Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2019-20 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2019-20 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2019-20 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2019-20 examination, in the order it was set.
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The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2019-20 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 50 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Paper one, form 81549. Answer in short, not more than two sentences 20 Marks
Answer
Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005: "information" means any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models and data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
Answer
Two of the three requisites in Article 299(1) are that the contract must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor, and that it must be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor. The third is that it must be executed by a person authorised by them and in the manner directed.
Answer
An institutional decision is one taken by an organisation as a whole rather than by the individual who heard the case: the hearing is conducted by one officer, the file is examined and processed by others, and the order is signed by a superior who has not himself heard the party. It is the ordinary mode of decision-making in a large department, and it is sometimes called the institutional decision-making process.
Answer
Official bias, also called subject-matter bias, arises where the deciding authority has a general interest in the subject matter of the dispute, as distinct from a personal or financial interest in the parties, so that it cannot bring an open mind to the decision. The test, as always, is a real likelihood of bias.
Answer
Delegated legislation is law made by an executive or administrative authority under a power conferred on it by the legislature. Salmond: subordinate legislation "proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power, and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority".
It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions.
Answer
An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The institution began in Sweden in 1809, and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent.
In India the counterparts are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having created the first by its Act of 1971.
Answer
Answer
Substantive ultra vires means that the content of a rule or of an administrative act is beyond the power conferred by the parent statute or by the Constitution, as distinguished from procedural ultra vires, where the power existed but the prescribed procedure was not followed. The consequence is that the rule or act is void.
Answer
A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice.
Answer
From Article 320 of the Constitution, two functions are:
Paper one. Write short notes, any four 20 Marks
Answer
1. Meaning. Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts and not by the legislature, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials, applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.
2. Origin. It grew after the French Revolution out of a distrust of the ordinary courts, the parlements, which had obstructed reform. The law of 16 to 24 August 1790 forbade the ordinary courts from interfering with the administration. The Conseil d'Etat was created by Napoleon in 1799, at first merely advising the head of State, and acquired the power to decide (justice deleguee) in 1872.
3. Characteristics. Rules developed judicially by the administrative courts and not codified; the ordinary civil courts have no jurisdiction over the administration; disputes go to the administrative courts with the Conseil d'Etat at their head; conflicts of jurisdiction are resolved by the Tribunal des Conflits; the procedure is cheap, inquisitorial and accessible; and the central remedy is the recours pour exces de pouvoir, the action to annul an administrative act for excess of power.
4. Its main branches, as the writers describe them: the law relating to the status of administrative personnel; the law relating to the administration of public services; and the law relating to administrative adjudication.
5. Dicey's criticism. Dicey treated droit administratif as the antithesis of the rule of law, on two grounds: it gave officials a separate law, and it gave them separate courts, withdrawing them from the ordinary tribunals and so conferring a privileged position.
6. The answer to Dicey. The criticism is now regarded as based on a misunderstanding:
Answer
1. The doctrine. Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748): the legislative, executive and judicial powers should be vested in three separate organs; no organ should exercise the functions of another; and no person should be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty, because concentrated power is abused.
2. Comparative. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never applied it. India takes a middle position: functions differentiated, organs not insulated.
3. What reflects the doctrine in India. Article 50 (separation of the judiciary from the executive, a Directive Principle); Articles 53 and 154; Articles 121 and 211 (no discussion of a Judge's conduct); Articles 122 and 212 (no judicial inquiry into legislative procedure); Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); and the independence of the judiciary under Articles 124 to 147 and 214 to 231.
4. What departs from it. Ministerial responsibility to the legislature (Articles 74, 75, 163, 164); ordinances under Articles 123 and 213; the legislature's judicial functions (contempt, impeachment under Article 61); the judiciary's rule-making and appointment powers (Articles 145, 227, 229); the executive's adjudicatory functions through tribunals; and delegated legislation.
5. The cases. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955): the doctrine is not recognised "in its absolute rigidity", but the functions have been "sufficiently differentiated". Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment struck down as a usurpation of the judicial function. Kesavananda Bharati (1973): part of the basic structure. Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1989): courts must not enter the field of policy. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): the NJAC amendment struck down.
6. Conclusion. In India the doctrine is a principle of interpretation and a basic feature, not a rule of the text. What is forbidden is not overlap but the assumption by one organ of the essential function of another.
Answer
Citation. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150.
Facts. A Selection Board was constituted to select officers of the State Forest Service of Jammu and Kashmir for the Indian Forest Service. Naquishbund, the Acting Chief Conservator of Forests, was a member of the Selection Board and at the same time a candidate for selection. He did not sit when his own name was considered, but he took part in the deliberations on the claims of his rivals, and in the preparation of the final list in which he was placed at the top. The unsuccessful candidates challenged the selection.
Held. The selection was quashed. The Supreme Court laid down three propositions:
Answer
1. Object and constitutional foundation. The Act sets out a practical regime of the right to information for citizens, to secure access to information under the control of public authorities in order to promote transparency and accountability and to contain corruption. Its constitutional root is Article 19(1)(a): State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975), "the people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything that is done in a public way by their public functionaries"; S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981); Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002).
