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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7 Administrative Law 2019-20 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Administrative Law

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7

2019-20 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2019-20 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2019-20 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  50 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: 1. Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2. Support your answers with relevant case laws. 3. This scan holds TWO complete 100-mark papers, form 81549 and form 60670. Questions 1 to 25 are the first paper, questions 26 to 50 the second.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Paper one, form 81549. Answer in short, not more than two sentences 20 Marks

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(a)Define 'Information' as per Right to Information Act.[2]

Answer

Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005: "information" means any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models and data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.

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(b)State any two requisites of a Government Contract.[2]

Answer

Two of the three requisites in Article 299(1) are that the contract must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor, and that it must be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor. The third is that it must be executed by a person authorised by them and in the manner directed.

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(c)What is an 'Institutional decision'?[2]

Answer

An institutional decision is one taken by an organisation as a whole rather than by the individual who heard the case: the hearing is conducted by one officer, the file is examined and processed by others, and the order is signed by a superior who has not himself heard the party. It is the ordinary mode of decision-making in a large department, and it is sometimes called the institutional decision-making process.

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(d)What is official bias?[2]

Answer

Official bias, also called subject-matter bias, arises where the deciding authority has a general interest in the subject matter of the dispute, as distinct from a personal or financial interest in the parties, so that it cannot bring an open mind to the decision. The test, as always, is a real likelihood of bias.

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(e)Define Delegated Legislation.[2]

Answer

Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred on it by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority".

It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions.

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(f)Define Ombudsman[2]

Answer

An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The institution began in Sweden in 1809, and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent.

In India the counterparts are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having created the first by its Act of 1971.

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(g)What are the three organs of Government and their functions?[2]

Answer

  1. the legislature, which makes the law: Parliament under Articles 79 to 122, the State legislatures under Articles 168 to 212;
  2. the executive, which enforces and administers it: the President, the Council of Ministers and the civil services, under Articles 52 to 78 and 153 to 167;
  3. the judiciary, which interprets the law and adjudicates disputes: the Supreme Court under Articles 124 to 147, the High Courts under Articles 214 to 231.
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(h)What is substantive Ultra vires?[2]

Answer

Substantive ultra vires means that the content of a rule or of an administrative act is beyond the power conferred by the parent statute or by the Constitution, as distinguished from procedural ultra vires, where the power existed but the prescribed procedure was not followed. The consequence is that the rule or act is void.

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(i)What is the meaning of speaking order?[2]

Answer

A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice.

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(j)State any two functions of Union Public Service Commission[2]

Answer

From Article 320 of the Constitution, two functions are:

  1. to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union; and
  2. to be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment, principles to be followed in appointments, promotions and transfers, and on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India.
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Q.2

Paper one. Write short notes, any four 20 Marks

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(a)Droit Administratif[5]

Answer

1. Meaning. Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts and not by the legislature, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials, applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.

2. Origin. It grew after the French Revolution out of a distrust of the ordinary courts, the parlements, which had obstructed reform. The law of 16 to 24 August 1790 forbade the ordinary courts from interfering with the administration. The Conseil d'Etat was created by Napoleon in 1799, at first merely advising the head of State, and acquired the power to decide (justice deleguee) in 1872.

3. Characteristics. Rules developed judicially by the administrative courts and not codified; the ordinary civil courts have no jurisdiction over the administration; disputes go to the administrative courts with the Conseil d'Etat at their head; conflicts of jurisdiction are resolved by the Tribunal des Conflits; the procedure is cheap, inquisitorial and accessible; and the central remedy is the recours pour exces de pouvoir, the action to annul an administrative act for excess of power.

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4. Its main branches, as the writers describe them: the law relating to the status of administrative personnel; the law relating to the administration of public services; and the law relating to administrative adjudication.

5. Dicey's criticism. Dicey treated droit administratif as the antithesis of the rule of law, on two grounds: it gave officials a separate law, and it gave them separate courts, withdrawing them from the ordinary tribunals and so conferring a privileged position.

6. The answer to Dicey. The criticism is now regarded as based on a misunderstanding:

  1. the Conseil d'Etat is not a department of the executive and is in practice independent, manned by career judges of great standing;
  2. its control over the administration is in several respects stricter than the English courts'. It developed the liability of the State for the faults of its servants (faute de service) at a time when the English Crown could not be sued at all, and it annuls acts for detournement de pouvoir, the use of power for an improper purpose, a doctrine English law reached much later;
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  1. the remedy is cheap and accessible, and the citizen's prospects there are at least as good;
  2. Dicey himself is said to have modified his view in later editions and in an article of 1915.
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(b)Separation of power[5]

Answer

1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty, because concentrated power is abused.

2. Comparative. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never applied it. India takes a middle position: functions differentiated, organs not insulated.

3. What reflects the doctrine in India. Article 50 (separation of the judiciary from the executive, a Directive Principle); Articles 53 and 154; Articles 121 and 211 (no discussion of a Judge's conduct); Articles 122 and 212 (no judicial inquiry into legislative procedure); Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); and the independence of the judiciary under Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231.

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4. What departs from it. Ministerial responsibility to the legislature (Articles 74, 75, 163, 164); ordinances under Articles 123 and 213; the legislature's judicial functions (contempt, impeachment under Article 61); the judiciary's rule-making and appointment powers (Articles 145, 227, 229); the executive's adjudicatory functions through tribunals; and delegated legislation.

5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the doctrine is not recognised "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions have been "sufficiently differentiated". Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): part of the basic structure. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): courts must not enter the field of policy. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the NJAC amendment struck down.

6. Conclusion. In India the doctrine is a principle of interpretation and a basic feature, not a rule of the text. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.

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(c)A.K.Kraipak vs. Union of India.[5]

Answer

Citation. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150.

Facts. A Selection Board was constituted to select officers of the State Forest Service of Jammu and Kashmir for the Indian Forest Service. Naquishbund, the Acting Chief Conservator of Forests, was a member of the Selection Board and at the same time a candidate for selection. He did not sit when his own name was considered, but he took part in the deliberations on the claims of his rivals, and in the preparation of the final list in which he was placed at the top. The unsuccessful candidates challenged the selection.

Held. The selection was quashed. The Supreme Court laid down three propositions:

  1. There was a real likelihood of bias. A person cannot sit in judgment on the claims of his own competitors, and it is immaterial that he withdrew when his own name came up: his participation in judging his rivals was itself decisive. The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but must be seen to be done.
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  1. Natural justice applies to administrative action. The distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative functions is thin and is "gradually being obliterated". The aim of natural justice is "to prevent miscarriage of justice", and what it requires in a given case depends on the facts, the framework of the law and the nature of the power.
  2. The duty to act fairly attaches wherever a decision affects rights, and the older requirement of a "superadded duty to act judicially" is no longer the gateway.
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(d)Right to Information Act.[5]

Answer

1. Object and constitutional foundation. The Act sets out a practical regime of the right to information for citizens, to secure access to information under the control of public authorities in order to promote transparency and accountability and to contain corruption. Its constitutional root is Article 19(1)(a): State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975), "the people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything that is done in a public way by their public functionaries"; S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981); Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002).

2. Salient provisions.

  1. Section 2(f), "information", defined widely, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, orders, contracts, reports, samples and models, and information relating to a private body accessible to a public authority under any other law;
  2. Section 2(j), the right: to inspect work, documents and records, to take notes and certified copies, to take certified samples, and to obtain information in electronic form;
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  1. Section 2(h), "public authority", including bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Government;
  2. Section 4, the duty of suo motu disclosure, the heart of the Act and the least used part of it;
  3. Sections 5, 6 and 7: Public Information Officers; no reason need be given by the applicant; reply within 30 days, or 48 hours where life or liberty is concerned;
  4. Section 8, the exemptions, and Section 8(2), the public interest override;
  5. Sections 18 and 19, complaint and a two-stage appeal to the Central or State Information Commission;
  6. Section 20, penalty of Rs. 250 a day up to Rs. 25,000 on a defaulting Public Information Officer;
  7. Section 22, overriding effect over the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and any inconsistent law.
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3. The case law. Central Board of Secondary Education v. Aditi Singh (2011): a candidate may inspect his own evaluated answer sheets. Reserve Bank of India v. Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015): the RBI could not withhold inspection reports and defaulter lists on a plea of fiduciary relationship. Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019): the office of the Chief Justice of India is a public authority under the Act.

4. Criticism. The Amendment Act of 2019 empowered the Central Government to fix the tenure, salary and conditions of service of the Information Commissioners, previously fixed by the Act itself, which is said to weaken their independence; there are heavy backlogs and long vacancies in the Commissions; and Section 4 is poorly implemented.

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(e)Parliamentary control over delegated Legislation[5]

Answer

Parliamentary control exists because the rule-making power is Parliament's own, lent to the executive, and the lender retains the right to supervise. It works at three stages.

1. At the stage of delegation. Parliament fixes the policy and standard in the parent Act, since the essential legislative function cannot be delegated: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951); Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960). It also fixes the authority, the subject matter, the duration and the conditions of the power, and the delegation clause is debated when the Bill is passed.

2. Laying before the House, in three forms:

  1. simple laying, for information only;
  2. laying subject to negative resolution: the rule is effective at once but ceases if the House annuls it, usually within thirty days of sitting; the commonest Indian form;
  3. laying subject to affirmative resolution: no effect until approved.
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Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the statute merely requires laying, the requirement is directory, so failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is a condition of validity, it is mandatory.

3. Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964), each of fifteen members with no Minister among them, examines whether a rule is within the power conferred, and in particular whether it imposes a tax, bars the jurisdiction of the courts, has retrospective effect without authority, involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, makes an unusual or unexpected use of the power, or has been laid or published after unjustifiable delay. It hears the department and reports to the House.

4. Other devices. Questions, half-an-hour discussions, motions and resolutions; the debate on the annual report of a statutory authority; and the ultimate control, amendment or repeal of the parent Act.

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5. An honest assessment. The control is weak in practice: several thousand instruments are laid every year, the time for scrutiny is negligible, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House and almost never succeeds, and the committees can only report. That weakness is why judicial control carries the real weight in India.

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(f)Central Vigilance Commission[5]

Answer

1. What it is. The apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union, exercising superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

2. Origin and status. Set up by a Government resolution in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. Given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, enacted in consequence of the directions of the Supreme Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), the Jain Hawala case, which directed that the Commission be given statutory status and the CBI be insulated from executive interference.

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3. Composition. A Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term four years or until the age of 65. Removal only by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after a reference to the Supreme Court, which is the guarantee of independence.

4. Functions.

  1. Superintendence over the vigilance administration of the ministries and over the CBI in Prevention of Corruption Act matters, with power to review the progress of investigations;
  2. to inquire or cause an inquiry into a complaint that a public servant has committed an offence under that Act;
  3. to tender advice on vigilance matters, at first stage before proceedings and at second stage on the penalty;
  4. the powers of a civil court for summoning, discovery and evidence on affidavit;
  5. to be a member of the committee recommending the Director of the CBI, and to select the Director of Prosecution;
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  1. to be the designated agency under the whistle-blower mechanism of the 2004 Resolution and the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014;
  2. superintendence over the Chief Vigilance Officers in the ministries and public sector undertakings.

