Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Administrative Law
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 7
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
This edition revised 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set, and in this subject that distinction is doing real work. On 19 November 2025 the Supreme Court struck down the core provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 governing the appointment, tenure and conditions of service of tribunal members, so a textbook printed before that date states the position wrongly; every answer here on tribunals gives the Act as enacted and then what survives of it. The criminal statutes the older papers cite have also been replaced, so where a question is set on Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code the answer gives the corresponding section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 alongside it, and the same is done for the Indian Evidence Act. Where a decision relied on in an older paper has since been overruled, most importantly ADM Jabalpur, the answer says so. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2017-18 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in one/two sentences 20 Marks
Answer
Ivor Jennings: administrative law is "the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities."
K.C. Davis: it is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.
In substance it is the branch of public law that governs how the executive is organised, what powers it may exercise, by what procedure it must exercise them, and what remedies lie when it exceeds or abuses them.
Answer
Article 299(1) of the Constitution lays down three requisites for a valid contract with the Union or a State:
To these the general law adds that the contract must satisfy Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and, being a State contract, must not be arbitrary or discriminatory under Article 14.
Answer
Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law: a body of rules developed by the administrative courts, and not by the ordinary civil courts, which governs the relations between the citizen and the administration and the liability of the State and its officials.
At its apex is the Conseil d'Etat, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration and to which an aggrieved citizen goes instead of to the ordinary courts.
Answer
An injunction is an equitable order of a court directing a person to do, or more usually to refrain from doing, a particular act. It is governed by Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Injunctions are temporary (granted during the pendency of a suit, under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2, Code of Civil Procedure) or perpetual (granted by the decree at the hearing, under Section 38), and in form either prohibitory (restraining an act) or mandatory (compelling the undoing of an act, under Section 39).
Answer
A speaking order is an order that speaks for itself, that is, one which records the reasons on which it is based. It is also called a reasoned decision.
The requirement to pass a speaking order is now treated as the third principle of natural justice, alongside the rule against bias and the right to be heard, and applies to quasi-judicial and to most administrative orders affecting rights.
Answer
Sub-delegation is the further delegation, by a delegate, of the power that the parent statute delegated to him, to some other authority or officer.
The rule is expressed in the maxim delegatus non potest delegare: a delegate cannot further delegate. Sub-delegation is therefore invalid unless the parent Act authorises it, expressly or by necessary implication.
Answer
Public corporations are classified as:
A further working division is into commercial, development, financial, promotional and regulatory or social service corporations, by the function performed.
Answer
The doctrine of legitimate expectation protects a person who, because of an express promise by a public authority or because of a regular and settled practice, reasonably expects a benefit or a hearing, from having that expectation defeated without fairness.
It gives, at the least, a right to be heard before the expectation is departed from, and it makes the departure reviewable for arbitrariness under Article 14.
Answer
A post-decisional hearing is a hearing given after the order has been made, in a case where a pre-decisional hearing was not possible because the situation required immediate action.
It is a substitute in exceptional cases, not the rule. The order remains provisional in effect until the hearing is held and the authority has genuinely reconsidered.
Answer
An Ombudsman is an independent officer, appointed by and answerable to the legislature, who investigates complaints from citizens of maladministration by public authorities, reports his findings and recommends redress.
The institution began in Sweden in 1809 and the word is Swedish for a representative or agent. In India the corresponding offices are the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta in the States, created by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Maharashtra having led the way with the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971.
Short notes
Any four · 20 Marks
Answer
Judicial review is the power of the superior courts to examine the legality of the action of the legislature and the executive, and to declare invalid anything done in excess of, or in abuse of, the powers conferred by the Constitution or by a statute.
Its constitutional basis. Articles 32 and 226 (writ jurisdiction), Articles 13, 245 and 246 (legislative competence and fundamental rights), and Article 136 (special leave). In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) judicial review was held to be part of the basic structure of the Constitution and beyond the amending power.
What it reviews, and what it does not. The court examines the decision-making process, not the merits of the decision. It asks whether the authority had the power, whether it observed the procedure and the principles of natural justice, and whether it took into account the right considerations. It does not sit in appeal and does not substitute its own view for that of the authority.
The three grounds, from Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service (1985), the GCHQ case, adopted in India:
Lord Diplock added that proportionality might in time be a fourth ground, and Indian courts now apply it where fundamental rights are affected.
Limits. The court will refuse relief where there is an adequate alternative remedy, where the petitioner is guilty of laches, where the question is a policy matter or one of pure academic interest, and where the petition raises disputed questions of fact requiring evidence.
