Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2021-22 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2021-22 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
This edition revised 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2021-22 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2021-22 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2021-22 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in one/two sentences 20 Marks
Answer
The two principal sources are the Constitution and statutes, that is, the legislation which creates administrative authorities and confers their powers.
Beyond those two, administrative law also draws on delegated legislation (rules, regulations and bye-laws), judicial decisions and precedent, and administrative directions, circulars and departmental practice.
Answer
Laissez faire, French for "let do" or "leave alone", is the doctrine that the State should not interfere in economic and social life, and that its functions should be limited to defence, the maintenance of law and order and the administration of justice. It is the theory of the police State or the negative State, associated with Adam Smith and the nineteenth century.
Answer
The three organs are:
Answer
"No one ought to be a judge in his own cause." It is the first rule of natural justice, the rule against bias, and it requires that the person deciding must have no interest in the matter and no leaning towards either side.
The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done.
Answer
Two reasons are:
Further reasons are the need for expert management of technical undertakings, the securing of a national monopoly in a strategic field such as insurance or atomic energy, and the promotion of planned development.
Answer
Contingent legislation, also called conditional legislation, is legislation which is complete in itself but whose operation is made to depend on the fulfilment of a condition, or on the satisfaction of an external authority, which the legislature leaves to the executive to determine.
The legislature makes the law; the executive only decides when, where or to whom it shall apply.
Answer
A third distinction is that certiorari and prohibition classically lay only against quasi-judicial action, while administrative action was controlled by mandamus, injunction or declaration.
Answer
A non-sovereign function is a function of the State which is not peculiar to a sovereign, that is, one which a private individual could also lawfully perform, such as running a transport service, a factory, a hospital, a hotel or a dockyard.
Its importance is that the State is liable in tort for wrongs committed by its servants in the discharge of non-sovereign functions, under Article 300 of the Constitution, whereas it has historically claimed immunity for sovereign functions.
Answer
Prohibition is a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal commanding it to stop proceedings which are in excess of its jurisdiction or in violation of the principles of natural justice.
It is preventive: it is issued while the proceeding is still pending, before the inferior body has made its order.
Answer
A prohibitory injunction is an order of a court restraining a person from doing, continuing or repeating a wrongful act. It is the negative form of injunction, in contrast to a mandatory injunction, which compels a person to undo what he has wrongfully done.
It may be temporary, granted during the pendency of a suit under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or perpetual, granted by the decree under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Write short notes on any four 20 Marks
Answer
1. The constitutional power to contract. Article 298 gives the Union and the States the executive power to carry on any trade or business and to acquire, hold and dispose of property and to make contracts for any purpose.
2. The form: Article 299(1). Every contract made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or a State must satisfy three requirements:
Article 299(2) then protects the President, the Governor and the executing officer from personal liability on such a contract.
3. The consequence of non-compliance. The requirements are mandatory. A contract not made in the prescribed form is void and unenforceable, and cannot be ratified. Bihar Eastern Gangetic Fishermen Co-operative Society v. Sipahi Singh (1977) and Mulamchand v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1968) are the standard authorities.
4. The relief that survives: Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act. Where the Government has actually enjoyed the benefit of work done or goods supplied under an invalid contract, the supplier is not without remedy. State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons (AIR 1962 SC 779) held that Section 70 gives a claim on quantum meruit independent of contract: where a person lawfully does something for another not intending to do so gratuitously, and the other enjoys the benefit, he must compensate. The claim is for the value of the benefit, not for the contract price or for lost profits.
5. Substantial compliance. Chatturbhuj Vithaldas Jasani v. Moreshwar Parashram (1954) held that where the contract is in substance made by an authorised officer on behalf of the Government, a defect of form does not always defeat it, though later decisions have applied Article 299 strictly.
6. Public law standards. Because a Government contract is State action, it is also subject to Article 14. The award of contracts must be by a fair and non-arbitrary procedure, and tender conditions are reviewable. Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India (1979) and Tata Cellular v. Union of India (1994) settle this, the latter also fixing the limits of review in the tender field.
Answer
Administrative adjudication is the determination of disputes by administrative agencies and tribunals instead of by the ordinary courts. Its advantages are:
Answer
1. The theory. Stated by Montesquieu in L'Esprit des Lois (1748), and anticipated by Aristotle and Locke: the three functions of government should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. Montesquieu's purpose was the protection of liberty: "there can be no liberty where the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person".