2. Salient provisions.
3. The case law. Central Board of Secondary Education v. Aditi Singh (2011): a candidate may inspect his own evaluated answer sheets. Reserve Bank of India v. Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015): the RBI could not withhold inspection reports and defaulter lists on a plea of fiduciary relationship. Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019): the office of the Chief Justice of India is a public authority under the Act.
4. Criticism. The Amendment Act of 2019 empowered the Central Government to fix the tenure, salary and conditions of service of the Information Commissioners, previously fixed by the Act itself, which is said to weaken their independence; there are heavy backlogs and long vacancies in the Commissions; and Section 4 is poorly implemented.
Answer
Parliamentary control exists because the rule-making power is Parliament's own, lent to the executive, and the lender retains the right to supervise. It works at three stages.
1. At the stage of delegation. Parliament fixes the policy and standard in the parent Act, since the essential legislative function cannot be delegated: In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 (1951); Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960). It also fixes the authority, the subject matter, the duration and the conditions of the power, and the delegation clause is debated when the Bill is passed.
2. Laying before the House, in three forms:
Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979): where the statute merely requires laying, the requirement is directory, so failure to lay does not invalidate the rule; where laying is a condition of validity, it is mandatory.
3. Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964), each of fifteen members with no Minister among them, examines whether a rule is within the power conferred, and in particular whether it imposes a tax, bars the jurisdiction of the courts, has retrospective effect without authority, involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, makes an unusual or unexpected use of the power, or has been laid or published after unjustifiable delay. It hears the department and reports to the House.
4. Other devices. Questions, half-an-hour discussions, motions and resolutions; the debate on the annual report of a statutory authority; and the ultimate control, amendment or repeal of the parent Act.
5. An honest assessment. The control is weak in practice: several thousand instruments are laid every year, the time for scrutiny is negligible, the negative resolution procedure requires a member to move a motion in a crowded House and almost never succeeds, and the committees can only report. That weakness is why judicial control carries the real weight in India.
Answer
1. What it is. The apex integrity and anti-corruption institution of the Union, exercising superintendence over the vigilance administration of the central Government and over the Delhi Special Police Establishment, that is the Central Bureau of Investigation, in so far as it investigates offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. Origin and status. Set up by a Government resolution in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. Given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, enacted in consequence of the directions of the Supreme Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1998), the Jain Hawala case, which directed that the Commission be given statutory status and the CBI be insulated from executive interference.
3. Composition. A Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term four years or until the age of 65. Removal only by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after a reference to the Supreme Court, which is the guarantee of independence.
4. Functions.
5. Limitations. Its advice is advisory only, though a departure must be recorded and reported; it cannot register a criminal case or investigate directly; it has no jurisdiction over State Government servants; and it depends on the Government for staff.
Paper one. Solve, any two 12 Marks
Answer
She should challenge the suspension as mala fide and as an interim measure prolonged into a punishment, and seek reinstatement, before the Central Administrative Tribunal and thereafter the High Court.
Article 311, read with Articles 310, 14 and 16.
Answer
But the director made an invariable rule that he will grant exemption only if the person has completed thirteen years of age.
Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "in deserving cases", "where it appears to the authority" and "in the public interest".
Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case, and a welfare State must license, allot, exempt, subsidise and regulate on facts that vary case by case. Dicey thought discretion the enemy of the rule of law; the modern answer is that the enemy is unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy, in Davis's phrase, is to confine, structure and check it.
Its four inherent limits. A statutory discretion is never a free power. It must be exercised by the authority named, for the purpose for which it was given, on relevant considerations, and by a fair procedure. Every ground of judicial review is one of those four limits stated differently, and the courts group them under two heads: failure to exercise the discretion, and abuse of it.
Yes. The Director's invariable rule is bad, and an applicant refused under it is entitled to have his case considered on its merits.
Answer
These are the facts of Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi, (1981) 1 SCC 722, a Constitution Bench decision.
Yes. The allocation of one-third of the total marks to the oral interview is arbitrary and violates Article 14.
The judgment in Ajay Hasia:
The later development, worth one line. Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985) refined the norm: for higher services, where personality and suitability matter more, a somewhat larger percentage may be permissible, but for ordinary recruitment the interview must remain a small proportion; and a member of a Public Service Commission related to a candidate must withdraw from that candidate's assessment.
Paper one. Answer the following, any four 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: three definitions with criticism; the nature of the subject; then the sources in detail, since that is what the question asks for, under six heads; the distinction from constitutional law; and the scope, briefly.
1. Definitions.
2. Nature, in short. Public law; judge-made and uncodified in India; functional rather than conceptual; dynamic; and organised around power and its control.