5. Limitations. Its advice is advisory only, though a departure must be recorded and reported; it cannot register a criminal case or investigate directly; it has no jurisdiction over State Government servants; and it depends on the Government for staff.

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Q.3

Paper one. Solve, any two 12 Marks

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(a)Miss. Varsha, an IAS officer working as sub-Divisional officer under the State Government while imparting her legal duties she had taken some stringent actions against land mafia's in her division. Due to political pressure, she was suspended from her officer.[6]

  • (a) Guide miss Varsha to reinstate her service?
  • (b) Under which Provision of Constitution of India, she can work without any fear of loss of her employment?

Answer

(a) Guide miss Varsha to reinstate her service?

She should challenge the suspension as mala fide and as an interim measure prolonged into a punishment, and seek reinstatement, before the Central Administrative Tribunal and thereafter the High Court.

  1. What a suspension is. Suspension pending inquiry is an interim, preventive measure, not a punishment. It neither decides guilt nor imposes a penalty, and a prior hearing is therefore not required for it. But it must be made by a competent authority, must be followed by a charge sheet and an inquiry within a reasonable time, and must not be used as a substitute for punishment.
  2. The grounds she should take.
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  1. Mala fides. The facts as stated are that she acted against the land mafia and was suspended "due to political pressure". If the file shows no misconduct and the timing is proximate to her action, the suspension is an exercise of power for a collateral purpose. S. Pratap Singh v. State of Punjab (1964): action taken against a civil surgeon out of the personal hostility of the Chief Minister was quashed. State of Punjab v. Gurdial Singh (1980): the use of power for an unauthorised purpose is malice in law. But the burden is heavy, the charge must be pleaded with particulars, and the officer alleged against must be impleaded by name: E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), where the allegation failed for want of proof.
  2. Acting under dictation. If the suspending authority acted on the instructions of a Minister instead of applying its own mind, the order is void: Commissioner of Police, Bombay v. Gordhandas Bhanji (1952).
  3. No material and no application of mind, and a non-speaking order.
  4. Prolonged suspension. Ajay Kumar Choudhary v. Union of India (2015): the Supreme Court directed that a suspension must not extend beyond three months unless a charge sheet is served within that period, and that indefinite suspension is oppressive.
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  1. Articles 14 and 16, since arbitrary action in service matters is a denial of equality.
  2. The steps to advise.
  3. Make a representation to the suspending authority and to the reviewing committee, which most service rules require to review a suspension periodically;
  4. call for the file and the reasons, if necessary under the Right to Information Act, 2005;
  5. approach the Central Administrative Tribunal, she being a member of an All India Service, and thereafter the High Court on review by a Division Bench: L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997);
  6. seek quashing of the suspension, a direction for reinstatement, and, if a charge sheet has issued, a direction that the inquiry be completed within a fixed time;
  7. where the transfer or suspension is part of a pattern, invoke the directions in T.S.R. Subramanian v. Union of India (2013), which required a minimum fixed tenure, a Civil Services Board to advise on postings and transfers, and that oral instructions from political superiors should not be acted upon.
  8. What she cannot ask for. The court will not decide whether she is guilty of the misconduct alleged, and it will not ordinarily stay a departmental inquiry. It will control the process, not the merits.
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(b) Under which Provision of Constitution of India, she can work without any fear of loss of her employment?

Article 311, read with Articles 310, 14 and 16.

  1. Article 310 states the doctrine of pleasure: a civil servant holds office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor. But it opens with "except as expressly provided by this Constitution", and Article 311 is that express provision.
  2. Article 311(1): she cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which she was appointed. Being a member of the Indian Administrative Service, an All India Service, her appointing authority is the Central Government, so a State authority cannot dismiss or remove her. This is the provision that most directly answers the question.
  3. Article 311(2): she cannot be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which she is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard, subject only to the three exceptions in the second proviso, which are strictly construed and whose recorded satisfaction is justiciable: Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
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  1. Article 312, which constitutes the All India Services, and the All India Services Act, 1951 and the rules made under it, are what give an IAS officer a status that a State Government cannot unilaterally alter: her cadre control, discipline and major penalties rest with the Central Government.
  2. Article 309 makes the service rules statutory, so their breach is itself actionable.
  3. Articles 14 and 16 forbid arbitrariness and secure equality of opportunity in public employment: E.P. Royappa (1974).
  4. Articles 323A and 226 supply the forum in which all of this is enforced.
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(b)Rules Provided that Person would not be granted school leaving certificate unless he had completed fifteen years of age. However, the Director was given power to grant exemption from this rule under certain circumstances in deserving cases.[6]

  • (a) What is the meaning of Administrative discretion?
  • (b) Can the rule made by the Director be challenged? Give reason.

Answer

But the director made an invariable rule that he will grant exemption only if the person has completed thirteen years of age.

(a) What is the meaning of Administrative discretion?

Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "in deserving cases", "where it appears to the authority" and "in the public interest".

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Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case, and a welfare State must license, allot, exempt, subsidise and regulate on facts that vary case by case. Dicey thought discretion the enemy of the rule of law; the modern answer is that the enemy is unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy, in Davis's phrase, is to confine, structure and check it.

Its four inherent limits. A statutory discretion is never a free power. It must be exercised by the authority named, for the purpose for which it was given, on relevant considerations, and by a fair procedure. Every ground of judicial review is one of those four limits stated differently, and the courts group them under two heads: failure to exercise the discretion, and abuse of it.

(b) Can the rule made by the Director be challenged? Give reason.

Yes. The Director's invariable rule is bad, and an applicant refused under it is entitled to have his case considered on its merits.

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  1. He has converted a discretion into a rule. The parent rule gave him power to exempt "under certain circumstances in deserving cases", which is a power to consider each case on its own facts. By declaring that he will exempt only above thirteen years, he has shut out from consideration every applicant below that age, however deserving, and has narrowed a benefit the parent rule conferred.
  2. This is the head of "self-imposed fetter", a form of failure to exercise discretion. The law does not forbid an authority from adopting a policy; consistency is a virtue and guidelines are proper. What it forbids is the authority closing its mind. R. v. Port of London Authority, ex parte Kynoch (1919) is the classic statement, and British Oxygen Co. v. Board of Trade (1971) settled it: Lord Reid held that an authority may have a general policy provided it "is always willing to listen to anyone with something new to say".
  3. It is also substantive ultra vires. A subordinate rule inconsistent with the rule under which it is made is void, and a delegate cannot amend the instrument under which it acts: State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983); General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988).
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  1. The order refusing exemption is a nullity, because the authority has not performed the statutory duty of applying its own mind to the individual case. It is not a case of deciding wrongly but of not deciding at all.
  2. The remedy. A petition under Article 226 for certiorari to quash the refusal and mandamus directing the Director to consider and decide the application according to law. The court will not itself grant the certificate; the discretion is the Director's, and the applicant obtains the right to be considered, not the right to succeed. In a clear case the High Court may mould the relief further: Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986).
  3. What the Director may lawfully do. Issue guidelines indicating the kind of case he would ordinarily treat as deserving, while making clear that every case will be considered on its merits. That preserves both consistency and the discretion.
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(c)A Regional Engineering College made admissions of candidates on basis of oral interview after a written test. The marks allocated for oral test were one-third of the total marks. This admission procedure was challenged by one candidate as arbitrary action.[6]

  • (a) Does allocated of one-third marks of the total marks for oral test violate any legal provision? Explain
  • (b) Write the judgment in the above case.

Answer

These are the facts of Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi, (1981) 1 SCC 722, a Constitution Bench decision.

(a) Does allocated of one-third marks of the total marks for oral test violate any legal provision? Explain

Yes. The allocation of one-third of the total marks to the oral interview is arbitrary and violates Article 14.

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  1. The facts. Admission to the Regional Engineering College, Srinagar, run by a society registered under the Jammu and Kashmir Registration of Societies Act, was by a written test followed by an oral interview. Of a total of 150 marks, 50, that is one-third or 33 and one-third per cent, were allotted to the viva voce. The petitioners complained that the interviews lasted two to three minutes on average, and that they were asked superficial questions about their parentage and residence rather than questions relevant to the qualities for which the marks were allotted.
  2. The threshold question: is the society "the State"? The Court held that it was, and in doing so laid down the six tests of instrumentality or agency under Article 12: the entire share capital or funding held by the Government; financial assistance meeting almost the whole expenditure; a monopoly conferred or protected by the State; deep and pervasive State control; functions of public importance closely related to governmental functions; and a Government department transferred to the body. The form in which the body is clothed, whether a corporation or a registered society, is immaterial: what matters is whether it is an instrumentality of the State.
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  1. The holding on the interview marks. The allocation of "as high a percentage as 33 and one-third of the total marks" for the oral interview was held to be arbitrary and unreasonable, and the admissions were struck down on that ground. The Court reasoned that an oral interview is by its nature subjective, that its result depends on the impression of a few minutes, that it is open to manipulation, and that so large a weight given to a subjective test defeats the objectivity of the written examination.
  2. The norm the Court laid down. If the marks allotted to the oral interview do not exceed about 15 per cent of the total, and if the candidates are properly interviewed with relevant questions directed to assessing their suitability, the oral test satisfies the requirement of reasonableness and non-arbitrariness.
  3. The constitutional provisions violated. Article 14, because arbitrariness is the antithesis of equality: E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), "equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies"; and Article 15 where the selection operates to discriminate. In matters of public employment, Article 16 applies equally.

(b) Write the judgment in the above case.

The judgment in Ajay Hasia:

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  1. the society running the Regional Engineering College is an instrumentality of the State and therefore "other authorities" within Article 12, so it is bound by the fundamental rights; the six tests of instrumentality were laid down, and it was held that the form of the body is irrelevant;
  2. the allocation of 33 and one-third per cent of the total marks to the oral interview is arbitrary and violative of Article 14, and the admissions made on that basis were set aside;
  3. an oral interview may lawfully carry marks, but ordinarily not more than about 15 per cent of the total, and it must be conducted properly, with relevant questions and adequate time;
  4. the Court nonetheless declined to unsettle the admissions of students who had already completed part of their course, moulding the relief so that the declaration operated for the future. Bhagwati J., delivering the judgment, held that the constitutional philosophy of a democratic socialist republic requires the State and its instrumentalities to act in a manner that is fair, reasonable and non-arbitrary.
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The later development, worth one line. Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985) refined the norm: for higher services, where personality and suitability matter more, a somewhat larger percentage may be permissible, but for ordinary recruitment the interview must remain a small proportion; and a member of a Public Service Commission related to a candidate must withdraw from that candidate's assessment.

