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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7 Administrative Law 2017-18 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Administrative Law

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7

2017-18 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

This edition revised 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.

The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: 1. Figures to the right indicate full marks.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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Q.1

Answer in one/two sentences 20 Marks

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(1)Define Administrative law.[2]

Answer

Ivor Jennings: administrative law is "the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."

K.C. Davis: it is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.

In substance it is the branch of public law that governs how the executive is organised, what powers it may exercise, by what procedure it must exercise them, and what remedies lie when it exceeds or abuses them.

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(2)Write the requisites of a Government contract?[2]

Answer

Article 299(1) of the Constitution lays down three requisites for a valid contract with the Union or a State:

  1. it must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor, as the case may be;
  2. it must be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor; and
  3. it must be executed by a person authorised by the President or the Governor and in the manner directed.

To these the general law adds that the contract must satisfy Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and, being a State contract, must not be arbitrary or discriminatory under Article 14.

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(3)What is droit administratif?[2]

Answer

Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts, and not by the ordinary civil courts, which governs the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials.

At its apex is the Conseil d'Etat, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration and to which an aggrieved citizen goes instead of to the ordinary courts.

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(4)What do you understand by injunction?[2]

Answer

An injunction is an equitable order of a court directing a person to do, or more usually to refrain from doing, a particular act. It is governed by Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

Injunctions are temporary (granted during the pendency of a suit, under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2, Code of Civil Procedure) or perpetual (granted by the decree at the hearing, under Section 38), and in form either prohibitory (restraining an act) or mandatory (compelling the undoing of an act, under Section 39).

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(5)What is speaking order?[2]

Answer

A speaking order is an order that speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision.

The requirement to pass a speaking order is now treated as the third principle of natural justice, alongside the rule against bias and the right to be heard, and applies to quasi-judicial and to most administrative orders affecting rights.

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(6)What is sub-delegation?[2]

Answer

Sub-delegation is the further delegation, by a delegate, of the power that the parent statute delegated to him, to some other authority or officer.

The rule is expressed in the maxim delegatus non potest delegare: a delegate cannot further delegate. Sub-delegation is therefore invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.

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(7)What are the different types of public corporations?[2]

Answer

Public corporations are classified as:

  1. Statutory corporations, created by a special Act of Parliament or a State legislature which fixes their powers, duties and management, for example the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC Act, 1956), the Reserve Bank of India and the Food Corporation of India;
  2. Registered or Government companies, incorporated under the Companies Act with not less than 51 per cent of the paid-up capital held by the Government, for example Steel Authority of India Ltd.; and
  3. Chartered corporations, created by royal charter, a class of historical importance only in India.

A further working division is into commercial, development, financial, promotional and regulatory or social service corporations, by the function performed.

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(8)Write the concept of legitimate expectation.[2]

Answer

The doctrine of legitimate expectation protects a person who, because of an express promise by a public authority or because of a regular and settled practice, reasonably expects a benefit or a hearing, from having that expectation defeated without fairness.

It gives, at the least, a right to be heard before the expectation is departed from, and it makes the departure reviewable for arbitrariness under Article 14.

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(9)What is post-decisional hearing?[2]

Answer

A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in a case where a pre-decisional hearing was not possible because the situation required immediate action.

It is a substitute in exceptional cases, not the rule. The order remains provisional in effect until the hearing is held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered.

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(10)Who is an Ombudsman?[2]

Answer

An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress.

The institution began in Sweden in 1809 and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent. In India the corresponding offices are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, created by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having led the way with the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971.

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Q.2

Short notes

Any four · 20 Marks

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(1)Judicial review[5]

Answer

Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the legality of the action of the legislature and the executive, and to declare invalid anything done in excess of, or in abuse of, the powers conferred by the Constitution or by a statute.

Its constitutional basis. Articles 32 and 226 (writ jurisdiction), Articles 13, 245 and 246 (legislative competence and fundamental rights), and Article 136 (special leave). In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) judicial review was held to be part of the basic structure of the Constitution and beyond the amending power.

What it reviews, and what it does not. The court examines the decision-making process, not the merits of the decision. It asks whether the authority had the power, whether it observed the procedure and the principles of natural justice, and whether it took into account the right considerations. It does not sit in appeal and does not substitute its own view for that of the authority.

The three grounds, from Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985), the GCHQ case, adopted in India:

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  1. Illegality: the authority misdirected itself in law, acted without jurisdiction, or acted ultra vires the parent Act;
  2. Irrationality: the decision is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could have come to it, the Wednesbury standard from Associated Provincial Picture Houses v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948);
  3. Procedural impropriety: breach of natural justice or of the procedure laid down by the statute.

Lord Diplock added that proportionality might in time be a fourth ground, and Indian courts now apply it where fundamental rights are affected.

Limits. The court will refuse relief where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where the petitioner is guilty of laches, where the question is a policy matter or one of pure academic interest, and where the petition raises disputed questions of fact requiring evidence.

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(2)Doctrine of separation of power[5]

Answer

The doctrine. Stated by Montesquieu in L'Esprit des Lois (1748) on his reading of the English constitution: the legislative, executive and judicial powers of the State should be vested in three separate organs, no organ should exercise the function of another, and no person should be a member of more than one organ. Its purpose is to prevent the concentration of power, because "power tends to corrupt".

