munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Torts 2025-26 - 75/25 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Torts

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2025-26 - 75/25 Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - 75/25 examination.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii
munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - 75/25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 75  ·  21 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

SECTION I

Answer any six questions in two sentences 12 Marks

munotes.in 1

1.Define Tort.[2]

Answer

A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or a breach of trust, for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages. The word comes from the Latin tortum, twisted or crooked, through the French tort, a wrong. This is Salmond's definition.

Winfield's definition is fuller: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."

Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 adopts the shorter formulation.

munotes.in 2

2.What is meant by Pigeon Hole Theory?[2]

Answer

The pigeon-hole theory is Salmond's answer to the question whether there is a law of tort or a law of torts. His position was that there is no general principle of tortious liability: the law knows a fixed number of specific, nominate torts, each with its own name and its own ingredients, arranged like pigeon-holes in a cabinet. If a plaintiff can fit his facts into one of the pigeon-holes he succeeds; if his harm falls outside every pigeon-hole, he has no remedy, however real his loss.

Winfield took the opposite view, that there is a law of tort: all harm is prima facie tortious unless there is some justification, and the courts remain free to create new heads of liability.

munotes.in 3

3.What is battery?[2]

Answer

Battery is the intentional and direct application of force to the person of another without lawful justification. Its essentials are the use of force, however trivial; applied directly to the plaintiff's body; intentionally; and without consent or lawful excuse.

No harm need result, and battery is actionable per se. Cole v Turner (1704): the least touching of another in anger is a battery.

munotes.in 4

4.What is meant by conversion?[2]

Answer

Conversion, historically called trover, is any dealing with goods in a manner inconsistent with the right of the person entitled to possession, which has the effect of denying that right or of asserting a right inconsistent with it.

Wrongfully taking, using, selling, destroying, delivering to the wrong person or refusing to deliver up on demand are all conversions. The measure of damages is the value of the goods at the date of conversion, together with any consequential loss.

munotes.in 5

5.Explain Scienter Rule.[2]

Answer

The scienter rule fixes the liability of the keeper of an animal for damage done by it, and turns on his knowledge of the animal's dangerous disposition; scienter means "knowingly".

Animals are divided into two classes. For ferae naturae, a naturally dangerous species such as a lion, tiger, elephant, bear or monkey, knowledge of the vicious propensity is conclusively presumed and the keeper is strictly liable. For mansuetae naturae, a harmless domestic species such as a dog, horse or cow, the keeper is liable only if the plaintiff proves he knew of the vicious propensity of that particular animal.

munotes.in 6

6.What is meant by 'Innuendo'?[2]

Answer

An innuendo is a secondary or latent meaning of words which, taken in their ordinary and natural sense, are innocent, but which convey a defamatory meaning to persons who know certain extrinsic facts. The word comes from the Latin innuere, to nod towards.

To sustain a plea of innuendo the plaintiff must plead and prove the extrinsic facts which give the words that meaning, and must show publication to at least one person who knew those facts.

munotes.in 7

7.State the composition of the State Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019.[2]

Answer

Section 42 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides that the State Government shall, by notification, establish a State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, to be known as the State Commission.

Section 42(2): the State Commission shall consist of a President and not less than four or such higher number of members as may be prescribed in consultation with the Central Government.

Section 43 provides that the Central Government may, by rules, prescribe the qualifications, method of recruitment, procedure of appointment, term of office, resignation and removal of the President and members. Under the 1986 Act, Section 16, the President had to be a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court, appointed in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, with not less than two members, one of whom shall be a woman.

munotes.in 8

8.Define consumer as per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.[2]

Answer

Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a "consumer" as any person who:

  1. buys any goods for a consideration paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods other than the buyer, when such use is made with the approval of the buyer; or
  2. hires or avails of any service for such a consideration, and includes any beneficiary of such service other than the person who hires it, when the service is availed of with the approval of that person;

but does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or goods or services for any commercial purpose.

Explanation (a): "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. Explanation (b): buying and availing include offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing.

munotes.in 9

SECTION II

Write Short Notes on any two 12 Marks

munotes.in 10

9.Six Carpenter's Case[6]

Answer

The Six Carpenters' Case (1610) 8 Co Rep 146a is the authority for the doctrine of trespass ab initio, and for the two limits upon it.

Facts. Six carpenters entered an inn at Cripplegate, a house open to the public, which they were therefore entitled to enter by authority of law. They ordered and were served bread and wine, and paid for them. They then ordered and drank more wine, and refused to pay for it. The innkeeper sued them in trespass, contending that by refusing to pay they had abused their authority and so became trespassers from the beginning.

Held. The carpenters were not liable as trespassers ab initio. The court laid down two rules:

  1. Where an entry, authority or licence is given by the law, and the person abuses it, he becomes a trespasser ab initio, that is his original entry is retrospectively treated as wrongful. Where the authority or licence is given by the party himself, an abuse of it does not make him a trespasser ab initio; the party's remedy is an action for the particular wrong done.
munotes.in 11
  1. A mere non-feasance, that is an omission, does not make a person a trespasser ab initio. Only a misfeasance, a positive wrongful act, has that effect. Since refusing to pay is an omission, the carpenters' original entry remained lawful.

The requirements of the doctrine are therefore an entry under authority of law, a subsequent abuse of that authority, and that the abuse be a positive act and not a mere omission.

Illustrations of its application. A police officer entering under a warrant who then ransacks the house; a customs officer entering to inspect who steals goods; a distrainor entering to distrain who uses the goods distrained; and an innkeeper's guest who commits a positive wrong on the premises.

The modern limit. Elias v Pasmore (1934) 2 KB 164: police entered premises lawfully in order to arrest a man and seized documents, some lawfully and some unlawfully. They were held trespassers only as to the unlawful seizure, and not ab initio in respect of the entry. The doctrine has been criticised as an unnecessary fiction and is now applied narrowly.

munotes.in 12

The requirements, drawn from those two rules: an entry under authority of law; a subsequent abuse of it; and the abuse must be a positive act and not an omission.

Illustrations of the doctrine in operation. A police officer entering under a warrant who then ransacks the house; a customs officer entering to inspect who steals goods; a distrainor entering to distrain who works or uses the goods distrained.

The modern limit: Elias v Pasmore (1934) 2 KB 164. Police entered lawfully in order to arrest a man and seized documents, some lawfully and some unlawfully. They were held trespassers only as to the unlawful seizure, and not ab initio in respect of the entry. The doctrine has been criticised as a fiction and is now applied narrowly.

