Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - 75/25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - 75/25 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - 75/25 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - 75/25 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - 75/25 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 75 · 21 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in two sentence
any Six · 12 Marks
Answer
Accord and satisfaction is one of the modes by which tortious liability is discharged.
Accord is the agreement by which the person injured by a tort agrees to accept some consideration in place of his right of action. Satisfaction is the actual payment or performance of that consideration.
Both are required: an accord without satisfaction is no discharge, because the promise to accept does not extinguish the claim until what was promised has been given.
Answer
Qui facit per alium facit per se means "he who acts through another acts himself". It is one of the two maxims on which vicarious liability rests, the other being respondeat superior, let the superior answer.
Its effect is that where a person authorises or employs another to do an act, the act is treated in law as his own, and he is answerable for it. It underlies the liability of a master for the torts of his servant committed in the course of employment, and of a principal for the acts of his agent within the scope of his authority.
Answer
False imprisonment is the total restraint of a person's liberty, for however short a time, without lawful justification. It is one of the three forms of trespass to the person and is actionable per se, so no damage need be proved.
The restraint must be complete, with no reasonable means of escape: a partial obstruction is not enough, Bird v Jones (1845). The period is immaterial, and the plaintiff's knowledge of the restraint is not essential, Meering v Grahame-White Aviation Co (1919) and Murray v Ministry of Defence (1988).
Answer
An inevitable accident is an accident which could not have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill by a reasonable man in the circumstances. It is a general defence: where the defendant shows that the harm happened despite reasonable care and without any intention on his part, he is not liable.
The defence is available in torts requiring intention or negligence, and is no answer to a tort of strict liability such as the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.
Answer
Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word comes from the French nuire, to injure.
It is of two kinds. Public nuisance causes common injury, danger or annoyance to the public and is an offence under Section 268 of the Indian Penal Code; a private person may sue in tort only on proof of special damage. Private nuisance is interference with the land of a particular occupier and is actionable at his suit.
Answer
Malfeasance is the doing of an act which is wrongful and unlawful in itself, an act which the defendant had no right to do at all, such as a trespass or an assault.
Misfeasance is the improper or negligent performance of an act which is in itself lawful, such as a contractor entitled to dig up a road who leaves the trench unlit.
The third term completing the set is non-feasance, the omission to perform an act which the defendant was under a duty to perform.
Answer
Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines "deficiency" as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and includes:
Answer
Section 2(8) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a "consumer dispute" as a dispute where the person against whom a complaint has been made denies or disputes the allegations contained in the complaint.
Two things must therefore exist: a complaint as defined in Section 2(6), made by a complainant as defined in Section 2(5); and a denial or dispute of its allegations by the opposite party.
Write Short notes any two 12 Marks
Answer
Damnum sine injuria means damage without legal injury: the plaintiff has suffered actual and even substantial loss, but no legal right of his has been infringed. Such damage is not actionable, because there is no cause of action at all, and the size of the loss is irrelevant.
Damnum means loss of money, comfort, health, service or the like; injuria means the infringement of a legal right. The maxim rests on the proposition that the law of torts protects rights, not interests, and a right implies a corresponding duty on somebody else.
Cases.
Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) YB 11 Hen IV of 47: the defendant set up a rival school in the same town and the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence. No action, because the defendant had done nothing unlawful and lawful competition is not a wrong.
Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor, Gow and Co (1892) AC 25: a combination of shipowners drove the plaintiff out of the China tea trade by rebates and cut freight rates. No actionable wrong, the means being lawful and the object the advancement of the defendants' own trade.
Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895) AC 587: the defendant sank a shaft on his own land, intercepting percolating underground water which fed the Corporation's works, maliciously, to force them to buy his land at his price. Not liable: an act lawful in itself does not become unlawful because the motive is bad.
Chasemore v Richards (1859) and Acton v Blundell (1843): there is no right to percolating underground water, so drawing it away is no wrong.
Ushaben v Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir (AIR 1978 Guj 13): hurt to religious feelings by the screening of a film is not an actionable wrong.
Town Area Committee v Prabhu Dayal (AIR 1975 All 132): demolition of a building constructed without sanction founded no action.
The converse maxim: injuria sine damno, that is the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because the law presumes damage. Ashby v White (1703), where a returning officer wrongfully refused a qualified elector's vote although the candidate he supported won; Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677, where Rs. 50,000 was awarded to an MLA wrongfully detained.
Two more authorities on the same maxim.
Chasemore v Richards (1859) 7 HL Cas 349 and Acton v Blundell (1843): there is no right to percolating underground water flowing in undefined channels, so a landowner who drains it away commits no wrong however great his neighbour's loss.