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Q.4

Paper one. Answer the following, any four 48 Marks

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(a)Define administrative Law and explain the sources of Administrative Law[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: three definitions with criticism; the nature of the subject; then the sources in detail, since that is what the question asks for, under six heads; the distinction from constitutional law; and the scope, briefly.

1. Definitions.

  1. Ivor Jennings: "Administrative law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities." Criticism: too wide, since it embraces much of constitutional law, and silent about control.
  2. K.C. Davis: "the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action." Criticism: concentrates on adjudication and neglects rule-making.
  3. Sir William Wade: "the law relating to the control of governmental power", the best short definition.
  4. The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure by which relief is obtained and the control exercised by the legislature.
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2. Nature, in short. Public law; judge-made and uncodified in India; functional rather than conceptual; dynamic; and organised around power and its control.

3. The sources of administrative law in India.

(a) The Constitution. This is the primary source, and it distinguishes Indian from English administrative law. It supplies:

  1. Article 12, the definition of "the State", which fixes who is bound; Article 13, making inconsistent law void, and defining "law" to include rules, regulations, notifications and bye-laws, which is what brings delegated legislation within the fundamental rights;
  2. Articles 14, 19 and 21, the standards of equality, reasonableness and fairness, from which the Indian law of natural justice and of arbitrariness is derived after E.P. Royappa (1974) and Maneka Gandhi (1978);
  3. Articles 32 and 226, the remedies, and Articles 136 and 227;
  4. Articles 298, 299 and 300, the contractual and tortious liability of the State;
  5. Articles 308 to 323, the services, the doctrine of pleasure and the Public Service Commissions;
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  1. Articles 323A and 323B, tribunals;
  2. Articles 123 and 213, ordinances, and Articles 245 and 246, the distribution of legislative power.

(b) Statutes. Every administrative power a student meets comes from an Act: the Industrial Disputes Act, the Income Tax Act, the Essential Commodities Act, the Motor Vehicles Act, the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Statute is also the source of the procedure the authority must follow.

(c) Delegated legislation. The rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders and notifications made under those Acts, which vastly outnumber the Acts themselves and which are both a source of administrative law and one of its principal subjects.

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(d) Judicial decisions and precedent. This is the most important source of the governing principles, because almost none of them is enacted in India. Natural justice, the doctrine of ultra vires, the grounds of review of discretion, promissory estoppel, legitimate expectation, the instrumentality test under Article 12 and the constitutional tort are all judge-made: A.K. Kraipak (1970), Maneka Gandhi (1978), In re Delhi Laws Act (1951), Barium Chemicals (1967), Ajay Hasia (1981), Nilabati Behera (1993).

(e) Administrative directions, circulars and departmental practice. These are not law in the strict sense and confer no enforceable right by themselves, but they bind the administration internally, may found a legitimate expectation, and may be enforced under Article 14 where a departure from them is arbitrary: Food Corporation of India v. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993).

(f) Reports of committees and commissions, persuasive rather than binding: the Committee on Ministers' Powers (Donoughmore), 1932 and the Franks Committee, 1957 in England; the Administrative Reforms Commissions of 1966 and 2005 and the Law Commission of India reports in India.

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Some writers add custom and usage, and international conventions, which the courts have used to fill gaps, as in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), where the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women was applied in the absence of domestic law.

4. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of power, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of that power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In England, without a written constitution, the two were long treated as one; in India the dependence is close but the line is real.

5. Scope, briefly. The organisation of administrative authorities; delegated legislation; tribunals; natural justice; discretion; judicial review and the writs; State liability; the civil services; public undertakings; and the institutional controls.

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(b)Discuss the Dicey's doctrine of Rule of law with relevant case laws.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the origin of the idea; Dicey's three propositions in his own terms, since the question names him; the criticism of each; the modern restatement; the reception of the doctrine in India, with the constitutional provisions; six Indian cases; and the departures.

1. Origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law, that power may be exercised only under and according to law, and that no one is above the law. The phrase renders the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry runs from Bracton in the thirteenth century, that the King is under God and the law, to Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I.

2. Dicey's three propositions, from the Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885).

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  1. Supremacy of law, or the absence of arbitrary power. "No man is punishable or can be lawfully made to suffer in body or goods except for a distinct breach of law established in the ordinary legal manner before the ordinary courts of the land." Dicey contrasted this with wide discretionary authority: "wherever there is discretion there is room for arbitrariness".
  2. Equality before the law. "Every man, whatever be his rank or condition, is subject to the ordinary law of the realm and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals." From this he concluded that England had no droit administratif and no administrative courts, and he treated that absence as a virtue.
  3. The constitution is the result of the ordinary law of the land. In England the general principles of the constitution, such as the right to personal liberty or to public meeting, are "the result of judicial decisions determining the rights of private persons in particular cases brought before the courts", and are not the source of, but the consequence of, individual rights, as they are under a written constitution.

3. The criticism.

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  1. The first proposition would abolish the modern State. Discretion is unavoidable in a welfare administration, and Dicey confused arbitrary power with discretionary power. The answer of modern law is not to forbid discretion but to confine, structure and check it, which is exactly what the grounds of judicial review do.
  2. The second rested on a misunderstanding of droit administratif. The Conseil d'Etat is not a device for protecting officials; in several respects its control is stricter than that of the English courts, and it developed State liability long before the Crown could be sued in England. Nor was English law itself free of special rules for public bodies: the Crown's immunity in tort survived until the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947.
  3. The third is a description of English constitutional history, not a universal principle. In India the position is the reverse, and the reverse is stronger: a right guaranteed by a written Constitution and enforced under Article 32 cannot be taken away by ordinary legislation, while a right resting on judicial decision can.
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4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi in 1959 restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. That is the version which fits a welfare State and the Directive Principles.

5. Its reception in India. India accepts the first two propositions and reverses the third. The doctrine is embodied in: the Preamble; Article 13; Article 14 (equality before the law, and after E.P. Royappa a guarantee against arbitrariness); Article 19 (restrictions must be reasonable and by law); Article 20; Article 21 (procedure established by law, which after Maneka Gandhi must be right, just and fair); Article 22; Articles 265 and 300A; Articles 32 and 226; Article 300; and the independence of the judiciary.

6. The Indian case law.

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): the rule of law is part of the basic structure, beyond the amending power.
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  1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which withdrew the Prime Minister's election dispute from every court, was struck down; a legislature cannot decide a particular dispute by declaring the result.
  2. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976): the majority held that during the Emergency, Article 21 being suspended, no habeas corpus petition lay. It is the low-water mark of the doctrine in India; Justice H.R. Khanna's dissent is now the law, the majority having been overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017).
  3. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): Articles 14, 19 and 21 form a golden triangle, and the procedure must be right, just and fair. This is where the Indian rule of law becomes substantive.
  4. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1982), Bhagwati J.: "the rule of law excludes arbitrariness; its postulate is intelligence without passion and reason freed from desire."
  5. Som Raj v. State of Haryana (1990): the absence of arbitrary power is the first postulate of the rule of law upon which the whole constitutional edifice depends.
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7. The departures in India. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege); preventive detention under Article 22; the Emergency provisions in Articles 352 to 360, though after the 44th Amendment Articles 20 and 21 can no longer be suspended; wide administrative discretion; and tribunals in place of the ordinary courts.

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(c)Explain the judicial Control over delegated legislation.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; substantive ultra vires under nine heads with a case for each; procedural ultra vires with the publication cases; the presumption of validity and the limits of review; the effect of a rule being struck down; and the remedies.

1. Why judicial control matters most. Parliamentary control is weak: several thousand instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, at the instance of the person affected, and it works through the doctrine of ultra vires, which has two branches.

2. Substantive ultra vires: the content is beyond the power.

  1. The parent Act is unconstitutional, for want of legislative competence or for breach of a fundamental right under Article 13; everything made under it falls with it.
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  1. Excessive delegation. The legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, the laying down of the policy: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951). Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) struck down Section 3(d) of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, which empowered the executive to add "any other disease" to a statutory list with no standard whatever. Ajoy Kumar Banerjee v. Union of India (1984) restated the rule.
  2. The rule exceeds or contradicts the parent Act. The commonest and most successful ground: General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988), a rule must be within the scope of the rule-making power and consistent with the Act; State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983), a rule-making power does not carry the power to make a rule the Act itself forbids.
  3. The rule violates the Constitution. Delegated legislation is "law" within Article 13(3)(a): Air India v. Nergesh Meerza (1981), a service regulation terminating an air hostess on first pregnancy struck down under Article 14, and a power to extend the retiring age "at the option of the Managing Director" struck down as an unguided discretion; Narendra Kumar v. Union of India (1960) under Article 19.
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  1. Manifest unreasonableness or arbitrariness. Kruse v. Johnson (1898) for bye-laws; in India arbitrariness is itself a breach of Article 14; Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985) collects the grounds and holds that subordinate legislation does not enjoy the same immunity as a statute, while making clear that the court is not the judge of policy.
  2. Mala fides, rarely established, the burden being heavy.
  3. Unauthorised sub-delegation: delegatus non potest delegare, Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works (1997).
  4. Retrospective operation without express authority, a delegate having no inherent power to legislate for the past.
  5. Imposing a tax, creating an offence, or ousting the jurisdiction of the courts without clear statutory authority; Article 265 requires that no tax be levied except by authority of law.

3. Procedural ultra vires: the rule was made in the wrong way. The question is whether the prescribed procedure is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal, of a directory one is not.

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  1. Prior publication of the draft and consideration of objections; Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 supplies the standard procedure where an Act requires rules to be made "after previous publication".
  2. Consultation of an affected interest or a named body: Raza Buland Sugar Co. v. Municipal Board, Rampur (1965), where the test was said to be the object of the provision and the consequences of non-compliance; compare Banwarilal Agarwalla v. State of Bihar (1961).
  3. Publication in the Official Gazette, generally mandatory: Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951), where a resolution of the Council of Ministers of the former Jaipur State had never been published and was held unenforceable, the Court saying that natural justice requires a law to be made known before a person can be convicted under it; State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George (1965) on the mode of publication.
  4. Laying before the legislature: Atlas Cycle (1979), directory unless made a condition of validity.
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4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden lies on the challenger. The court will not strike a rule down because it thinks it unwise, harsh or capable of improvement; it reviews legality, not merit, and will not sit in judgment on policy, expert opinion or the allocation of resources.

5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and treated as never having been made. Severance is possible where the offending part is separable and the remainder can operate independently. Acts already done under it may in some circumstances be protected, and the court may confine the effect of its declaration prospectively.

6. The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or Article 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and a collateral challenge, by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on the rule.

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(d)Explain "Audi Alteram partem Rule.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reasons for the rule; its seven components, each with a case; the landmark decisions; the exceptions; the effect of a breach; and the flexibility of the rule.