2. In the United States the doctrine is applied strictly: the President is not a member of Congress, his Secretaries are not legislators, and the Supreme Court's power of judicial review is the check. Even there it operates as checks and balances rather than as watertight separation.
3. In England it has never been applied. The Cabinet sits in Parliament, and until 2009 the House of Lords was the final court of appeal.
4. In India the position is functional separation without rigidity:
5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the Constitution has not recognised the doctrine in its absolute rigidity, but the functions of the different parts have been sufficiently differentiated. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): the 39th Amendment, in withdrawing the Prime Minister's election dispute from adjudication, usurped a judicial function and was struck down. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007): separation of powers is part of the basic structure.
Answer
1. Meaning. Quo warranto means "by what authority". It is a writ by which the court calls upon the holder of a public office to show by what authority he holds it, and ousts him if the answer is that he holds it unlawfully.
2. Object. To prevent a person from usurping a public office to which he is not entitled, and so to protect the public from the exercise of authority by an unqualified person. It is not a remedy for a private wrong.
3. Conditions for its issue (University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao, 1965; Jamalpur Arya Samaj Sabha v. Dr. D. Ram, 1954):
4. Locus standi. The rule is relaxed. Any member of the public acting bona fide may apply, because the object is public and not private. He need not show that he was himself a candidate or that any right of his was infringed.
5. Discretion. The writ is discretionary. It will be refused where the petition is motivated, where there has been unreasonable delay, where the term of the office has already expired, or where the defect is merely technical.
6. Illustrations. It has been used against appointments to the office of a Vice-Chancellor, a Professor, an Advocate General, a Chief Minister and members of statutory commissions. In Govinda Rao the appointment of a Research Assistant as a University Reader was quashed for want of the prescribed qualification.
Answer
1. The principle. Transparency means that the working of the administration should be open to public knowledge, so that the citizen can know how decisions affecting him are made. Secrecy is the natural condition of bureaucracy and the enemy of accountability, and the right to information is the legal instrument that reverses it.
2. Constitutional foundation. The right to information is a facet of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), because a citizen cannot form or express an opinion on public affairs he knows nothing about. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975): "the people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything that is done in a public way by their public functionaries". S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981) and Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995) carried the principle further.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005. Its main features:
Answer
1. Meaning. Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to test the validity of legislative and executive action against the Constitution and the law, and to declare invalid what exceeds or abuses the power conferred.
2. Source. Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246. It was held part of the basic structure in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) and L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997).
3. Its scope. It extends to legislative action (competence under Articles 245 and 246, and conformity with fundamental rights under Article 13), to executive and administrative action, to delegated legislation, and to constitutional amendments on the basic-structure test.
4. The grounds. From Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985), adopted in India:
5. Its limits. Review is of the decision-making process, not the merits. The court will not act as a court of appeal, will not substitute its own opinion on policy or on expert questions, and will refuse relief where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where there is laches, where the facts are seriously disputed, or where the question is academic.
Answer the situational based questions
Any two · 12 Marks
Answer
These are, almost word for word, the facts of State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati, AIR 1962 SC 933.
The liability is the tortious liability of the State, on the principle of vicarious liability for the negligence of its servant in the discharge of a non-sovereign function. The State is liable.
No. The maxim has no application.
Answer
The doctrine of pleasure is the rule that a civil servant holds office during the pleasure of the sovereign, so that his service may be terminated at will and without cause.
Yes. The dismissal is bad under Article 311(1) and is liable to be quashed.
Answer
The petitioner filed a writ petition under Article 226, challenging the Lokayukta's action.
No, not in the manner attempted. The Lokayukta had no power to grant an interim stay of the appointment, and the writ petition should succeed.
Maharashtra was the first State in India to create the office, by the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971, following the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966 chaired by Morarji Desai. The objects are:
Answer any four in detail 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definitions and their criticism; the nature of the subject, that is, what kind of law it is; the reasons for its growth in India; its scope under seven or eight heads; its distinction from constitutional law; and its sources.
1. Definitions.
2. Nature. Administrative law is:
3. Reasons for its growth in India.
4. Scope. Administrative law in India covers:
5. Distinction from constitutional law. The two overlap and the line is one of emphasis, not of subject matter. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State, the distribution of powers between the Union and the States, and the fundamental rights: it is concerned with the government at rest. Administrative law deals with the exercise of those powers by the administration in the daily working of government: it is concerned with the government in motion. Constitutional law is the genus, administrative law a species of it. In India, where the Constitution is written and supreme, much of administrative law is drawn from Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311, so the dependence is closer than in England.