Answer
The doctrine. Stated by Montesquieu in L'Esprit des Lois (1748) on his reading of the English constitution: the legislative, executive and judicial powers of the State should be vested in three separate organs, no organ should exercise the function of another, and no person should be a member of more than one organ. Its purpose is to prevent the concentration of power, because "power tends to corrupt".
In India there is no rigid separation. The Constitution recognises the functional division but not a watertight one:
The leading cases. In Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955) the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution has not indeed recognised the doctrine in its absolute rigidity, but the functions of the different parts have been sufficiently differentiated. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which purported to decide an election dispute by constitutional amendment, was struck down: adjudication of a specific dispute is a judicial function which Parliament cannot take upon itself. In Kesavananda Bharati separation of powers was held part of the basic structure.
Answer
Meaning. A tribunal is an adjudicating body outside the ordinary court hierarchy, set up by statute, which decides disputes between the citizen and the administration, or between citizens in a specialised field, by a procedure that is judicial in substance but free of the strict rules of the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act.
Constitutional basis. Articles 323A (administrative tribunals for service matters, by Parliament) and 323B (tribunals for taxation, foreign exchange, industrial disputes, land reforms, elections and other listed matters, by Parliament or a State legislature), inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
Characteristics.
Distinction from a court. A court is part of the traditional judiciary and exercises the judicial power of the State generally; a tribunal is an agency created for a specific purpose. A court is presided over by a judge trained in law; a tribunal may include an administrator or an expert. A court follows the CPC and the Evidence Act; a tribunal follows its own procedure. A court's decisions are precedents; a tribunal's are generally not.
Judicial control. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987) upheld the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, on the footing that the tribunal was an effective substitute for the High Court. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) then held that the power of judicial review of the High Courts under Article 226 and 227 and of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is part of the basic structure and cannot be excluded: tribunal decisions are subject to review by a Division Bench of the High Court, and the exclusion clauses in Articles 323A(2)(d) and 323B(3)(d) are to that extent unconstitutional.
Answer
Parliamentary control exists because the rule-making power is Parliament's own, lent to the executive; the lender retains the right to supervise. It operates at three stages.
1. At the time of delegation. Parliament controls the scope of the power in the parent Act itself: it must lay down the policy and standard, leaving only the details to be filled in, and it may fix the subject matter, the duration and the conditions of the power.
2. Laying before Parliament. The commonest device is the laying requirement, of which there are three forms:
Atlas Cycle Industries Ltd. v. State of Haryana (1979) held that where the statute merely requires a rule to be laid, the laying requirement is directory, so a failure to lay does not by itself invalidate the rule; where it is a condition of validity, it is mandatory.
3. Scrutiny by committee. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha (constituted 1953) and of the Rajya Sabha (1964) examine whether rules are within the powers conferred, whether they impose taxation or oust the jurisdiction of courts, whether they have retrospective effect, and whether there has been unjustifiable delay in laying them.
Answer
Citation. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150.
Facts. A Selection Board was constituted to select officers of the State Forest Service for the Indian Forest Service. Naquishbund, the Acting Chief Conservator of Forests, was a member of the Selection Board and was at the same time a candidate for selection himself. He did not sit when his own name was considered, but he took part in the deliberations when the claims of his rivals were considered, and in the preparation of the final list in which he was placed at the top.
Held. The selection was quashed. The Supreme Court held:
Answer
Citation. Ridge v. Baldwin, [1964] AC 40 (House of Lords).
Facts. Charles Ridge, Chief Constable of Brighton, was tried for conspiracy to obstruct the course of justice and acquitted, but the trial judge made observations critical of his leadership. The Watch Committee dismissed him under Section 191(4) of the Municipal Corporations Act, 1882, which allowed dismissal of a constable "negligent in the discharge of his duty, or otherwise unfit for the same". He was given no notice of the charge and no hearing.
Held. The dismissal was void for breach of natural justice. The House of Lords held:
Answer the situational questions
Any two · 12 Marks
Answer
No. The removal is bad in law and is liable to be quashed.
A head clerk in a Collector's office holds a civil post under a State, so the protection of Article 311 applies to him.
He may file a writ petition under Article 226. The grounds are:
The reliefs to ask for are a writ of certiorari quashing the order of removal, and a writ of mandamus directing reinstatement with consequential benefits. Because the order is void for want of a hearing, the court's normal course is to set it aside and leave the department free to hold a proper inquiry from the stage at which the illegality occurred.
