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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Torts 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Torts

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2½ hours  ·  Total marks 75  ·  21 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer any SIX of the following in two sentences 12 Marks

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1.What is meant by Liability by Ratification?[2]

Answer

Liability by ratification arises where a person adopts and confirms, after the event, an act done on his behalf by another without his authority. On ratification the act is treated as though it had been authorised from the beginning, and the ratifier becomes liable for it as if he had done it himself. The maxim is omnis ratihabitio retrotrahitur et mandato priori aequiparatur, every ratification relates back and is equivalent to a prior command.

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2.What is no fault liability under Motor Vehicle Act.[2]

Answer

No fault liability is liability to pay compensation for death or injury arising out of the use of a motor vehicle without the claimant having to plead or prove any wrongful act, neglect or default on the part of the owner or driver.

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 as originally enacted it was provided by Section 140, with structured compensation under Section 163A. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 replaced both with a new Section 164, under which compensation of Rs. 5 lakh is payable in the case of death and Rs. 2.5 lakh in the case of grievous hurt, and the claimant shall not be required to plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default.

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3.What is meant by Trespass-ab-initio?[2]

Answer

Trespass ab initio is a doctrine by which a person who enters land under an authority given by law, and then abuses that authority, is treated as a trespasser from the very beginning, so that his entry, lawful when made, becomes retrospectively unlawful.

The Six Carpenters' Case (1610) 8 Co Rep 146a laid down its two limits: the doctrine applies only where the authority is given by law and not where it is given by the party; and a mere non-feasance, that is an omission, does not make a person a trespasser ab initio, only a misfeasance does.

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4.Define 'Deficiency' under the Consumer Protection Act[2]

Answer

Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines "deficiency" as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and includes:

  1. any act of negligence or omission or commission by such person which causes loss or injury to the consumer; and
  2. deliberate withholding of relevant information by such person to the consumer.
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5.What is meant by 'Waiver'?[2]

Answer

Waiver is one of the modes by which tortious liability is discharged. Where a person injured by a wrong has two or more alternative remedies and elects to pursue one of them, he is taken to have abandoned the other and cannot afterwards fall back on it.

The classic instance is waiver of tort: where the tort has resulted in a gain to the wrongdoer, for example a conversion of goods which he has sold, the plaintiff may waive the tort and sue instead in quasi-contract for money had and received.

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6.What is meant by Nervous Shock under law of tort?[2]

Answer

Nervous shock is a recognisable psychiatric illness caused by the defendant's wrongful act without any direct physical impact on the plaintiff. What must be proved is a medically recognised condition, such as post-traumatic stress disorder or clinical depression; mere grief, sorrow, fright or distress is not enough.

It may be caused intentionally, as in Wilkinson v Downton (1897), or negligently, in which case the ordinary requirements of duty, breach and damage apply.

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7.What is meant by Joint Tort Feasors?[2]

Answer

Joint tort-feasors are two or more persons whose conduct causes a single, indivisible injury to the plaintiff, so that in law they are treated as having committed one tort and not several. The recognised categories are principal and agent, master and servant, partners in a firm, and persons acting in furtherance of a common design.

Their liability is joint and several: the plaintiff may sue any one of them or all, and recover the whole from any one, though he may have only one satisfaction in total.

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8.Define 'Complainant' under the Consumer Protection Act 2019.[2]

Answer

Section 2(5) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines "complainant" as meaning:

  1. a consumer;
  2. any voluntary consumer association registered under any law for the time being in force;
  3. the Central Government or any State Government;
  4. the Central Authority, that is the Central Consumer Protection Authority;
  5. one or more consumers, where there are numerous consumers having the same interest;
  6. in case of death of a consumer, his legal heir or legal representative; or
  7. in case of a consumer being a minor, his parent or legal guardian,

who or which makes a complaint.

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SECTION II

Write Short Notes on any TWO 12 Marks

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9.Claims Tribunals under the Motor Vehicle Act[6]

Answer

Constitution: Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. A State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute one or more Motor Accidents Claims Tribunals for such area as may be specified, for the purpose of adjudicating upon claims for compensation in respect of accidents involving the death of or bodily injury to persons arising out of the use of motor vehicles, or damage to any property of a third party so arising, or both. A person is qualified for appointment only if he is or has been a Judge of a High Court, or is or has been a District Judge, or is qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court or as a District Judge.

Application: Section 166. May be made by the person injured, by the owner of the property, by all or any of the legal representatives of a deceased, or by a duly authorised agent; where some but not all of the legal representatives apply, the others must be impleaded as respondents. It may be filed where the accident occurred, or where the claimant resides or carries on business, or where the defendant resides. Section 166(3), as substituted in 2019, requires the application within six months of the accident, and Section 166(4) treats a police accident report under Section 159 as an application.

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Procedure and powers: Section 169. The Tribunal follows such summary procedure as it thinks fit and has all the powers of a civil court for taking evidence on oath, enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the discovery and production of documents. Its proceedings are judicial proceedings under Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.

Award: Section 168. After giving the parties and the insurer an opportunity of being heard, the Tribunal makes an award determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just, and specifies who shall be paid; the amount is to be deposited within thirty days.

Section 170 allows the Tribunal, where there is collusion or where the person against whom the claim is made fails to contest, to permit the insurer to contest on all grounds, which matters because Section 149(2) otherwise confines the insurer to a limited list of defences. Section 171 allows simple interest from the date of the application, and Section 172 compensatory costs.

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No fault liability. Section 164, substituted in 2019 for the former Sections 140 and 163A, gives Rs. 5 lakh for death and Rs. 2.5 lakh for grievous hurt, the claimant not being required to plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 161 provides hit and run compensation of Rs. 2 lakh and Rs. 50,000, and Section 164B creates a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund.

Bar of civil jurisdiction: Section 175. Where a Tribunal has been constituted, no civil court has jurisdiction over a claim it may adjudicate, and no injunction may be granted.

Appeal: Section 173. To the High Court within ninety days, except where the amount in dispute is less than Rs. 1 lakh; and where the appellant is the person required to pay, on deposit of Rs. 25,000 or fifty per cent of the award, whichever is less.

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10.Extra-Judicial Remedies[6]

Answer

Extra-judicial remedies are those which the injured party may take by his own act, without going to court. They are also called remedies by self-help, and they stand in contrast to the judicial remedies, which are damages, injunction and specific restitution of property.

There are six:

1. Self-defence. A person may use reasonable force to defend his own person, that of another, and his property. The force must be proportionate to the threat and used for defence and not retaliation. Bird v Holbrook (1828) shows the limit: setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence, and a trespasser injured by it recovered damages.