3. The sources of administrative law in India.
(a) The Constitution. This is the primary source, and it distinguishes Indian from English administrative law. It supplies:
(b) Statutes. Every administrative power a student meets comes from an Act: the Industrial Disputes Act, the Income Tax Act, the Essential Commodities Act, the Motor Vehicles Act, the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Statute is also the source of the procedure the authority must follow.
(c) Delegated legislation. The rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders and notifications made under those Acts, which vastly outnumber the Acts themselves and which are both a source of administrative law and one of its principal subjects.
(d) Judicial decisions and precedent. This is the most important source of the governing principles, because almost none of them is enacted in India. Natural justice, the doctrine of ultra vires, the grounds of review of discretion, promissory estoppel, legitimate expectation, the instrumentality test under Article 12 and the constitutional tort are all judge-made: A.K. Kraipak (1970), Maneka Gandhi (1978), In re Delhi Laws Act (1951), Barium Chemicals (1967), Ajay Hasia (1981), Nilabati Behera (1993).
(e) Administrative directions, circulars and departmental practice. These are not law in the strict sense and confer no enforceable right by themselves, but they bind the administration internally, may found a legitimate expectation, and may be enforced under Article 14 where a departure from them is arbitrary: Food Corporation of India v. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries (1993).
(f) Reports of committees and commissions, persuasive rather than binding: the Committee on Ministers' Powers (Donoughmore), 1932 and the Franks Committee, 1957 in England; the Administrative Reforms Commissions of 1966 and 2005 and the Law Commission of India reports in India.
Some writers add custom and usage, and international conventions, which the courts have used to fill gaps, as in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), where the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women was applied in the absence of domestic law.
4. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of power, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of that power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In England, without a written constitution, the two were long treated as one; in India the dependence is close but the line is real.
5. Scope, briefly. The organisation of administrative authorities; delegated legislation; tribunals; natural justice; discretion; judicial review and the writs; State liability; the civil services; public undertakings; and the institutional controls.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the origin of the idea; Dicey's three propositions in his own terms, since the question names him; the criticism of each; the modern restatement; the reception of the doctrine in India, with the constitutional provisions; six Indian cases; and the departures.
1. Origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it is subject to law, that power may be exercised only under and according to law, and that no one is above the law. The phrase renders the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry runs from Bracton in the thirteenth century, that the King is under God and the law, to Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I.
2. Dicey's three propositions, from the Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885).
3. The criticism.
4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi in 1959 restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. That is the version which fits a welfare State and the Directive Principles.
5. Its reception in India. India accepts the first two propositions and reverses the third. The doctrine is embodied in: the Preamble; Article 13; Article 14 (equality before the law, and after E.P. Royappa a guarantee against arbitrariness); Article 19 (restrictions must be reasonable and by law); Article 20; Article 21 (procedure established by law, which after Maneka Gandhi must be right, just and fair); Article 22; Articles 265 and 300A; Articles 32 and 226; Article 300; and the independence of the judiciary.
6. The Indian case law.
7. The departures in India. Article 361 (immunity of the President and Governors); Articles 105 and 194 (legislative privilege); preventive detention under Article 22; the Emergency provisions in Articles 352 to 360, though after the 44th Amendment Articles 20 and 21 can no longer be suspended; wide administrative discretion; and tribunals in place of the ordinary courts.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; substantive ultra vires under nine heads with a case for each; procedural ultra vires with the publication cases; the presumption of validity and the limits of review; the effect of a rule being struck down; and the remedies.
1. Why judicial control matters most. Parliamentary control is weak: several thousand instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, at the instance of the person affected, and it works through the doctrine of ultra vires, which has two branches.
2. Substantive ultra vires: the content is beyond the power.
3. Procedural ultra vires: the rule was made in the wrong way. The question is whether the prescribed procedure is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal, of a directory one is not.
4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden lies on the challenger. The court will not strike a rule down because it thinks it unwise, harsh or capable of improvement; it reviews legality, not merit, and will not sit in judgment on policy, expert opinion or the allocation of resources.
5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and treated as never having been made. Severance is possible where the offending part is separable and the remainder can operate independently. Acts already done under it may in some circumstances be protected, and the court may confine the effect of its declaration prospectively.
6. The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or Article 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and a collateral challenge, by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on the rule.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reasons for the rule; its seven components, each with a case; the landmark decisions; the exceptions; the effect of a breach; and the flexibility of the rule.
1. Meaning. Audi alteram partem means "hear the other side", or that no man shall be condemned unheard. It is the second and larger rule of natural justice, and it requires that a person to be affected by a decision be given notice of the case against him and a fair opportunity to answer it. It is expressed in the maxim audi alteram partem, nemo inauditus condemnetur.
2. Why the rule exists. It improves the quality of the decision, because the authority hears facts it would otherwise never learn; it is required by fairness to a person whose livelihood, liberty or reputation is at stake; and it produces acceptance, because a man who has been heard accepts an adverse decision as he does not accept one taken behind his back.