Why the law drew the line where it did. Where authority is given by the party, the occupier chose to admit the entrant, can revoke the licence, and can sue on the terms he granted; the law needs no fiction. Where it is given by law, he never chose to admit him, has no contract with him and cannot revoke a statutory power, so the fiction gives him a single, complete remedy in trespass and puts the entire loss on the person who abused a public authority.

munotes.in 13

10.Motor Accident Claims Tribunal[6]

Answer

Constitution: Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. A State Government may, by notification, constitute one or more Motor Accidents Claims Tribunals for such area as may be specified, for the purpose of adjudicating upon claims for compensation in respect of accidents involving the death of or bodily injury to persons arising out of the use of motor vehicles, or damage to any property of a third party so arising, or both. A person is qualified for appointment only if he is or has been a Judge of a High Court, or is or has been a District Judge, or is qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge.

munotes.in 14

Application: Section 166. An application may be made by the person injured, by the owner of the property, by all or any of the legal representatives of a deceased, or by a duly authorised agent; where some but not all of the legal representatives apply, the others are impleaded as respondents. It may be filed where the accident occurred, or where the claimant resides or carries on business, or where the defendant resides. Section 166(3), as substituted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019, requires the application to be made within six months of the accident. Section 166(4) treats a police accident report forwarded under Section 159 as an application.

Procedure and powers: Section 169. The Tribunal follows such summary procedure as it thinks fit, and has all the powers of a civil court for taking evidence on oath, enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the discovery and production of documents and material objects. Its proceedings are judicial proceedings under Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code.

munotes.in 15

Award: Section 168. After giving the parties and the insurer an opportunity of being heard, the Tribunal makes an award determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just. Section 170 allows the Tribunal, where there is collusion or where the person against whom the claim is made fails to contest, to permit the insurer to contest on all grounds. Section 171 allows an award of simple interest from the date of the application.

No fault liability. The 1988 Act as enacted provided for it in Section 140, with structured compensation under Section 163A. The 2019 Amendment replaced both with Section 164, under which Rs. 5 lakh is payable in the case of death and Rs. 2.5 lakh in the case of grievous hurt, the claimant not being required to plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 161 provides hit and run compensation of Rs. 2 lakh for death and Rs. 50,000 for grievous hurt, and Section 164B creates a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund.

Bar of civil jurisdiction: Section 175. Where a Tribunal has been constituted for an area, no civil court has jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to a claim which the Tribunal may adjudicate, and no injunction may be granted.

munotes.in 16

Appeal: Section 173. To the High Court within ninety days, except where the amount in dispute is less than Rs. 1 lakh; and where the appellant is the person required to pay, only on deposit of Rs. 25,000 or fifty per cent of the award, whichever is less.

munotes.in 17

11.Absolute Liability[6]

Answer

Absolute liability is liability without fault and without exception: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable to compensate everyone harmed by an accident in the operation of that activity, and none of the exceptions which qualify strict liability is available to it. It was laid down in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395.

Facts. In December 1985, within a year of the Bhopal gas disaster, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries in a densely populated part of Delhi. Several persons were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died; a second leak followed two days later. The matter came before a Constitution Bench on a public interest petition under Article 32.

Held. Bhagwati CJ held that the Court was not bound to follow the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher, which had evolved in a different social and economic context, and that Indian law must evolve new principles adequate to the problems of a highly industrialised economy. He laid down:

munotes.in 18

where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected, and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.

Two reasons were given. The enterprise alone has the resource to discover and guard against the hazards and to warn against them; and it is under an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results from an activity it carries on for private profit.

The measure of damages. Compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because it must have a deterrent effect.

Distinguished from strict liability.

Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher)Absolute liability (M C Mehta)
Five exceptions.No exception whatever.
An escape is essential (Read v Lyons, 1947), so persons inside are unprotected.No escape required; workmen inside the premises are covered.
munotes.in 19
Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher)Absolute liability (M C Mehta)
Requires a non-natural use of land and an accumulation.Applies to any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity.
Damages are compensatory.Compensation is correlated to the capacity of the enterprise, and is deterrent.

Later development. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India (1996) 3 SCC 212, the Bichhri case, applied absolute liability to chemical units that had poisoned groundwater and adopted the polluter pays principle; Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v Union of India (1996) 5 SCC 647 read the precautionary principle into Indian law. The statutory expressions are the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and Section 17 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

munotes.in 20

12.Discharge of Torts[6]

Answer

Discharge of torts means the modes by which a tortious liability, once incurred, comes to an end, so that the right of action is extinguished and can no longer be enforced. There are seven.

1. Death of a party. The common law maxim was actio personalis moritur cum persona, a personal action dies with the person. It has been very largely abolished:

  • Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925: all demands and all rights to prosecute or defend any action existing at the death survive to and against the executors or administrators, except causes of action for defamation, assault, or other personal injuries not causing the death of the party;
  • The Legal Representatives Suits Act, 1855: an action lies against the executors of a wrongdoer for a wrong done to the property of another, within one year of death;
  • The Fatal Accidents Act, 1855: gives the wife, husband, parent and child a new and independent cause of action for their own loss of dependency; and
  • The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which provides its own machinery.
munotes.in 21

2. Waiver. Where the plaintiff has alternative remedies he must elect, and by electing one he abandons the other. Where the tort has produced a gain to the wrongdoer, he may waive the tort and sue in quasi-contract for money had and received.

3. Accord and satisfaction. Accord is the agreement to accept some consideration in place of the right of action; satisfaction is the actual payment or performance of it. Accord without satisfaction discharges nothing, and the accord must be free of fraud, coercion and undue influence.

4. Release. The giving up of the right of action by the injured party's own act. In India Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 allows a promisee to dispense with or remit performance, so a release without consideration is effective.

5. Acquiescence. Where a person entitled to enforce a right stands by and allows another to act inconsistently with it, without objection and in circumstances in which he could and should have objected, he may be precluded from enforcing it. It generally bars the equitable remedy of injunction rather than extinguishing the right, and is closely connected with laches.

munotes.in 22

6. Judgment recovered. A cause of action on which judgment has been obtained is merged in the judgment and cannot be sued on again, reinforced by res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and by the rule against splitting a cause of action under Order 2 Rule 2, which is why damages must be claimed once and for all, including prospective loss.

7. Limitation. Lapse of the period prescribed by the Limitation Act, 1963 bars the remedy, though it does not extinguish the right except in suits for possession under Section 27. The periods are one year for libel, slander and false imprisonment, and three years under the residuary Article 113 for negligence, nuisance, deceit and most other torts. Section 22 provides that in a continuing tort a fresh period runs at every moment; Section 6 postpones time during a disability; and Section 17 postpones it in cases of fraud or mistake until discovery.

munotes.in 23

SECTION III

Answer any two Situational based questions 12 Marks

munotes.in 24

13.X resided in a house next to a Roman Catholic chapel of which Y was the priest and the chapel bell was rung at all hours of the day and night.[6]

  • (a) What is the nature of tort committed here? Explain.
  • (b) What is the remedy available to X? Why?