2. Expulsion of a trespasser. An occupier may remove a trespasser using reasonable force, but only after a request to leave and a reasonable opportunity to comply, unless the entry itself was forcible.

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3. Re-entry on land. A person wrongfully dispossessed may re-enter peaceably. He may not use force amounting to a breach of the peace; if he cannot enter peaceably his remedy is a summary suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, brought within six months, in which possession is restored without any enquiry into title.

4. Recaption of goods. The owner of goods wrongfully taken may retake them from the wrongdoer, peaceably and without unnecessary force. He may enter the wrongdoer's land to do so, but the land of an innocent third party only after request and refusal.

5. Abatement of nuisance. The person injured may remove or end the nuisance himself, for example by cutting overhanging branches or removing an obstruction. The right is heavily hedged: notice must ordinarily be given before entering the wrongdoer's land, except in an emergency; no more damage may be done than is necessary; and where two methods are available, the less mischievous must be chosen.

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6. Distress damage feasant. Where a chattel or an animal strays onto a person's land and does damage there, he may seize and detain it until compensation is paid. It is a right of detention as security only: he may not use, work or sell the thing, and must feed and care for an animal so detained. The thing must be on the land at the time of seizure, must have done actual damage, and must be released on tender of a reasonable sum.

The conditions attached to each, which are the substance of the topic and are the same in kind throughout: reasonable force only, exercised peaceably without a breach of the peace; notice wherever it is practicable to give it; and, where two methods are open, the less mischievous.

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The consequence of exceeding the right is severe: the person exercising it becomes a wrongdoer himself. Hamps v Darby [1948] 2 KB 311 is the illustration. A landowner whose drying grain was being eaten by a neighbour's racing pigeons shot four and wounded a fifth without first firing a scaring shot, and was held liable: a less drastic means was available and untried. He had perfectly good remedies in distress damage feasant and in a suit for damages, and by reaching for the most drastic he turned a trifling loss into a substantial liability. Bird v Holbrook (1828) makes the same point about self-defence: a spring gun set without notice is not private defence, and the trespasser it injured recovered.

Why the law tolerates self-help at all. Every item on the list deals with an ongoing state of affairs: a trespasser presently on the land, goods presently in the wrong hands, a nuisance presently continuing, an animal presently eating the crop. None of them yields compensation, because compensation is never urgent and can wait for a judgment. Where the wrong is complete and the remedy is money, the law insists on a court.

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11.State commission under the Consumer Protection Act 2019[6]

Answer

The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is the middle tier of the three-tier machinery, established by the State Government by notification under Section 42 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Composition, Section 42(2). A President and not less than four or such higher number of members as may be prescribed in consultation with the Central Government. Under Section 43 the Central Government prescribes by rules the qualifications, method of recruitment, procedure of appointment, term of office, resignation and removal. Under the 1986 Act, Section 16, the President had to be a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court, appointed in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, with not less than two members, one of whom shall be a woman.

Jurisdiction, Section 47.

  1. Original: complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds the District Commission's limit and does not exceed the prescribed higher limit. After the notification of December 2021 that is above Rs. 50 lakh and up to Rs. 2 crore.
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  1. Unfair contracts: complaints against unfair contracts where the value of the consideration does not exceed Rs. 10 crore.
  2. Appellate: appeals against the orders of any District Commission within the State.
  3. Revisional: power to call for the records of and pass appropriate orders in any consumer dispute pending before or decided by a District Commission where it appears that it has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity.

Other powers. Section 48, power to transfer a complaint from one District Commission to another within the State; Section 49(2), power to declare a term of a contract null and void where it is found to be an unfair contract; Section 50, power to review its own order where there is an error apparent on the face of the record.

The Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning and enforcing attendance, examining witnesses on oath, discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavit, requisitioning test reports and issuing commissions, and its proceedings are judicial proceedings under Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.

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Reliefs, Section 39. Removal of the defect, replacement, return of the price, compensation including punitive damages, removal of the deficiency, discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice, cessation of a misleading advertisement, withdrawal of hazardous goods, a corrective advertisement, payment to the Consumer Welfare Fund where the loss is suffered by a large number of consumers not readily identifiable, and costs.

Appeal, Section 51. To the National Commission within thirty days from an order made in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent of the amount ordered. The proviso limits an appeal from an order made in appellate jurisdiction to a question of law.

Enforcement. An order is enforceable as a decree of a civil court under Section 71, with power to issue a certificate of recovery to the Collector; non-compliance is punishable under Section 72 with imprisonment of one month to three years, or fine of Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 1 lakh, or both.

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12.Types of Defamation[6]

Answer

Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or to make them shun or avoid him, or to expose him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification. The interest protected is reputation, that is what others think of the plaintiff.

Defamation is classified in three ways: by the form of publication, by the manner in which the defamatory meaning is conveyed, and by whether the proceeding is civil or criminal.

A. By form: libel and slander.

Libel is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye: writing, print, a picture, a caricature, a photograph, a statue, an effigy, a film or a broadcast.

Slander is defamation in a transient form addressed to the ear: spoken words or a gesture.

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LibelSlander
Permanent form; addressed to the eye.Transient form; addressed to the ear.
Actionable per se; damage is presumed.In English law, requires proof of special damage, save in four cases.
A crime as well as a tort in English law.Generally only a tort in English law.
Shows greater deliberation; the injury is wider and more lasting.Often uttered in haste; the injury is generally narrower.

The four slanders actionable per se in English law: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl, under the Slander of Women Act, 1891; and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business.

In India the distinction has been held to be of little practical importance, and the High Courts have generally held slander also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167) and D P Choudhary v Manjulata (AIR 1997 Raj 170), where a false newspaper report that an unmarried young woman had eloped was held actionable per se and Rs. 10,000 was awarded.

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B. By the manner of the meaning: direct and by innuendo.

Words may be defamatory on their face, requiring no explanation, or by innuendo, that is by a secondary meaning conveyed to persons who know extrinsic facts, which the plaintiff must plead and prove, together with publication to persons who knew them.

Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph captioned as announcing a man's engagement defamed his actual wife. Tolley v J S Fry and Sons (1931): an amateur golfer in a chocolate advertisement was defamed in the eyes of those who knew the rules of amateur status.

Modern pleading distinguishes the true or legal innuendo, which depends on extrinsic facts, from the false or popular innuendo, which is merely the inference any ordinary reader would draw and is part of the ordinary meaning.