3. The components of the rule.
4. The landmark decisions.
5. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion, express or by necessary implication; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability, as in Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), where the results of an entire examination centre were cancelled for mass copying; legislative action, including subordinate legislation of a general character; confidentiality and the security of the State; the "useless formality" exception, applied narrowly; purely administrative or contractual matters affecting no right; interim preventive measures such as suspension pending inquiry; waiver; and, in service law, the second proviso to Article 311(2) as construed in Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985).
6. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not merely voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974). The court quashes it and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred; it does not decide the merits itself. Relief may still be refused for laches, waiver or acquiescence, and may be moulded where no prejudice is shown (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993), but the "no prejudice" argument is construed narrowly: S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980) holds that non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice.
7. Its flexibility. The content of the rule is variable. What fairness requires in the dismissal of a public servant is not what it requires in the cancellation of a ration licence or the seizure of adulterated food, and the courts have consistently refused to prescribe a fixed procedure. That flexibility is a feature and not a defect: a rigid rule would either cripple the administration or fail the individual.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin; the four-part test; its two fields of operation; the punishment cases; the relation to Wednesbury and the Om Kumar division of labour; the criticism; and the modern expansion.
1. Meaning. Proportionality requires that a measure adopted by an authority be no more than is necessary to achieve its object, and that the burden it imposes bear a reasonable relation to the benefit sought. In the familiar formulation, "you must not use a steam hammer to crack a nut if a nutcracker would do". The court asks whether the authority has maintained a proper balance between the adverse effects on rights and the purpose sought to be served.
2. Origin. The doctrine comes from German administrative law (Verhaltnismassigkeit), where it developed in the nineteenth century as a control on police powers. It passed through the European Court of Justice and the European Convention on Human Rights into English law, where Lord Diplock in Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985) listed illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety as the grounds of review and added that proportionality might in time be recognised as a fourth.
3. The four-part test, as settled in India by Modern Dental College and Research Centre v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):
4. Its two fields of operation in Indian administrative law.
(a) Restrictions on fundamental rights. The word "reasonable" in Articles 19(2) to (6) has always demanded something close to proportionality, and the modern cases apply the four-part test in terms: Puttaswamy on privacy; Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), where internet shutdowns and orders under Section 144 were held to require the least restrictive measure, publication of the order and recorded reasons; Modern Dental College on the regulation of private professional colleges.
(b) Quantum of punishment. Where a penalty is grossly excessive, the court may interfere:
5. Proportionality and Wednesbury.
6. Criticism. Proportionality is said to draw the court into the merits, and so to blur the line between review and appeal; to require the court to weigh incommensurable interests, such as liberty against security, for which it has no expert competence; and to trespass on the separation of powers, since the choice among available means is ordinarily for the executive. The answer is that the court is not choosing the policy but testing whether the chosen means bears a rational and necessary relation to it, and that where a fundamental right is in issue, a deferential test would leave the right unprotected.
7. The modern expansion. Since Puttaswamy (2017) the four-part test has been applied well beyond the classical fundamental-rights cases, in the privacy, internet-shutdown and Aadhaar matters, and the strict Om Kumar division is under pressure. In an examination it is safest to state Om Kumar as the settled position and then note that expansion.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and the change in locus standi; why it arose; the procedural innovations with cases; the role of the Supreme Court under subject heads with the leading case in each; the criticism; and the safeguards the Court has itself laid down.
1. Definition. Public interest litigation is litigation brought before a constitutional court not by the person whose right is infringed but by a public-spirited citizen or organisation, for the enforcement of the rights of a person or class who, by reason of poverty, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position, are unable to approach the court themselves. It is also called social action litigation.
2. The foundation: relaxation of locus standi. The classical rule was that only the person aggrieved could sue. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Judges' Transfer case, changed it: Bhagwati J. held that where a legal wrong or injury is caused to a person or a determinate class who by reason of poverty, helplessness, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position are unable to approach the court, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32.
3. Why it arose. The ordinary machinery of justice does not reach the poor: litigation is costly, slow and technical, and the illiterate and destitute do not know their rights, cannot draft a petition and cannot afford counsel. Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid, and PIL is the judicial answer to the same problem.
4. The procedural innovations.
5. The role of the Supreme Court as protector of rights, by subject.
6. The criticism. That PIL breaches the separation of powers and amounts to judicial legislation; that courts decide questions of policy and resource allocation for which they have neither expertise nor accountability; that many orders are unenforceable and unmonitored; that PIL has become publicity interest and private interest litigation, used by busybodies, commercial rivals and for political ends; and that it has sometimes been used against the very poor for whom it was created, as in some eviction and street-vendor matters.
7. The safeguards the Court has laid down. State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010): the Supreme Court directed the High Courts to frame rules for PIL, to verify the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the contents, to be satisfied that substantial public interest is involved, and to discourage petitions filed for extraneous motives, imposing exemplary costs where necessary.
Paper two, form 60670. Answer in short, not more than two sentences 20 Marks
Answer
A writ is a formal written order issued by a superior court commanding a person, authority or inferior tribunal to do or to refrain from doing something. The five writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.