6. Sources. The Constitution; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which are the principal source of the governing principles; and administrative directions and departmental practice, which bind the administration internally and may found a legitimate expectation.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and rationale; the six or seven components of the rule; the landmark cases English and Indian; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Audi alteram partem means "hear the other side", or that no man shall be condemned unheard. It is the second and larger rule of natural justice, and it requires that a person who is to be affected by a decision must be given notice of the case against him and a fair opportunity to answer it.
2. Rationale. Three reasons are usually given. It improves the quality of the decision, because the authority hears facts it would otherwise never learn. It is required by fairness to the individual, whose livelihood, liberty or reputation is in issue. And it produces acceptance: a man who has been heard is more likely to accept an adverse decision than one who has not.
3. The components of the rule.
4. The landmark judgments.
5. Exceptions. The rule is excluded or modified where there is express or implied statutory exclusion; in an emergency requiring immediate action; where a hearing is impracticable, as in Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), where the results of an entire examination centre were cancelled for mass copying; in legislative action; where confidentiality or the security of the State is involved; where a hearing would be a useless formality; in purely administrative or contractual matters not affecting rights; and in interim preventive measures such as suspension pending inquiry.
6. Effect of breach. An order made in breach is void. The court quashes it and remits the matter, and the authority may proceed again after giving a hearing.
Answer
The question asks specifically for the doctrine in the light of the Indian Constitution, so the weight of the answer should be on the Indian provisions and cases, with Dicey stated briefly as the starting point.
For full marks, cover: Dicey's three propositions in short; the constitutional provisions that embody the rule of law in India; the departures and qualifications; six landmark Indian judgments; and the modern content of the doctrine.
1. Dicey's formulation, in short. In Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885) Dicey gave three meanings: supremacy of law and the absence of arbitrary power; equality before the law, all persons being subject to the ordinary law and the ordinary courts; and the constitution as the result of the ordinary law, rights in England being the product of judicial decisions and not of a written charter.
2. The rule of law in the Indian Constitution. India adopts the first two propositions and reverses the third, because our rights come from the Constitution and are not merely the residue left by the common law. The doctrine is embodied in:
3. The landmark judgments.
4. The departures and qualifications. The rule of law in India is not absolute:
5. The modern content. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi in 1959 restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept covering not only civil and political rights but the creation of the social and economic conditions in which human dignity is possible. That version fits the Directive Principles and is the one Indian courts apply when they read Article 21 to include livelihood, shelter, health and a clean environment.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning; the constitutional basis; eight to ten characteristics; the distinction from a court and from an ordinary executive body; the reasons for their growth; the criticism; and the case law on their control.
1. Meaning. An administrative tribunal is a statutory body outside the ordinary hierarchy of courts which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or in a specialised field, by a procedure that is judicial in substance but simpler and more flexible than that of the courts.
2. Constitutional basis. Article 323A empowers Parliament to provide by law for the adjudication by administrative tribunals of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Union or of a State. Article 323B empowers Parliament or a State legislature to provide for tribunals in respect of taxation, foreign exchange, industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on urban property, elections, essential commodities and rent. Both were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, was made under Article 323A.
3. Characteristics.
4. Distinction from a court.
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Creation | Part of the traditional judicial system | Created by a specific statute |
| Jurisdiction | General | Confined to the subject named |
| Composition | Trained judges | Judicial plus expert or administrative members |
| Court | Tribunal | |
|---|---|---|
| Procedure | CPC and Evidence Act | Own procedure, natural justice only |
| Power | Exercises the judicial power of the State | Exercises a statutory adjudicatory power |
| Precedent | Decisions bind subordinate courts | Generally no binding precedent |
| Party | Cannot be a party to the dispute | The State is often itself a party |
5. Distinction from an ordinary administrative body. An administrative authority acts on policy and may be judge in its own cause; a tribunal must decide objectively on evidence after hearing both sides.
6. Reasons for their growth. The volume of disputes generated by a welfare State; the delay and cost of ordinary litigation; the need for technical expertise; the desire for flexible procedure; and the need to apply policy alongside law.