1. Meaning. Audi alteram partem means "hear the other side", or that no man shall be condemned unheard. It is the second and larger rule of natural justice, and it requires that a person to be affected by a decision be given notice of the case against him and a fair opportunity to answer it. It is expressed in the maxim audi alteram partem, nemo inauditus condemnetur.

2. Why the rule exists. It improves the quality of the decision, because the authority hears facts it would otherwise never learn; it is required by fairness to a person whose livelihood, liberty or reputation is at stake; and it produces acceptance, because a man who has been heard accepts an adverse decision as he does not accept one taken behind his back.

3. The components of the rule.

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  1. Notice. It must precede the decision, must give reasonable time, and must state the charge and the proposed action with sufficient particularity for a defence to be prepared. A vague notice, or a notice of one charge followed by punishment on another, vitiates the proceeding.
  2. Opportunity of hearing. An oral hearing is not invariably required; a written representation may suffice where the facts are simple, but an oral hearing is required where credibility, complex facts or a serious penalty are involved.
  3. Disclosure of the material relied on. The authority must not act on material it has not shown to the person: Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax (1955), where an assessment based on undisclosed material was set aside.
  4. Evidence and cross-examination, where the case turns on the testimony of witnesses, though the mode may be regulated.
  5. Legal representation, not an absolute right, but required where the case is complex or where the other side is represented by a legally trained officer.
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  1. He who decides must hear. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959): objections heard by the Secretary and decided by the Chief Minister; the scheme was quashed, the divorce of the hearing from the decision being a denial of a personal hearing.
  2. Decision on the record, with a reasoned order: S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990).

4. The landmark decisions.

  1. Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863). The Board demolished a house built without the required notice. Although the statute said nothing about a hearing, the demolition was held unlawful. Byles J.: "although there are no positive words in a statute requiring that the party shall be heard, yet the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature."
  2. Ridge v. Baldwin (1964). A Chief Constable was dismissed without notice or hearing. The House of Lords held the dismissal void and rejected the doctrine that a duty to hear arises only where there is a "superadded duty to act judicially". This revived natural justice in the common law world.
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  1. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970). Natural justice applies to administrative as well as quasi-judicial action; the line between them is "gradually being obliterated".
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978). The petitioner's passport was impounded "in the public interest" without notice or hearing. The rule was held implicit in Articles 14 and 21; a procedure denying a hearing is not "right, just and fair"; and the rule may be excluded only by express words or necessary implication. A post-decisional hearing was accepted on the facts.
  3. Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981). A takeover under Section 18AA of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act without a hearing was set aside: a post-decisional hearing is a "poor substitute", and the words "immediate action" do not by themselves exclude a prior hearing.
  4. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978). The cancellation of a poll without hearing the candidates was held bad, and an order must be judged by the reasons stated in it.
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  1. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985). Pavement dwellers threatened with eviction were held entitled to be heard, livelihood being part of the right to life.
  2. National Textile Workers' Union v. P.R. Ramakrishnan (1983). Workers were held entitled to be heard in a winding-up petition although the Companies Act named only the company, its creditors and its contributories: the rule can create a right of audience the statute omitted.

5. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion, express or by necessary implication; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability, as in Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), where the results of an entire examination centre were cancelled for mass copying; legislative action, including subordinate legislation of a general character; confidentiality and the security of the State; the "useless formality" exception, applied narrowly; purely administrative or contractual matters affecting no right; interim preventive measures such as suspension pending inquiry; waiver; and, in service law, the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).

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6. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not merely voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974). The court quashes it and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred; it does not decide the merits itself. Relief may still be refused for laches, waiver or acquiescence, and may be moulded where no prejudice is shown (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993), but the "no prejudice" argument is construed narrowly: S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980) holds that non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice.

7. Its flexibility. The content of the rule is variable. What fairness requires in the dismissal of a public servant is not what it requires in the cancellation of a ration licence or the seizure of adulterated food, and the courts have consistently refused to prescribe a fixed procedure. That flexibility is a feature and not a defect: a rigid rule would either cripple the administration or fail the individual.

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(e)Explain Doctrine of Proportionality.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin; the four-part test; its two fields of operation; the punishment cases; the relation to Wednesbury and the Om Kumar division of labour; the criticism; and the modern expansion.

1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that a measure adopted by an authority be no more than is necessary to achieve its object, and that the burden it imposes bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the familiar formulation, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do". The court asks whether the authority has maintained a proper balance between the adverse effects on rights and the purpose sought to be served.

2. Origin. The doctrine comes from German administrative law (Verhaltnismassigkeit), where it developed in the nineteenth century as a control on police powers. It passed through the European Court of Justice and the European Convention on Human Rights into English law, where Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985) listed illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety as the grounds of review and added that proportionality might in time be recognised as a fourth.

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3. The four-part test, as settled in India by Modern Dental College and Research Centre v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):

  1. the measure must pursue a legitimate aim;
  2. it must be rationally connected to that aim (suitability);
  3. it must be necessary, in that no less restrictive alternative capable of achieving the aim is reasonably available; and
  4. it must strike a fair balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community (proportionality in the narrow sense).

4. Its two fields of operation in Indian administrative law.

(a) Restrictions on fundamental rights. The word "reasonable" in Articles 19(2) to (6) has always demanded something close to proportionality, and the modern cases apply the four-part test in terms: Puttaswamy on privacy; Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), where internet shutdowns and orders under Section 144 were held to require the least restrictive measure, publication of the order and recorded reasons; Modern Dental College on the regulation of private professional colleges.

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(b) Quantum of punishment. Where a penalty is grossly excessive, the court may interfere:

  1. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987): a soldier who refused to eat food was sentenced to rigorous imprisonment and dismissal. The Supreme Court held the punishment "strikingly disproportionate", set it aside, and held that the doctrine of proportionality is part of judicial review, since a penalty that shocks the conscience is itself evidence of an arbitrary exercise of power;
  2. Bhagat Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh (1983) and Ex-Naik Sardar Singh v. Union of India (1991) to the same effect;
  3. in industrial law, Hind Construction and Engineering Co. v. Their Workmen (1965), where dismissal for a single day's absence was held excessive, and Section 11A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which empowers the Labour Court to substitute a lesser punishment.

5. Proportionality and Wednesbury.

  1. Wednesbury unreasonableness, from Associated Provincial Picture Houses v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948), asks a question about the decision-maker: could any reasonable authority have come to this decision? It is a secondary review: the court does not weigh the merits.
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  1. Proportionality asks a question about the decision: was this much interference necessary to secure that much benefit? It is a primary review: the court itself weighs the balance.
  2. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) settled the Indian division of labour. Where fundamental rights are affected, the court applies proportionality as a primary reviewing authority. Where the challenge is to an ordinary administrative decision or to the quantum of punishment, the court applies Wednesbury, interferes only if the decision or the penalty is so disproportionate as to shock the conscience, and then ordinarily remits the matter rather than substituting its own penalty.

6. Criticism. Proportionality is said to draw the court into the merits, and so to blur the line between review and appeal; to require the court to weigh incommensurable interests, such as liberty against security, for which it has no expert competence; and to trespass on the separation of powers, since the choice among available means is ordinarily for the executive. The answer is that the court is not choosing the policy but testing whether the chosen means bears a rational and necessary relation to it, and that where a fundamental right is in issue, a deferential test would leave the right unprotected.

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7. The modern expansion. Since Puttaswamy (2017) the four-part test has been applied well beyond the classical fundamental-rights cases, in the privacy, internet-shutdown and Aadhaar matters, and the strict Om Kumar division is under pressure. In an examination it is safest to state Om Kumar as the settled position and then note that expansion.

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(f)Define Public Interest Litigation, discuss the role of Indian Supreme Court as a protector of rights through PIL.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition and the change in locus standi; why it arose; the procedural innovations with cases; the role of the Supreme Court under subject heads with the leading case in each; the criticism; and the safeguards the Court has itself laid down.

1. Definition. Public interest litigation is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or class who, by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position, are unable to approach the court themselves. It is also called social action litigation.

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2. The foundation: relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, changed it: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong or injury is caused to a person or a determinate class who by reason of poverty, helplessness, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position are unable to approach the court, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.

3. Why it arose. The ordinary machinery of justice does not reach the poor: litigation is costly, slow and technical, and the illiterate and destitute do not know their rights, cannot draft a petition and cannot afford counsel. Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid, and PIL is the judicial answer to the same problem.

4. The procedural innovations.

  1. Epistolary jurisdiction: a letter or postcard treated as a petition: Sunil Batra (II) v. Delhi Administration (1980); Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984).
  2. Investigative commissions appointed by the court to gather facts, the petitioner having no access to evidence: Bandhua Mukti Morcha.
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  1. Non-adversarial procedure: the object is compliance, not the defeat of the State.
  2. Continuing mandamus: the court retains the matter and monitors compliance: Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998).
  3. Compensation as a public law remedy: Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983), fourteen years' illegal detention after acquittal; Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993), custodial death, where the remedy was held to rest on strict liability and sovereign immunity was held to be no defence.
  4. Guidelines with the force of law until Parliament legislates: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

5. The role of the Supreme Court as protector of rights, by subject.

  1. Personal liberty and the criminal process. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979): undertrials in Bihar had been in custody longer than the maximum sentence for their offences; the right to a speedy trial was held part of Article 21 and they were ordered released. Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra (1983), women in police custody. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the eleven custodial safeguards.
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  1. Bonded and child labour. Bandhua Mukti Morcha (1984), bonded labour in the stone quarries of Faridabad; M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu (1996), child labour in the Sivakasi match factories.
  2. Environment. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India: the Ganga pollution cases, the Oleum gas leak case (1987), which laid down absolute liability for hazardous industry, and the vehicular pollution matters. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), the precautionary principle and polluter pays.
  3. Livelihood and shelter. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985): livelihood is part of the right to life, and pavement dwellers were entitled to be heard before eviction.
  4. Women and dignity. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), the guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace, later enacted as the Act of 2013.
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  1. Food, health and education. People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, the right to food and the midday meal scheme; Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal (1996), emergency medical treatment; Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993), education under Article 21, later Article 21A.
  2. Probity in government. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), which produced the statutory Central Vigilance Commission; Common Cause v. Union of India, on the arbitrary allotment of public largesse.

6. The criticism. That PIL breaches the separation of powers and amounts to judicial legislation; that courts decide questions of policy and resource allocation for which they have neither expertise nor accountability; that many orders are unenforceable and unmonitored; that PIL has become publicity interest and private interest litigation, used by busybodies, commercial rivals and for political ends; and that it has sometimes been used against the very poor for whom it was created, as in some eviction and street-vendor matters.

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7. The safeguards the Court has laid down. State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010): the Supreme Court directed the High Courts to frame rules for PIL, to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents, to be satisfied that substantial public interest is involved, and to discourage petitions filed for extraneous motives, imposing exemplary costs where necessary.