Town Area Committee v Prabhu Dayal (AIR 1975 All 132): the demolition of a building constructed without sanction founded no action, no legal right of the plaintiff having been infringed.
The converse maxim: injuria sine damno, the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because the law presumes damage. Ashby v White (1703): a returning officer wrongfully refused a qualified elector's vote; the candidate he supported was elected anyway, so he lost nothing, and the action still lay. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677: Rs. 50,000 awarded to an MLA wrongfully detained to keep him from the Assembly.
Put the two extremes together. In Ashby the plaintiff lost nothing at all and won; in Bradford v Pickles he lost a great deal, and the defendant acted from pure malice, and he lost. Neither the size of the loss nor the badness of the motive decides whether an action lies; only the infringement of a right does.
Answer
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330 is the foundation of strict liability in the common law, that is liability without proof of fault.
Facts. The defendant, a mill owner, engaged independent contractors, who were competent engineers, to construct a reservoir on his land to supply water to his mill. In the course of the work the contractors came upon disused mine shafts filled with earth, which they did not block properly. Neither they nor the defendant knew that these shafts communicated with the workings of the plaintiff's coal mine on adjoining land. When the reservoir was filled, water escaped down the shafts and flooded the plaintiff's mine. The defendant himself had been guilty of no negligence, and was not liable for the contractors' negligence under the ordinary rules.
Held. The defendant was liable.
Blackburn J, in the Court of Exchequer Chamber, stated the rule:
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape."
On appeal, Lord Cairns LC affirmed the rule and added a further requirement: the defendant's use of the land must have been a non-natural use, that is a special use bringing with it increased danger, and not the ordinary use of land or such use as is proper for the general benefit of the community.
The three essentials.
The five exceptions.
The Indian development. In M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395, the oleum gas leak case, the Supreme Court declined to follow the nineteenth century rule and laid down absolute liability: an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate all affected, subject to no exception whatever, no escape need be shown, and the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise.
Answer
Constitution: Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. A State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute one or more Motor Accidents Claims Tribunals for such area as may be specified, for the purpose of adjudicating upon claims for compensation in respect of accidents involving the death of or bodily injury to persons arising out of the use of motor vehicles, or damage to any property of a third party so arising, or both. A Tribunal may consist of one or more members, and a person is qualified for appointment only if he is or has been a Judge of a High Court, or is or has been a District Judge, or is qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court or as a District Judge.
Application for compensation: Section 166. An application may be made:
Where the application is made by some but not all of the legal representatives, the others must be impleaded as respondents. Section 166(3), as substituted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019, requires the application to be made within six months of the occurrence of the accident. Section 166(4) treats the report of an accident forwarded by the police under Section 159 as an application for compensation.
Procedure and powers: Section 169. The Tribunal follows a summary procedure as it thinks fit, subject to the rules, and has all the powers of a civil court for the purpose of taking evidence on oath, enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the discovery and production of documents and material objects. Its proceedings are judicial proceedings within Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code, and it is a civil court for the purposes of Section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
The award: Section 168. After giving the parties and the insurer an opportunity of being heard, the Tribunal makes an award determining the amount of compensation which appears to it to be just, and specifying the person or persons to whom it shall be paid. Section 170 allows the Tribunal, where it is satisfied that there is collusion between the claimant and the person against whom the claim is made, or that the latter has failed to contest, to permit the insurer to contest on all grounds.
No fault liability. Under the 1988 Act as originally enacted, Section 140 made the owner liable to pay a fixed sum on death or permanent disablement without proof of any wrongful act, neglect or default, and Section 163A provided compensation on a structured formula basis. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 replaced both with a new Section 164, under which compensation of Rs. 5 lakh is payable in the case of death and Rs. 2.5 lakh in the case of grievous hurt, and Section 164(2) provides in terms that the claimant shall not be required to plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default. Section 161 provides for hit and run compensation, now Rs. 2 lakh for death and Rs. 50,000 for grievous hurt.
Bar of jurisdiction: Section 175. Where a Tribunal has been constituted for any area, no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any question relating to a claim for compensation which may be adjudicated upon by the Tribunal, and no injunction in respect of any such action may be granted.
Appeal: Section 173. An appeal lies to the High Court within ninety days of the award, except where the amount in dispute is less than Rs. 1 lakh. Where the appellant is the person required to pay, the appeal is entertained only on deposit of Rs. 25,000 or fifty per cent of the amount awarded, whichever is less.
Answer
Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or to make them shun or avoid him, or to expose him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification.
Defamation is classified in two ways: by the form of publication, and by the manner in which the defamatory meaning is conveyed.