Answer

a. What is the nature of tort committed here? Explain.

The tort is private nuisance.

These are the facts of Soltau v De Held (1851) 2 Sim NS 133. The plaintiff resided in a house immediately adjoining a Roman Catholic chapel of which the defendant was the priest, and the chapel bell was rung at all hours of the day and night. The court held it a nuisance and granted an injunction.

Private nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. Its essentials, all satisfied here, are:

munotes.in 25
  1. An unreasonable interference. Ringing a bell at all hours of the day and night, in a residential setting, goes far beyond the give and take that neighbours owe one another. Noise at night is the standard case of an unreasonable interference, because it deprives the occupier of sleep.
  2. With the use or enjoyment of land. X is the occupier of the adjoining house and it is his comfort and convenience in occupying it which is interfered with.
  3. Damage, which here takes the form of substantial discomfort and inconvenience rather than physical injury to the property. That is a recognised head of damage in nuisance.

The factors which make the interference unreasonable:

  • Nature of the harm. St Helen's Smelting Co v Tipping (1865) distinguishes material injury to property, for which the locality is no defence, from personal discomfort, for which locality is relevant. This is a case of personal discomfort, so the character of the neighbourhood matters, and in a residential area the standard of comfort an occupier may expect is high.
  • Duration and continuity. The ringing is continuous and repeated, not an isolated act, which is exactly what nuisance requires.
munotes.in 26
  • Time of day. Interference at night is treated far more seriously than the same interference by day.
  • Abnormal sensitivity is not in issue. X does not complain of a specially delicate use of his premises; a bell at all hours would disturb any ordinary occupier: contrast Robinson v Kilvert (1889).

Public benefit is no defence. That the bell is rung for a religious purpose and serves a congregation does not make the nuisance lawful. It is settled that the public utility of the defendant's activity goes to the discretion whether to grant an injunction, and not to whether the tort has been committed; otherwise the cost of a beneficial activity would be shifted onto its neighbours without compensation.

Nor is it an answer that X came to the nuisance. Sturges v Bridgman (1879) and Bliss v Hall (1838): a man does not forfeit his right to complain by taking a house next to an existing offence.

b. What is the remedy available to X? Why?

1. Injunction, which is the remedy X actually wants.

munotes.in 27

An injunction is the appropriate remedy because the interference is continuing and damages would be inadequate: X wants the ringing stopped, not priced. It is granted under Sections 37 to 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, with a temporary injunction meanwhile under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

The court will ordinarily grant a qualified injunction rather than an absolute one, restraining the ringing at specified hours, typically at night and in the early morning, rather than prohibiting it altogether. That reflects the discretionary character of the remedy and the need to balance X's comfort against the chapel's legitimate activity. In Soltau v De Held itself the injunction restrained ringing so as to occasion a nuisance.

The court weighs the prima facie case, the balance of convenience and irreparable injury, and under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act may refuse an injunction where the injury is trifling and can be compensated in money, awarding damages in lieu.

2. Damages for the discomfort and inconvenience suffered, and for any consequential loss such as the cost of alternative accommodation or of soundproofing.

munotes.in 28

3. Abatement, the extra-judicial remedy. It is of little practical use here, since X cannot enter the chapel and silence the bell, and abatement is hedged with conditions: notice must ordinarily be given before entering the wrongdoer's premises, no more damage may be done than is necessary, and where two methods are available the less mischievous must be chosen.

4. Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if the ringing amounts to a public nuisance affecting the neighbourhood generally. A Magistrate may make a conditional order requiring the removal or regulation of anything injurious to the health or physical comfort of the community, and may make it absolute if cause is not shown. This is the quickest route in practice, since it works in days rather than years.

munotes.in 29

5. Complaint under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Rules prescribe ambient noise standards by zone, and Rule 5 restricts the use of loudspeakers and public address systems, prohibiting their use at night between 10 pm and 6 am except in specified circumstances. The Supreme Court in Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v K K R Majestic Colony Welfare Association (2000) 7 SCC 282 held that no religion prescribes that prayers should be performed by disturbing the peace of others, nor that they should be through amplifiers or beating of drums, and that a person can be restrained from creating noise pollution even in the exercise of a religious practice. In re Noise Pollution (2005) 5 SCC 733 laid down detailed directions.

munotes.in 30

14.During the telecast of 'Quiz show' on Moon T.V there was contest for viewers in which prize money of 50,000/- was given. Viewers were required to send answers through SMS. The prizes were given out of money collected for SMS charges. One of the viewers, Kavita sues Moon TV.[6]

  • (a) Is Moon TV Liable in this Case? Why?
  • (b) Will Kavita succeed? Why?

Answer

a. Is Moon TV Liable in this Case? Why?

Yes. Moon TV is liable, for an unfair trade practice.

These are the facts of Society of Catalysts v Star Plus TV and Another (2008), decided by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. A television channel ran a contest in which viewers sent answers by SMS at premium rates and prizes were announced as free. The Commission found that the prize money was in fact funded out of the revenue from the premium SMS charges shared between the channel and the telecom operator, and held it an unfair trade practice.

The reasoning, and it has three steps:

munotes.in 31

1. The prize was not free at all. The scheme was presented as offering a prize for nothing, when in truth the viewers collectively paid for it through the premium charged on every message. The channel gave away with one hand what it had already collected with the other, and retained the surplus.

2. That falls squarely within the statutory definition. Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 makes it an unfair trade practice, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or the provision of any service, to permit:

  • the offering of gifts, prizes or other items with the intention of not providing them as offered, or creating the impression that something is being given free of charge when it is fully or partly covered by the amount charged in the transaction as a whole; and
  • the conduct of any contest, lottery, game of chance or skill for the purpose of promoting, directly or indirectly, the sale, use or supply of any product or business interest.

The second limb of the first clause is the operative one and should be quoted: the impression that something is free when it is covered by the amount charged in the transaction as a whole.

munotes.in 32

3. There is also a false representation. Advertising the contest as offering a prize while concealing that the participants fund it is a misleading advertisement within Section 2(28), being a representation which conveys an unfair trade practice and which deliberately conceals important information.

Kavita is a consumer. She paid a consideration, the premium SMS charge, for a service, that is participation in the contest and the telecom service used to enter it: Sections 2(7) and 2(42). The transaction is not gratuitous merely because the prize was described as free.

Liability is not confined to the channel. The Commission in Society of Catalysts held both the broadcaster and the telecom service provider liable, because the revenue was shared between them and the scheme could not have operated without both.