C. Civil and criminal defamation.

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In India defamation is both a tort, redressed by damages and an injunction, and an offence under Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code, whose constitutional validity was upheld in Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221. Section 499 carries ten Exceptions, of which the First requires an imputation to be true and published for the public good, which is narrower than the civil defence of truth.

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SECTION III

Answer any TWO Situational Based Questions 12 Marks

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13.Meera went to Sagar, who is a senior clerk at a local insurance company and also her neighbor. She gave him the premium amount in cash to be deposited for her life insurance policy. Sagar took the money and promised to bring the official receipt to her the next day.[6]

  • (a) Is the Insurance company liable? Explain.
  • (b) What remedy is available to Meera?

Answer

However, Sagar spent the money on his personal gambling debts and never deposited it with the company. When the policy lapsed, Meera sued the insurance company for the loss.

a) Is the Insurance company liable? Explain.

The answer turns on one question: was Sagar receiving the premium in the course of his employment, or as a private favour to a neighbour?

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The governing principle. A master is vicariously liable for the fraud of his servant committed in the course of employment, and it makes no difference that the servant acted for his own benefit and not for the master's. That is the holding in Lloyd v Grace, Smith and Co [1912] AC 716, where a solicitor's managing clerk fraudulently induced a widow client to convey her cottages to himself and absconded with the proceeds; the firm was held liable, the House of Lords rejecting the earlier view that a master answers only for frauds from which he benefits.

If Sagar was acting in the course of his employment, the company is liable.

He would be, if receiving premiums in cash was part of his duties as a senior clerk, or if the company held him out as having authority to receive them, or if it knowingly permitted its clerks to collect premiums from policyholders. The reasoning is that of Lloyd v Grace, Smith: the employment created the opportunity for the fraud, and as between an innocent policyholder and the employer who put the man in that position, the loss falls on the employer.

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Two further supports apply in insurance specifically. Section 64VB of the Insurance Act, 1938 provides that no risk shall be assumed unless the premium is received in advance, and sub-section (4) requires a person who collects a premium on behalf of an insurer to deposit it with, or despatch it to, the insurer in full without deduction within twenty-four hours. That sub-section proceeds on the footing that collection by an authorised person is collection by the insurer. And the consumer commissions have repeatedly held that once a premium has been paid to an authorised agent or official, the insurer is bound, and the agent's misappropriation is the insurer's problem, not the insured's.

If Sagar was acting privately, the company is not liable.

Three features of the problem point that way and must be dealt with honestly:

  1. Meera "went to Sagar", not to the company's office;
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  1. the problem stresses that he was "also her neighbour", which suggests she dealt with him as a neighbour rather than as the company's officer; and
  2. she took no receipt, being content with a promise to bring one the next day. A person paying an insurance premium to a company ordinarily receives a receipt at once, and the absence of one is evidence that the transaction was not one the company was conducting.

On that footing Sagar was on a frolic of his own: Storey v Ashton (1869), where a carman, his round finished, drove off on a private errand and the master was not liable; and Beard v London General Omnibus Co (1900), where the act was of a different kind from the one employed for.

Conclusion. The company is liable if Meera proves that receiving premiums was within Sagar's actual or ostensible authority. If she cannot, her remedy is against Sagar personally, in deceit and for conversion of the money, and by prosecution for criminal breach of trust under Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code and cheating under Section 415.

b) What remedy is available to Meera?

1. Against the insurance company, if vicarious liability is established.

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  • A consumer complaint for deficiency in service under Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which now expressly includes any act of negligence or omission or commission. She is a consumer under Section 2(7), insurance being expressly within "service" in Section 2(42).
  • The relief she actually wants is a direction that the policy be treated as subsisting, that is that the premium be credited as paid on the date she handed it over, and that the lapse be set aside. Under Section 39 the Commission may order removal of the deficiency, compensation for the loss and injury including mental agony, refund, punitive damages and costs.
  • A civil suit on the contract of insurance, preserved by Section 100, seeking a declaration that the policy subsists.

2. Against Sagar personally, in every case.

  • Deceit, on which the essentials are a false representation of fact, made knowingly or recklessly, intended to be acted on, acted on, and causing damage: Derry v Peek (1889);
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  • Conversion of the money, or the alternative restitutionary claim in quasi-contract for money had and received, by waiving the tort, which is worth doing because the measure is his gain; and
  • criminal complaint for criminal breach of trust and cheating.

3. A complaint to the insurance regulator and the ombudsman.

  • To the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India under the IRDAI Act, 1999, since misappropriation of a premium by an official is a matter of regulatory concern and touches Section 64VB; and
  • to the Insurance Ombudsman under the Insurance Ombudsman Rules, 2017, which is free, quick and expressly covers disputes about premium paid or payable and the repudiation or lapse of a policy.

4. Practical steps which decide such cases: produce any entry in a passbook or diary, any message or call record with Sagar, evidence that she had paid premiums to him before and that the company had accepted them, and evidence of the company's practice of allowing collection by staff. Each of those goes to ostensible authority, which is the issue on which the case turns.

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14.Ms. Riya visited a cafe with her friend and ordered a bottled cold drink. The drink was served in an opaque, sealed bottle. After consuming a part of it, she poured the remaining contents into a glass and was shocked to find a dead insect inside. Soon after, she felt nauseous and fell ill.[6]

  • (a) Can Ms. Riya bring legal action against the manufacturer?
  • (b) Who can be held liable in such a situation? Give reasons.

Answer

The cafe owner claimed that he had purchased the drink from a reputed manufacturer and was not aware of any defect. The manufacturer argued that there was no direct contract between them and Ms.

Riya.

a) Can Ms. Riya bring legal action against the manufacturer?

Yes. The absence of a contract is no answer.

These are the facts of Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, reproduced almost exactly, and the manufacturer's argument is the very argument the House of Lords rejected.

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The facts of the case. On 26 August 1928 Mrs May Donoghue went to the Wellmeadow Cafe in Paisley with a friend, who bought her a bottle of ginger beer. The bottle was of dark opaque glass and was sealed, so its contents could not be examined. She drank part of it, and when the remainder was poured into a glass the decomposed remains of a snail floated out. She suffered shock and severe gastro-enteritis and sued the manufacturer, with whom she had no contract at all.

Held, by a majority of three to two, that the manufacturer owed her a duty of care. Lord Atkin's neighbour principle:

"You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour", a neighbour being anyone "so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation".