In India there is no rigid separation. The Constitution recognises the functional division but not a watertight one:

  1. Article 50 directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services, and it is a Directive Principle, not a justiciable right;
  2. the executive is drawn from and is collectively responsible to the legislature under Articles 74 and 75;
  3. Articles 123 and 213 give the President and the Governors the legislative power to promulgate ordinances;
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  1. the legislature exercises judicial functions in punishing for its own contempt and in impeachment;
  2. the higher judiciary makes rules of procedure and exercises administrative control over subordinate courts under Articles 145, 227 and 229.

The leading cases. In Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955) the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution has not indeed recognised the doctrine in its absolute rigidity, but the functions of the different parts have been sufficiently differentiated. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which purported to decide an election dispute by constitutional amendment, was struck down: adjudication of a specific dispute is a judicial function which Parliament cannot take upon itself. In Kesavananda Bharati separation of powers was held part of the basic structure.

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(3)Tribunal[5]

Answer

Meaning. A tribunal is an adjudicating body outside the ordinary court hierarchy, set up by statute, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or between citizens in a specialised field, by a procedure that is judicial in substance but free of the strict rules of the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act.

Constitutional basis. Articles 323A (administrative tribunals for service matters, by Parliament) and 323B (tribunals for taxation, foreign exchange, industrial disputes, land reforms, elections and other listed matters, by Parliament or a State legislature), inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

Characteristics.

  1. created by statute, and its powers are only those the statute gives;
  2. has the trappings of a court: it decides lis inter partes, takes evidence, and may summon witnesses and compel production;
  3. is not bound by the CPC or the Evidence Act, but is bound by natural justice;
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  1. usually has a technical or expert member alongside a judicial member;
  2. is under the superintendence of the High Court under Article 227 and subject to Article 226 review.

Distinction from a court. A court is part of the traditional judiciary and exercises the judicial power of the State generally; a tribunal is an agency created for a specific purpose. A court is presided over by a judge trained in law; a tribunal may include an administrator or an expert. A court follows the CPC and the Evidence Act; a tribunal follows its own procedure. A court's decisions are precedents; a tribunal's are generally not.

Judicial control. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987) upheld the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, on the footing that the tribunal was an effective substitute for the High Court. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) then held that the power of judicial review of the High Courts under Article 226 and 227 and of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is part of the basic structure and cannot be excluded: tribunal decisions are subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court, and the exclusion clauses in Articles 323A(2)(d) and 323B(3)(d) are to that extent unconstitutional.

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(4)Parliamentary control over delegated legislations[5]

Answer

Parliamentary control exists because the rule-making power is Parliament's own, lent to the executive; the lender retains the right to supervise. It operates at three stages.

1. At the time of delegation. Parliament controls the scope of the power in the parent Act itself: it must lay down the policy and standard, leaving only the details to be filled in, and it may fix the subject matter, the duration and the conditions of the power.

2. Laying before Parliament. The commonest device is the laying requirement, of which there are three forms:

  1. Simple laying: the rule is laid for information only and takes effect regardless;
  2. Laying subject to negative resolution: the rule takes effect at once but ceases if the House annuls it, usually within thirty days of sitting;
  3. Laying subject to affirmative resolution: the rule has no effect until approved by the House.
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Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979) held that where the statute merely requires a rule to be laid, the laying requirement is directory, so a failure to lay does not by itself invalidate the rule; where it is a condition of validity, it is mandatory.

3. Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (constituted 1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964) examine whether rules are within the powers conferred, whether they impose taxation or oust the jurisdiction of courts, whether they have retrospective effect, and whether there has been unjustifiable delay in laying them.

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(5)A. K. Kraipak vs. Union of India[5]

Answer

Citation. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150.

Facts. A Selection Board was constituted to select officers of the State Forest Service for the Indian Forest Service. Naquishbund, the Acting Chief Conservator of Forests, was a member of the Selection Board and was at the same time a candidate for selection himself. He did not sit when his own name was considered, but he took part in the deliberations when the claims of his rivals were considered, and in the preparation of the final list in which he was placed at the top.

Held. The selection was quashed. The Supreme Court held:

  1. that there is a real likelihood of bias where a person sits in judgment on the claims of his own competitors, and it is immaterial that he withdrew when his own name came up, because his participation in judging his rivals was itself decisive;
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  1. that the distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative functions is thin and is gradually being obliterated, and the principles of natural justice apply to administrative action as well wherever it affects rights;
  2. that natural justice is not confined to a "judicial" enquiry: its aim is "to prevent miscarriage of justice", and what it requires depends on the facts, the framework of the law and the nature of the power.
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(6)Ridge v/s Baldwin[5]

Answer

Citation. Ridge v. Baldwin, [1964] AC 40 (House of Lords).

Facts. Charles Ridge, Chief Constable of Brighton, was tried for conspiracy to obstruct the course of justice and acquitted, but the trial judge made observations critical of his leadership. The Watch Committee dismissed him under Section 191(4) of the Municipal Corporations Act, 1882, which allowed dismissal of a constable "negligent in the discharge of his duty, or otherwise unfit for the same". He was given no notice of the charge and no hearing.

Held. The dismissal was void for breach of natural justice. The House of Lords held:

  1. that the duty to hear does not depend on the decision being classified as judicial; it arises from the nature of the power and its effect on the person;
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  1. that the earlier line of cases requiring a "superadded duty to act judicially", founded on R. v. Electricity Commissioners as read in Nakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne (1951), was wrongly decided and was departed from;
  2. that an office held at pleasure may be terminated without a hearing, but an office from which a man can be removed only for cause cannot be, and a Chief Constable was in the second class.
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Q.3

Answer the situational questions

Any two · 12 Marks

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(1)Mr. Ramesh was working as head clerk in the collector office. Mr. Ramesh was removed from office on the ground of corruption without any intimation. Mr. Ramesh filed a petition in the High court.[6]

  • (a) Is the removal of Ramesh correct? Give reasons.
  • (b) On what grounds Ramesh can file petition in the high court in the above situation?