Answer
Yes. The Governor's power of nomination is a conditioned statutory power, not an unfettered discretion, and an appointment outside the condition can be challenged.
The appropriate writ is quo warranto.
Meaning. Quo warranto means "by what authority". It is a writ that calls upon the holder of a public office to show by what authority he holds it, and it removes him if he is found not entitled.
The conditions for its issue, settled in University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965) and Jamalpur Arya Samaj Sabha v. Dr. D. Ram (1954), are:
A seat in the Legislative Council is a public office of a substantive character created by the Constitution, and the alleged defect is want of the qualification prescribed by Article 171(5). Quo warranto therefore lies.
Two further points. In quo warranto the rule of locus standi is relaxed: any member of the public acting bona fide may apply, because the object is to prevent a usurper from occupying a public office and not to vindicate a private right. And the writ operates on the title to the office; it does not decide the merits of the appointee's work.
Answer
The body is the Central Board of Film Certification, constituted under Section 3 of the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
Yes, in principle the Board has the power. The producer's contention that it "should only certify" is wrong.
The remedy. The Act formerly provided an appeal to the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal. That Tribunal was abolished by the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021, and an appeal from the Board now lies to the High Court.
Answer any four 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin of the rule of law; Dicey's three propositions; the criticism of each; the modern and international restatement; where the rule of law sits in the Indian Constitution; and four Indian judgments, of which Indira Nehru Gandhi, ADM Jabalpur and Maneka Gandhi are indispensable.
1. Meaning and origin. The rule of law means that the State and every officer of it are subject to law, that power must be exercised under and according to law, and that no one is above the law. The phrase comes from the French la principe de legalite. Its ancestry is old: Sir Edward Coke in Dr. Bonham's Case (1610) and in his contests with James I asserted that the King is under God and the law, and Bracton had said the same in the thirteenth century.
2. Dicey's three propositions (Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution, 1885):
3. The criticism. Each proposition is now qualified:
4. The modern restatement. The International Commission of Jurists at Delhi in 1959 restated the rule of law as a dynamic concept for the use of lawyers, covering not only the safeguarding of civil and political rights but the creation of the social, economic and cultural conditions in which a person may develop his personality with dignity. This is the version that fits a welfare State and the Indian Directive Principles.
5. The rule of law in the Indian Constitution. It is not written in terms, but it runs through the text: Article 14 (equality before the law and equal protection of the laws), Article 21 (no deprivation of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law), Article 13 (laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void), Article 20 (protection against ex post facto laws and double jeopardy), Articles 32 and 226 (enforceable remedies), Article 300 (the State may sue and be sued), and the independence of the judiciary.
6. The landmark Indian judgments.
Answer
For full marks, cover: what natural justice is and why it has no fixed content; the two classical rules, each with its sub-rules and cases; the third modern rule of reasoned decisions; the exceptions; and the effect of a breach.
1. Meaning. Natural justice is the body of procedural fairness that the common law requires of anyone who decides a matter affecting another's rights or legitimate interests. It is not a code; it is, in Lord Reid's phrase, what a fair-minded person would consider fair in the circumstances. Its Indian foundation is the fairness read into Articles 14 and 21.
2. The first rule: nemo judex in causa sua, no man shall be a judge in his own cause.
The test is not actual bias but a real likelihood of bias, because justice must not only be done but must manifestly be seen to be done. The forms of bias are:
3. The second rule: audi alteram partem, hear the other side.
Its components are:
The leading English case is Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), where a Chief Constable dismissed without notice or hearing had the dismissal declared void, and the House of Lords rejected the requirement of a "superadded duty to act judicially". Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) is the classic older authority: the Board demolished a house built without notice, and was held liable, Byles J. saying that although there are no positive words in a statute requiring a hearing, "the justice of the common law will supply the omission of the legislature".
In India Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) is decisive: the impounding of a passport without a hearing was held to violate Articles 14 and 21, and the Court held that the audi alteram partem rule can be excluded only by express words or necessary implication, and even then only where the exclusion is itself just and fair.
4. The third rule: reasoned decisions. An authority must pass a speaking order. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976) called it "a basic principle of natural justice"; S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India (1990) laid down that reasons must be recorded unless expressly or impliedly dispensed with; and Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) held that an order must stand or fall on the reasons it itself gives.
5. Exceptions. Natural justice is excluded or curtailed in cases of:
6. Effect of a breach. An order made in breach of natural justice is void, not merely voidable, and the ordinary consequence is that it is quashed and the matter is remitted to the authority to be decided afresh from the stage at which the illegality occurred.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and forms; the reasons for its growth; the constitutional problem of delegation; the test laid down in the Delhi Laws Act case; a list of what may be delegated and what may not, each with a case; and the controls.