The narrower rule, which applies here, has three limbs, and each is satisfied:

  1. The product was sold in a form showing that the manufacturer intended it to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which it left him. A sealed bottle of a cold drink is the paradigm.
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  1. There was no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination. The bottle was opaque and sealed; neither the cafe nor Riya could inspect the contents. This is the limb the facts emphasise, and it is decisive.
  2. The manufacturer knew that want of care would result in injury to the consumer's life or property.

The privity argument fails because the duty is in tort, not in contract. Tort duties are fixed by law and owed to persons generally, a right in rem; contract duties are fixed by the parties and owed only to the other party, a right in personam. That separation is what Donoghue v Stevenson established, and it is why the consumer, whose contract was with the retailer, can sue the only person who could have prevented the harm.

She need not prove how the insect got in. Res ipsa loquitur applies: the bottling was in the manufacturer's exclusive control, dead insects do not get into sealed bottles if proper care is taken, and the cause is unknown to her. The evidential burden shifts to the manufacturer.

b) Who can be held liable in such a situation? Give reasons.

Both the manufacturer and the cafe are liable, and Riya may proceed against either or both.

1. The manufacturer.

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  • In tort, for negligence, on Donoghue v Stevenson.
  • Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, for a defect in goods under Section 2(10). Riya is a consumer under Section 2(7); and note that even though her friend may have paid, she is a user with the approval of the buyer, which is the statutory answer to the privity problem.
  • Under product liability, Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87). Under Section 84 a product manufacturer is liable where the product contains a manufacturing defect, deviates from manufacturing specifications, or does not conform to an express warranty, and Section 84(2) makes him liable on an express warranty even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent. This is the strongest route where harm has been suffered, "harm" being defined in Section 2(22) to include illness and mental agony attendant on personal injury.
  • Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006: a bottled drink containing a dead insect is unsafe food within Section 3(1)(zz), with penalties under Sections 50 to 59, and a complaint lies to the Food Safety Officer.

2. The cafe owner.

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His plea that he bought from a reputed manufacturer and did not know of the defect is a good answer in negligence, since he could not have inspected a sealed opaque bottle. It is no answer to the following:

  • Deficiency in service under Section 2(11): he served food and drink for consideration, and serving an unfit article is a shortcoming in the manner of performance.
  • Product seller's liability under Section 86, which fixes liability on a product seller in the circumstances there specified, including where he has exercised substantial control over the product, has altered or modified it in a manner that contributed to the harm, or where the product manufacturer is not identifiable or cannot be reached. That last limb is the practical protection for a consumer.
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  • Contract, on the implied conditions in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930: Section 16(1), fitness for the particular purpose made known to the seller, and Section 16(2), merchantable quality. Note the proviso to Section 16(2): the implied condition does not extend to defects which an examination ought to have revealed, and a sealed opaque bottle reveals nothing, so the proviso does not help him.
  • The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, under which a person who sells unsafe food is liable independently of the manufacturer.

3. Practically, Riya should join both in one complaint. They are, in respect of her injury, answerable on concurrent grounds, she may recover from whichever can pay, and the cafe's remedy is over against its supplier on the contract of sale.

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15.Mr. Khanna was admitted to "City Care Hospital" for a routine appendix removal surgery. The surgery was declared successful by the head surgeon. However, three days after being discharged, Mr. Khanna began experiencing excruciating abdominal pain and high fever.[6]

  • (a) Is Mr. Khanna a 'consumer'? Explain.
  • (b) Advise Mr. Khanna regarding the remedies available to him under law.

Answer

He was rushed back to the hospital, where an X-ray revealed that a surgical gauze (cotton swab) had been left inside his abdomen during the initial operation. He had to undergo a second emergency surgery to remove the foreign object and treat a resulting infection.

a) Is Mr. Khanna a 'consumer'? Explain.

Yes. He is a consumer.

The governing authority is Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651, in which a three judge Bench of the Supreme Court held:

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  1. Medical treatment is a "service" within the definition, now Section 2(42) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The definition is inclusive and there is nothing in it to exclude medical practitioners.
  2. It is not a "contract of personal service", which is the phrase the definition excludes. That phrase imports a master and servant relationship, and a doctor treating a patient is engaged under a contract for services, in which the patient controls what is done but not how.
  3. Where a hospital renders service free of charge to everybody, the patient is not a consumer; where it charges, he is; where it charges some and treats others free, the patient treated free is a consumer as a beneficiary; and where the fee is paid by an insurer or employer, the patient is a consumer.
  4. The existence of a statutory Council with disciplinary powers does not oust the consumer forum, because the Council can punish professional misconduct but cannot award compensation.
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Applying that here. Mr Khanna was admitted to a hospital for surgery. A hospital of that description charges for its services, so he hired a service for consideration and falls squarely within Section 2(7)(ii). He is a consumer, and the fact that the fee may have been paid by an insurer or employer would not change the answer.

And he will succeed on the merits. A surgical gauze left inside the abdomen is not an error of clinical judgment on which the law is protective of doctors; it is a failure of an elementary precaution, namely the counting of swabs and instruments before closure, which every operating theatre observes as routine.

  • The standard is the Bolam test, adopted in India in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1: a doctor is not negligent if he acted in accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of medical men skilled in that art. No responsible body of surgeons regards leaving a swab in the abdomen as proper practice.
  • Res ipsa loquitur applies: the instrumentality was in the exclusive control of the surgeon and theatre staff; such things do not happen in the ordinary course if proper care is used; and the cause is unknown to an anaesthetised patient. The evidential burden shifts to the hospital.
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  • The Indian case on these exact facts is Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, where a mop was left in the abdomen during a sterilisation operation, peritonitis followed and the patient died; the Supreme Court applied res ipsa loquitur, held the doctors negligent, and held the State vicariously liable, rejecting the plea of sovereign immunity.
  • V Kishan Rao v Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital (2010) 5 SCC 513 holds that expert evidence is not required in every case, particularly where res ipsa loquitur applies.

The hospital is liable as well as the surgeon, vicariously for the negligence of the surgeons, anaesthetists, nurses and technicians it employs, and directly for any failure of its own systems, such as the absence of a swab count protocol.

b) Advise Mr. Khanna regarding the remedies available to him under law.