Answer

(a) Is the removal of Ramesh correct? Give reasons.

No. The removal is bad in law and is liable to be quashed.

A head clerk in a Collector's office holds a civil post under a State, so the protection of Article 311 applies to him.

  1. Article 311(2) provides that no such person shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges. He was removed "without any intimation", so there was no charge sheet, no inquiry and no hearing. The mandatory constitutional requirement was simply not complied with.
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  1. It is also a breach of the audi alteram partem rule of natural justice. Corruption is a charge of misconduct; a charge of that gravity cannot be established behind a man's back.
  2. The three exceptions in the second proviso to Article 311(2) do not apply. They are: (a) removal on the ground of conduct which has led to conviction on a criminal charge; (b) where the authority is satisfied, for reasons to be recorded in writing, that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry; and (c) where the President or Governor is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State it is not expedient to hold an inquiry. Nothing on these facts brings the case within any of them, and clauses (b) and (c) require a recorded satisfaction which is itself reviewable.
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  1. Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel (1985) is the leading authority. The Constitution Bench held that the second proviso dispenses with the inquiry, not with natural justice generally, and that the reasons for invoking clause (b) must be recorded and are open to judicial scrutiny.
  2. Article 311(1) must also be satisfied: he cannot be removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed (see State of Madhya Pradesh v. Shardul Singh, 1970, where the Court held that the dismissing authority need only be of equal or higher rank than the appointing authority).

(b) On what grounds Ramesh can file petition in the high court in the above situation?

He may file a writ petition under Article 226. The grounds are:

  1. Violation of Article 311(2): removal without the constitutionally required inquiry and hearing;
  2. Breach of the principles of natural justice: no notice of the charge, no opportunity to defend, and no speaking order recording reasons;
  3. Violation of Articles 14 and 16: arbitrary State action in the matter of public employment;
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  1. Absence of jurisdiction or excess of power, if the removing authority was subordinate to the appointing authority, contrary to Article 311(1);
  2. Malice in law or in fact, if the removal was in truth for a reason other than the one stated.

The reliefs to ask for are a writ of certiorari quashing the order of removal, and a writ of mandamus directing reinstatement with consequential benefits. Because the order is void for want of a hearing, the court's normal course is to set it aside and leave the department free to hold a proper inquiry from the stage at which the illegality occurred.

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(2)In the State of Dakshin Pradesh few members were nominated by the Governor in Legislative Council. Nominations of few members to the state legislative council by the governor were challenged on the ground that nominations are not as per law.[6]

  • (a) Can such nomination be challenged? Give reasons.
  • (b) Which writ can be issued in the above case? Explain.

Answer

(a) Can such nomination be challenged? Give reasons.

Yes. The Governor's power of nomination is a conditioned statutory power, not an unfettered discretion, and an appointment outside the condition can be challenged.

  1. Article 171(3)(e) provides that the remainder of the members of a Legislative Council, that is one-sixth of the total, shall be nominated by the Governor.
  2. Article 171(5) fixes the qualification: those members shall be persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of literature, science, art, co-operative movement and social service.
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  1. A nomination of a person who does not answer that description is therefore made without the authority of law, and the appointment is open to attack on the ground that the appointee was not qualified to hold the office at the time of appointment.
  2. The court in such a case does not review the wisdom of the choice, only whether the constitutional condition was satisfied. Where the appointee plainly has none of the five kinds of knowledge or experience named, the appointment is a colourable exercise of the power and is bad.

(b) Which writ can be issued in the above case? Explain.

The appropriate writ is quo warranto.

Meaning. Quo warranto means "by what authority". It is a writ that calls upon the holder of a public office to show by what authority he holds it, and it removes him if he is found not entitled.

The conditions for its issue, settled in University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965) and Jamalpur Arya Samaj Sabha v. Dr. D. Ram (1954), are:

  1. the office must be a public office, created by the Constitution or by a statute, and not a private or contractual employment;
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  1. the office must be of a substantive character, that is, permanent and independent, not the office of a servant at the pleasure of another;
  2. the holder must be in actual possession of the office; and
  3. the holder must have been appointed contrary to law, or must not possess the qualification prescribed.

A seat in the Legislative Council is a public office of a substantive character created by the Constitution, and the alleged defect is want of the qualification prescribed by Article 171(5). Quo warranto therefore lies.

Two further points. In quo warranto the rule of locus standi is relaxed: any member of the public acting bona fide may apply, because the object is to prevent a usurper from occupying a public office and not to vindicate a private right. And the writ operates on the title to the office; it does not decide the merits of the appointee's work.

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(3)An order was issued by the Central Bureau of Film Certification (CBFC) to delete certain scenes from the flim on the ground of obscenity. The producer and director refused to follow the order and challenged it in the high court on the ground that CBFC should only certify the films.[6]

  • (a) On what grounds such order be challenged?
  • (b) Is the act of issuing such order by CBFC justified? Give reasons.

Answer

The body is the Central Board of Film Certification, constituted under Section 3 of the Cinematograph Act, 1952.

(a) On what grounds such order be challenged?