A. Classification by form: libel and slander.
Libel is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye: writing, print, a picture, a caricature, a photograph, a statue, an effigy, a film or a broadcast.
Slander is defamation in a transient form addressed to the ear: spoken words or a gesture.
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| Permanent form; addressed to the eye. | Transient form; addressed to the ear. |
| Actionable per se: damage is presumed. | In English law, requires proof of special damage, save in four cases. |
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| A crime as well as a tort in English law. | Generally only a tort in English law. |
| Shows greater deliberation; the injury is wider and more lasting. | Often uttered in haste; the injury is generally narrower. |
The four slanders actionable per se in English law: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business.
In India the distinction has been held to be of little practical importance, and the High Courts have generally held slander also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167), because the English rule rests on a historical division between the common law and the ecclesiastical courts which never applied here. Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both forms are equally the offence of defamation.
B. Classification by the manner of the meaning: direct and by innuendo.
Defamation on the face of the words requires no explanation: the words are defamatory in their ordinary and natural sense.
Innuendo is a secondary or latent meaning which words, innocent on their face, convey to persons who know extrinsic facts. To plead it, the plaintiff must prove the extrinsic facts and that the statement was published to persons who knew them.
Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph of a man with a woman described as his fiancée defamed his actual wife, because those who knew her inferred she was not married to him. Tolley v J S Fry and Sons (1931): an amateur golfer depicted in a chocolate advertisement was defamed in the eyes of those who knew the rules of amateur status.
Modern pleading distinguishes the true or legal innuendo, which depends on extrinsic facts and must be specifically pleaded, from the false or popular innuendo, which is merely the inference any ordinary reader would draw and is part of the ordinary meaning.
C. Civil and criminal defamation. In India defamation is both a tort, redressed by damages and an injunction, and an offence under Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code, whose validity was upheld in Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221. Section 499 carries ten Exceptions, of which the First requires an imputation to be true and published for the public good, which is narrower than the civil defence of truth.
Answer any two situational based questions 12 Marks
Answer
On filing a consumer complaint, the hospital took defence that since the Sonabai was operated free of cost, her complaint is not maintainable.
Yes. Sonabai is a consumer, and the hospital's defence fails.
The governing authority is Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651, in which a three judge Bench of the Supreme Court laid down four propositions:
Applying that to Sonabai. The problem says she was operated by a private hospital under a special charity camp organised by the hospital. A private hospital is by definition an institution that charges its patients; the camp is one activity within a paying establishment. Sonabai therefore falls squarely within the third category in V P Shantha: she is a beneficiary of a service paid for by the hospital's other patients, and she is a consumer.
The hospital's defence would succeed only if it could show that it renders all its services free to everybody, which on these facts it plainly does not.
Even if the consumer route failed, she would not be without a remedy. A doctor's duty of care in tort has never depended on payment, and a suit for negligence would lie in the civil court, with the hospital vicariously liable for its surgeon. Section 100 of the 2019 Act preserves that remedy, the Act being in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.
On the merits she will succeed. Operating on the right eye, which had no issue, during a cataract operation on the left, and damaging it, is not an error of clinical judgment on which the law is protective of doctors; it is a failure of an elementary precaution, of the same class as leaving a swab inside a patient. The maxim res ipsa loquitur applies: the instrumentality was in the exclusive control of the surgeon and theatre staff, such things do not happen in the ordinary course if proper care is used, and the cause is unknown to an anaesthetised patient. The evidential burden shifts to the hospital. The Indian authority on facts of this class is Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, and on the standard of care Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1, applying Bolam.
Under Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the following are not consumers:
But Explanation (a) provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. So a man who buys one auto-rickshaw and drives it himself is a consumer.
Answer
She went to Solicitor's office for the purpose of getting her cottages sold and there she met Mr X who fraudulently induced her to execute a transfer deed of cottages to himself on pretence that documents were necessary for sale of property. He then disposed of that property for his own benefit.
Anita sued the firm.
Yes. Anita will succeed against the firm.
These are the facts of Lloyd v Grace, Smith and Co [1912] AC 716, the leading case on a master's liability for the fraud of his servant committed for the servant's own benefit.
The facts of the case. Mrs Lloyd, a widow, owned two cottages and a mortgage. Dissatisfied with the income, she went to the office of Grace, Smith and Co, a firm of solicitors, and was attended by their managing clerk, who conducted the conveyancing department without supervision. He advised her to sell the cottages and call in the mortgage, and got her to sign two documents which she did not read and which he did not explain. They were conveyances of the property to himself. He then disposed of the property and absconded with the proceeds. She sued the firm.