1. A complaint before the Consumer Commission.

  • Where: under Section 34(2) before the District Commission where he resides or personally works for gain, or where the hospital carries on business, or where the cause of action arose.
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  • Which tier: by the value of the consideration paid, that is the hospital's charges. Up to Rs. 50 lakh goes to the District Commission, above Rs. 50 lakh and up to Rs. 2 crore to the State Commission, and above that to the National Commission.
  • When: within two years of the cause of action, under Section 69.
  • On what grounds: deficiency in service under Section 2(11), which now expressly includes any act of negligence or omission or commission causing loss or injury.
  • What to claim, under Section 39: compensation for the second surgery, hospitalisation and medication, for pain and suffering, for loss of earnings during the additional period of incapacity, and for mental agony and harassment; refund of the charges of the first operation; punitive damages under Section 39(1)(d); and costs.
  • Mediation under Section 37 is available if both sides consent, and often produces the fastest settlement.

2. A civil suit for negligence, preserved by Section 100, the Act being in addition to and not in derogation of any other law. This is the better route where the claim is very large, since the Commission's pecuniary jurisdiction is tied to the consideration paid, not to the compensation sought.

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3. A complaint to the State Medical Council under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019 and the professional conduct regulations, for professional misconduct. The Council may warn, suspend or remove the practitioner from the register, but it cannot award compensation, which is why this is a supplementary and not an alternative remedy.

4. Criminal proceedings under Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code for a rash or negligent act, though only in an extreme case: Jacob Mathew requires the negligence to be of a gross degree for criminal liability, and directs that an FIR against a doctor should ordinarily not be registered without an independent and competent medical opinion. On these facts, where the patient survived, this route is unlikely and unnecessary.

5. Practical steps. Obtain the complete medical records, which the hospital is bound to supply, the X-ray showing the retained gauze, the operation notes and swab count record of the first surgery, and the discharge summary and operation notes of the second. The swab count record is the single most important document, because its absence or falsity is decisive.

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16.Mr. Agarwal owns a textile mill and builds a large water reservoir on his land for his factory. He hires independent contractors who are qualified engineers for the work. During construction, some old underground shafts are found but are not properly checked.[6]

  • (a) Is Mr. Agarwal liable for the damage caused to Mr. Birju? Explain with reasons.
  • (b) What are the essential elements required to establish liability in such cases?

Answer

After the reservoir is filled, water escapes through these shafts into a nearby coal mine owned by Mr. Birju, causing heavy damage and stopping his work.

a) Is Mr. Agarwal liable for the damage caused to Mr. Birju? Explain with reasons.

Yes. Mr Agarwal is liable, under the rule of strict liability in Rylands v Fletcher.

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These are the facts of Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330 itself, with the names changed. The defendant, a mill owner, engaged independent contractors who were competent engineers to construct a reservoir on his land. In the course of the work they came upon disused mine shafts filled with earth, which they did not block properly. Neither they nor the defendant knew that these shafts communicated with the workings of the plaintiff's coal mine on adjoining land. When the reservoir was filled, water escaped down the shafts and flooded the mine. The defendant himself was guilty of no negligence. He was held liable.

Blackburn J stated the rule in the Court of Exchequer Chamber:

"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape."

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Lord Cairns LC, in the House of Lords, affirmed the rule and added that it applies where the defendant has made a non-natural use of his land, that is a special use bringing increased danger, and not the ordinary use of land.

The three essentials, applied to Mr Agarwal:

  1. A dangerous thing. He brought onto his land and collected there a large body of water, which is plainly something likely to do mischief if it escapes.
  2. Escape. The water escaped from his land, through the shafts, into Mr Birju's mine, that is to a place outside his occupation and control. Contrast Read v J Lyons and Co (1947), where an inspector injured by a shell exploding inside a factory failed for want of an escape.
  3. Non-natural use. Impounding a large reservoir for the purposes of a textile mill is a special use of land bringing with it increased danger, and not the ordinary use of land. Contrast Rickards v Lothian (1913), where the ordinary domestic water supply to a lavatory basin was held a natural use.

Two points make the case against him unanswerable.

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His own freedom from negligence is irrelevant. That is the whole point of strict liability. Liability attaches because he collected the dangerous thing for his own purposes, not because he did anything carelessly.

Employing competent independent contractors is no defence. This is the single most important feature of Rylands v Fletcher and the fact the examiner has planted. The general rule is that an employer is not liable for the torts of an independent contractor, but that rule does not apply to a liability which is strict and a duty which is non-delegable. Agarwal cannot escape by pointing to the engineers, though he has his own remedy over against them for their negligence.

Alternative grounds. The escape of water into an adjoining mine is also a private nuisance, being an unreasonable interference causing material physical injury to property, for which the character of the locality is no defence: St Helen's Smelting Co v Tipping (1865). And there is an independent claim in negligence against the contractors, who found the old shafts and did not properly check them.

Mr Birju's damages cover the flooding damage to the mine and the workings, and the consequential loss of the stoppage of his work, that is loss of production and profit for the period.

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b) What are the essential elements required to establish liability in such cases?

The three essentials of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher:

1. The defendant must have brought onto his land and collected there something likely to do mischief if it escapes.

The thing must be accumulated by the defendant for his own purposes, so the rule does not apply to things naturally on the land, such as rocks, weeds or naturally accumulating water. Things held to be within the rule include water, gas, electricity, explosives, fire, poisonous fumes, sewage, vibrations, and even a flagpole and a chair-o-plane at a fair.

2. There must be an escape.

The thing must escape from a place in the defendant's occupation or control to a place outside it. Read v J Lyons and Co (1947) is the limiting case: no escape, no liability, however dangerous the thing.

3. There must be a non-natural use of the land.

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Added by Lord Cairns LC. The use must be special and attended with increased danger, and not the ordinary use of land or such use as is proper for the general benefit of the community. The test moves with social conditions: Rickards v Lothian (1913).

The five exceptions, any one of which defeats the claim:

  1. Plaintiff's own default, and damage due to the abnormal sensitivity of his property: Ponting v Noakes (1894);
  2. Act of God: Nichols v Marsland (1876);
  3. Consent of the plaintiff, covering the common benefit cases: Carstairs v Taylor (1871);
  4. Act of a third party, that is the unforeseeable act of a stranger over whom the defendant has no control: Box v Jubb (1879); and
  5. Statutory authority: Green v Chelsea Waterworks Co (1894).

None of the five is available to Mr Agarwal. Birju did nothing; there was no natural catastrophe; he did not consent; the contractors were his own contractors and not strangers; and no statute authorised the reservoir.

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The Indian development. In M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395 the Supreme Court laid down absolute liability for hazardous or inherently dangerous industry, which is subject to no exception whatever, requires no escape so that workmen inside are covered, and measures compensation by the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise. A modern Indian court dealing with a large industrial reservoir might well apply that rule rather than Rylands v Fletcher, and it would make Mr Agarwal's position worse, not better.