  1. Ultra vires the parent Act: that the statute confers a power to certify and not a power to censor. (On the facts of the Act this ground fails, for the reason given in part (b), but it is the ground the producer has taken.)
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  1. Violation of Article 19(1)(a): freedom of speech and expression includes the freedom to exhibit a film, and a direction to excise scenes is a restriction on it. The restriction must be saved by Article 19(2), that is, it must be a reasonable restriction imposed by law in the interests of, among other things, decency or morality.
  2. Wrong legal test of obscenity: that the Board applied the discarded Hicklin test of Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra (1965), which judged a work by its effect on the most susceptible mind, instead of the community standards test adopted in Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal (2014), which judges the material as a whole by the standards of an ordinary person of common sense.
  3. Irrelevant considerations and unreasonableness: that the Board looked at scenes in isolation instead of the theme of the film as a whole, contrary to Bobby Art International v. Om Pal Singh Hoon (1996), the Bandit Queen case, where scenes of rape and nudity were held not obscene when seen in the context of the film's message.
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  1. No speaking order: failure to record reasons for the excisions, so the producer cannot know the case he has to meet.
  2. Breach of natural justice: the Act and the Rules require the applicant to be given an opportunity of being heard before a film is refused or cut.

(b) Is the act of issuing such order by CBFC justified? Give reasons.

Yes, in principle the Board has the power. The producer's contention that it "should only certify" is wrong.

  1. Section 4(1) of the Cinematograph Act, 1952 expressly empowers the Board, after examining a film, to sanction it for unrestricted public exhibition, or for exhibition restricted to adults or to a specified class, or to direct such excisions or modifications in the film as it thinks necessary before sanctioning it, or to refuse to sanction it altogether. The power to require cuts is therefore statutory and express.
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  1. Section 5B(1) lays down the grounds, in language that tracks Article 19(2): a film shall not be certified if it or any part of it is against the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or involves defamation or contempt of court or is likely to incite the commission of any offence. Section 5B(2) empowers the Central Government to issue guidelines, which it has.
  2. Pre-censorship of films is constitutionally valid. In K.A. Abbas v. Union of India (1971) the Supreme Court upheld pre-censorship for films, holding that the motion picture stirs emotion more deeply than the printed word and can therefore be treated as a class apart, provided the standards are not vague and are within Article 19(2).
  3. But the order is justified only if it is properly made. It must be based on the film as a whole and not on isolated scenes; it must apply the standard of a reasonable, strong-minded person and not the weakest member of the audience; and the apprehended effect must be, in the words of S. Rangarajan v. P. Jagjivan Ram (1989), like "a spark in a powder keg" and not remote or fanciful. On these facts, whether the specific cuts survive depends on the reasons the Board gave.
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The remedy. The Act formerly provided an appeal to the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal. That Tribunal was abolished by the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021, and an appeal from the Board now lies to the High Court.

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Q.4

Answer any four 48 Marks

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(1)What is Rule of Law? Discuss the concept with the help of landmark judgments in the Indian scenario.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin of the rule of law; Dicey's three propositions; the criticism of each; the modern and international restatement; where the rule of law sits in the Indian Constitution; and four Indian judgments, of which Indira Nehru Gandhi, ADM Jabalpur and Maneka Gandhi are indispensable.

1. Meaning and origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it are subject to law, that power must be exercised under and according to law, and that no one is above the law. The phrase comes from the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry is old: Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I asserted that the King is under God and the law, and Bracton had said the same in the thirteenth century.

2. Dicey's three propositions (Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution, 1885):

  1. Supremacy of law, or the absence of arbitrary power. No man may be punished except for a distinct breach of law established in the ordinary courts. "Wherever there is discretion there is room for arbitrariness."
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  1. Equality before the law. Every man, whatever his rank or condition, is subject to the ordinary law of the realm and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals. There is no separate administrative law and no separate administrative court, as there is in France.
  2. The constitution is the result of the ordinary law of the land. In England the general principles of the constitution, such as the right to personal liberty, are the result of judicial decisions in particular cases brought by private individuals, and are not the source of, but the consequence of, individual rights.

3. The criticism. Each proposition is now qualified:

  1. The first would abolish the modern State. Discretion is unavoidable in a welfare administration; the answer is not to forbid it but to structure, confine and check it. Dicey confused arbitrary power with discretionary power.
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  1. The second was based on a misunderstanding of droit administratif. The Conseil d'Etat is not a device for protecting officials; in many respects its control is stricter than the English courts'. And English law itself had, and has, special rules for public bodies.
  2. The third is a description of English constitutional history, not a universal truth. In India the position is the reverse: rights are guaranteed by a written Constitution and the courts enforce them, which is the stronger arrangement, because a right created by decision can be taken away by statute.

4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi in 1959 restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept for the use of lawyers, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. This is the version that fits a welfare State and the Indian Directive Principles.

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5. The rule of law in the Indian Constitution. It is not written in terms, but it runs through the text: Article 14 (equality before the law and equal protection of the laws), Article 21 (no deprivation of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law), Article 13 (laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void), Article 20 (protection against ex post facto laws and double jeopardy), Articles 32 and 226 (enforceable remedies), Article 300 (the State may sue and be sued), and the independence of the judiciary.