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Q.1

Paper two, form 60670. Answer in short, not more than two sentences 20 Marks

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(i)What is a Writ?[2]

Answer

A writ is a formal written order issued by a superior court commanding a person, authority or inferior tribunal to do or to refrain from doing something. The five writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.

They are issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32, for the enforcement of fundamental rights only, and by the High Courts under Article 226, for fundamental rights and for any other purpose, so the High Court's jurisdiction is wider.

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(ii)What is sub-delegation?[2]

Answer

Sub-delegation is the further delegation, by a delegate, of the power that the parent statute delegated to him. The rule is delegatus non potest delegare, a delegate cannot further delegate, so sub-delegation is invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.

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(iii)What is Henry VIII clause?[2]

Answer

A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute empowering the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power to make such provision as appears necessary for removing difficulties in giving effect to it.

It is named after King Henry VIII, who by the Statute of Proclamations, 1539 was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and the name is a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.

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(iv)State two functions of the Union Public Service Commission.[2]

Answer

From Article 320:

  1. to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union; and
  2. to be consulted on methods of recruitment, principles to be followed in appointments, promotions and transfers, and on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India.
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(v)What is the difference between limitation and laches?[2]

Answer

Limitation is the statutory period fixed by the Limitation Act, 1963 within which a suit, appeal or application must be filed; it is a rule of law, it is fixed in years, and once it expires the remedy is barred. Laches is an equitable doctrine: unreasonable and unexplained delay in seeking a discretionary remedy, from which the court infers acquiescence and by reason of which the position of others has altered to their prejudice; it is not fixed in years, and its effect is that the court declines relief.

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(vi)What is Judicial Review?[2]

Answer

Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. Its sources are Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and it is part of the basic structure.

Its three grounds, from the GCHQ case (1985), are illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety, with proportionality where fundamental rights are affected.

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(vii)State two characteristics of Administrative Tribunals.[2]

Answer

Two characteristics are:

  1. a tribunal is a statutory creation and has only such powers as its Act confers, so anything outside them is ultra vires; and
  2. it is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure or the Indian Evidence Act, but is bound by the principles of natural justice and must pass a speaking order.
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(viii)What is a speaking order?[2]

Answer

A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice.

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(ix)What is the meaning of "Salus Populi Est Suprema Lex"?[2]

Answer

Salus populi est suprema lex: "the welfare of the people is the supreme law". It is the maxim that the good of the public is the highest law, and that where private interest conflicts with the general welfare, the general welfare prevails.

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(x)What is the concept of Legitimate Expectation?[2]

Answer

Legitimate expectation is the doctrine that where a public authority has made an express promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect it to be honoured or continued, and that expectation cannot be defeated without fairness, which at the least means a hearing.

It is not an enforceable right to the benefit; it is a ground of judicial review, treated in India as an aspect of the non-arbitrariness required by Article 14.

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Q.2

Paper two. Write short notes, any four 20 Marks

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(i)Dicey's Doctrine of Rule of Law[5]

Answer

1. The author and the work. A.V. Dicey, Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885). He treated the rule of law, along with parliamentary sovereignty, as one of the two pillars of the English constitution.

2. His three propositions.

  1. Supremacy of law, or the absence of arbitrary power. "No man is punishable or can be lawfully made to suffer in body or goods except for a distinct breach of law established in the ordinary legal manner before the ordinary courts of the land." He added that "wherever there is discretion there is room for arbitrariness".
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  1. Equality before the law. "Every man, whatever be his rank or condition, is subject to the ordinary law of the realm and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals." From this he inferred that England had no droit administratif and no administrative courts, and treated their absence as a virtue.
  2. The constitution is the result of the ordinary law of the land. The general principles of the English constitution are "the result of judicial decisions determining the rights of private persons in particular cases brought before the courts", and are the consequence, not the source, of individual rights.

3. The criticism.

  1. The first would make modern government impossible. Discretion is unavoidable in a welfare administration, and Dicey confused arbitrary power with discretionary power. The modern answer is to confine, structure and check discretion, not to abolish it.
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  1. The second rested on a misunderstanding of droit administratif. The Conseil d'Etat is independent and its control is in several respects stricter than the English courts', having developed State liability long before the Crown could be sued in England. English law itself had special rules for public bodies, and the Crown's tort immunity survived until 1947.
  2. The third describes English constitutional history, not a universal principle, and the Indian arrangement, rights guaranteed by a written Constitution with remedies under Articles 32 and 226, is the stronger one.

4. What survives of Dicey. The core survives and is still the foundation of the subject: that power must have a legal source; that no one is above the law, including the Government; and that the courts, and not the executive, decide whether power has been lawfully exercised. It is the second and third propositions in their historical detail, and not the idea itself, that have been discarded.

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5. In India. The doctrine is embodied in the Preamble, Articles 13, 14, 19, 20, 21, 22, 265, 300A, 300, 32 and 226, and the independence of the judiciary; it was held part of the basic structure in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and applied in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975); its low point was ADM Jabalpur (1976), overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017); and it became substantive in Maneka Gandhi (1978).

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(ii)Civil Services in India[5]

Answer

1. What they are. The civil service is the body of permanent, professional, salaried officials, recruited on merit, who carry on the administration under the direction of the political executive. Its characteristics are permanence, political neutrality, anonymity, merit recruitment and hierarchy.

2. Origin. From the covenanted service of the East India Company; the Charter Act of 1853 introduced open competition; the Macaulay Committee, 1854 designed the examination; and the Indian Civil Service was the "steel frame" of British India. After independence Sardar Patel secured the retention of an All India service, and the IAS and IPS were constituted under the All India Services Act, 1951.

3. Classification.

  1. All India Services, common to the Union and the States: the IAS, the IPS and the Indian Forest Service, under Article 312, which empowers the Rajya Sabha by a two-thirds resolution to declare it necessary in the national interest to create a new one;
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  1. Central Services, serving the Union alone, in Groups A, B and C: the Indian Revenue Service, the Indian Foreign Service, the Indian Audit and Accounts Service;
  2. State Services, recruited by the State Public Service Commissions.

Employees of local authorities and statutory corporations are not civil servants of the Union or a State and do not have the protection of Article 311.

4. The constitutional framework, Articles 308 to 323. Article 309 (recruitment and conditions of service, by law or by rules of the President or Governor); Article 310 (doctrine of pleasure); Article 311 (safeguards); Article 312 (All India Services); Articles 315 to 323 (Public Service Commissions, with independence secured by Article 317 and expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund by Article 322).

5. Functions. Policy advice; implementation of law and policy; drafting delegated legislation; quasi-judicial adjudication in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals; financial administration; and continuity across changes of government.

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6. Safeguards and controls. Article 311(1), no removal by a subordinate authority (State of Madhya Pradesh v. Shardul Singh, 1970); Article 311(2), an inquiry with a reasonable opportunity of being heard, subject to the three exceptions in the second proviso (Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel, 1985); Articles 14 and 16 (E.P. Royappa, 1974); and, on the other side, control through the Central Vigilance Commission, the Lokpal, the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act, 2005.

7. Criticism and reform. Excessive generalism at senior levels; political interference in postings and transfers; frequent transfers destroying continuity; delay; and the difficulty of removing an inefficient officer. T.S.R. Subramanian v. Union of India (2013) directed a minimum fixed tenure, a Civil Services Board to advise on postings and transfers, and that oral instructions from political superiors not be acted on.

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(iii)Kinds of Public Corporations[5]

Answer

1. What a public corporation is. A body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds and freedom from ordinary departmental procedure. Justice Douglas: it combines "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".

2. By mode of creation.

  1. Chartered corporations, created by royal charter; the East India Company is the great example, and the class is of historical interest only in India;
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  1. Statutory corporations, created by a special Act which fixes their objects, powers, capital and management: the Life Insurance Corporation of India (1956), the Reserve Bank of India (1934), the Food Corporation of India (1964), the Damodar Valley Corporation (1948), the Airports Authority of India, and the State Road Transport Corporations under the Road Transport Corporations Act, 1950;
  2. Registered or Government companies under the Companies Act. Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013: a company in which not less than 51 per cent of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, a State Government or both, including subsidiaries: Steel Authority of India, Bharat Heavy Electricals, Coal India, ONGC.

3. By function.

  1. Commercial and industrial: Steel Authority of India, Indian Oil;
  2. Financial: the Reserve Bank of India, the Life Insurance Corporation, NABARD;
  3. Developmental and promotional: the Damodar Valley Corporation, the National Highways Authority;
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  1. Regulatory: the Securities and Exchange Board of India, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, the Competition Commission of India, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission;
  2. Social service and welfare: State transport, housing and hospital corporations.

4. The older jurisprudential division. A corporation sole, an office held in succession by one natural person, the office being distinguished from the holder, as with the President of India or the Comptroller and Auditor General; and a corporation aggregate, a body of persons united for a common purpose.

5. Why the classification matters. It fixes the source and limit of the powers, since a statutory corporation may do only what its Act allows and its acts may be attacked as ultra vires; and it bears on whether the body is "the State" under Article 12, which decides whether it is bound by Articles 14 and 16 and amenable to Article 226: Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967); Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975); Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981), with its six tests; Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002), restating the test as functional, financial and administrative domination.

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(iv)Droit Administratiff[5]

Answer

1. Meaning. Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts, not by the legislature, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials, applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.

2. Origin. It grew after the French Revolution out of distrust of the ordinary courts, the parlements. The law of 16 to 24 August 1790 forbade the ordinary courts from interfering with the administration; the Conseil d'Etat was created by Napoleon in 1799 and acquired the power to decide, justice deleguee, in 1872.

3. Characteristics. Judge-made and uncodified rules; no jurisdiction in the ordinary civil courts over the administration; the Conseil d'Etat at the head of a separate hierarchy; the Tribunal des Conflits to resolve conflicts of jurisdiction; cheap, inquisitorial and accessible procedure; and the central remedy, the recours pour exces de pouvoir, the action to annul an act for excess of power.

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4. Its branches. The law relating to the status of administrative personnel; the law relating to the administration of public services; and the law relating to administrative adjudication.

5. Dicey's criticism and the answer to it. Dicey treated it as the antithesis of the rule of law, because it gave officials a separate law and separate courts. The criticism is now regarded as mistaken: the Conseil d'Etat is independent and staffed by career judges of standing; its control is in several respects stricter than the English courts', having developed the liability of the State for the faults of its servants when the English Crown could not be sued at all; its remedy is cheap and effective; and Dicey himself modified his views later.

6. Its relevance in India. India follows the English model: one law and one set of courts, the administration being controlled through Articles 32 and 226. But India has moved a long way towards the French position in substance by creating tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B for whole classes of dispute, and the argument in S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997) about whether a tribunal may replace the High Court is the same argument Dicey was having.

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(v)Ombudsman[5]

Answer

1. Meaning. An Ombudsman is an independent, non-partisan officer of the legislature who investigates complaints by citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The word is Swedish and means a representative or agent.