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SECTION IV

Answer any THREE questions in detail 39 Marks

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17.Define 'Tort' and explain the difference between a Tort, a Crime, and a Breach of Contract.[13]

Answer

A. Definition of tort.

A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or a breach of trust, for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages. The word derives from the Latin tortum, twisted or crooked, through the French tort, a wrong. This is Salmond's definition.

Winfield's definition is fuller: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."

Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 gives the statutory definition in Salmond's terms.

The three essentials of a tort are a wrongful act or omission, that is the violation of a duty fixed by law; legal damage, that is injuria, which the law presumes in torts actionable per se; and a legal remedy in the form of an action for unliquidated damages.

B. Tort and crime.

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TortCrime
A private wrong against an individual.A public wrong against the community and the State.
The injured party sues in his own name, and may abandon or compromise the claim.The State prosecutes; most offences are not compoundable except under Section 320 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
The remedy is compensation: unliquidated damages paid to the plaintiff.The consequence is punishment: imprisonment or fine, the fine going to the State.
Proof on the balance of probabilities.Proof beyond reasonable doubt.
Damage is generally essential, save in torts actionable per se.Damage is not essential; conduct is punished for the risk it creates.
Motive is generally irrelevant.Mens rea is generally an essential ingredient.
Vicarious liability exists: a master answers for his servant's tort in the course of employment.Criminal liability is personal; there is no general vicarious liability.
Largely uncodified in India.Codified: the Indian Penal Code and special statutes.
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They overlap. The same act may be both: an assault gives the victim a civil action and exposes the assailant to prosecution, and the proceedings are independent, so an acquittal does not bar the suit. Historically the two were the same thing, compensation being paid to the injured man or his kin; the distinction emerged only as the State grew strong enough to prosecute. They converge again today: Section 357 of the Code of Criminal Procedure allows a criminal court to award compensation to the victim, and Section 357A provides a victim compensation scheme; conversely, tort has borrowed from crime in awarding exemplary damages.

C. Tort and breach of contract.

TortBreach of contract
The duty is fixed by law.The duty is fixed by the parties.
The duty is owed to persons generally: a right in rem.The duty is owed to the other party alone: a right in personam.
No privity is required.Privity is essential; a stranger cannot sue on the contract.
Damages are always unliquidated, assessed by the court.Damages may be liquidated, fixed by the agreement.
Consent is not an element of the relationship.Consent is its foundation.
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TortBreach of contract
The object is restitutio in integrum: to restore the status quo ante.The object is to place the plaintiff in the position he would have been in had the contract been performed.
Remoteness is tested by reasonable foreseeability (The Wagon Mound, 1961).Remoteness is tested by the two rules in Hadley v Baxendale (1854): losses arising naturally, and losses in the contemplation of both parties.
Exemplary damages may be awarded.Exemplary damages are not, as a rule, awarded.

Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) shows why the difference matters: the consumer of the ginger beer had no contract with the manufacturer and would have had no remedy at all on a contractual analysis; she succeeded in tort, because the duty was owed to persons generally.

They are not mutually exclusive. A surgeon who operates carelessly commits both; a carrier who damages goods commits both. The plaintiff may choose, and the choice matters for limitation, for remoteness, and for whether exemption clauses apply.

D. Tort and breach of trust.

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Salmond's definition excludes breach of trust as well. There the duty arises from a fiduciary relationship, was historically enforced in equity, and produces a liquidated liability to account; Section 23 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 requires the trustee to make good the loss. The exclusion is historical rather than logical: before the fusion of law and equity the two were administered by different courts with different remedies.

E. Tort and quasi-contract.

Quasi-contractual obligations under Sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are restitutionary: the measure is the defendant's gain, not the plaintiff's loss. Where a tort has enriched the wrongdoer, the plaintiff may waive the tort and sue in quasi-contract, which is worth doing where the gain exceeds the loss.

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18.Explain the three-tier system of Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.[13]

Answer

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 retains and restructures the three-tier machinery: the District Commission in each district, the State Commission in each State, and the National Commission, with a further appeal to the Supreme Court.

1. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 28 to 41).

Establishment, Section 28. The State Government shall, by notification, establish a District Commission in each district, and may establish more than one in a district.

Composition, Section 29. A President and not less than two members as may be prescribed by the Central Government; the qualifications, method of recruitment, procedure of appointment, term of office, resignation and removal are prescribed under Section 30. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be qualified to be a District Judge, with two members, one of whom shall be a woman.

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Pecuniary jurisdiction, Section 34(1). Where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed the prescribed amount, which after the notification of December 2021 is Rs. 50 lakh.

Territorial jurisdiction, Section 34(2). Where the opposite party resides, carries on business, has a branch office or personally works for gain; where any one of several opposite parties does so, with the Commission's permission or the others' acquiescence; where the cause of action wholly or in part arises; or where the complainant resides or personally works for gain. The last ground is new in 2019 and is the most consumer-friendly change in the chapter.

Procedure, Section 38. Reference to the opposite party, who must respond within thirty days, extendable by fifteen; sealing and reference of goods to an appropriate laboratory where analysis is required; powers of a civil court under Section 38(9); power to decide ex parte; electronic filing and hearing by video conferencing under Section 38(6A); and disposal ordinarily within three months, or five months where analysis is required, under Section 38(7).

Appeal, Section 41. To the State Commission within forty-five days, on deposit of fifty per cent of the amount ordered.

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2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 42 to 52).

Establishment, Section 42, by the State Government. Composition: a President and not less than four or such higher number of members as prescribed in consultation with the Central Government. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be a Judge or former Judge of a High Court.

Jurisdiction, Section 47: original, above Rs. 50 lakh and up to Rs. 2 crore; unfair contracts, up to Rs. 10 crore; appellate, over the District Commissions in the State; revisional, where a District Commission has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity.

Section 48, transfer of a case within the State; Section 49(2), power to declare an unfair contract term void; Section 50, review.

Appeal, Section 51. To the National Commission within thirty days from an order in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent; the proviso limits an appeal from an appellate order to a question of law.

3. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 53 to 67).

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Establishment, Section 53, by the Central Government. Composition, Section 54: a President and not less than four or such higher number of members as prescribed. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be a Judge or former Judge of the Supreme Court.

Jurisdiction, Section 58: original, above Rs. 2 crore; unfair contracts, above Rs. 10 crore; appellate, over the State Commissions, and over orders of the Central Consumer Protection Authority under Sections 20 and 21 by virtue of Section 24; revisional, over the State Commissions.

Section 62, transfer of a case from one State Commission to another; Section 59(2), unfair contract terms; Section 60, review.