They are issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32, for the enforcement of fundamental rights only, and by the High Courts under Article 226, for fundamental rights and for any other purpose, so the High Court's jurisdiction is wider.
Answer
Sub-delegation is the further delegation, by a delegate, of the power that the parent statute delegated to him. The rule is delegatus non potest delegare, a delegate cannot further delegate, so sub-delegation is invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.
Answer
A Henry VIII clause is a provision in a statute empowering the executive to modify or adapt the Act itself, usually in the form of a power to make such provision as appears necessary for removing difficulties in giving effect to it.
It is named after King Henry VIII, who by the Statute of Proclamations, 1539 was empowered to legislate by proclamation, and the name is a symbol of executive absolutism in law-making.
Answer
From Article 320:
Answer
Limitation is the statutory period fixed by the Limitation Act, 1963 within which a suit, appeal or application must be filed; it is a rule of law, it is fixed in years, and once it expires the remedy is barred. Laches is an equitable doctrine: unreasonable and unexplained delay in seeking a discretionary remedy, from which the court infers acquiescence and by reason of which the position of others has altered to their prejudice; it is not fixed in years, and its effect is that the court declines relief.
Answer
Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the validity of legislative and executive action and to declare void anything that exceeds or abuses the power conferred by the Constitution or by a statute. Its sources are Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, 245 and 246, and it is part of the basic structure.
Its three grounds, from the GCHQ case (1985), are illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety, with proportionality where fundamental rights are affected.
Answer
Two characteristics are:
Answer
A speaking order is an order which speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision, and the duty to pass one is now the third principle of natural justice.
Answer
Salus populi est suprema lex: "the welfare of the people is the supreme law". It is the maxim that the good of the public is the highest law, and that where private interest conflicts with the general welfare, the general welfare prevails.
Answer
Legitimate expectation is the doctrine that where a public authority has made an express promise, or has followed a regular and settled practice, a person affected may reasonably expect it to be honoured or continued, and that expectation cannot be defeated without fairness, which at the least means a hearing.
It is not an enforceable right to the benefit; it is a ground of judicial review, treated in India as an aspect of the non-arbitrariness required by Article 14.
Paper two. Write short notes, any four 20 Marks
Answer
1. The author and the work. A.V. Dicey, Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (1885). He treated the rule of law, along with parliamentary sovereignty, as one of the two pillars of the English constitution.
2. His three propositions.
3. The criticism.
4. What survives of Dicey. The core survives and is still the foundation of the subject: that power must have a legal source; that no one is above the law, including the Government; and that the courts, and not the executive, decide whether power has been lawfully exercised. It is the second and third propositions in their historical detail, and not the idea itself, that have been discarded.
5. In India. The doctrine is embodied in the Preamble, Articles 13, 14, 19, 20, 21, 22, 265, 300A, 300, 32 and 226, and the independence of the judiciary; it was held part of the basic structure in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and applied in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975); its low point was ADM Jabalpur (1976), overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017); and it became substantive in Maneka Gandhi (1978).
Answer
1. What they are. The civil service is the body of permanent, professional, salaried officials, recruited on merit, who carry on the administration under the direction of the political executive. Its characteristics are permanence, political neutrality, anonymity, merit recruitment and hierarchy.
2. Origin. From the covenanted service of the East India Company; the Charter Act of 1853 introduced open competition; the Macaulay Committee, 1854 designed the examination; and the Indian Civil Service was the "steel frame" of British India. After independence Sardar Patel secured the retention of an All India service, and the IAS and IPS were constituted under the All India Services Act, 1951.
3. Classification.
Employees of local authorities and statutory corporations are not civil servants of the Union or a State and do not have the protection of Article 311.
4. The constitutional framework, Articles 308 to 323. Article 309 (recruitment and conditions of service, by law or by rules of the President or Governor); Article 310 (doctrine of pleasure); Article 311 (safeguards); Article 312 (All India Services); Articles 315 to 323 (Public Service Commissions, with independence secured by Article 317 and expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund by Article 322).
5. Functions. Policy advice; implementation of law and policy; drafting delegated legislation; quasi-judicial adjudication in assessment, licensing and departmental appeals; financial administration; and continuity across changes of government.
6. Safeguards and controls. Article 311(1), no removal by a subordinate authority (State of Madhya Pradesh v. Shardul Singh, 1970); Article 311(2), an inquiry with a reasonable opportunity of being heard, subject to the three exceptions in the second proviso (Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel, 1985); Articles 14 and 16 (E.P. Royappa, 1974); and, on the other side, control through the Central Vigilance Commission, the Lokpal, the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Right to Information Act, 2005.
7. Criticism and reform. Excessive generalism at senior levels; political interference in postings and transfers; frequent transfers destroying continuity; delay; and the difficulty of removing an inefficient officer. T.S.R. Subramanian v. Union of India (2013) directed a minimum fixed tenure, a Civil Services Board to advise on postings and transfers, and that oral instructions from political superiors not be acted on.