6. The landmark Indian judgments.

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): the rule of law is part of the basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be destroyed even by a constitutional amendment.
  2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975): clause 4 of the 39th Amendment placed the Prime Minister's election beyond the reach of any court. It was struck down. The Court held that the rule of law is a basic feature; a law that decides a particular dispute and withdraws it from adjudication offends both the rule of law and the separation of powers.
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  1. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976), the Habeas Corpus case: the majority held that during the Emergency, with Article 21 suspended, no person had locus standi to move a writ petition for habeas corpus. It is the low-water mark of the rule of law in India, and Justice H.R. Khanna's dissent, that the State has no power to deprive a person of life or liberty without the authority of law even in an emergency, is now the accepted position. The majority was expressly overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017).
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): the "procedure established by law" in Article 21 must be right, just and fair and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive. Articles 14, 19 and 21 were read together as a golden triangle. This is the case that converts the rule of law from a formal into a substantive guarantee.
  3. Som Raj v. State of Haryana (1990): the absence of arbitrary power is the first essential of the rule of law, upon which the whole constitutional system is founded.
  4. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1982), Bhagwati J.: the rule of law excludes arbitrariness, and wherever there is arbitrariness there is a denial of the rule of law.
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(2)Explain the principal of natural justice with the help supreme court judgments.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: what natural justice is and why it has no fixed content; the two classical rules, each with its sub-rules and cases; the third modern rule of reasoned decisions; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.

1. Meaning. Natural justice is the body of procedural fairness that the common law requires of anyone who decides a matter affecting another's rights or legitimate interests. It is not a code; it is, in Lord Reid's phrase, what a fair-minded person would consider fair in the circumstances. Its Indian foundation is the fairness read into Articles 14 and 21.

2. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause.

The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly be seen to be done. The forms of bias are:

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  1. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest, however small, disqualifies. Dr. Bonham's Case (1610), where the College of Physicians took half of every fine it imposed; Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852), where the Lord Chancellor held shares in the company and his decree was set aside though no one suggested he was actually influenced.
  2. Personal bias. Relationship, friendship, hostility or professional connection. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970): a candidate for selection sat on the Selection Board that judged his rivals, and the selection was quashed. Mineral Development Ltd. v. State of Bihar (1960): the Minister who cancelled the licence had earlier prosecuted the licensee's proprietor.
  3. Subject-matter or official bias. A general interest in the subject decided. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (1959): objections to a nationalisation scheme framed by the Transport Undertaking were heard by the Secretary of the very department that had framed it, and the scheme was quashed.
  4. Departmental or institutional bias, and bias as to pre-judgment of the issue, where the mind is shown to be closed before the hearing.
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3. The second rule: audi alteram partem, hear the other side.

Its components are:

  1. Notice, which must be adequate, must state the charge and the proposed action, and must give reasonable time. A defective notice vitiates the whole proceeding.
  2. Opportunity to be heard, which ordinarily means the opportunity to make a representation. An oral hearing is not always necessary, though it is required where the facts are complex or credibility is in issue.
  3. Disclosure of the material relied on. Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v. Commissioner of Income Tax (1955): an assessment based on material not disclosed to the assessee was set aside.
  4. Evidence and cross-examination, where the case turns on the testimony of witnesses.
  5. He who decides must hear. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao again: a decision taken by one officer on a hearing conducted by another is bad.
  6. No evidence behind the back of the party, and no fresh material at the stage of decision.
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The leading English case is Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), where a Chief Constable dismissed without notice or hearing had the dismissal declared void, and the House of Lords rejected the requirement of a "superadded duty to act judicially". Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) is the classic older authority: the Board demolished a house built without notice, and was held liable, Byles J. saying that although there are no positive words in a statute requiring a hearing, "the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature".

In India Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) is decisive: the impounding of a passport without a hearing was held to violate Articles 14 and 21, and the Court held that the audi alteram partem rule can be excluded only by express words or necessary implication, and even then only where the exclusion is itself just and fair.

4. The third rule: reasoned decisions. An authority must pass a speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976) called it "a basic principle of natural justice"; S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990) laid down that reasons must be recorded unless expressly or impliedly dispensed with; and Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) held that an order must stand or fall on the reasons it itself gives.

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5. Exceptions. Natural justice is excluded or curtailed in cases of:

  1. statutory exclusion, express or by necessary implication;
  2. emergency, where immediate action is required, as in the demolition of a dangerous building or the seizure of adulterated food, subject to a post-decisional hearing;
  3. impracticability, as in Bihar School Examination Board v. Subhas Chandra Sinha (1970), where a whole examination centre's results were cancelled for mass copying and individual notices were held unnecessary;
  4. legislative action, including subordinate legislation of a general character;
  5. confidentiality and the security of the State;
  6. "useless formality", where a hearing could make no difference, a very narrow exception the courts apply with reluctance;
  7. contractual or purely administrative matters not affecting rights; and
  8. interim preventive action, such as a suspension pending inquiry.
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6. Effect of a breach. An order made in breach of natural justice is void, not merely voidable, and the ordinary consequence is that it is quashed and the matter is remitted to the authority to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred.

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(3)What is delegated legislation? What is permissible & impermissible delegated legislation.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition and forms; the reasons for its growth; the constitutional problem of delegation; the test laid down in the Delhi Laws Act case; a list of what may be delegated and what may not, each with a case; and the controls.

1. Meaning. Delegated legislation is law made by an authority other than the legislature, under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond defines it as legislation which proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority.

It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions.

2. Reasons for its growth.

  1. Pressure on parliamentary time: the legislature cannot enact the volume of detailed law a modern State needs;
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  1. Technicality of subject matter: drug schedules, safety standards and tariff rates require expertise the House does not have;
  2. Flexibility: rules can be amended quickly, while an Act requires the whole legislative process;
  3. Experimentation: a scheme can be tried and adjusted;
  4. Emergency: war, epidemic and economic crisis require immediate action; and
  5. The welfare State itself, which regulates far more of life than the State Dicey wrote about.