2. Origin and spread. Created in Sweden in 1809, when the Riksdag appointed the Justitieombudsman to supervise the observance of the law by judges and officials. It spread to Finland (1919), Denmark (1955), Norway (1962), New Zealand (1962) and the United Kingdom's Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration (1967).

3. Characteristics. Independence, being appointed by and answerable to the legislature with a fixed tenure; jurisdiction over maladministration, meaning bias, neglect, delay, inattention, incompetence, arbitrariness and rudeness, and not merely over illegality; easy access, on a simple complaint without fee, formality or advocate, and often on his own motion; wide powers of investigation, including access to files and the power to summon officials; and recommendatory conclusions, enforced by report and publicity rather than by decree.

4. In India.

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  1. The Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, chaired by Morarji Desai, recommended a two-tier machinery, the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States.
  2. Maharashtra acted first, with the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971, the first such statute in India. The Lokayukta investigates a grievance, that is injustice or hardship from maladministration, or an allegation, that is abuse of position, corruption or improper motive; has the powers of a civil court; and reports and recommends to the competent authority, with reports laid before the State legislature.
  3. At the Centre, after eight failed Bills between 1968 and 2011, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 was enacted: a chairperson and up to eight members, at least half judicial; a selection committee of the Prime Minister, the Speaker, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India or his nominee and an eminent jurist; jurisdiction over the Prime Minister with stated exclusions, Ministers, members of Parliament and central Government servants; an Inquiry Wing (Section 11) and a Prosecution Wing (Section 12); and a seven-year limitation (Section 53).
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5. Merits and limitations. He is cheap, quick and informal; he can reach conduct no court can review; and he improves administration by the mere possibility of scrutiny. Against that, his findings bind nobody; his jurisdiction is hedged with exclusions; he depends on the executive for staff and funds; and in India appointments have often been delayed for years, the first Lokpal being appointed only in March 2019.

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(vi)Ridge v/s Baldwin[5]

Answer

Citation. Ridge v. Baldwin, [1964] AC 40 (House of Lords).

Facts. Charles Ridge, Chief Constable of Brighton, was prosecuted for conspiracy to obstruct the course of justice and acquitted, but the trial judge made observations critical of his leadership of the force. The Watch Committee met and dismissed him under Section 191(4) of the Municipal Corporations Act, 1882, which permitted the dismissal of a constable found "negligent in the discharge of his duty, or otherwise unfit for the same". He was given no notice of any charge and no hearing, and was not present.

Held. The dismissal was void for breach of natural justice. The House of Lords, Lord Reid delivering the leading speech, held:

  1. The duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial. It arises from the nature of the power and its effect on the person. The earlier line of cases requiring a "superadded duty to act judicially", founded on R. v. Electricity Commissioners as read in Nakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne (1951), was wrongly decided and was departed from.
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  1. Three classes of dismissal must be distinguished: dismissal from an office held at pleasure, where no hearing is required; dismissal under a contract of service, governed by the contract; and dismissal from an office from which a man can be removed only for cause, where a hearing is required. A Chief Constable fell into the third class.
  2. The Watch Committee had failed to inform him of the charges and to give him an opportunity to be heard, so the dismissal was a nullity.
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Q.3

Paper two. Answer the situational based questions, any two 12 Marks

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(i)Rules provided that person would not be granted school leaving certificate unless he had completed fifteen years of age. However the Director was given power to grant exemption from this rule under certain circumstances in deserving cases.[6]

  • (a) What is the meaning of Administrative discretion?
  • (b) Can the rule made by the Director be challenged? Give reason.

Answer

But the Director made an invariable rule that he will grant exemption only if the person has completed thirteen years of age.

This is the same problem as question 18 on the first paper of this scan, set again on the second. The answer is the same, and it is worth noticing that the University set it twice in one sitting.

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(a) What is the meaning of Administrative discretion?

Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in the language of "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "in deserving cases" and "in the public interest".

Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case; a welfare State must license, allot, exempt and regulate on facts that vary case by case. Dicey thought discretion the enemy of the rule of law; the modern answer is that the enemy is unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy is to confine, structure and check it.

Its four inherent limits. The power must be exercised by the authority named, for the purpose for which it was given, on relevant considerations, and by a fair procedure. Judicial control is grouped under two heads: failure to exercise the discretion, and abuse of it.

(b) Can the rule made by the Director be challenged? Give reason.

Yes.

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  1. He has converted a discretion into a rule. The parent rule empowered him to exempt "under certain circumstances in deserving cases", which requires consideration of each case on its own facts. By fixing thirteen years as an invariable minimum he has excluded from consideration every applicant below it, however deserving, and has narrowed a benefit the parent rule conferred.
  2. The head is "self-imposed fetter", a failure to exercise discretion. A policy is permissible; a closed mind is not. R. v. Port of London Authority, ex parte Kynoch (1919); British Oxygen Co. v. Board of Trade (1971), where Lord Reid required the authority to be "always willing to listen to anyone with something new to say".
  3. It is also substantive ultra vires. A subordinate rule inconsistent with the rule under which it is made is void, and a delegate cannot amend the instrument under which it acts: State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983); General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988).
  4. The refusal is a nullity, because the authority has not applied its own mind to the individual case: it has not decided wrongly, it has not decided at all.
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  1. The remedy. A petition under Article 226 for certiorari to quash the refusal and mandamus directing the Director to consider and decide according to law. The court will not grant the certificate itself; the applicant obtains the right to be considered. In a clear case the relief may be moulded further: Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986).
  2. What the Director may lawfully do. Issue guidelines indicating the kind of case he would ordinarily treat as deserving, while making clear that each case will be considered on its merits.
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(ii)A contractor constructed a building at the request of a Government officer. The possession was obtained by the officer and the building was used by the Government; but no payment was made to the contractor.[6]

  • (a) What is the provision of Article 299(1) of the Constituion?
  • (b) What can the contractor do in these circumstances?

Answer

It was contended that the provisions of Article 299(1) of the Constitution had not been fulfilled and therefore the contract was not enforceable.

These are, in substance, the facts of State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons, AIR 1962 SC 779.

(a) What is the provision of Article 299(1) of the Constituion?

Article 299(1) provides that all contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State:

  1. shall be expressed to be made by the President, or by the Governor of the State, as the case may be;
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  1. shall be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor; and
  2. shall be executed by such persons and in such manner as the President or the Governor may direct or authorise.

Two related provisions complete the picture. Article 298 is the source of the power to contract, giving the Union and the States executive power to carry on trade and business and to make contracts for any purpose. Article 299(2) provides that neither the President nor the Governor, nor the person executing a contract on their behalf, shall be personally liable in respect of it.

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The character of the requirements. They are mandatory, not directory. The purpose is protective: to safeguard the public exchequer from being bound by the casual or unauthorised promises of individual officers, and to ensure that public money is committed only by a person the Government has authorised. Consequently a contract not made in the prescribed form is void, unenforceable against the Government, and incapable of ratification, because there is nothing in existence to ratify: Mulamchand v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1968); Bihar Eastern Gangetic Fishermen Co-operative Society v. Sipahi Singh (1977). Chatturbhuj Vithaldas Jasani v. Moreshwar Parashram (1954) took a more indulgent view where the contract was in substance made by an authorised officer, but later decisions have applied the Article strictly.

(b) What can the contractor do in these circumstances?

He cannot sue on the contract, but he can recover the value of the building under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, on the principle of quantum meruit.

  1. Section 70: "Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered."
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  1. The three conditions are satisfied. The building was constructed lawfully, at the request of a government officer; it was plainly not intended as a gift; and the Government took possession and used it, which is enjoyment of the benefit.
  2. The holding in B.K. Mondal. The contractor built a kitchen and storage shed at the request of an officer of the State; the contract did not comply with the constitutional formality; the State took possession, used the structures and refused to pay. The Supreme Court held that Section 70 applies to the Government as it applies to a private person; that the claim is not founded on contract but is a claim in restitution to prevent unjust enrichment; and that Article 299, being intended to protect the Government against unauthorised contracts, cannot be used to enable it to retain a benefit without paying for it.
  3. What is recoverable. Compensation for the value of the benefit actually enjoyed, and not the contract price and not lost profits. The measure is restitutionary, not expectation-based.
  4. Limits. Section 70 does not apply where the plaintiff acted officiously or intended a gift, nor where the transaction is forbidden by law or opposed to public policy: Mulamchand (1968).
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  1. An alternative route. Section 65 of the Contract Act, restoration of a benefit received under an agreement discovered to be void, is often pleaded alongside, but Section 70 is the surer ground because it does not depend on there ever having been an agreement.
  2. Procedure. He must give notice under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure before suing the Government, and he may in an appropriate case move the High Court under Article 226, since the award and performance of Government contracts is State action subject to Article 14: Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India (1979).
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(iii)Mr. Y was appointed as senior officer in the government department though he was not educationally and experience wise qualified for the post.[6]

  • (a) Can anyone oppose such appointment?
  • (b) Explain the remedy available in these circumstances.

Answer

(a) Can anyone oppose such appointment?

Yes. Any member of the public acting bona fide may oppose it, by a petition for a writ of quo warranto under Article 226. He need not have been a candidate and need show no personal right.

  1. The nature of the defect. Where a post carries prescribed qualifications, fixed by statute, by rules made under Article 309 or by the recruitment rules, the appointment of a person who does not possess them is made without authority of law. The appointing authority had no power to appoint such a person at all, so the appointment is void and not merely irregular.
  2. The writ is quo warranto, "by what authority", which calls on the holder of a public office to show by what authority he holds it and ousts him if he cannot.
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  1. Its four conditions, from University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965) and Jamalpur Arya Samaj Sabha v. Dr. D. Ram (1954): the office must be a public office created by the Constitution or a statute; of a substantive character, permanent and independent; the respondent must be in actual possession of it; and the appointment must be contrary to law, or the holder must lack the prescribed qualification.
  2. Locus standi is relaxed, which is the direct answer to the question. Because the object is to protect the public from the exercise of authority by a usurper, and not to vindicate a private right, any member of the public acting bona fide may apply. The court will refuse relief to a petitioner acting from malice or as a front for a disappointed rival.
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  1. Govinda Rao is closely in point: the appointment of a Research Assistant as a University Reader was quashed for want of the prescribed qualification. The Court also fixed the limit: it will interfere where the qualification prescribed has been ignored, but it will not sit in appeal on the comparative merits of candidates who were all qualified.
  2. Other grounds. Articles 14 and 16, since an appointment made in disregard of the prescribed qualification denies equality of opportunity to those who were qualified; and certiorari to quash the order of appointment.

(b) Explain the remedy available in these circumstances.