Appeal, Section 67. To the Supreme Court within thirty days from an order in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent.

4. Common provisions.

  • Who may complain, Section 2(5): a consumer; a registered voluntary consumer association; the Central or a State Government; the Central Authority; numerous consumers having the same interest; a deceased consumer's legal heir; and a minor's parent or legal guardian.
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  • Grounds, Section 2(6): unfair contract, unfair or restrictive trade practice, defect in goods, deficiency in services, charging in excess, hazardous goods or services, and a product liability action.
  • Reliefs, Section 39: removal of the defect, replacement, return of the price, compensation including punitive damages, removal of the deficiency, discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice, cessation of a misleading advertisement, withdrawal of hazardous goods, a corrective advertisement, payment to the Consumer Welfare Fund where the loss is suffered by a large number of consumers not readily identifiable, and costs.
  • Mediation, Section 37 and Chapter V (Sections 74 to 81): reference with the parties' written consent; a recorded settlement is not appealable.
  • Limitation, Section 69: two years, extendable for sufficient cause with reasons recorded.
  • Enforcement, Section 71: enforceable as a decree of a civil court, with a certificate of recovery to the Collector for recovery as arrears of land revenue.
  • Penalty, Section 72: imprisonment of one month to three years, or fine of Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 1 lakh, or both.
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19.Explain Remoteness of Damage with relevant case laws.[13]

Answer

A. The problem.

Every wrongful act sets off a chain of consequences which in theory never ends. If the defendant were liable for all of them, liability would be indeterminate. The law therefore draws a line: he answers for consequences which are proximate and not for those which are too remote. Remoteness arises only after liability is established; it is not about whether he was at fault but about how far his responsibility extends.

B. The first test: directness. Re Polemis (1921).

In re Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co [1921] 3 KB 560: once negligence is shown, the defendant is liable for all the direct consequences, however unforeseeable.

Facts. A ship carried a cargo including tins of petrol, which leaked so that the hold filled with petrol vapour. During unloading at Casablanca the charterers' servants negligently let a heavy plank fall into the hold; it produced a spark, ignited the vapour, and the ship was destroyed by fire.

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Held. Liable for the whole loss. Damage from the falling plank was foreseeable; destruction by fire was not. But the fire was the direct consequence, and that sufficed. Scrutton LJ: if the act would or might probably cause damage, the fact that the damage it in fact causes is not the exact kind one would expect is immaterial, so long as it is directly traceable.

Criticism. The rule was unjust to defendants, making liability turn on the accident of physical sequence rather than on anything the defendant could have contemplated.

C. The modern test: reasonable foreseeability. The Wagon Mound (1961).

Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v Morts Dock and Engineering Co Ltd, The Wagon Mound (No. 1) [1961] AC 388 (PC), overruled Re Polemis.

Facts. The appellants' ship was taking on furnace oil in Sydney Harbour; through the carelessness of their servants oil was spilled and drifted about 200 yards to the respondents' wharf, where welding was in progress. Work was stopped and resumed on advice that furnace oil could not be ignited on water. Two days later molten metal fell on cotton waste floating on the oil, which acted as a wick, ignited the oil, and the wharf was destroyed.

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Held. Not liable for the fire. Damage by fouling was foreseeable, damage by fire was not. Viscount Simonds: it is the foresight of the reasonable man which alone can determine responsibility, and it does not accord with current ideas of justice or morality that a man should be liable for all consequences however unforeseeable.

D. The qualification: The Wagon Mound (No. 2) (1967).

Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v The Miller Steamship Co [1967] 1 AC 617, on the same fire, brought by shipowners: on that evidence a reasonable engineer would have realised there was a small but real risk of ignition. Held liable: a risk foreseeable though very slight must be guarded against where there is no justification for running it.

E. What must be foreseeable: the kind of damage, not its extent or manner.

Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963] AC 837: workmen left an open manhole surrounded by paraffin lamps; a boy knocked one in, there was an explosion, and he was burned. Liable: injury by burning was foreseeable, the manner was not, and that did not matter.

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Doughty v Turner Manufacturing Co [1964] 1 QB 518: an asbestos cover fell into molten liquid, producing a chemical eruption. Not liable: injury by splashing was foreseeable, injury by chemical reaction was a different kind.

F. The eggshell skull rule survives.

Once damage of a foreseeable kind is established, the defendant takes his victim as he finds him and answers for its full extent. Smith v Leech Brain and Co [1962] 2 QB 405, decided after Wagon Mound: a negligent burn on the lip caused a pre-malignant condition to become cancerous and the workman died; the employers were liable for the death. Dulieu v White and Sons (1901): it is no answer that the sufferer had an unusually thin skull or weak heart.

G. Intervening cause: novus actus interveniens.

A free, deliberate and informed act of a third party or of the plaintiff generally breaks the chain, but not where the defendant's duty was precisely to guard against that act: Stansbie v Troman (1948), the decorator who left the house unlocked and was liable for the theft; Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co (1970), the escaping borstal boys.

H. The Indian position.

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Indian courts follow The Wagon Mound, and apply the eggshell skull rule in personal injury and motor accident claims, where the assessment principles are those of Sarla Verma v Delhi Transport Corporation (2009) 6 SCC 121 and the Constitution Bench in National Insurance Co Ltd v Pranay Sethi (2017) 16 SCC 680.

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20.What are the general defences available in an action of Tort?[13]

Answer

Even where the plaintiff proves every ingredient of a tort, the defendant may escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is one available across the law of torts rather than peculiar to a single tort.

1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). No injury is done to one who is willing. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies.

Two elements: knowledge and consent, both required; mere knowledge will not do, so scienti non fit injuria is not the law. Smith v Baker (1891): a workman who knew stones were being swung over his head and worked on had not consented, a man under economic compulsion not being a volunteer. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933): a spectator at a motor race had accepted the risks inherent in the spectacle. Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222).

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Limits. Consent obtained by fraud is no consent (Hegarty v Shine, 1878); consent under legal or moral compulsion is no consent, so a rescuer is not met by the defence (Haynes v Harwood, 1935); volenti is no answer to a breach of statutory duty (Wheeler v New Merton Board Mills, 1933); and a spectator accepts inherent risks but not a reckless disregard of his safety (Wooldridge v Sumner, 1963).

2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause; the defence is narrow, and the illegality must be connected with the harm. Bird v Holbrook (1828): a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered.

3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by ordinary care, caution and skill. Stanley v Powell (1891); Brown v Kendall (1850); Assam State Cooperative Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18). No defence to strict liability.