Answer
1. What a public corporation is. A body corporate created by a special statute, or registered under the Companies Act with a controlling Government shareholding, to carry on a commercial, industrial, developmental or regulatory undertaking on behalf of the State, having a separate legal personality, its own funds and freedom from ordinary departmental procedure. Justice Douglas: it combines "the public ownership, public accountability and devotion to public purpose of a governmental agency with the flexibility and initiative of a private enterprise".
2. By mode of creation.
3. By function.
4. The older jurisprudential division. A corporation sole, an office held in succession by one natural person, the office being distinguished from the holder, as with the President of India or the Comptroller and Auditor General; and a corporation aggregate, a body of persons united for a common purpose.
5. Why the classification matters. It fixes the source and limit of the powers, since a statutory corporation may do only what its Act allows and its acts may be attacked as ultra vires; and it bears on whether the body is "the State" under Article 12, which decides whether it is bound by Articles 14 and 16 and amenable to Article 226: Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967); Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram (1975); Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (1981), with its six tests; Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002), restating the test as functional, financial and administrative domination.
Answer
1. Meaning. Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts, not by the legislature, governing the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials, applied by a separate hierarchy of courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat.
2. Origin. It grew after the French Revolution out of distrust of the ordinary courts, the parlements. The law of 16 to 24 August 1790 forbade the ordinary courts from interfering with the administration; the Conseil d'Etat was created by Napoleon in 1799 and acquired the power to decide, justice deleguee, in 1872.
3. Characteristics. Judge-made and uncodified rules; no jurisdiction in the ordinary civil courts over the administration; the Conseil d'Etat at the head of a separate hierarchy; the Tribunal des Conflits to resolve conflicts of jurisdiction; cheap, inquisitorial and accessible procedure; and the central remedy, the recours pour exces de pouvoir, the action to annul an act for excess of power.
4. Its branches. The law relating to the status of administrative personnel; the law relating to the administration of public services; and the law relating to administrative adjudication.
5. Dicey's criticism and the answer to it. Dicey treated it as the antithesis of the rule of law, because it gave officials a separate law and separate courts. The criticism is now regarded as mistaken: the Conseil d'Etat is independent and staffed by career judges of standing; its control is in several respects stricter than the English courts', having developed the liability of the State for the faults of its servants when the English Crown could not be sued at all; its remedy is cheap and effective; and Dicey himself modified his views later.
6. Its relevance in India. India follows the English model: one law and one set of courts, the administration being controlled through Articles 32 and 226. But India has moved a long way towards the French position in substance by creating tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B for whole classes of dispute, and the argument in S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997) about whether a tribunal may replace the High Court is the same argument Dicey was having.
Answer
1. Meaning. An Ombudsman is an independent, non-partisan officer of the legislature who investigates complaints by citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress. The word is Swedish and means a representative or agent.
2. Origin and spread. Created in Sweden in 1809, when the Riksdag appointed the Justitieombudsman to supervise the observance of the law by judges and officials. It spread to Finland (1919), Denmark (1955), Norway (1962), New Zealand (1962) and the United Kingdom's Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration (1967).
3. Characteristics. Independence, being appointed by and answerable to the legislature with a fixed tenure; jurisdiction over maladministration, meaning bias, neglect, delay, inattention, incompetence, arbitrariness and rudeness, and not merely over illegality; easy access, on a simple complaint without fee, formality or advocate, and often on his own motion; wide powers of investigation, including access to files and the power to summon officials; and recommendatory conclusions, enforced by report and publicity rather than by decree.
4. In India.
5. Merits and limitations. He is cheap, quick and informal; he can reach conduct no court can review; and he improves administration by the mere possibility of scrutiny. Against that, his findings bind nobody; his jurisdiction is hedged with exclusions; he depends on the executive for staff and funds; and in India appointments have often been delayed for years, the first Lokpal being appointed only in March 2019.
Answer
Citation. Ridge v. Baldwin, [1964] AC 40 (House of Lords).
Facts. Charles Ridge, Chief Constable of Brighton, was prosecuted for conspiracy to obstruct the course of justice and acquitted, but the trial judge made observations critical of his leadership of the force. The Watch Committee met and dismissed him under Section 191(4) of the Municipal Corporations Act, 1882, which permitted the dismissal of a constable found "negligent in the discharge of his duty, or otherwise unfit for the same". He was given no notice of any charge and no hearing, and was not present.
Held. The dismissal was void for breach of natural justice. The House of Lords, Lord Reid delivering the leading speech, held:
Paper two. Answer the situational based questions, any two 12 Marks
Answer
But the Director made an invariable rule that he will grant exemption only if the person has completed thirteen years of age.
This is the same problem as question 18 on the first paper of this scan, set again on the second. The answer is the same, and it is worth noticing that the University set it twice in one sitting.
Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its own judgment. Statutes confer it in the language of "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "in deserving cases" and "in the public interest".
Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case; a welfare State must license, allot, exempt and regulate on facts that vary case by case. Dicey thought discretion the enemy of the rule of law; the modern answer is that the enemy is unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy is to confine, structure and check it.
Its four inherent limits. The power must be exercised by the authority named, for the purpose for which it was given, on relevant considerations, and by a fair procedure. Judicial control is grouped under two heads: failure to exercise the discretion, and abuse of it.
Yes.
Answer
It was contended that the provisions of Article 299(1) of the Constitution had not been fulfilled and therefore the contract was not enforceable.
These are, in substance, the facts of State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons, AIR 1962 SC 779.
Article 299(1) provides that all contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State:
Two related provisions complete the picture. Article 298 is the source of the power to contract, giving the Union and the States executive power to carry on trade and business and to make contracts for any purpose. Article 299(2) provides that neither the President nor the Governor, nor the person executing a contract on their behalf, shall be personally liable in respect of it.
The character of the requirements. They are mandatory, not directory. The purpose is protective: to safeguard the public exchequer from being bound by the casual or unauthorised promises of individual officers, and to ensure that public money is committed only by a person the Government has authorised. Consequently a contract not made in the prescribed form is void, unenforceable against the Government, and incapable of ratification, because there is nothing in existence to ratify: Mulamchand v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1968); Bihar Eastern Gangetic Fishermen Co-operative Society v. Sipahi Singh (1977). Chatturbhuj Vithaldas Jasani v. Moreshwar Parashram (1954) took a more indulgent view where the contract was in substance made by an authorised officer, but later decisions have applied the Article strictly.
He cannot sue on the contract, but he can recover the value of the building under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, on the principle of quantum meruit.
Answer
Yes. Any member of the public acting bona fide may oppose it, by a petition for a writ of quo warranto under Article 226. He need not have been a candidate and need show no personal right.
Quo warranto in detail:
Paper two. Explain in detail, any four 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: three definitions with criticism; the nature of the subject; ten heads of scope; nine reasons for growth with illustrations; the distinction from constitutional law; and the sources, briefly.
1. Definitions. Ivor Jennings: "the law relating to the administration; it determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities" (criticised as too wide, and silent about control). K.C. Davis: the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, especially the law governing judicial review (criticised for neglecting rule-making). Sir William Wade: "the law relating to the control of governmental power." The Indian Law Institute adds the procedure for obtaining relief and the legislative control of the administration.
2. Nature. Public law; judge-made and uncodified in India; functional rather than conceptual; dynamic; and organised around power and its control.
3. Scope. Administrative law covers:
4. Reasons for its growth.
5. Administrative law and constitutional law. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the State and the distribution of power, the government at rest; administrative law with the exercise of power in daily administration, the government in motion. The first is the genus, the second a species. In India the dependence is close, because Articles 14, 21, 226, 299, 300 and 311 supply so much of the subject.
6. Sources. The Constitution, first; statutes; delegated legislation; judicial decisions, which supply nearly all the principles; and administrative directions and practice.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the doctrine and its author; the three propositions; the position in the United States and England; the Indian legal system, under two lists with Article numbers; six judicial decisions; the modern functional statement; and the consequences for administrative law.
1. The doctrine. Baron de Montesquieu, L'Esprit des Lois (1748), building on Aristotle and Locke. Its three propositions: one organ should not exercise the functions of another; one organ should not interfere with the functions of another; and one person should not be a member of more than one organ. The object is liberty: "when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person, or in the same body of magistrates, there can be no liberty".
2. Comparative. The United States applies it strictly by constitutional text, tempered by checks and balances. England has never accepted it: the Cabinet sits in Parliament, and the House of Lords was the final court of appeal until 2009. India occupies a middle position.
3. In the Indian legal system: what reflects the doctrine.
4. What departs from it.
5. The judicial decisions.
6. The modern functional statement. In India the doctrine is not a rule that each organ must confine itself to its own work, but a rule that no organ may take over the essential function of another. Delegated legislation and tribunals are tolerated because the essential function stays where the Constitution placed it; a statute deciding a particular case, or a court framing general economic policy, is not.
7. Its consequences for administrative law. Administrative law exists precisely because the doctrine is not applied rigidly. The administration legislates and adjudicates, and the constitutional response is control rather than prohibition, in two specific forms: the essential legislative function must remain with the legislature (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, 1951), and the High Court's power of review over tribunals cannot be removed (L. Chandra Kumar, 1997).
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and the reason the rules have no fixed content; the rule against bias with five forms and cases; the hearing rule with seven components and cases; the reasoned-order rule; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach. The question says "with the help of Supreme Court judgments", so every proposition should carry a case.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the procedural fairness the law requires of anyone deciding a question affecting another's rights or legitimate interests. It is not a code, and what it requires depends on the nature of the power, the framework of the statute and the consequences to the individual. In India it rests on Articles 14 and 21, so a breach is a constitutional wrong.
2. First principle: nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause. The test, settled in A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970), is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but be seen to be done.