Held. The House of Lords held the firm liable. Earl Loreburn and Lord Macnaghten laid down that a master is liable for the fraud of his servant committed in the course of his employment, and that it makes no difference that the servant acted for his own benefit and not for the benefit of his master. The earlier view, that a master answers only for frauds from which he himself benefits, was rejected.
The reasoning, applied to Anita's case:
Contrast the cases where the master escapes. Beard v London General Omnibus Co (1900): a conductor drove the bus, which was a different act and not a mode of conducting; not liable. Storey v Ashton (1869): a carman, his round finished, drove off on a private errand; not liable, being on a frolic of his own. Neither applies here, because Mr X was doing his own job.
Anita's remedies. Against the firm, damages in tort for deceit and for the conversion of her property, or restitution of the property if it can be traced; against Mr X personally, the same, though he has absconded; and against the firm additionally as partners, since under Section 26 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 the firm is liable for loss caused to a third party by the wrongful act of a partner acting in the ordinary course of the business, and under Section 27 for the misapplication of money received by the firm.
Yes, and the liability is vicarious, resting on the two established conditions.
Condition 1: the relationship of master and servant. A servant works under a contract of service and is subject to the employer's control as to the manner in which the work is done; an independent contractor works under a contract for services and produces a result in his own way. Mr X was engaged as a clerk, on the firm's premises, doing the firm's work, and paid by it. On the control test, on the organisation or integration test from Stevenson, Jordan and Harrison Ltd v Macdonald and Evans (1952), and on the modern multiple test applied in India in Dharangadhara Chemical Works v State of Saurashtra (AIR 1957 SC 264), he is plainly a servant.
Condition 2: the tort was committed in the course of employment. An act is in the course of employment if it is one expressly or impliedly authorised, or an unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act, or necessarily incidental to what the servant was employed to do. Handling a client's conveyancing was authorised; doing it fraudulently was an unauthorised mode of doing it.
The modern formulation is the close connection test in Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd (2001): the question is whether the wrongful conduct was so closely connected with the employment that it would be fair and just to hold the employer liable. That test explains why employers answer for deliberate wrongdoing, and it is satisfied many times over here.
The rationale. The firm selected Mr X, controlled his work, took the benefit of it, and could have insured against the risk. Anita had no means of knowing that the man attending her at a solicitor's office was dishonest, and the firm did. As between an innocent client and the employer who put the wrongdoer in the position which made the fraud possible, the law places the loss on the employer.
The firm's position afterwards. Having paid, the firm may claim an indemnity from Mr X, both as damages for breach of the implied contractual duty to serve with care and fidelity, Lister v Romford Ice and Cold Storage Co (1957), and as indemnity between wrongdoers, since the firm was not itself at fault, Khushro S Gandhi v N A Guzder (AIR 1970 SC 1468). In practice that right is worthless where the servant has absconded, which is precisely why vicarious liability exists.
Answer
Mohan's remedy is a suit for damages in negligence against Amar, and he will succeed without proving how the barrel came to fall.
These are the facts of Byrne v Boadle (1863) 2 H and C 722, where a barrel of flour rolled out of a first floor window of the defendant's warehouse and struck a passer-by in the street. The plaintiff could not say how or why it fell, and it was argued that he had proved no negligence. Pollock CB held that a barrel of flour cannot roll out of a warehouse window without negligence, and that the accident was itself evidence of it.
The principle is res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself: a rule of evidence under which, in certain circumstances, the mere fact that the accident happened is evidence of negligence, so that the plaintiff need not prove any specific act of carelessness.
Its three conditions are satisfied here:
The effect is that an inference of negligence arises and the evidential burden shifts to Amar to offer an explanation consistent with reasonable care. If he can show, for example, that a stranger over whom he had no control pushed the barrel out, or that the fall was caused by an event he could not have guarded against, he escapes. If he offers no explanation, Mohan succeeds.
Two supporting points. Mohan was on a public highway, where he was lawfully entitled to be, and the occupier of premises adjoining a highway owes a duty to take care that things do not fall from them onto passers-by: Tarry v Ashton (1876), the lamp overhanging the footway. And if the barrel was being handled by Amar's servants in the course of their employment, Amar is additionally vicariously liable for their negligence.
The reliefs are damages for medical expenses, pain and suffering, loss of earnings and any permanent disability, assessed on the principle of restitutio in integrum.
Yes, unless he discharges the evidential burden that res ipsa loquitur casts on him.