Quo warranto in detail:

  1. Meaning and object. "By what authority." To prevent the usurpation of a public office and to protect the public from authority exercised without title. It is a public remedy, not the enforcement of a private right.
  2. Forum. The High Court under Article 226, whose jurisdiction extends to "any other purpose", which is the ordinary forum; the Supreme Court under Article 32 only where a fundamental right is involved.
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  1. Burden. Once the petitioner shows that the office is public and substantive and that the respondent holds it, the burden shifts to the respondent to establish his title.
  2. Discretion. The writ is discretionary and may be refused for unreasonable delay, where the term of office has expired or is about to expire, where the defect is technical or has been cured, or where the petition is motivated.
  3. Effect of the order. The appointment is declared void and the holder is ousted. The court appoints nobody and does not decide who ought to have been appointed; it leaves the authority to fill the post according to law.
  4. The de facto doctrine. Acts done by the holder before his ouster are generally protected, so that third parties who dealt with him in good faith are not prejudiced. Public business would otherwise unravel every time a title was found defective.
  5. Alternative forum in a service matter. Where the dispute falls within the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the Central or State Administrative Tribunal is the court of first instance, subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court: L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997).
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Q.4

Paper two. Explain in detail, any four 48 Marks

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(i)Define Administrative Law. Discuss its scope and reasons for its growth.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: three definitions with criticism; the nature of the subject; ten heads of scope; nine reasons for growth with illustrations; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources, briefly.

1. Definitions. Ivor Jennings: "the law relating to the administration; it determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities" (criticised as too wide, and silent about control). K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, especially the law governing judicial review (criticised for neglecting rule-making). Sir William Wade: "the law relating to the control of governmental power." The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure for obtaining relief and the legislative control of the administration.

2. Nature. Public law; judge-made and uncodified in India; functional rather than conceptual; dynamic; and organised around power and its control.

3. Scope. Administrative law covers:

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  1. the organisation and composition of administrative authorities, tribunals, commissions, corporations and local bodies;
  2. delegated legislation, and its parliamentary, procedural and judicial control;
  3. administrative adjudication and tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B;
  4. the principles of natural justice and the duty to act fairly;
  5. administrative discretion, and the grounds on which its failure and its abuse are reviewed;
  6. judicial review and the writs under Articles 32 and 226, with the ordinary remedies of suit, declaration, injunction and damages;
  7. the liability of the State in tort under Article 300 and in contract under Article 299, with promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation;
  8. the civil services under Articles 308 to 323, the doctrine of pleasure and Article 311;
  9. public undertakings and their accountability, including the reach of Article 12; and
  10. institutional controls: the Lokpal and Lokayuktas, the Central Vigilance Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act, 2005.
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4. Reasons for its growth.

  1. The change from the police State to the welfare State, under the Directive Principles. This is the first reason and every other follows from it.
  2. Inadequacy of the legislature, which cannot make detailed law, producing delegated legislation and the law of ultra vires.
  3. Inadequacy of the ordinary courts, slow, costly and rigid, producing tribunals and Articles 323A and 323B.
  4. Technicality of modern administration, producing the expert regulator: the RBI, SEBI, TRAI and the Competition Commission.
  5. Industrialisation, urbanisation and planning: acquisition, zoning, rationing, price control and licensing.
  6. Emergency and crisis: the Defence of India Rules, and the rules made under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
  7. The value of experiment, since a new social scheme cannot be got right at once.
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  1. The expansion of rights and public interest litigation: Maneka Gandhi (1978) and S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981).
  2. The demand for open and accountable government: the Right to Information Act, 2005, the statutory Central Vigilance Commission in 2003 and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

5. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of power, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In India the dependence is close, because Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311 supply so much of the subject.

6. Sources. The Constitution, first; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which supply nearly all the principles; and administrative directions and practice.

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(ii)Explain the theory of Separation of Powers in light of the Indian legal system.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the doctrine and its author; the three propositions; the position in the United States and England; the Indian legal system, under two lists with Article numbers; six judicial decisions; the modern functional statement; and the consequences for administrative law.

1. The doctrine. Baron de Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748), building on Aristotle and Locke. Its three propositions: one organ should not exercise the functions of another; one organ should not interfere with the functions of another; and one person should not be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty: "when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person, or in the same body of magistrates, there can be no liberty".

2. Comparative. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never accepted it: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the final court of appeal until 2009. India occupies a middle position.

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3. In the Indian legal system: what reflects the doctrine.

  1. Article 50, a Directive Principle, directing the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services, given effect in the criminal courts by the separation of judicial from executive magistrates;
  2. Articles 53 and 154: the executive power vested in the President and the Governors;
  3. Articles 121 and 211: no discussion in the legislatures of the conduct of a Judge;
  4. Articles 122 and 212: no judicial inquiry into legislative procedure;
  5. Article 361: the President and Governors not answerable to any court for the exercise of their powers;
  6. the independence of the judiciary: Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231, security of tenure, salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund, removal only by the process in Article 124(4), and the bar on practice after retirement.

4. What departs from it.

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  1. the executive is drawn from and collectively responsible to the legislature: Articles 74, 75, 163 and 164. In a parliamentary system the executive is a committee of the legislature, which is the largest single departure;
  2. ordinances under Articles 123 and 213, a legislative power in executive hands, whose repeated re-promulgation was condemned in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987) and Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017);
  3. the legislature's judicial functions: contempt of itself, impeachment under Article 61, and addresses for the removal of judges;
  4. the judiciary's legislative and executive functions: rules under Articles 145 and 227, appointments under Article 229, and the framing of binding guidelines until Parliament legislates, as in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997);
  5. the executive's judicial functions: tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B, departmental adjudication, and the pardon power under Articles 72 and 161;
  6. delegated legislation on a very large scale.

5. The judicial decisions.

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  1. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955), Mukherjea CJ: the Constitution "has not indeed recognised the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute rigidity, but the functions of the different parts or branches of the Government have been sufficiently differentiated", so no organ may assume a function essentially belonging to another.
  2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which decided the Prime Minister's election dispute by amendment, was struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function.
  3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and I.R. Coelho (2007): part of the basic structure.
  4. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): each organ must remain within its sphere and the judiciary must not enter the field of policy.
  5. State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala (2014): a legislature cannot directly overrule a judicial decision, though it may retrospectively remove the basis of it.
  6. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015), the NJAC case: the 99th Amendment struck down, judicial primacy in appointments being part of judicial independence.
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6. The modern functional statement. In India the doctrine is not a rule that each organ must confine itself to its own work, but a rule that no organ may take over the essential function of another. Delegated legislation and tribunals are tolerated because the essential function stays where the Constitution placed it; a statute deciding a particular case, or a court framing general economic policy, is not.

7. Its consequences for administrative law. Administrative law exists precisely because the doctrine is not applied rigidly. The administration legislates and adjudicates, and the constitutional response is control rather than prohibition, in two specific forms: the essential legislative function must remain with the legislature (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, 1951), and the High Court's power of review over tribunals cannot be removed (L. Chandra Kumar, 1997).

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(iii)Discuss the Principles of Natural Justice with the help of Supreme Court judgments.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reason the rules have no fixed content; the rule against bias with five forms and cases; the hearing rule with seven components and cases; the reasoned-order rule; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach. The question says "with the help of Supreme Court judgments", so every proposition should carry a case.

1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness the law requires of anyone deciding a question affecting another's rights or legitimate interests. It is not a code, and what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual. In India it rests on Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is a constitutional wrong.

2. First principle: nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause. The test, settled in A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970), is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but be seen to be done.

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  1. Pecuniary bias: any financial interest, however small, disqualifies automatically. Dr. Bonham's Case (1610); Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852); Jeejeebhoy v. Assistant Collector, Thana (1965), where the Supreme Court reconstituted the Bench on discovering that a judge was a member of the acquiring co-operative society.
  2. Personal bias: A.K. Kraipak (1970), a candidate sitting on the Selection Board that judged his rivals; Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand (1957), the chairman of a disciplinary tribunal having appeared for the complainant; Mineral Development Ltd. v. State of Bihar (1960), the Minister who cancelled a licence having earlier prosecuted the licensee.
  3. Subject-matter or official bias: Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC (1959).
  4. Departmental or institutional bias, tolerated unless there is a personal interest.
  5. Pre-judgment of the issue, a mind closed before the hearing.

The exception: the doctrine of necessity. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990); Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985), where a Public Service Commission member related to a candidate withdrew only from that candidate's assessment.

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3. Second principle: audi alteram partem, hear the other side. Its components:

  1. Notice of the charge and the proposed action;
  2. a real opportunity to be heard;
  3. disclosure of the material relied on: Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax (1955);
  4. evidence and cross-examination where credibility is in issue;
  5. legal representation where the case is complex;
  6. he who decides must hear: Gullapalli Nageswara Rao (1959);
  7. decision on the record, with nothing taken behind the party's back.
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The Supreme Court judgments to cite: A.K. Kraipak (1970), extending natural justice to administrative action and holding the line between administrative and quasi-judicial to be "gradually being obliterated"; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), holding the rule implicit in Articles 14 and 21, excludable only by express words or necessary implication, and accepting a post-decisional hearing; Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981), holding a post-decisional hearing a "poor substitute"; Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978), that an order must be judged by the reasons stated in it; Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), pavement dwellers entitled to be heard; National Textile Workers' Union v. P.R. Ramakrishnan (1983), workers entitled to be heard in a winding-up petition although the statute did not name them. The English foundation is Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) and Ridge v. Baldwin (1964).

4. Third principle: the reasoned or speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976): recording reasons is "a basic principle of natural justice". S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990), a Constitution Bench: reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Kranti Associates v. Masood Ahmed Khan (2010) collects the modern propositions.

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5. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability, Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), mass copying at a whole centre; legislative action; confidentiality and security of the State; the narrow "useless formality" exception; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; waiver; and the second proviso to Article 311(2), Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985), which holds that the proviso excludes the inquiry and not natural justice at large, and that the recorded satisfaction is justiciable.

6. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974); A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak (1988). The court quashes it and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred. Relief may be refused for laches or waiver, and may be moulded where no prejudice is shown (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993), but S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980) holds that non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice.

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(iv)Examine the grounds for judicial control of Delegated Legislation.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; substantive ultra vires under nine grounds with a case for each; procedural ultra vires under four; the presumption of validity and the limits of review; the effect of a rule being struck down; and the remedies.

1. Why judicial control matters most. Parliamentary control is weak: several thousand instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, at the instance of the person affected, through the doctrine of ultra vires.