3. The constitutional question. India has no express provision on delegation. The question arose in the In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 reference (AIR 1951 SC 332). The Supreme Court held that:

  1. the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative function, which is the laying down of the policy of the law and its enactment into a binding rule of conduct;
  2. having laid down the policy, it may delegate the power to fill in details and to work the policy out; and
  3. the delegation of the power to repeal or modify an existing law is beyond the permissible limit, because that is the exercise of legislative judgment itself.
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The test is therefore whether the parent Act lays down a policy and a standard which guides the delegate.

4. Permissible delegation. The legislature may validly delegate the power to:

  1. commence an Act, or to extend it to a specified area or class (conditional legislation);
  2. supply details, prescribe forms, fees, procedure and conditions;
  3. make exemptions and grant exceptions, where the standard is laid down;
  4. suspend the operation of a provision in stated circumstances;
  5. apply an existing law with modifications, provided the modifications do not alter its essential policy, as held in Rajnarain Singh v. Chairman, Patna Administration Committee (1954);
  6. fix rates and prices within limits fixed by the Act;
  7. remove difficulties in bringing an Act into operation, the so-called Henry VIII clause, which is valid only in a narrow form.

5. Impermissible delegation. The legislature cannot delegate:

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  1. its essential legislative function, that is, the laying down of policy (Delhi Laws Act);
  2. the power to repeal an Act or to modify it in its essential features;
  3. the power to impose a tax, since taxation must be by authority of law under Article 265, though the fixing of a rate within statutory limits may be left to the executive;
  4. the power to create an offence and prescribe a punishment without any legislative guidance;
  5. the power to give the rule retrospective effect, unless the parent Act says so expressly;
  6. the power to oust the jurisdiction of the courts;
  7. the power to make rules inconsistent with the parent Act or with the Constitution; and
  8. the power to sub-delegate without authority, on the maxim delegatus non potest delegare (Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works, 1997).
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Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) is the standard illustration of impermissible delegation: Section 3(d) of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act empowered the executive to add to a list of diseases "any other disease which may be specified in the rules", with no policy or standard to guide the addition. That was struck down as excessive delegation.

6. The controls. Delegated legislation is controlled in three ways:

  1. Parliamentary control: policy fixed in the parent Act, laying before the House in one of its three forms, and scrutiny by the Committee on Subordinate Legislation;
  2. Procedural control: prior publication, consultation of affected interests, and publication in the Official Gazette. Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951) held that a law cannot be enforced against a person who had no means of knowing it, so publication is essential;
  3. Judicial control, on the grounds of substantive ultra vires (the parent Act does not authorise the rule, or the parent Act is itself unconstitutional, or the rule is unconstitutional, or it is unreasonable or mala fide) and procedural ultra vires (a mandatory procedure such as consultation or publication was not followed).
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(4)What is tortuous liability of government? Give important cases.[12]

Answer

The paper prints "tortuous"; the subject is the tortious liability of the Government, that is, its liability in damages for the wrongful acts of its servants.

For full marks, cover: the constitutional provision and its historical chain; the sovereign and non-sovereign distinction; the five landmark cases in order; the modern departure from Kasturilal; and the separate route of constitutional tort under Articles 32 and 226.

1. The constitutional provision. Article 300(1) provides that the Government of India may sue and be sued by the name of the Union of India, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.

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The words "in the like cases" carry the liability back through a chain: Article 300 to Section 176 of the Government of India Act, 1935, to Section 32 of the Government of India Act, 1915, to Section 65 of the Government of India Act, 1858, which fixed the liability of the Secretary of State for India by reference to the liability of the East India Company. The result is that the extent of the Government's liability today is still governed by the law as it stood in 1858, unless Parliament changes it, and Parliament never has.

2. The sovereign and non-sovereign distinction. Because the East India Company had a dual character, trading and governing, the courts drew a line: the State is liable for acts done in the exercise of its non-sovereign functions, that is, functions that a private person could also perform, and not for acts done in the exercise of its sovereign functions, being those which only a State can perform, such as defence, the maintenance of law and order, the administration of justice and the collection of tax.