A separate point on gambling. A scheme in which participants pay and prizes are distributed by chance may amount to a lottery or a prize competition requiring a licence under the Prize Competitions Act, 1955 or the State gaming legislation, and a wagering agreement is void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Where the contest turns on skill rather than chance it escapes that characterisation, but it does not escape Section 2(47), which covers a contest of skill in terms.

munotes.in 33

b. Will Kavita succeed? Why?

Yes, though what she recovers requires care.

Her complaint is maintainable. She is a consumer; the wrong is an unfair trade practice, which is a ground of complaint under Section 2(6)(i) and which, importantly, requires no proof of a defect in goods or a deficiency in service. The wrong is the method of promotion itself.

What she may obtain, under Section 39:

  1. an order that Moon TV discontinue the unfair trade practice and not repeat it;
  2. an order to cease and desist from the misleading advertisement, and to issue a corrective advertisement at its own cost;
  3. refund of the charges she paid;
  4. compensation for the loss or injury suffered, and punitive damages under Section 39(1)(d) where the conduct is contumacious; and
  5. costs.

Two practical qualifications, which a good answer states honestly.

munotes.in 34

Her individual loss is trivial. She paid the premium on a few messages. The value of an individual complaint of this kind is small, and the compensation will reflect that.

The real remedy is collective. That is precisely why the Act provides for it:

  • Section 35(1)(c) allows one or more consumers, where there are numerous consumers having the same interest, to complain on behalf of all, with the permission of the Commission;
  • Section 2(5)(ii) allows a voluntary consumer association to complain, and it need not itself be a consumer. That is exactly how Society of Catalysts, a registered society, brought the case;
  • Section 39(1)(k) allows the Commission to direct payment of a sum, not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the goods or services, to the Consumer Welfare Fund, where the loss has been suffered by a large number of consumers not readily identifiable. That is the provision designed for exactly this situation; and
  • the Central Consumer Protection Authority under Sections 19 to 21 may act on its own motion for consumers as a class, order discontinuance, and impose a penalty up to Rs. 10 lakh for a misleading advertisement, rising to Rs. 50 lakh for repeat contraventions.
munotes.in 35

Where she files. The District Commission where she resides or personally works for gain, under Section 34(2)(d), within two years under Section 69.

munotes.in 36

15.'A' a Returning Officer refused to register the vote of the 'B', who was a qualified voter. Though the candidate for whom 'B' wanted to vote wins and no actual loss was suffered by the rejection. 'B' sues 'A'.[6]

  • (a) Is 'A' Liable? Why?
  • (b) Will 'B' succeed? Why?

Answer

a. Is 'A' Liable? Why?

Yes. A is liable.

These are the facts of Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938, and the principle is injuria sine damno, the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because where a legal right is violated the law presumes damage.

The reasoning, in three steps:

  1. B had a legal right. The right of a qualified elector to vote is a legal right, not a mere privilege or moral claim. That is the essential first step, because the law of torts protects rights, not interests.
munotes.in 37
  1. A infringed that right. As Returning Officer he was under a duty to receive and register the vote of a qualified elector, and he refused to do so.
  2. The absence of loss is irrelevant. B suffered nothing, since the candidate he wished to support was elected anyway. But where a legal right is violated the law presumes damage, and the plaintiff need prove none. Torts of this class are actionable per se, alongside trespass, libel, assault and false imprisonment.

Holt CJ's reasoning should be given: if the plaintiff has a right, he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise of it; want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal; and it is a vain thing to imagine a right without a remedy. The maxim is ubi jus ibi remedium.

Malice is not the ground of liability, and this should be stated plainly. The action lies because a right was infringed, whether the refusal was malicious or merely wrong. Malice matters only to the quantum, since it will support aggravated and possibly exemplary damages.

munotes.in 38

The converse case completes the principle. In Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895) the defendant acted from pure malice and cost the plaintiff a great deal of money, and he was not liable, because no legal right had been infringed. Put the two side by side: neither the size of the loss nor the badness of the motive decides whether an action lies; only the infringement of a right does.

b. Will 'B' succeed? Why?

Yes, and the relief will be as follows.

1. Damages. Because no actual loss was suffered, the ordinary award is nominal damages, a small sum which vindicates the right rather than compensating for loss.

But nominal does not mean trivial where the violation is grave. Where the right infringed is of constitutional importance and the officer acted deliberately, Indian courts have awarded exemplary compensation. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677: a member of the Legislative Assembly was wrongfully arrested and detained so as to prevent his attending the Assembly session; although released by the time of the decision, the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000 as exemplary compensation, saying that the Court would not be doing its duty if it merely declared the violation and passed on. Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141 is to the same effect.

munotes.in 39

2. A declaration that the refusal was unlawful.

3. In India, additional and more practical remedies:

  • a writ petition under Article 226 against the Returning Officer for breach of a public duty, or a writ of mandamus to compel its performance, though it would be infructuous once the poll has closed;
  • an election petition under Part VI of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which is the exclusive route for questioning an election. On these facts the result was unaffected, so the election would not be set aside, since Section 100(1)(d)(iii) requires the improper reception, refusal or rejection of a vote to have materially affected the result; and
  • criminal and departmental consequences: under Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 an election officer who wilfully fails to discharge his official duty is punishable, and he would face departmental proceedings.

A's defences, and why they fail:

  • That no loss was suffered. This is the very argument rejected in Ashby v White, and it is why the case is famous.
munotes.in 40
  • That the candidate won anyway. Irrelevant. B's right is to cast his vote, not to have his candidate elected.
  • Judicial or quasi-judicial immunity. A Returning Officer receiving votes performs a ministerial or administrative function, not a judicial one, so the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850 does not apply. Even where a quasi-judicial protection exists, it requires good faith.
munotes.in 41

16.Mrs. Asha went to a cafe and got bottle of ginger beer. The ginger beer contained a decomposed snail. Mrs. Asha suffered from personal injury due to consumption of it.[6]

  • (a) What is the remedy available to Mrs Asha? Why?
  • (b) Identify the case and the principle involved.

Answer

a. What is the remedy available to Mrs Asha? Why?

She has three concurrent remedies, and may choose among them.

1. A suit in tort for negligence against the manufacturer.

The principle is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562: a manufacturer of products which he sells in a form showing that he intends them to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which they left him, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination, owes that consumer a duty to take reasonable care. The duty arises in tort and is independent of any contract, which is why Mrs Asha may sue although she bought from the cafe and not from the manufacturer.

munotes.in 42

She need not prove how the snail got into the bottle. Res ipsa loquitur applies: the bottling was in the manufacturer's exclusive control, decomposed snails do not get into sealed bottles if proper care is taken, and the cause is unknown to her. The evidential burden shifts to the manufacturer.