Amar is liable on two independent bases:
1. Occupier's liability and his own negligence. An occupier owes a duty to persons on an adjoining highway to keep his premises, and the things kept in and on them, in such a condition that they do not become a danger. Storing barrels near an open window on a second floor, without a rail, a stop or a securing arrangement, is a failure of that duty. This is primary liability, and it exists whether or not any individual servant was careless.
2. Vicarious liability. If a servant handling the barrel in the course of his employment let it fall, Amar is liable for that servant's negligence on the maxim respondeat superior, the act being an unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act: Century Insurance Co v Northern Ireland Road Transport Board (1942).
What Amar must show to escape. The maxim raises an inference, not an irrebuttable presumption, so he may still succeed by proving the accident happened without negligence on his part. The available explanations are:
Contributory negligence does not arise: Mohan was doing nothing more than walking along a public street and could not have guarded against a barrel falling from above.
Answer
It is a crime, and Rajesh's defence is misconceived.
1. It is an offence under the Railways Act, 1989. Section 67 provides that no person shall take with him on a railway any dangerous or offensive goods except in accordance with the conditions prescribed. Section 164 provides that if any person takes with him on a railway any dangerous or offensive goods in contravention of Section 67, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both, and shall also be liable for loss, injury or damage which may be caused in consequence. Fireworks are explosives and are dangerous goods within the meaning of the section. Section 165 deals with the carriage of such goods with intent to cause damage, and Section 174 with obstruction of traffic.
The Explosives Act, 1884 and the rules made under it, and the Explosive Substances Act, 1908, apply in addition, as does Section 286 of the Indian Penal Code, negligent conduct with respect to explosive substances.
2. Rajesh's argument confuses crime with tort, and that confusion is the whole point of the question.
A tort is a private wrong against an individual, and it requires damage to that individual, or at least the infringement of his legal right. If Rajesh had injured a passenger, that passenger would have had an action in negligence and could have recovered compensation.
A crime is a public wrong against the community, prosecuted by the State, and it does not require any particular person to have been damaged. The law punishes the conduct itself because of the risk it creates to the public. That is exactly the character of the offence here: carrying explosives in a crowded suburban train is punished because of the danger to hundreds of passengers, and it would be absurd to require the State to wait for an explosion before it could act.
3. So the answer to Rajesh is: the absence of damage is a complete answer to a claim in tort and no answer at all to a prosecution. Offences of this kind are frequently described as inchoate or preventive offences, and the whole point of them is to intervene before harm occurs.
4. What could still be a tort. If the crackers had exploded and injured a passenger, or damaged the railway's property, Rajesh would additionally have been liable:
The same act may be both a crime and a tort, and the two proceedings are independent: an acquittal in the criminal case does not bar the civil suit, because the standards of proof differ.
| Tort | Crime |
|---|---|
| A private wrong against an individual. | A public wrong against the community and the State. |
| The injured party himself sues, in his own name. | The State prosecutes, in the name of the State. |
| The remedy is compensation: unliquidated damages paid to the plaintiff. | The consequence is punishment: imprisonment or fine, the fine going to the State and not to the victim. |
| The wrong is generally compoundable and waivable; the parties may compromise at any time. | Most offences are not compoundable except as permitted by Section 320 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and then often only with the leave of the court. |
| Tort | Crime |
|---|---|
| Proof on the balance of probabilities. | Proof beyond reasonable doubt. |
| Damage is generally essential, except in torts actionable per se. | Damage is not essential; the conduct is punished for the risk it creates. |
| Motive is generally irrelevant. | Mens rea, the guilty mind, is generally an essential ingredient. |
| No vicarious liability in general for another's crime, but the master answers for the servant's tort in the course of employment. | Criminal liability is personal; there is no general vicarious liability, save for statutory exceptions. |
| Governed by uncodified case law in India, supplemented by statutes. | Governed by codified law: the Indian Penal Code and special statutes. |
Answer any three in details 39 Marks
Answer
A. Definition.
A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or a breach of trust, for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages. The word comes from the Latin tortum, twisted or crooked, through the French tort, a wrong. This is Salmond's definition.
Winfield's definition is fuller and carries a theory with it: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."
Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 adopts the shorter formulation: "tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or a breach of trust."
B. The essentials of a tort.
C. The nature of tortious liability.
The nature of the subject is best seen by distinguishing it from its neighbours.
Tort and contract. In tort the duty is fixed by law, is owed to persons generally and is therefore a right in rem; damages are always unliquidated; and no privity is required. In contract the duty is fixed by the parties, is owed only to the other party and is a right in personam; damages may be liquidated; and privity is essential. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) shows why the difference matters: the consumer of the ginger beer had no contract with the manufacturer and would have had no remedy at all on a contractual analysis.