1. Meaning. Delegated legislation is law made by an authority other than the legislature, under a power conferred by the legislature. Salmond defines it as legislation which proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority.
It takes the form of rules, regulations, bye-laws, orders, notifications, schemes and directions.
2. Reasons for its growth.
3. The constitutional question. India has no express provision on delegation. The question arose in the In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 reference (AIR 1951 SC 332). The Supreme Court held that:
The test is therefore whether the parent Act lays down a policy and a standard which guides the delegate.
4. Permissible delegation. The legislature may validly delegate the power to:
5. Impermissible delegation. The legislature cannot delegate:
Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India (1960) is the standard illustration of impermissible delegation: Section 3(d) of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act empowered the executive to add to a list of diseases "any other disease which may be specified in the rules", with no policy or standard to guide the addition. That was struck down as excessive delegation.
6. The controls. Delegated legislation is controlled in three ways:
Answer
The paper prints "tortuous"; the subject is the tortious liability of the Government, that is, its liability in damages for the wrongful acts of its servants.
For full marks, cover: the constitutional provision and its historical chain; the sovereign and non-sovereign distinction; the five landmark cases in order; the modern departure from Kasturilal; and the separate route of constitutional tort under Articles 32 and 226.
1. The constitutional provision. Article 300(1) provides that the Government of India may sue and be sued by the name of the Union of India, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.
The words "in the like cases" carry the liability back through a chain: Article 300 to Section 176 of the Government of India Act, 1935, to Section 32 of the Government of India Act, 1915, to Section 65 of the Government of India Act, 1858, which fixed the liability of the Secretary of State for India by reference to the liability of the East India Company. The result is that the extent of the Government's liability today is still governed by the law as it stood in 1858, unless Parliament changes it, and Parliament never has.
2. The sovereign and non-sovereign distinction. Because the East India Company had a dual character, trading and governing, the courts drew a line: the State is liable for acts done in the exercise of its non-sovereign functions, that is, functions that a private person could also perform, and not for acts done in the exercise of its sovereign functions, being those which only a State can perform, such as defence, the maintenance of law and order, the administration of justice and the collection of tax.
3. The landmark cases.
4. The constitutional tort. Alongside the ordinary suit, the Supreme Court and the High Courts award compensation in writ proceedings for the violation of fundamental rights. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar (1983): a man kept in jail for fourteen years after his acquittal was awarded compensation under Article 32. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) made the basis explicit: the remedy is a public law remedy based on strict liability for the contravention of fundamental rights, distinct from and in addition to the private law remedy in tort, and sovereign immunity is no defence to it. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down the custodial safeguards and confirmed the award of compensation.
5. The position today. The State is liable:
and it remains immune only for the narrow class of inalienable sovereign functions and for acts of State properly so called.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning and constitutional source; the difference between Article 32 and Article 226; each of the five writs with its meaning, conditions and a case; and the limitations on the exercise of writ jurisdiction.
1. Meaning and source. A writ is a formal written order of a superior court commanding a person or authority to do or to refrain from doing something. The five writs of English origin are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto, and they are the principal weapons of judicial control of administrative action.
They are issued under:
2. The five writs.
(i) Habeas corpus, "you may have the body". It is a command to a person detaining another to produce him before the court and justify the detention. It lies against both the State and a private person. It protects personal liberty under Article 21 and is the remedy against illegal detention, against a detention under a preventive detention law that does not comply with Article 22, and against custody in breach of a court's order. The rule of locus standi is relaxed: a friend or relative, and now any person, may apply. In Sunil Batra (II) v. Delhi Administration (1980) a letter from a prisoner was treated as a habeas corpus petition. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) denied the remedy during the Emergency and is now regarded as wrongly decided; it was overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017). Kanu Sanyal v. District Magistrate, Darjeeling (1974) held that the production of the body is not always essential and the legality of detention can be examined on the record.
(ii) Mandamus, "we command". It is a command to a public authority to perform a public duty which it has refused or failed to perform. Conditions: the applicant must have a legal right; there must be a public duty, statutory or otherwise, and not a merely discretionary or contractual one; there must have been a demand and a refusal; and there must be no other equally efficacious remedy. It does not lie against a private individual, against the President or a Governor (Article 361), to enforce a contract of personal service, or to compel the legislature to make a law. It can compel an authority to exercise a discretion, though not to exercise it in a particular way. Praga Tools Corporation v. C.V. Imanual (1969) settled that mandamus lies against a body performing a public duty even if it is a company. Comptroller and Auditor General v. K.S. Jagannathan (1986) held that the High Court under Article 226 can go beyond the strict limits of the English writ and mould the relief.