2. A complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

She is a consumer under Section 2(7), having bought the bottle, and would still be one as a user with the approval of the buyer had a companion paid. The goods suffer from a defect under Section 2(10), being a shortcoming in the quality, purity or standard required by law and as claimed by the trader. The complaint is filed under Section 35 before the District Commission where she resides or personally works for gain (Section 34(2)(d)), within two years (Section 69).

The reliefs under Section 39 are return of the price, replacement, compensation for the loss and injury including mental agony, punitive damages, withdrawal of the hazardous goods from sale, and costs.

3. A product liability action under Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87).

munotes.in 43

This is the strongest route where harm has been suffered. A claim lies against the product manufacturer, and under Section 84 he is liable where the product contains a manufacturing defect, deviates from manufacturing specifications, or does not conform to an express warranty; Section 84(2) makes him liable on an express warranty even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent. Section 86 deals with the liability of a product seller, so the cafe is also answerable in the circumstances there specified.

Against the cafe she has, in addition, a claim for deficiency in service under Section 2(11), and a claim in contract on the implied conditions of merchantable quality and fitness for purpose in Sections 16(1) and 16(2) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.

Also attracted: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, under which a bottle containing a decomposed snail is unsafe food within Section 3(1)(zz), with penalties under Sections 50 to 59, and a complaint lies to the Food Safety Officer.

Section 100 of the 2019 Act preserves all of these, the Act being in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.

munotes.in 44

b. Identify the case and the principle involved.

The case is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, and the principle is the manufacturer's duty of care to the ultimate consumer, resting on Lord Atkin's neighbour principle.

Facts. On 26 August 1928 Mrs May Donoghue went to the Wellmeadow Cafe in Paisley with a friend, who bought her a bottle of ginger beer. The bottle was of dark opaque glass and was sealed, so its contents could not be seen or examined. She drank part of it, and when the remainder was poured out the decomposed remains of a snail floated out. She suffered shock and severe gastro-enteritis and sued the manufacturer, Stevenson, with whom she had no contract at all.

Held, by a majority of three to two in the House of Lords, that the manufacturer owed her a duty of care.

Lord Atkin's neighbour principle:

munotes.in 45

"You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. Who, then, in law, is my neighbour? The answer seems to be persons who are so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question."

The narrower rule of the case, which is the one that applies here, has three limbs: the manufacturer must sell the product in a form showing that he intends it to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which it left him; there must be no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination; and he must know that the absence of reasonable care will result in injury to the consumer's life or property.

The sealed opaque bottle is what satisfies the second limb, and it was decisive. Had the container been transparent, or had the retailer been expected to open and inspect it, the chain would have been broken.

munotes.in 46

SECTION IV

Answer any three in detail 39 Marks

munotes.in 47

17.What is Defamation? Explain Libel and Slander, citing relevant Case Laws.[13]

Answer

A. Definition.

Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid him, or which exposes him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification. The interest protected is reputation, that is what others think of the plaintiff, and not his own feelings, so a statement which merely insults him in private is not defamation.

B. The three essentials.

1. The statement must be defamatory. The test is objective, judged by right-thinking members of society generally, and not by the plaintiff's sensitivity, by the standards of a section of society, or by the defendant's intention. Mere abuse or vulgar insult is not defamation if it lowers nobody's opinion of the plaintiff.

munotes.in 48

The words may be defamatory on their face or by innuendo, that is a secondary meaning conveyed to persons who know extrinsic facts. Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph captioned as an announcement of a man's engagement defamed his actual wife, because those who knew her inferred she was not married to him.

2. The statement must refer to the plaintiff. It is enough that reasonable people would understand it to refer to him; the defendant's intention is irrelevant. Hulton and Co v Jones (1910): a humorous article about a fictitious "Artemus Jones" defamed a real barrister of that name. Newstead v London Express Newspaper (1940) goes further: a true report about one Harold Newstead of Camberwell defamed another man of the same name and locality.

3. The statement must be published, that is communicated to at least one person other than the plaintiff. Dictating a defamatory letter to a typist is publication; sending it in a sealed envelope to the plaintiff is not; sending it on a postcard or by telegram is. Every repetition is a fresh publication, and the repeater is liable as well as the originator.

C. Libel.

Libel is defamation in a permanent form, addressed to the eye: writing, print, a painting, a caricature, a photograph, a statue, an effigy, a film, or a broadcast.

munotes.in 49

It is actionable per se, that is without proof of special damage, because the law presumes damage. In English law it is also a crime.

D. Slander.

Slander is defamation in a transient form, addressed to the ear: spoken words or a gesture.

In English law slander is actionable only on proof of special damage, except in four cases, in which it is actionable per se:

  1. an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment;
  2. an imputation of a contagious or infectious disease such as would cause others to shun the plaintiff, for example leprosy or a venereal disease;
  3. an imputation of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl, under the Slander of Women Act, 1891; and
  4. an imputation of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business carried on by the plaintiff.

E. Libel and slander distinguished.

munotes.in 50
LibelSlander
Defamation in a permanent form.Defamation in a transient form.
Addressed to the eye.Addressed to the ear.
Actionable per se; damage is presumed.Requires proof of special damage, save in four cases.
A crime as well as a tort in English law.Generally only a tort.
Shows greater deliberation and premeditation.Often uttered in haste or in the heat of the moment.
The injury is wider and more lasting, since the statement circulates and survives.The injury is generally narrower and shorter-lived.

F. The position in India.

The distinction has been held to be of little practical importance. The High Courts have generally taken the view that slander is also actionable per se in India, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167) and D P Choudhary v Manjulata (AIR 1997 Raj 170), on the ground that the English rule rests on a historical division of jurisdiction between the common law and the ecclesiastical courts which never applied in India.

munotes.in 51

Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both forms are equally the offence of defamation, punishable under Section 500, and Section 499 carries ten Exceptions, of which the First requires an imputation to be true and published for the public good, which is narrower than the civil defence of truth.

D P Choudhary v Manjulata is worth citing for a second reason: a newspaper falsely reported that a young unmarried woman had eloped, and the Rajasthan High Court awarded Rs. 10,000 as general damages, holding the publication actionable per se and observing that the imputation was of a kind that would ruin her prospects of marriage.