The two are not mutually exclusive. A surgeon who operates carelessly commits both, and the plaintiff may choose, the choice mattering for limitation, for remoteness and for whether exemption clauses apply.
Tort and crime. A tort is a private wrong redressed by compensation at the suit of the injured party, who may compromise or waive it, and proved on the balance of probabilities. A crime is a public wrong prosecuted by the State, answered by punishment, generally not compoundable, and proved beyond reasonable doubt. The same act may be both, and the proceedings are independent.
Tort and breach of trust. A trust duty arises from a fiduciary relationship, was enforced in equity, and produces a liquidated liability to account; Section 23 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 requires the trustee to make good the loss.
Tort and quasi-contract. Quasi-contractual obligations, under Sections 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, are restitutionary: the measure is the defendant's gain, not the plaintiff's loss. Where a tort has enriched the wrongdoer the plaintiff may waive the tort and sue in quasi-contract instead.
D. The scope of the law of torts: is there a law of tort or a law of torts?
Winfield's view: there is a law of tort. Since the duty is a general one fixed by law, all harm is prima facie tortious unless there is some justification, and the courts remain free to recognise new heads of liability.
Salmond's view: there is only a law of torts. The law knows a finite list of nominate torts, each with its own name and ingredients, arranged like pigeon-holes; harm which fits no pigeon-hole gives no remedy. Dr Jenks and Heuston supported him.
The evidence for Winfield is that new pigeon-holes have plainly been made: strict liability in Rylands v Fletcher (1868), intentional infliction of nervous shock in Wilkinson v Downton (1897), the manufacturer's duty in Donoghue v Stevenson (1932), negligent misstatement in Hedley Byrne v Heller (1964), and in India absolute liability in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) and the constitutional tort from Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983).
The evidence for Salmond is that no litigant ever pleads "a tort" in the abstract; he pleads a named tort and must prove its ingredients.
The reconciliation, associated with Glanville Williams, is that the two describe the same law at different levels of abstraction: Salmond describes it as it stands at any moment, Winfield describes its capacity for growth. The categories of tort are never closed, but a plaintiff must still bring his case within a recognised cause of action.
E. The objects of the law of torts.
F. The place of the law of torts in India.
The law of torts in India is largely uncodified and is judge-made, received as the English common law so far as it is consistent with justice, equity and good conscience and adapted to Indian conditions. That reception is not mechanical: in M C Mehta the Supreme Court said expressly that it was not bound to follow a rule evolved in nineteenth century England and was free to develop principles suited to a developing country.
Substantial parts have been taken over by statute: the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, the Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 now the Employee's Compensation Act, the Fatal Accidents Act, 1855 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. And the constitutional tort, the award of compensation in writ jurisdiction for violation of fundamental rights, is a wholly Indian development.
Answer
A. The definition.
Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines an unfair trade practice as a trade practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or for the provision of any service, adopts any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice, including the practices the section enumerates.
Two features of the definition are worth noting before the list. The opening words are general, so the enumerated practices are illustrative and not exhaustive; and the practice must be adopted for the purpose of promoting sale or supply, which is what distinguishes an unfair trade practice from an ordinary breach of contract.
B. The enumerated practices.
1. Making a false statement, orally, in writing or by visible representation, including by electronic record, which:
2. Permitting the publication of an advertisement, whether in a newspaper or otherwise, for the sale or supply at a bargain price of goods or services that are not intended to be offered for supply at that price, or for a reasonable period and in reasonable quantity, having regard to the nature of the market, the size of the business and the nature of the advertisement. This is the practice known as bait advertising.
3. Permitting the offering of gifts, prizes or other items with the intention of not providing them as offered, or creating the impression that something is being given free when it is fully or partly covered by the amount charged in the transaction as a whole; and conducting any contest, lottery, game of chance or skill for the purpose of promoting, directly or indirectly, the sale, use or supply of any product or business interest.
Society of Catalysts v Star Plus TV (2008) is the leading Indian decision: a television contest whose prize money came out of premium SMS charges was held an unfair trade practice, because the viewers were in truth paying for a prize advertised as free.
4. Withholding from participants of a scheme offering gifts or prizes information about the final results of the scheme.
5. Permitting the sale or supply of goods intended to be used by consumers, knowing or having reason to believe that the goods do not comply with the standards prescribed by a competent authority relating to performance, composition, contents, design, construction, finishing or packaging as are necessary to prevent or reduce the risk of injury to the person using the goods.
6. Permitting the hoarding or destruction of goods, or refusing to sell the goods or to make them available for sale, or to provide any service, if such conduct is intended to raise the cost of those or similar goods or services.