3. The landmark cases.

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  1. Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary of State for India (1861). A servant of the Government carrying a heavy piece of iron for a Government dockyard negligently injured the plaintiff's horse. Sir Barnes Peacock CJ held the Secretary of State liable, and laid down the distinction: for acts done in the exercise of sovereign powers there is no liability; for acts done in the conduct of undertakings which might be carried on by private persons there is. The maintenance of a dockyard was of the second kind.
  2. Secretary of State v. Hari Bhanji (1882, Madras). The High Court narrowed P and O: the immunity extends only to acts of State, that is, acts done in the exercise of a power not derived from municipal law and not cognisable by the ordinary courts. Where the act is done under the authority of a statute, the citizen has his remedy.
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  1. State of Rajasthan v. Mst. Vidyawati (AIR 1962 SC 933). A jeep owned by the State and maintained for the official use of the Collector of Udaipur was being brought back from the workshop after repairs; the driver knocked down a pedestrian who died. The State was held liable. The Court held that in a welfare State carrying on many activities like a private citizen, there is no reason to hold the State immune, and that the old feudal maxim "the King can do no wrong" has no place in a republic. Driving a car back from the workshop is not a sovereign function.
  2. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR 1965 SC 1039). Gold seized by the police from a partner of the firm was misappropriated by the head constable, who fled to Pakistan. The Supreme Court held the State not liable, because the seizure was made in the exercise of a statutory power of arrest and seizure, which is a sovereign function. Gajendragadkar CJ nonetheless recorded his dissatisfaction with the state of the law and urged legislation, which never came.
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  1. N. Nagendra Rao and Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994). Fertiliser and foodgrain seized under the Essential Commodities Act deteriorated in the custody of the State. The Supreme Court held the State liable and, most importantly, held that Kasturilal has lost much of its relevance: in the modern State the sovereign and non-sovereign classification is outdated, and the only functions that can still claim immunity are those which are inalienable, that is, functions no private person can perform at all, such as defence, foreign affairs and the administration of justice.
  2. Common Cause, a Registered Society v. Union of India (1999) and State of Andhra Pradesh v. Challa Ramkrishna Reddy (2000) carried the process further. In Challa Ramkrishna Reddy an undertrial was killed in a police lock-up by an attack that the police had been warned of; the State was held liable and the Court held that the defence of sovereign immunity is not available where a fundamental right under Article 21 is violated.
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4. The constitutional tort. Alongside the ordinary suit, the Supreme Court and the High Courts award compensation in writ proceedings for the violation of fundamental rights. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983): a man kept in jail for fourteen years after his acquittal was awarded compensation under Article 32. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) made the basis explicit: the remedy is a public law remedy based on strict liability for the contravention of fundamental rights, distinct from and in addition to the private law remedy in tort, and sovereign immunity is no defence to it. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down the custodial safeguards and confirmed the award of compensation.

5. The position today. The State is liable:

  1. for all acts done in the non-sovereign or commercial sphere;
  2. for acts done under statutory powers where the act is beyond the power or negligent, following Nagendra Rao;
  3. for the violation of fundamental rights, in a writ petition, without regard to sovereign immunity;

and it remains immune only for the narrow class of inalienable sovereign functions and for acts of State properly so called.

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(5)What are writs? Explain the importance of writs with the help of case laws.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and constitutional source; the difference between Article 32 and Article 226; each of the five writs with its meaning, conditions and a case; and the limitations on the exercise of writ jurisdiction.

1. Meaning and source. A writ is a formal written order of a superior court commanding a person or authority to do or to refrain from doing something. The five writs of English origin are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto, and they are the principal weapons of judicial control of administrative action.

They are issued under:

  1. Article 32, by the Supreme Court, for the enforcement of fundamental rights only. The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 is itself a fundamental right, and Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 "the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it". It cannot be suspended except as provided by the Constitution (Article 359).
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  1. Article 226, by every High Court, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose, that is, for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights as well. The High Court's writ jurisdiction is therefore wider than the Supreme Court's. It also extends, under Article 226(2), to an authority outside the High Court's territory if the cause of action arises within it.

2. The five writs.

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(i) Habeas corpus, "you may have the body". It is a command to a person detaining another to produce him before the court and justify the detention. It lies against both the State and a private person. It protects personal liberty under Article 21 and is the remedy against illegal detention, against a detention under a preventive detention law that does not comply with Article 22, and against custody in breach of a court's order. The rule of locus standi is relaxed: a friend or relative, and now any person, may apply. In Sunil Batra (II) v. Delhi Administration (1980) a letter from a prisoner was treated as a habeas corpus petition. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) denied the remedy during the Emergency and is now regarded as wrongly decided; it was overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017). Kanu Sanyal v. District Magistrate, Darjeeling (1974) held that the production of the body is not always essential and the legality of detention can be examined on the record.

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(ii) Mandamus, "we command". It is a command to a public authority to perform a public duty which it has refused or failed to perform. Conditions: the applicant must have a legal right; there must be a public duty, statutory or otherwise, and not a merely discretionary or contractual one; there must have been a demand and a refusal; and there must be no other equally efficacious remedy. It does not lie against a private individual, against the President or a Governor (Article 361), to enforce a contract of personal service, or to compel the legislature to make a law. It can compel an authority to exercise a discretion, though not to exercise it in a particular way. Praga Tools Corporation v. C.V. Imanual (1969) settled that mandamus lies against a body performing a public duty even if it is a company. Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986) held that the High Court under Article 226 can go beyond the strict limits of the English writ and mould the relief.

(iii) Prohibition. A writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal forbidding it to continue proceedings in excess of its jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice. It is preventive: it issues while the proceeding is pending. It lies only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not against a purely administrative or legislative act. East India Commercial Co. v. Collector of Customs (1962) is the standard authority.

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(iv) Certiorari, "to be certified". A writ by which a superior court quashes an order already made by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority. It is curative, whereas prohibition is preventive; the two often issue together. The grounds are want or excess of jurisdiction, violation of natural justice, and error of law apparent on the face of the record. Syed Yakoob v. K.S. Radhakrishnan (1964) is the leading Indian statement of these grounds and of the rule that certiorari does not lie for a mere error of fact. Province of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani (1950) dealt with when a function is quasi-judicial; after A.K. Kraipak (1970) the requirement that the body be "quasi-judicial" has been much relaxed.

(v) Quo warranto, "by what authority". A writ calling upon the holder of a public office of a substantive character to show by what authority he holds it. Conditions: a public office created by statute or the Constitution; of a substantive character; actually held; and held by a person not qualified or appointed contrary to law. University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965) laid down the conditions. Locus standi is relaxed, so any member of the public acting bona fide may apply.