G. The defences.

  1. Justification or truth. A complete defence in civil law, however malicious the motive. The defendant must prove the substantial truth of the sting of the charge, not the literal accuracy of every detail. Note the burden: falsity is presumed, so the defendant must prove truth.
  2. Fair comment. A comment, that is an expression of opinion and not an assertion of fact, made honestly and fairly, on a matter of public interest, on facts truly stated or sufficiently indicated, and without malice.
munotes.in 52
  1. Privilege. Absolute privilege gives complete immunity: parliamentary proceedings (Articles 105(2) and 194(2) of the Constitution), judicial proceedings, and State communications. Qualified privilege protects a statement made in the discharge of a legal, moral or social duty to a person with a corresponding interest, and fair and accurate reports of parliamentary and judicial proceedings; it is defeated by malice.
  2. Apology, under the Libel Acts, and in India principally in mitigation of damages.
  3. Consent of the plaintiff.
  4. Innocent dissemination, protecting a merely mechanical distributor such as a newsagent or a library.

H. The Indian constitutional dimension.

Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of defamation under Article 19(2). R Rajagopal v State of Tamil Nadu (1994) 6 SCC 632, the Auto Shankar case, held that no action for damages is maintainable in respect of a publication concerning a public official's discharge of his public duties, even if untrue, unless the official proves reckless disregard for the truth. Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221 upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation.

munotes.in 53

18.Explain the three tier system of Consumer Redressal Agencies under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.[13]

Answer

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 retains and restructures the three-tier machinery: the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission, with a further appeal to the Supreme Court.

1. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 28 to 41).

Establishment, Section 28. The State Government shall, by notification, establish a District Commission in each district, and may establish more than one in a district.

Composition, Section 29. A President and not less than two members as may be prescribed by the Central Government; qualifications, method of recruitment, procedure of appointment, term of office, resignation and removal are prescribed under Section 30. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be qualified to be a District Judge, with two members, one of whom shall be a woman.

Pecuniary jurisdiction, Section 34(1). Where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed the prescribed amount, which after the notification of December 2021 is Rs. 50 lakh.

munotes.in 54

Territorial jurisdiction, Section 34(2). Where the opposite party resides, carries on business, has a branch office or personally works for gain; where any one of several opposite parties does so, with the Commission's permission or the others' acquiescence; where the cause of action wholly or in part arises; or where the complainant resides or personally works for gain. The last is new in 2019.

Procedure, Section 38. The complaint is referred to the opposite party, who must respond within thirty days, extendable by fifteen; goods requiring analysis are sealed and sent to an appropriate laboratory; the Commission has the powers of a civil court under Section 38(9); it may decide ex parte; and Section 38(7) requires disposal ordinarily within three months, or five months where analysis is required. Section 38(6A) permits hearing by video conferencing.

Appeal, Section 41. To the State Commission within forty-five days, on deposit of fifty per cent of the amount ordered.

2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 42 to 52).

munotes.in 55

Establishment, Section 42. By the State Government. Composition: a President and not less than four or such higher number of members as may be prescribed in consultation with the Central Government. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be a Judge or former Judge of a High Court.

Jurisdiction, Section 47. Original, above Rs. 50 lakh and up to Rs. 2 crore; unfair contracts, up to Rs. 10 crore; appellate, over the District Commissions in the State; revisional, where a District Commission has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise one so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity.

Section 48, power to transfer a case within the State; Section 49(2), power to declare an unfair contract term void; Section 50, review for an error apparent on the face of the record.

Appeal, Section 51. To the National Commission within thirty days from an order in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent. The proviso limits an appeal from an order in appellate jurisdiction to a question of law.

3. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 53 to 67).

munotes.in 56

Establishment, Section 53. By the Central Government. Composition, Section 54: a President and not less than four or such higher number of members as may be prescribed. Under the 1986 Act the President had to be a Judge or former Judge of the Supreme Court.

Jurisdiction, Section 58. Original, above Rs. 2 crore; unfair contracts, above Rs. 10 crore; appellate, over the State Commissions and over orders of the Central Consumer Protection Authority under Sections 20 and 21 by virtue of Section 24; revisional, over the State Commissions.

Section 62, power to transfer a case from one State Commission to another; Section 59(2), unfair contract terms; Section 60, review.

Appeal, Section 67. To the Supreme Court within thirty days from an order in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent.

4. Provisions common to all three tiers.

  • Who may complain, Section 2(5): a consumer; a registered voluntary consumer association; the Central or a State Government; the Central Authority; numerous consumers having the same interest; a deceased consumer's legal heir or representative; and a minor's parent or legal guardian.
munotes.in 57
  • Grounds of complaint, Section 2(6): unfair contract, unfair or restrictive trade practice, defect in goods, deficiency in services, charging a price in excess, hazardous goods or services, and a product liability action.
  • Reliefs, Section 39: removal of the defect, replacement, return of the price, compensation including punitive damages, removal of the deficiency, discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice, cessation of a misleading advertisement, withdrawal of hazardous goods, a corrective advertisement, payment to the Consumer Welfare Fund where the loss is suffered by a large number of consumers not readily identifiable, and costs.
  • Mediation, Section 37 and Chapter V (Sections 74 to 81): reference at the first hearing or later, with the parties' written consent; a settlement so recorded is not appealable.
  • Limitation, Section 69: two years, extendable for sufficient cause with reasons recorded.
  • Enforcement, Section 71: enforceable as a decree of a civil court, with a certificate of recovery to the Collector for recovery as arrears of land revenue.
  • Penalty, Section 72: imprisonment of one month to three years, or fine of Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 1 lakh, or both.
munotes.in 58

19.What are the general defences available in an action of tort?[13]

Answer

Even where the plaintiff proves every ingredient of a tort, the defendant may escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is one available across the law of torts rather than peculiar to a single tort.

1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). No injury is done to one who is willing. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies.

Two elements: knowledge and consent, both of which must be proved; mere knowledge will not do, so scienti non fit injuria is not the law. Smith v Baker (1891): a workman who knew stones were being swung over his head and worked on had not consented, a man under economic compulsion not being a volunteer. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933): a spectator at a motor race had accepted the risks inherent in the spectacle. Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222) in India.

munotes.in 59

Limits. Consent obtained by fraud is no consent (Hegarty v Shine, 1878); consent under legal or moral compulsion is no consent, so a rescuer is not met by the defence (Haynes v Harwood, 1935); volenti is no answer to a breach of statutory duty (Wheeler v New Merton Board Mills, 1933); and a spectator accepts inherent risks but not a reckless disregard of his safety (Wooldridge v Sumner, 1963).

2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause. The defence is narrow: the illegality must be connected with the harm. Bird v Holbrook (1828): a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered damages.

3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by ordinary care, caution and skill. Stanley v Powell (1891), the pellet glancing off a tree and striking a beater; Brown v Kendall (1850), the man separating fighting dogs; Assam State Cooperative Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18). It is no defence to strict liability.

munotes.in 60

4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it and no reasonable care could provide against it. Nichols v Marsland (1876) succeeded; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917) failed, the rainfall being heavy but not unprecedented; Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197): the act of an unruly mob is the act of man, not of God. Unlike inevitable accident, act of God is an exception to Rylands v Fletcher.