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4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it. Nichols v Marsland (1876) succeeded; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917) failed; Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197): the act of a mob is the act of man. Unlike inevitable accident, act of God is an exception to Rylands v Fletcher.

5. Private defence. Reasonable and proportionate force to protect one's own person or property, or another's. Setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence.

6. Mistake. As a rule mistake, of fact or of law, is no defence: a person who enters land honestly believing it his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the state of mind is an ingredient, notably malicious prosecution and deceit, and qualified privilege in defamation.

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7. Necessity. An act causing damage but done to prevent a greater harm: throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to arrest a fire, operating on an unconscious patient. Cope v Sharpe (1912); Leigh v Gladstone (1909). The maxim is salus populi suprema lex. Distinguish private defence, where the plaintiff is the source of the danger, and inevitable accident, where the harm was unintended.

8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the defendant is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute or conditional. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860) and Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869), against Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881).

9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts, protected in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850.

10. Parental and quasi-parental authority, much narrowed by Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 and Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.

11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex.

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A partial defence: contributory negligence, which now reduces the damages in proportion to the plaintiff's share of responsibility rather than defeating the claim: the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945, and in India Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731.

12. Necessity distinguished from the two defences it is confused with. Private defence answers a danger created by the plaintiff himself; necessity answers a danger created by neither party, and the person harmed is usually innocent; inevitable accident denies that the harm was intended or careless at all. The distinction decides which facts must be proved.

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13. Contributory negligence, the partial defence. The plaintiff's failure to take reasonable care of his own safety, which at common law was a complete defence (Butterfield v Forrester, 1809), was softened by the last opportunity rule (Davies v Mann, 1842; British Columbia Electric Railway v Loach, 1916), and is now met by apportionment: the claim is not defeated and the damages are reduced to the extent the court thinks just and equitable. England by the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945; India as a rule of justice, equity and good conscience, Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731. The burden lies on the defendant, and where the injured person is dead the law presumes he took reasonable care of himself.

Where contributory negligence itself fails: the dilemma or alternative danger principle (Jones v Boyce, 1816; Shyam Sunder v State of Rajasthan, 1974); rescuers (Haynes v Harwood, 1935); children, judged by the standard of a child of that age (Yachuk v Oliver Blais Co, 1949); and cases where the defendant's duty was precisely to guard against the plaintiff's carelessness.

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21.What is the rationale of Absolute Liability? Explain with reference to the M.C. Mehta vs. UOI case.[13]

Answer

A. What absolute liability is.

Absolute liability is liability without fault and without exception: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable to compensate everyone harmed by an accident in the operation of that activity, and none of the exceptions which qualify strict liability is available to it. It was laid down by the Supreme Court in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395.

B. The rule it replaced.

Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330 established strict liability. Blackburn J: "the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape." Lord Cairns LC added the requirement of a non-natural use of land.

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Its three essentials were a dangerous thing, an escape, and a non-natural use; and it was subject to five exceptions: plaintiff's own default, act of God, consent of the plaintiff, act of a stranger and statutory authority.

Those exceptions, taken with the narrow reading of escape in Read v J Lyons and Co (1947), where an inspector injured by a shell exploding inside a munitions factory recovered nothing, and the generous reading of natural use in Rickards v Lothian (1913), had very nearly swallowed the rule. A liability defeated by an act of God, by the act of any stranger and by statutory authority is not, in practice, liability without fault.

C. M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395.

Facts. In December 1985, within a year of the Bhopal gas disaster, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries, a unit of Delhi Cloth Mills, situated in a densely populated part of Delhi. Several persons were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died; a second leak followed two days later. The matter came before a Constitution Bench of five judges on a public interest petition under Article 32, brought by M C Mehta, which had originally sought the closure and relocation of the plant.

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Held. Bhagwati CJ, delivering the judgment, held that the Court was not bound to follow the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher, which had evolved in a different social and economic context in the England of the industrial revolution, and that Indian law must evolve new principles and lay down new norms adequate to the problems of a highly industrialised economy. He laid down:

where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such activity, resulting for example in the escape of toxic gas, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.

The measure of compensation. It must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because it must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable.

D. The rationale: the reasons given and the reasons behind them.

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1. The enterprise alone can know and control the risk. The Court said the enterprise alone has the resource to discover and guard against the hazards and dangers, and to provide warning against potential hazards. A person living beside a chemical plant knows nothing of what is stored there or how it is handled.

2. The duty is absolute and non-delegable. An enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity for private profit owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results. It cannot discharge it by delegating the work, nor by proving it took care.

3. Difficulty of proof. In an industrial accident the victim can prove nothing about what happened inside the plant. Requiring proof of negligence, or allowing defences of sabotage or act of God, would mean in practice that the loss lies where it falls: on the person least able to bear it and least able to prevent it.

4. He who creates the risk for his own benefit should bear its cost. The activity is carried on for profit, and the cost of the harm it causes is properly a cost of that activity, not a burden on the neighbourhood.

5. Loss distribution. The enterprise can insure and pass the cost on through its prices, spreading the loss across everyone who benefits from the activity.

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6. Deterrence. This is why the Court tied the quantum to the capacity of the enterprise. A fixed sum would be a licence fee for a large company and a death sentence for a small one, and neither would deter; making the award proportionate to size gives every enterprise the same incentive to take precautions.

E. The three differences from strict liability.

Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher)Absolute liability (M C Mehta)
Five exceptions.No exception whatever.
An escape is essential, so persons inside are unprotected (Read v Lyons).No escape required; persons inside, including workmen, are covered.
Requires a non-natural use of land and an accumulation.Applies to any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity or industry.
Damages are compensatory.Compensation is correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, and is deterrent.
A rule of the English common law.A rule evolved by the Supreme Court of India for Indian conditions.

F. The later development.

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  • Union Carbide Corporation v Union of India (1989 and 1991), the Bhopal litigation, and the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985, by which the Union took over the victims' claims as parens patriae.
  • Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India (1996) 3 SCC 212, the Bichhri case, applying absolute liability to chemical units which had poisoned groundwater, and adopting the polluter pays principle, under which the polluter must both compensate the victims and restore the environment.
  • Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v Union of India (1996) 5 SCC 647, reading the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle into Indian law as part of Articles 21, 47, 48A and 51A(g).
  • The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, requiring every owner handling hazardous substances to insure and giving no fault relief on a statutory scale.
  • The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, whose Section 17 provides for relief and compensation for death or injury caused by an accident involving a hazardous substance, on the principle of no fault.
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Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 75/25 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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