7. Criticism. Members may lack legal training; the tribunal may sit in the department's own cause; there is a risk of executive influence through appointments, tenure and the provision of infrastructure; procedure varies from tribunal to tribunal so that the citizen cannot know what to expect; reasons are not always given; and the multiplication of tribunals has fragmented the law.
8. Judicial control. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987) upheld the Administrative Tribunals Act on the footing that the tribunal was an effective substitute for the High Court. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), a seven-judge Bench, held that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32 is part of the basic structure and cannot be excluded, that the clauses in Articles 323A(2)(d) and 323B(3)(d) excluding it are unconstitutional, and that all decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court within whose jurisdiction the tribunal falls. Union of India v. R. Gandhi (2010) and the Madras Bar Association line of cases have since laid down the standards for the composition and independence of tribunals.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and characteristics; the kinds; then the control under four heads, parliamentary, governmental, judicial and public, with the case law on Article 12; and a short conclusion on the tension between autonomy and accountability.
1. Definition. A public corporation is a body corporate created by a special statute, or incorporated under the Companies Act with the Government holding the controlling interest, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds, and freedom from the ordinary departmental and budgetary procedure.
Justice Douglas of the United States Supreme Court described it as a device combining "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency, with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
2. Characteristics. It is created by statute or charter; it is a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal, and may hold property, contract, sue and be sued in its own name; it is owned by the State; its capital comes from public funds; it is financially autonomous, keeping its own accounts and not depending on annual appropriation; its employees are not civil servants and are governed by its own regulations; and it is free from day-to-day departmental control while remaining answerable for results.
3. Kinds. Statutory corporations created by a special Act (Life Insurance Corporation, Reserve Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, Damodar Valley Corporation); Government companies registered under the Companies Act with not less than 51 per cent Government shareholding (Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals); and chartered corporations, of historical interest only in India. Functionally they are commercial, developmental, financial, promotional or regulatory.
4. Control.
A. Parliamentary control.
B. Governmental or executive control.
C. Judicial control.
D. Public control. Consumer and user consultative councils, the Right to Information Act, 2005, which applies to public authorities including corporations substantially financed by the Government, the press, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas, the Central Vigilance Commission, and, where a regulator exists, the sectoral regulator.
5. Conclusion. The design problem of the public corporation is that the two things asked of it pull in opposite directions. Autonomy is the reason for creating it; accountability is the reason it exists at all. Too much control and it becomes a department with a different name; too little and public money is spent without answer. The Indian solution has been to leave management free and to control policy, appointments, finance and legality.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and the forms; the classification; eight reasons for growth with an example of each; the constitutional limit on delegation; the dangers; and the controls, in short.
1. Definition. Delegated legislation, also called subordinate or subsidiary legislation, is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred on it by the legislature.
Salmond: legislation is either supreme or subordinate; subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority".
Sir Cecil Carr: delegated legislation is "a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork and capable of attending to minor matters, while the parent manages the main business".
It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, schemes, notifications and directions, and the terms are used loosely in Indian statutes.
2. Classification.
3. The reasons for its growth.
4. The constitutional limit. The power to delegate is not unlimited. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951) held that the legislature may not delegate its essential legislative function, that is, the laying down of the policy of the law, but having laid it down may leave the working out of details to the executive; and that the power to repeal or modify an existing law goes beyond the permissible limit. Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) struck down a delegation to add "any other disease" to a statutory list because the Act supplied no standard. Ajoy Kumar Banerjee v. Union of India (1984) restated the rule that the essential legislative function cannot be delegated.
5. The dangers. Delegated legislation is criticised because it transfers law-making from an elected and debating body to officials; because the volume defeats scrutiny; because rules are often made without consultation of those affected; because Henry VIII clauses allow the executive to amend the parent Act itself; because publication is sometimes inadequate, though Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951) holds that a law that has not been published cannot be enforced; and because sub-delegation moves the power still further from the legislature.
6. The controls, in brief. Parliamentary: policy fixed in the parent Act, the laying procedure in its three forms, and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation. Procedural: prior publication, consultation of interests, and publication in the Gazette. Judicial: substantive ultra vires, where the rule goes beyond the parent Act or offends the Constitution or is manifestly unreasonable or mala fide, and procedural ultra vires, where a mandatory procedural requirement has not been observed.
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This volume prints the 2021-22 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026, revised 11 August 2026.
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