2. Grounds of substantive ultra vires.

  1. The parent Act is unconstitutional, for want of legislative competence or breach of a fundamental right; everything under it falls with it.
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  1. Excessive delegation: the essential legislative function, the laying down of policy, cannot be delegated. In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951) supplies the test; Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) applied it to strike down a power to add "any other disease" to a statutory list with no standard; Ajoy Kumar Banerjee v. Union of India (1984) restated it.
  2. The rule exceeds or contradicts the parent Act, the commonest and most successful ground: General Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Dr. Subhash Chandra Yadav (1988); State of Karnataka v. H. Ganesh Kamath (1983).
  3. The rule violates the Constitution, being "law" under Article 13(3)(a): Air India v. Nergesh Meerza (1981), a regulation terminating an air hostess on first pregnancy struck down under Article 14 as "most unreasonable and arbitrary", and an unguided power to extend the retiring age struck down with it; Narendra Kumar v. Union of India (1960) under Article 19.
  4. Manifest unreasonableness or arbitrariness: Kruse v. Johnson (1898) for bye-laws; in India arbitrariness is itself a breach of Article 14; Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985), which collects the grounds and holds that subordinate legislation does not enjoy a statute's immunity while making clear that the court does not judge policy.
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  1. Mala fides, rarely established, the burden being heavy.
  2. Unauthorised sub-delegation: delegatus non potest delegare, Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works (1997).
  3. Retrospective operation without express authority in the parent Act.
  4. Imposing a tax, creating an offence, or ousting the jurisdiction of the courts without clear authority; Article 265 requires that no tax be levied except by authority of law.

3. Grounds of procedural ultra vires. The question is whether the prescribed procedure is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal.

  1. Prior publication of the draft and consideration of objections; Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 supplies the standard procedure.
  2. Consultation of an affected interest or a named body: Raza Buland Sugar Co. v. Municipal Board, Rampur (1965), the test being the object of the provision and the consequences of non-compliance; Banwarilal Agarwalla v. State of Bihar (1961).
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  1. Publication in the Official Gazette, generally mandatory: Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951), where an unpublished resolution of the former Jaipur State was held unenforceable; State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George (1965) on sufficiency of publication.
  2. Laying before the legislature: Atlas Cycle (1979), directory unless made a condition of validity.

4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden lies on the challenger. The court reviews legality, not merit; it will not strike down a rule because it thinks it unwise, harsh or capable of improvement, and it will not sit in judgment on policy, expert opinion or the allocation of resources.

5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and treated as never having been made. Severance is possible where the offending part is separable. Acts already done under it may in some cases be protected, and the court may confine its declaration prospectively.

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6. The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or Article 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and a collateral challenge, by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on the rule.

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(v)What is Tortious liability of Government? Give important cases.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the constitutional provision and the historical chain; the sovereign and non-sovereign distinction; the five landmark cases in order; the modern departure from Kasturilal; the constitutional tort; and the position today.

1. What it is. The liability of the State in damages for the wrongful acts of its servants committed in the course of employment. It is vicarious liability, and its source in India is Article 300.

2. The constitutional provision. Article 300(1): the Government of India may sue and be sued by the name of the Union of India, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.

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The words "in the like cases" carry the liability back through a chain: Article 300 to Section 176 of the Government of India Act, 1935, to Section 32 of the Government of India Act, 1915, to Section 65 of the Government of India Act, 1858, which fixed the liability of the Secretary of State for India by reference to the liability of the East India Company. The result is that the extent of the Government's liability today is still governed by the law as it stood in 1858, unless Parliament changes it, and Parliament never has.

3. The sovereign and non-sovereign distinction. Because the East India Company had a dual character, trading and governing, the courts drew a line: the State is liable for acts done in the exercise of its non-sovereign functions, being those a private person could also perform, and not for acts done in the exercise of its sovereign functions, being those only a State can perform, such as defence, the maintenance of law and order, the administration of justice and the collection of tax.

4. The landmark cases.

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  1. Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary of State for India (1861). A servant of the Government carrying a heavy piece of iron for a Government dockyard negligently injured the plaintiff's horse. Sir Barnes Peacock CJ held the Secretary of State liable, and laid down the distinction: no liability for acts done in the exercise of sovereign powers; liability for acts done in the conduct of undertakings which might be carried on by private persons.
  2. Secretary of State v. Hari Bhanji (1882, Madras). The High Court narrowed the immunity to acts of State, that is, acts done under a power not derived from municipal law and not cognisable by the ordinary courts; where the act is done under statutory authority, the citizen has his remedy.
  3. State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati (AIR 1962 SC 933). A jeep owned by the State and maintained for the official use of the Collector of Udaipur was being brought back from the workshop after repairs; the driver knocked down a pedestrian who died. The State was held liable: employing a driver to drive a car for a civil servant is "in no sense" a sovereign function, and the feudal maxim "the King can do no wrong" has no place in a republic.
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  1. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR 1965 SC 1039). Gold seized by the police from a partner of the firm was misappropriated by the head constable, who fled to Pakistan. The State was held not liable, the seizure having been made in exercise of a statutory power of arrest and seizure, a sovereign function. Gajendragadkar CJ nonetheless recorded his dissatisfaction with the law and urged legislation, which never came.
  2. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994). Fertiliser and foodgrain seized under the Essential Commodities Act deteriorated in the custody of the State. The State was held liable, and the Court held that Kasturilal has lost much of its relevance: in the modern State the sovereign and non-sovereign classification is outdated, and only inalienable functions, which no private person can perform at all, can claim immunity.
  3. Common Cause v. Union of India (1999) and State of Andhra Pradesh v. Challa Ramkrishna Reddy (2000). In the latter an undertrial was killed in a police lock-up despite warnings; the State was held liable, and the Court held that sovereign immunity is not available where a fundamental right under Article 21 is violated.
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5. The constitutional tort. Alongside the ordinary suit, the Supreme Court and the High Courts award compensation in writ proceedings for the violation of fundamental rights.

  1. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983): a man kept in jail for fourteen years after his acquittal was awarded compensation under Article 32;
  2. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) made the basis explicit: the remedy is a public law remedy based on strict liability for the contravention of fundamental rights, distinct from and in addition to the private law remedy in tort, and sovereign immunity is no defence to it;
  3. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down the custodial safeguards and confirmed the award of compensation;
  4. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum gas leak case, laid down absolute liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activity, without the exceptions of Rylands v. Fletcher.

6. The position today. The State is liable:

  1. for all acts done in the non-sovereign or commercial sphere;
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  1. for acts done under statutory powers where the act is beyond the power or negligent, following Nagendra Rao;
  2. for the violation of fundamental rights, in a writ petition, without regard to sovereign immunity;

and it remains immune only for the narrow class of inalienable sovereign functions and for acts of State properly so called. In addition, the officer himself is always personally liable for his own tort, whatever the position of the State.

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(vi)Answer any two:[12]

  • (a) CBI
  • (b) Right to know
  • (c) Doctrine of Proportionality

Answer

For full marks, answer two of the three at about six marks each. All three are set out below.

(a) CBI, the Central Bureau of Investigation

  1. What it is. The premier investigating agency of the Union, which investigates corruption, economic offences and serious and organised crime, and functions as the National Central Bureau for Interpol in India.
  2. Its legal basis, which is the examinable point. The CBI was created by a Government of India resolution of 1 April 1963 and has no statute of its own. Its powers of investigation are derived from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, which is the Act under which its members exercise police powers. In Navendra Kumar v. Union of India (2013) the Gauhati High Court held the 1963 resolution unconstitutional on this ground; that judgment was stayed by the Supreme Court and the question remains pending, which is worth a line.
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  1. Jurisdiction and its limits. Under Section 2 of the 1946 Act its jurisdiction extends to the Union territories; under Section 5 it may be extended to a State, but under Section 6 only with the consent of the State Government. Several States have withdrawn general consent in recent years, which is the source of much current litigation. The Supreme Court and the High Courts may nonetheless direct a CBI investigation without State consent: State of West Bengal v. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights (2010), a Constitution Bench, which held that such a direction is not a breach of federalism and is within Articles 32 and 226.
  2. Superintendence. Under Section 4(1) of the 1946 Act, superintendence in relation to offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 vests in the Central Vigilance Commission; in all other matters it vests in the Central Government. That division was introduced to insulate corruption investigations from the executive.
  3. Appointment and tenure of the Director. Appointed on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and the Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him, under Section 4A, with a minimum tenure of two years under Section 4B.
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  1. The reform decisions. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), the Jain Hawala case: the Supreme Court, by a continuing mandamus, directed statutory status for the Central Vigilance Commission, a two-year minimum tenure for the Director, and the abolition of the "single directive" requiring prior approval before investigating senior officers. Vineet Narain is the leading Indian example of the court supervising an institutional reform over time.
  2. Criticism. Dependence on State consent; delay; and the perception of political influence, which the Supreme Court described in one order in the coal allocation matter as the agency being "a caged parrot speaking in its master's voice".

(b) Right to know

  1. The right. The right to know is the right of a citizen to obtain information about the working of the Government and of public authorities. It is a facet of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), because a citizen cannot form or express an opinion on public affairs of which he is kept ignorant.
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  1. The case law. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975): "the people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything that is done in a public way by their public functionaries", and the Court held that in a Government of responsibility, where the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981): open government is the new democratic culture, and disclosure should be the rule. Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995): the right to receive information is part of Article 19(1)(a). Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002): the voter's right to know the criminal antecedents, assets and educational qualifications of a candidate.
  2. The statutory expression: the Right to Information Act, 2005. Section 2(f), information widely defined; 2(j), the right to inspect, take notes, take certified copies and samples; Section 4, suo motu disclosure; Sections 6 and 7, the application, without reasons, and reply within 30 days or 48 hours where life or liberty is at stake; Section 8, exemptions, with the public interest override in Section 8(2); Sections 18 and 19, complaint and two appeals to the Information Commission; Section 20, penalties; and Section 22, overriding effect over the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
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  1. Its limits. The right is not absolute. It yields to the grounds in Article 19(2) and to the exemptions in Section 8, and it must be balanced against the right to privacy, now a fundamental right after K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): see Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019).
  2. Why it belongs in this subject. It is a non-judicial control on administration: much maladministration is corrected by disclosure alone, without any litigation, and Section 4 is designed to make applications unnecessary.

(c) Doctrine of Proportionality

  1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that a measure be no more than is necessary to achieve its object, and that the burden imposed bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought: "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do".
  2. Origin. German administrative law, through the European Court of Justice and the European Convention into English law, where Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985) suggested it might become a fourth ground of review.
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  1. The four-part test, settled in India by Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): a legitimate aim; a rational connection; necessity, no less restrictive alternative being available; and a fair balance.
  2. Its two fields. Restrictions on fundamental rights, where "reasonable" in Articles 19(2) to (6) has always demanded something close to it, and Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) required the least restrictive measure; and the quantum of punishment, where Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987) set aside a "strikingly disproportionate" sentence, and Hind Construction and Engineering Co. v. Their Workmen (1965) held dismissal for a single day's absence excessive.
  3. Proportionality and Wednesbury. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001): where fundamental rights are affected the court applies proportionality as a primary reviewing authority; where the challenge is to an administrative decision or a punishment, it applies Wednesbury and interferes only if the decision shocks the conscience, remitting rather than substituting. Wednesbury asks about the decision-maker, proportionality about the decision.
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Colophon

This volume prints the 2019-20 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 50 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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