5. Private defence. A person may use reasonable and proportionate force to defend his own person or property, or that of another. The force must match the threat: setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence.

6. Mistake. As a general rule mistake, of fact or of law, is no defence in tort: a person who enters land honestly believing it his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the state of mind is an ingredient, notably malicious prosecution and deceit, and the defence of qualified privilege in defamation, where honest belief negatives malice.

munotes.in 61

7. Necessity. An act causing damage but done to prevent a greater harm is not actionable. Throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to arrest a fire, and operating on an unconscious patient are the standard instances; the maxim is salus populi suprema lex. Cope v Sharpe (1912): a gamekeeper who burned strips of heather to stop a fire spreading was not liable in trespass. Leigh v Gladstone (1909). Distinguish private defence, where the plaintiff is the source of the danger, and inevitable accident, where the harm was not intended.

8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the defendant is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute, where the act must be done, or conditional, where it may be done only if it can be done without infringing private rights. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860), sparks from an authorised railway; Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869), vibrations; against Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881), where a smallpox hospital set up under a permissive power was restrained as a nuisance.

munotes.in 62

9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts. A judge is not liable for acts done in the discharge of his judicial function, however erroneous, a protection given in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850, and extended to persons exercising quasi-judicial powers in good faith.

10. Parental and quasi-parental authority. A parent, and a person in loco parentis, may impose reasonable correction and restraint, a defence much narrowed by Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, which prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment, and Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.

11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex. The law does not concern itself with trifles.

A partial defence: contributory negligence. The plaintiff's own want of care no longer defeats the claim but reduces the damages in proportion to his share of responsibility: the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945 in England, and in India Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731.

munotes.in 63

20.Discuss the concept of remoteness of damage citing relevant case laws.[13]

Answer

A. The problem.

Every wrongful act sets off a chain of consequences which in theory never ends. If a defendant were liable for all of them, liability would be indeterminate. The law therefore draws a line: he answers for consequences which are proximate and not for those which are too remote.

Remoteness arises only after liability is established. It is not about whether the defendant was at fault, but about how far his responsibility extends.

B. The first test: directness. Re Polemis (1921).

In re Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co [1921] 3 KB 560 held that once a defendant is shown to be negligent, he is liable for all the direct consequences of his act, however unforeseeable.

munotes.in 64

Facts. A ship was chartered to carry a cargo including tins of petrol, which leaked so that the hold filled with petrol vapour. While the cargo was being unloaded at Casablanca, the charterers' servants negligently allowed a heavy plank to fall into the hold. The plank struck something, produced a spark, ignited the vapour, and the ship was destroyed by fire.

Held. The charterers were liable for the whole loss. Damage from the falling plank was foreseeable; destruction by fire was not. But the fire was the direct consequence, and that sufficed. Scrutton LJ: if the act would or might probably cause damage, the fact that the damage it in fact causes is not the exact kind one would expect is immaterial, so long as it is directly traceable to the negligent act.

Criticism. The rule was condemned as unjust to defendants, making liability turn on the accident of physical sequence rather than on anything the defendant could have contemplated, and producing enormous liability for a small piece of carelessness.

C. The modern test: reasonable foreseeability. The Wagon Mound (1961).

Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v Morts Dock and Engineering Co Ltd, The Wagon Mound (No. 1) [1961] AC 388 (PC), overruled Re Polemis.

munotes.in 65

Facts. The appellants' ship, the Wagon Mound, was taking on furnace oil in Sydney Harbour. Through the carelessness of their servants a large quantity was spilled and drifted about 200 yards to the respondents' wharf, where welding and oxy-acetylene cutting were in progress on a ship under repair. The respondents' manager stopped work, made enquiries, was advised that furnace oil could not be ignited on water, and told the men to continue with precautions. Two days later molten metal fell on cotton waste floating on the oil, which acted as a wick, ignited the oil, and the wharf and the ship were destroyed.

Held. The appellants were not liable for the fire damage. Damage by fouling of the slipways was foreseeable; damage by fire was not. Viscount Simonds held that it is the foresight of the reasonable man which alone can determine responsibility, and that it does not accord with current ideas of justice or morality that a man should be liable for all the consequences of a negligent act however unforeseeable and however grave.

D. The qualification: The Wagon Mound (No. 2) (1967).

munotes.in 66

Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v The Miller Steamship Co [1967] 1 AC 617 arose from the same fire, brought by the owners of two ships. On the evidence in that case a reasonable ship's engineer would have realised there was a small but real risk of the oil catching fire. The Privy Council held the appellants liable, laying down that a risk which is foreseeable though very slight must be guarded against where there is no justification for running it, that is where it could have been eliminated at small cost and with no advantage lost.

E. What must be foreseeable: the kind of damage, not its extent or the manner of its occurrence.

Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963] AC 837. Post Office workmen left an open manhole covered by a tent and surrounded by paraffin lamps. A boy of eight knocked a lamp into the hole; the paraffin vaporised, there was an explosion, and he was badly burned. Held liable: injury by burning was a foreseeable kind of harm, and the unforeseeable manner of its occurrence did not matter.

Doughty v Turner Manufacturing Co [1964] 1 QB 518. An asbestos cement cover was knocked into a cauldron of molten liquid; a chemical reaction occurred and an eruption injured the plaintiff. Held not liable: injury by splashing was foreseeable, injury by an unforeseeable chemical reaction was a different kind of damage.

munotes.in 67

F. The eggshell skull rule survives.

Once damage of a foreseeable kind is established, the defendant takes his victim as he finds him and is liable for the full extent of the harm, however unusual the plaintiff's susceptibility.

Smith v Leech Brain and Co [1962] 2 QB 405, decided after Wagon Mound: a galvaniser was burned on the lip by molten metal through a negligent failure to protect him; the burn caused a pre-malignant condition to become cancerous and he died. The employers were liable for the death. Dulieu v White and Sons (1901): "if a man is negligently run over, it is no answer to the sufferer's claim that he would have suffered less injury if he had not had an unusually thin skull or an unusually weak heart."