(iii) Prohibition. A writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal forbidding it to continue proceedings in excess of its jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice. It is preventive: it issues while the proceeding is pending. It lies only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not against a purely administrative or legislative act. East India Commercial Co. v. Collector of Customs (1962) is the standard authority.
(iv) Certiorari, "to be certified". A writ by which a superior court quashes an order already made by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority. It is curative, whereas prohibition is preventive; the two often issue together. The grounds are want or excess of jurisdiction, violation of natural justice, and error of law apparent on the face of the record. Syed Yakoob v. K.S. Radhakrishnan (1964) is the leading Indian statement of these grounds and of the rule that certiorari does not lie for a mere error of fact. Province of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani (1950) dealt with when a function is quasi-judicial; after A.K. Kraipak (1970) the requirement that the body be "quasi-judicial" has been much relaxed.
(v) Quo warranto, "by what authority". A writ calling upon the holder of a public office of a substantive character to show by what authority he holds it. Conditions: a public office created by statute or the Constitution; of a substantive character; actually held; and held by a person not qualified or appointed contrary to law. University of Mysore v. C.D. Govinda Rao (1965) laid down the conditions. Locus standi is relaxed, so any member of the public acting bona fide may apply.
3. The importance of writs. They are the machinery through which the guarantee of rights becomes a remedy. They are quick, because they are decided on affidavits without a trial; they are discretionary, so the court can shape the relief to the case; they reach every kind of public power, whether the authority is a Minister, a tribunal, a university or a corporation which is "the State" under Article 12; and under Article 32 the remedy itself is a fundamental right, so it cannot be legislated away. The growth of public interest litigation rests on the relaxation of locus standi in writ jurisdiction, established in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981).
4. Limitations. The court will refuse a writ where there is an adequate alternative remedy; where the petitioner is guilty of laches or unexplained delay; where the petition raises disputed questions of fact requiring evidence; where the petitioner has suppressed material facts or comes with unclean hands; where the matter is one of policy; where the petition has become infructuous; and where res judicata applies, a writ petition finally decided on merits barring a second petition on the same cause.
Answer
For full marks, cover: what discretion is and why it is unavoidable; the two great heads of judicial control, failure to exercise and abuse; the sub-heads under each with a case; the doctrines of reasonableness and proportionality; and a short statement of the limits of review.
1. Meaning. Administrative discretion is the power of an authority to choose between courses of action, or to decide whether to act at all, where the law leaves the choice to its judgment. Statutes confer it in words such as "if the Government is satisfied", "as it thinks fit", "where it appears to the authority", "reasonable cause" and "in the public interest".
2. Why it exists. No legislature can foresee every case. A welfare State must license, allot, subsidise, regulate and plan, and each of those requires a judgment on facts that vary from case to case. Dicey thought discretion was the enemy of the rule of law. The modern answer is that the enemy is not discretion but unstructured and unreviewable discretion, and that the remedy is to confine it by policy, structure it by procedure, and check it by review.
3. Judicial control: the two heads. The courts do not ask whether the decision was the best one. They ask whether the discretion was exercised at all, and whether it was exercised lawfully.
A. Failure to exercise discretion. The authority has the power but has not brought its own mind to bear:
B. Abuse of discretion. The authority has exercised the power but has done so improperly:
4. Proportionality. Where a fundamental right is affected, the court asks not merely whether the decision was irrational but whether the means were proportionate to the end: whether the measure pursues a legitimate aim, is suitable and necessary, and strikes a fair balance. Om Kumar v. Union of India (2001) held that proportionality has been applied in India to fundamental-rights cases since 1950, while Wednesbury applies to administrative decisions generally. Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987) applied it to a grossly excessive punishment. Modern Dental College v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) settled the four-part test.
5. Discretion in implementing Government policy. An authority implementing policy may:
6. The limits of review. The court is concerned with legality, rationality and procedural propriety and not with the merits. It will not sit in appeal on questions of policy, of expert or technical judgment, of the allocation of resources, or of the sufficiency of the material on which a subjective satisfaction rests.
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This volume prints the 2017-18 Administrative Law paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 7, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026, revised 11 August 2026.
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