The exception: the doctrine of necessity. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (1990); Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985), where a Public Service Commission member related to a candidate withdrew only from that candidate's assessment.
3. Second principle: audi alteram partem, hear the other side. Its components:
The Supreme Court judgments to cite: A.K. Kraipak (1970), extending natural justice to administrative action and holding the line between administrative and quasi-judicial to be "gradually being obliterated"; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), holding the rule implicit in Articles 14 and 21, excludable only by express words or necessary implication, and accepting a post-decisional hearing; Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981), holding a post-decisional hearing a "poor substitute"; Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978), that an order must be judged by the reasons stated in it; Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), pavement dwellers entitled to be heard; National Textile Workers' Union v. P.R. Ramakrishnan (1983), workers entitled to be heard in a winding-up petition although the statute did not name them. The English foundation is Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) and Ridge v. Baldwin (1964).
4. Third principle: the reasoned or speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976): recording reasons is "a basic principle of natural justice". S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990), a Constitution Bench: reasons must be recorded unless expressly or by necessary implication dispensed with. Kranti Associates v. Masood Ahmed Khan (2010) collects the modern propositions.
5. Exceptions. Statutory exclusion; emergency, subject to a post-decisional hearing; impracticability, Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), mass copying at a whole centre; legislative action; confidentiality and security of the State; the narrow "useless formality" exception; purely administrative or contractual matters; interim preventive measures; waiver; and the second proviso to Article 311(2), Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985), which holds that the proviso excludes the inquiry and not natural justice at large, and that the recorded satisfaction is justiciable.
6. Effect of a breach. The order is void, not voidable: Nawabkhan Abbaskhan v. State of Gujarat (1974); A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak (1988). The court quashes it and remits the matter to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred. Relief may be refused for laches or waiver, and may be moulded where no prejudice is shown (Managing Director, ECIL v. B. Karunakar, 1993), but S.L. Kapoor v. Jagmohan (1980) holds that non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why judicial control is the effective control; substantive ultra vires under nine grounds with a case for each; procedural ultra vires under four; the presumption of validity and the limits of review; the effect of a rule being struck down; and the remedies.
1. Why judicial control matters most. Parliamentary control is weak: several thousand instruments are laid each year, the laying requirement is usually directory (Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana, 1979), and the Committee on Subordinate Legislation can only report. Procedural control operates only where the parent Act provides for it. Judicial control operates always, at the instance of the person affected, through the doctrine of ultra vires.
2. Grounds of substantive ultra vires.
3. Grounds of procedural ultra vires. The question is whether the prescribed procedure is mandatory or directory; breach of a mandatory requirement is fatal.
4. The presumption of validity and the limits of review. Subordinate legislation is presumed valid and the burden lies on the challenger. The court reviews legality, not merit; it will not strike down a rule because it thinks it unwise, harsh or capable of improvement, and it will not sit in judgment on policy, expert opinion or the allocation of resources.
5. Effect of a rule being held ultra vires. The rule is void and treated as never having been made. Severance is possible where the offending part is separable. Acts already done under it may in some cases be protected, and the court may confine its declaration prospectively.
6. The remedies. A writ petition under Article 226 or Article 32 for a declaration that the rule is void, with certiorari to quash an order made under it and prohibition to restrain its enforcement; a civil suit for a declaration and an injunction; and a collateral challenge, by way of defence to a prosecution or a demand founded on the rule.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the constitutional provision and the historical chain; the sovereign and non-sovereign distinction; the five landmark cases in order; the modern departure from Kasturilal; the constitutional tort; and the position today.
1. What it is. The liability of the State in damages for the wrongful acts of its servants committed in the course of employment. It is vicarious liability, and its source in India is Article 300.
2. The constitutional provision. Article 300(1): the Government of India may sue and be sued by the name of the Union of India, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.
The words "in the like cases" carry the liability back through a chain: Article 300 to Section 176 of the Government of India Act, 1935, to Section 32 of the Government of India Act, 1915, to Section 65 of the Government of India Act, 1858, which fixed the liability of the Secretary of State for India by reference to the liability of the East India Company. The result is that the extent of the Government's liability today is still governed by the law as it stood in 1858, unless Parliament changes it, and Parliament never has.
3. The sovereign and non-sovereign distinction. Because the East India Company had a dual character, trading and governing, the courts drew a line: the State is liable for acts done in the exercise of its non-sovereign functions, being those a private person could also perform, and not for acts done in the exercise of its sovereign functions, being those only a State can perform, such as defence, the maintenance of law and order, the administration of justice and the collection of tax.
4. The landmark cases.
5. The constitutional tort. Alongside the ordinary suit, the Supreme Court and the High Courts award compensation in writ proceedings for the violation of fundamental rights.
6. The position today. The State is liable:
and it remains immune only for the narrow class of inalienable sovereign functions and for acts of State properly so called. In addition, the officer himself is always personally liable for his own tort, whatever the position of the State.
Answer
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This volume prints the 2019-20 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 50 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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