciary in appointments is part of the independence of the judiciary and so of the basic structure.

7. The modern functional statement. The Indian doctrine is not a rule that each organ must confine itself to its own work; it is a rule that no organ may take over the essential function of another. Delegated legislation and tribunals are tolerated because the essential function remains where the Constitution placed it; a statute deciding a particular case, or a court framing general economic policy, is not.

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(3)Elucidate the various principles of natural justice with relevant Supreme Court judgements.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reason the rules have no fixed content; the rule against bias with its four forms and cases; the hearing rule with its seven components and cases; the reasoned-order rule; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.

1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness that the law requires of anyone who decides a question affecting the rights or legitimate interests of another. It is not a code and it has no fixed content: what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual. In India it is grounded in Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is not merely an irregularity but a constitutional wrong.

2. First principle: nemo judex in causa sua, the rule against bias.

The test, settled since A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970), is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased but whether there was a real likelihood of bias in the mind of a reasonable person, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly be seen to be done.

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  1. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest, however small, disqualifies, and no further inquiry into its effect is made. Dr. Bonham's Case (1610): the College of Physicians fined Dr. Bonham and retained half the fine. Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852): the Lord Chancellor held shares in the company and his decree was set aside.
  2. Personal bias, arising from relationship, friendship, hostility, or a professional or business connection. A.K. Kraipak: a candidate for selection sat on the Selection Board that judged his rivals, and the selection was quashed even though he withdrew when his own name was considered. Mineral Development Ltd. v. State of Bihar (1960): the Minister who cancelled a mining licence had earlier prosecuted the licensee's proprietor.
  3. Subject-matter or official bias. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC (1959): the Secretary of the department that framed a nationalisation scheme heard the objections to it.
  4. Departmental or institutional bias, and pre-judgment. A closed mind, or a policy so fixed that the hearing is a formality.
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Two qualifications must be stated. The doctrine of necessity permits a biased authority to act where it is the only authority competent to act and the alternative is that no decision can be made at all (Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, 1990). And statutory authorisation may exclude the objection, since the legislature may direct a particular officer to decide although he has departmental interest.

3. Second principle: audi alteram partem, the hearing rule.

Its components are notice stating the charge and the proposed action; a real opportunity to be heard; disclosure of the material relied on (Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1955); evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue; legal representation where the case is complex or the other side is professionally represented; the rule that he who decides must hear (Gullapalli); and a decision on the material on record and nothing else.

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The landmark decisions are Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), where Byles J. said the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature; Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), where the House of Lords held that the duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), where the impounding of a passport without a hearing was held to violate Articles 14 and 21 and the rule was held excludable only by express words or necessary implication; and Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981), where a post-decisional hearing was called a poor substitute for a pre-decisional one.

4. Third principle: the reasoned or speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976) held that recording reasons is a basic principle of natural justice. S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990) held that reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) held that an order must be judged by the reasons it itself gives and cannot be supported by reasons supplied later in an affidavit.

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5. Exceptions. Express or implied statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability (Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha, 1970, mass copying at a whole centre); legislative action; confidentiality and security of the State (Ex parte Hosenball); the "useless formality" exception, which the courts apply narrowly; purely administrative or contractual matters; and interim preventive measures such as suspension pending inquiry. Under the second proviso to Article 311(2), as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985), the inquiry itself may be dispensed with on the three stated grounds.

6. Effect of a breach. An order made in breach of natural justice is void, not voidable. The court quashes it and remits the matter to the authority to be decided afresh from the point at which the illegality occurred; it does not itself decide the merits.

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(4)Explain the judicial control over Delegated Legislation with relevant case laws.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; the two great heads, substantive and procedural ultra vires; the sub-heads under each with a case; the presumption of validity; and the effect of a rule being held ultra vires.

1. Why judicial control matters. Parliamentary control is weak: the volume of rules defeats scrutiny, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control depends on the parent Act saying so. Judicial control is therefore where the real law is, and it operates through the doctrine of ultra vires, which has two branches.

2. Substantive ultra vires: the rule is beyond the power.

  1. The parent Act is itself unconstitutional. If the Act is void for want of legislative competence or for breach of fundamental rights, everything made under it falls with it.
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  1. The parent Act delegates excessively. The legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, that is, the laying down of the policy. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951) laid down the test; Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) applied it to strike down a power to add "any other disease" to a statutory list with no standard to guide it; Ajoy Kumar Banerjee v. Union of India (1984) restated the rule.
  2. The rule goes beyond the parent Act. The commonest ground. General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988): a rule must be within the scope of the rule-making power and must be consistent with the provisions of the parent Act. State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983): a rule-making power does not carry the power to make a rule that the Act itself forbids.
  3. The rule is inconsistent with another statute which the parent Act does not authorise it to override.
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  1. The rule violates the Constitution. Delegated legislation is "law" within Article 13(3)(a), so it may be struck down for breach of any fundamental right. Air India v. Nergesh Meerza (1981): a service regulation terminating an air hostess on first pregnancy was struck down under Article 14. Narendra Kumar v. Union of India (1960) is the older authority that rules must satisfy Article 19.
  2. The rule is unreasonable or arbitrary. A bye-law of a local authority may be struck down for manifest unreasonableness (Kruse v. Johnson, 1898). In India, arbitrariness is itself a breach of Article 14, so the ground is constitutional rather than merely administrative. Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985) collected the grounds on which subordinate legislation may be questioned and confirmed that it may be challenged as arbitrary, though it may not be struck down merely because the court thinks another rule would be better.
  3. Mala fides, though the courts are slow to find bad faith in rule-making and the burden is heavy.
  4. Sub-delegation without authority. Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works (1997), applying delegatus non potest delegare.
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  1. Retrospective operation given without express authority in the parent Act, since a delegate has no inherent power to legislate for the past.
  2. Exclusion of the jurisdiction of the courts, or the creation of an offence or a tax, without clear statutory authority.

3. Procedural ultra vires: the rule was made in the wrong way.

Where the parent Act prescribes a procedure for making rules, the question is whether the requirement is mandatory or directory. Breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal; breach of a directory one is not.

  1. Prior publication of the draft, and the consideration of objections, where the Act requires it.
  2. Consultation of an affected interest or of a named body. Banwarilal Agarwalla v. State of Bihar (1961) treated the requirement of consultation as directory on the facts; Raza Buland Sugar Co. v. Municipal Board, Rampur (1965) laid down that whether such a requirement is mandatory depends on the object and the purpose of the provision and the consequences of non-compliance.
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  1. Publication in the Official Gazette, which is generally treated as mandatory, because a law which the citizen has no means of knowing cannot be enforced against him: Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951), where a resolution of the Council of Ministers of the former Jaipur State was held unenforceable for want of publication, and State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George (1965) on the mode of publication.
  2. Laying before the legislature, which Atlas Cycle holds to be directory unless the Act makes it a condition of validity.

4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Delegated legislation carries a presumption of validity, and the burden is on the person challenging it. The court will not strike a rule down merely because it thinks the rule unwise, inexpedient or capable of improvement; it is not the judge of policy. In Indian Express Newspapers the Court said that subordinate legislation does not carry the same degree of immunity as a statute, but that it may still be questioned only on the recognised grounds.

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5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and is treated as never having been made, though acts done under it before it was struck down may in some cases be protected. Severance is possible: the offending part may be struck down and the rest allowed to stand if the remainder can operate independently.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2022-23 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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