G. Intervening cause: novus actus interveniens.

The chain may be broken by a new and independent act. A free, deliberate and informed act of a third party, or of the plaintiff, generally breaks it. But it does not where the defendant's duty was precisely to guard against that act: Stansbie v Troman (1948), the decorator who left the house unlocked and was liable for the theft that followed, and Home Office v Dorset Yacht Co (1970), where borstal officers negligently allowed boys in their charge to escape and were liable for the damage they did.

munotes.in 68

H. The Indian position.

Indian courts follow The Wagon Mound. The foreseeability test is applied in negligence generally, and the eggshell skull rule in personal injury and motor accident claims, where the assessment principles are those of Sarla Verma v Delhi Transport Corporation (2009) 6 SCC 121 and the Constitution Bench in National Insurance Co Ltd v Pranay Sethi (2017) 16 SCC 680.

munotes.in 69

21.Explain the principle of Vicarious liability citing relevant case laws.[13]

Answer

A. The principle.

Vicarious liability is the liability of one person for the tort of another, arising not from anything the first person did but from the relationship between them. It rests on two maxims: respondeat superior, let the superior answer, and qui facit per alium facit per se, he who acts through another acts himself.

The liability is joint and several: the wrongdoer remains personally liable, and the plaintiff may sue either or both, though he may have only one satisfaction.

B. The three relationships in which it arises.

  1. Master and servant, which is the principal case;
  2. Principal and agent, where the principal is liable for torts committed by the agent within the scope of his authority; and
  3. Ratification, where a person adopts and confirms an act done on his behalf without authority, the act relating back as if authorised: Wilson v Tumman (1843); Keighley, Maxsted and Co v Durant (1901).
munotes.in 70

Partners are liable for each other's wrongful acts in the ordinary course of the business under Sections 25 to 27 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.

C. Master and servant: the two conditions.

A master is liable where the wrongdoer was his servant, and the tort was committed in the course of employment.

D. Who is a servant.

A servant works under a contract of service and is subject to the employer's control as to the manner in which the work is done. An independent contractor works under a contract for services: he undertakes to produce a result in his own way, and as a rule the employer is not liable for his torts.

The tests:

  • The control test: does the employer control not only what is done but how it is done? It works for manual labour and fails for skilled professionals.
munotes.in 71
  • The organisation or integration test, formulated by Denning LJ in Stevenson, Jordan and Harrison Ltd v Macdonald and Evans (1952): is the work an integral part of the business, or merely accessory to it? A ship's master, a chauffeur and a staff reporter are under a contract of service; a pilot bringing a ship into harbour, a taxi driver and a freelance contributor are under a contract for services.
  • The multiple or composite test, from Ready Mixed Concrete v Minister of Pensions (1968), weighing all the indicia: power of selection and dismissal, payment of wages, deduction of tax and provident fund, provision of tools, degree of control, who bears the risk of profit and loss, and whether the person works exclusively for the employer.
  • Indian authority: Dharangadhara Chemical Works v State of Saurashtra (AIR 1957 SC 264), holding that the prima facie test is the right of control, but that all the features of the relationship must be considered.

Two special cases:

  • Lent or hired servant: the presumption is that the general employer remains liable, and the burden of shifting it is heavy: Mersey Docks and Harbour Board v Coggins and Griffith (Liverpool) Ltd (1947), where a crane driver was lent with his crane.
munotes.in 72
  • Casual delegation: an owner who asks another to drive on his behalf and for his purposes is liable, the driver being his agent: Ormrod v Crosville Motor Services (1953); mere permission to use is not enough: Morgans v Launchbury (1973).

E. In the course of employment.

An act is in the course of employment if it is expressly or impliedly authorised, or an unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act, or necessarily incidental to what the servant was employed to do. The case law works by contrast:

  • Limpus v London General Omnibus Co (1862): a driver, contrary to express instructions, obstructed a rival bus and caused a collision. Master liable: a prohibition on the manner of doing the work does not take the act outside the employment.
  • Beard v London General Omnibus Co (1900): a conductor drove the bus in the driver's absence and injured the plaintiff. Not liable: driving is not a mode of conducting but a different act.
munotes.in 73
  • Century Insurance Co v Northern Ireland Road Transport Board (1942): a petrol lorry driver lit a cigarette and threw the match away while transferring petrol, causing an explosion. Liable: he was doing his job carelessly.
  • Storey v Ashton (1869): a carman, his round finished, drove off on a private errand and injured the plaintiff. Not liable: a frolic of his own. Contrast a mere deviation from the route.
  • Lloyd v Grace, Smith and Co (1912): a solicitor's managing clerk fraudulently induced a client to convey property to him. Firm liable, although he acted for his own benefit, because the fraud was committed in the very class of work he was employed to do.
  • Bayley v Manchester, Sheffield and Lincolnshire Railway (1873): a porter violently pulled a passenger off a train, wrongly believing him to be on the wrong one. Liable: excessive and mistaken performance of an authorised act.
munotes.in 74
  • Poland v Parr and Sons (1927): a carter struck a boy he believed to be stealing his employer's sugar. Liable: a servant has implied authority to protect his master's property by reasonable means.
  • Morris v C W Martin and Sons Ltd (1966): a mink stole sent for cleaning was stolen by the cleaner's employee. Liable: goods entrusted to the very servant who steals them.

The modern close connection test. Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd (2001) held a school liable for the sexual abuse of pupils by a warden, asking whether the wrongful conduct was so closely connected with the employment that it would be fair and just to hold the employer liable. That test now supplements the older formulations and explains the cases of deliberate wrongdoing.

F. The rationale. The master selects the servant and can choose carefully; he controls the work; he takes the benefit of it and should bear its burdens, qui sentit commodum sentire debet et onus; and he is best able to insure and distribute the loss through his prices.

munotes.in 75

G. Independent contractors: the exceptions. An employer is liable where he authorises or ratifies the wrongful act; where he was negligent in selecting the contractor; where the duty is non-delegable, which covers statutory duties, work on or near a highway (Tarry v Ashton, 1876; Penny v Wimbledon Urban District Council, 1899), the withdrawal of support from a neighbour's land (Bower v Peate, 1876) and the duties of an occupier; where the work is extra-hazardous (Honeywill and Stein v Larkin Brothers, 1934); and where strict liability applies, Rylands v Fletcher (1868) being itself a case in which competent independent contractors were employed and the defendant was liable nonetheless.

H. The employer's indemnity. In theory a master who has paid may recover an indemnity from the servant: Lister v Romford Ice and Cold Storage Co (1957). In practice the right is almost never exercised.

munotes.in 76

I. The State as master in India. Article 300 of the Constitution preserves the pre-Constitution position, so liability turns on the distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions drawn in Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co v Secretary of State for India (1861). State of Rajasthan v Vidhyawati (AIR 1962 SC 933) held the State liable for a government driver's negligence; Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR 1965 SC 1039) held it not liable where police negligently lost seized gold, treating the function as sovereign. Kasturi Lal has been steadily eroded, and in the constitutional tort line, Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141 and Nilabati Behera v State of Orissa (1993) 2 SCC 746, compensation has been awarded for violation of Article 21 without regard to sovereign immunity.

munotes.in 77

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 78

Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 - 75/25 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

munotes.in 79
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!