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3. The importance of writs. They are the machinery through which the guarantee of rights becomes a remedy. They are quick, because they are decided on affidavits without a trial; they are discretionary, so the court can shape the relief to the case; they reach every kind of public power, whether the authority is a Minister, a tribunal, a university or a corporation which is "the State" under Article 12; and under Article 32 the remedy itself is a fundamental right, so it cannot be legislated away. The growth of public interest litigation rests on the relaxation of locus standi in writ jurisdiction, established in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981).

4. Limitations. The court will refuse a writ where there is an adequate alternative remedy; where the petitioner is guilty of laches or unexplained delay; where the petition raises disputed questions of fact requiring evidence; where the petitioner has suppressed material facts or comes with unclean hands; where the matter is one of policy; where the petition has become infructuous; and where res judicata applies, a writ petition finally decided on merits barring a second petition on the same cause.

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(6)Discuss the concept of administrative discretion? Explain the power of authorities to use discretion in implementation of the policies of Government.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: what discretion is and why it is unavoidable; the two great heads of judicial control, failure to exercise and abuse; the sub-heads under each with a case; the doctrines of reasonableness and proportionality; and a short statement of the limits of review.

1. Meaning. Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "where it appears to the authority", "reasonable cause" and "in the public interest".

2. Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case. A welfare State must license, allot, subsidise, regulate and plan, and each of those requires a judgment on facts that vary from case to case. Dicey thought discretion was the enemy of the rule of law. The modern answer is that the enemy is not discretion but unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy is to confine it by policy, structure it by procedure, and check it by review.

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3. Judicial control: the two heads. The courts do not ask whether the decision was the best one. They ask whether the discretion was exercised at all, and whether it was exercised lawfully.

A. Failure to exercise discretion. The authority has the power but has not brought its own mind to bear:

  1. Acting under dictation. The authority takes orders from a superior or another body instead of deciding itself. Commissioner of Police, Bombay v. Gordhandas Bhanji (1952): a cinema licence was cancelled by the Commissioner on the direction of the Government; held bad, because the discretion was the Commissioner's to exercise. Anirudhsinhji Jadeja v. State of Gujarat (1995) is to the same effect on the invocation of TADA on instructions.
  2. Self-imposed fetters, or acting on a rigid rule. An authority given a discretion must not convert it into an inflexible rule and refuse to look at the individual case. It may adopt a general policy, but it must always be willing to listen to an applicant with something new to say (R. v. Port of London Authority, ex parte Kynoch, 1919).
  3. Non-application of mind, including mechanical repetition of the statutory language and passing an order without considering the material.
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  1. Sub-delegation of the discretion to another officer without statutory authority.
  2. Surrender by agreement or estoppel: an authority cannot contract itself out of a statutory discretion.

B. Abuse of discretion. The authority has exercised the power but has done so improperly:

  1. Mala fides. Malice in fact, that is, personal spite or dishonest purpose, and malice in law, that is, the use of a power for an object outside the statute. S. Pratap Singh v. State of Punjab (1964): action against a civil surgeon taken out of personal hostility of the Chief Minister was quashed.
  2. Improper or collateral purpose. The power is used for a purpose other than the one for which it was given. Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980) shows the converse duty; Padfield v. Minister of Agriculture (1968) is the classic English authority: the Minister refused to refer a milk-price complaint to a committee for fear of political embarrassment, and the House of Lords held that a discretion must be exercised to promote the policy and objects of the Act.
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  1. Irrelevant considerations, and failure to consider relevant ones. Barium Chemicals Ltd. v. Company Law Board (1967): an order for investigation was set aside because the circumstances relied on had no rational connection with the statutory grounds; the Court held that even where the statute says "in the opinion of", the opinion must rest on materials relevant to the grounds.
  2. Colourable exercise of power, where the authority does indirectly what it cannot do directly.
  3. Unreasonableness, on the Wednesbury standard from Associated Provincial Picture Houses v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948): a decision so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it. In India unreasonableness is also arbitrariness and so a breach of Article 14, following E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974) and Maneka Gandhi (1978).
  4. Non-observance of natural justice, and failure to pass a speaking order.
  5. Exceeding jurisdiction, and error of law.
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4. Proportionality. Where a fundamental right is affected, the court asks not merely whether the decision was irrational but whether the means were proportionate to the end: whether the measure pursues a legitimate aim, is suitable and necessary, and strikes a fair balance. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) held that proportionality has been applied in India to fundamental-rights cases since 1950, while Wednesbury applies to administrative decisions generally. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987) applied it to a grossly excessive punishment. Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) settled the four-part test.

5. Discretion in implementing Government policy. An authority implementing policy may:

  1. frame and follow general guidelines, so that like cases are treated alike, provided it does not shut out the exceptional case;
  2. prefer one legitimate object over another where the statute leaves the balance to it, and the court will not substitute its own preference;
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  1. act on its own satisfaction, but that satisfaction must be based on relevant material, and the existence of the material is justiciable even where the sufficiency is not;
  2. change policy, subject to the doctrines of legitimate expectation and promissory estoppel. In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979) the State was held bound by a promise of a tax exemption on which the company had acted, and the Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel is available against the Government in the exercise of its governmental and public functions, though it will not be applied to compel an act contrary to law.

6. The limits of review. The court is concerned with legality, rationality and procedural propriety and not with the merits. It will not sit in appeal on questions of policy, of expert or technical judgment, of the allocation of resources, or of the sufficiency of the material on which a subjective satisfaction rests.

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Notes on These Answers

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2017-18 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026, revised 11 August 2026.

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