7. Manufacturing spurious goods, or offering such goods for sale, or adopting deceptive practices in the provision of services. "Spurious goods" are defined in Section 2(43) as goods which are falsely claimed to be genuine.
8. Not issuing a bill, cash memo or receipt for the goods sold or services rendered, in the manner prescribed. New in 2019.
9. Refusing, after selling goods or rendering services, to take them back or withdraw the services and to refund the consideration within the period stipulated in the bill or receipt, or within thirty days where no period is stipulated. New in 2019.
10. Disclosing to any other person any personal information given in confidence by the consumer, unless the disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any law for the time being in force or in the public interest. New in 2019.
C. Remedies.
Before a Commission. An unfair trade practice is a ground of complaint under Section 2(6). Under Section 39 a Commission may order the trader to discontinue the practice and not to repeat it, to cease and desist from a misleading advertisement, to issue a corrective advertisement at his own cost to neutralise the effect of the misleading one, to return the price, to pay compensation including punitive damages, to withdraw hazardous goods, and to pay costs.
Before the Central Consumer Protection Authority. Under Sections 19 to 21 the CCPA may inquire on its own motion, order recall of unsafe goods and reimbursement of the price, order discontinuance of the practice, and impose a penalty up to Rs. 10 lakh on a manufacturer or endorser for a misleading advertisement, rising to Rs. 50 lakh for repeat contraventions, and prohibit an endorser for one year, extending to three years. An endorser is not liable if he exercised due diligence to verify the claims.
Criminal. Section 89 punishes a manufacturer or service provider who causes a false or misleading advertisement with imprisonment up to two years and fine up to Rs. 10 lakh, and for a subsequent offence up to five years and Rs. 50 lakh. Sections 90 and 91 punish adulterated and spurious goods, extending to imprisonment for life where death results.
D. Guidelines. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Necessary Due Diligence for Endorsement of Advertisements) Guidelines, 2022 restrict surrogate advertising, bait advertising and advertisements directed at children, and set out the due diligence expected of an endorser, including that he must have actually used the product.
Answer
A. Meaning.
Contributory negligence is the failure of the plaintiff to take reasonable care of his own safety, which combines with the defendant's negligence to cause the damage he complains of.
It is not the breach of a duty owed to the defendant. It is a want of care by the plaintiff for himself, and the question is always whether he took the care that a reasonable and prudent person would have taken in his own interest.
B. The doctrine.
1. The old common law rule: a complete defence.
Butterfield v Forrester (1809) 11 East 60. The defendant, for the purpose of making repairs, wrongfully put a pole across a public road. The plaintiff, riding violently at dusk, did not see it, rode into it and was thrown. Witnesses said that a person riding with reasonable care would have seen the obstruction from a hundred yards. He recovered nothing.
Lord Ellenborough CJ stated the rule: "one person being in fault will not dispense with another's using ordinary care for himself", and two things must concur to support the action, an obstruction laid by the defendant and the want of ordinary care to avoid it on the part of the plaintiff.
The rule was harsh, because it made the plaintiff's smallest carelessness a complete answer to the defendant's gross negligence, and the whole loss then fell on the more seriously injured party.
2. The judicial correction: the last opportunity rule.
Davies v Mann (1842) 10 M and W 546. The plaintiff negligently left his donkey fettered by the forefeet on a highway. The defendant drove his wagon and horses at a smart pace down a slight descent and ran into it, killing it. The defendant was held liable, because although the plaintiff was negligent in leaving the donkey there, the defendant had the last opportunity of avoiding the accident by the exercise of ordinary care.
British Columbia Electric Railway Co v Loach (1916) 1 AC 719 extended this to constructive last opportunity. The deceased drove onto a level crossing negligently; the defendant's tram was travelling too fast and had defective brakes. Because of the defective brakes the tram did not in fact have the last chance of stopping, but it would have had one had its brakes been in order. The company was held liable: a defendant cannot rely on an incapacity produced by his own earlier negligence.
3. The statutory solution: apportionment.
The last opportunity rule was itself unsatisfactory, because it remained all or nothing and produced fine distinctions about who had the final chance. The Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945 in England replaced it:
where any person suffers damage as the result partly of his own fault and partly of the fault of any other person, a claim in respect of that damage shall not be defeated by reason of the fault of the person suffering the damage, but the damages recoverable shall be reduced to such extent as the court thinks just and equitable having regard to the claimant's share in the responsibility for the damage.
4. The position in India.
India has no general statute to the same effect. The Kerala Torts (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1976 applies apportionment locally. Elsewhere the courts have simply adopted apportionment as a rule of justice, equity and good conscience.
Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731 is the modern statement: where both parties are at fault, the loss is apportioned according to the degree of responsibility, and the last opportunity rule survives only as one way of deciding whose negligence was the effective cause of the accident. Earlier, Vidya Devi v M P State Road Transport Corporation (AIR 1975 MP 89) and Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti (AIR 1966 SC 1750) are also cited.
In motor accident claims the no fault provisions apply independently: Section 164 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, as substituted in 2019, gives Rs. 5 lakh for death and Rs. 2.5 lakh for grievous hurt without any plea or proof of fault.
5. The burden of proof.
The burden of proving contributory negligence lies on the defendant, who must plead it. Where the injured person has died, the law presumes that he took reasonable care of himself, and the presumption must be displaced by evidence.
C. The exceptions, that is where the defence does not apply.
1. The doctrine of alternative danger, or the dilemma principle. A plaintiff who is put in a position of danger by the defendant's negligence is not contributorily negligent merely because, in the agony of the moment, he adopts a course which turns out to be the wrong one.
Jones v Boyce (1816): a passenger on a coach, seeing that a defective coupling rein had broken and reasonably believing the coach about to overturn, jumped and broke his leg. The coach did not in fact overturn. He recovered, because his act was a reasonable response to the peril the defendant had created.
Shyam Sunder v State of Rajasthan (1974) 1 SCC 690: a truck of the State's famine relief department caught fire on its first trip after repairs; a workman jumped out and was killed. The State was liable; the deceased's act was reasonable in the emergency.
2. Rescuers. A person injured while attempting a rescue made necessary by the defendant's negligence is met neither by contributory negligence nor by volenti, because danger invites rescue.
Haynes v Harwood (1935): a policeman was injured stopping a bolting horse in a crowded street, the horse having bolted because the defendant's servant left it unattended. He recovered in full. Wagner v International Railway (1921), where Cardozo J said that "danger invites rescue", and Baker v T E Hopkins and Son Ltd (1959), the doctor who went down a well to rescue workmen overcome by fumes, are to the same effect.
3. Children. A child is judged by the standard of a child of that age, intelligence and experience, not of an adult.
Yachuk v Oliver Blais Co Ltd (1949): petrol was sold to a boy of nine who said he needed it for his mother's car; he used it in a game and was badly burned. The sellers were liable, because a child of that age could not appreciate the danger. Very young children are treated as incapable of contributory negligence altogether.
4. Where the plaintiff's negligence did not contribute to the damage. A causal connection is essential. If a man drives without a licence and is run into by a lorry travelling on the wrong side of the road, the want of a licence is a breach of statute but not a cause of the accident.
5. Where the defendant's duty was precisely to guard against the plaintiff's carelessness. Where a statute requires an employer to fence dangerous machinery, he cannot answer a workman's claim by saying the workman was careless, because the duty exists because workmen are careless. The same reasoning explains Stansbie v Troman (1948) in the context of intervening acts.
6. Where the plaintiff is under a disability, or was acting under a statutory duty which left him no choice.
Answer
Even where the plaintiff proves every ingredient of a tort, the defendant may escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is one available across the law of torts rather than peculiar to a single tort.
1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). No injury is done to one who is willing. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies.
Two elements: knowledge and consent. Mere knowledge is not enough, and scienti non fit injuria is not the law. Smith v Baker (1891): a workman who knew stones were being swung over his head and worked on had not consented, because a man under economic compulsion is not a volunteer. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933): a spectator at a motor race had accepted the inherent risks. Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222) in India.
Limits. Consent obtained by fraud is no consent (Hegarty v Shine, 1878). Consent under legal or moral compulsion is no consent, so a rescuer is not met by the defence (Haynes v Harwood, 1935). Volenti is no answer to a breach of statutory duty, and none to an unlawful act. In Wooldridge v Sumner (1963) the defence was refined for spectators at sporting events: a spectator accepts the risks inherent in the sport but not injury caused by a reckless disregard of his safety.
2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause; the court will not assist a plaintiff whose claim is founded on his own illegal act. The defence is narrow: the illegality must be connected with the harm. Bird v Holbrook (1828): a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered damages, which shows that a defendant does not get a free hand merely because the plaintiff was in the wrong.
3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by ordinary care, caution and skill. Stanley v Powell (1891), the pellet glancing off a tree and striking a beater; Brown v Kendall (1850), the man separating two fighting dogs; Assam State Cooperative Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18). It is no defence to strict liability.
4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it and no reasonable care could provide against it. Nichols v Marsland (1876), extraordinary rainfall bursting ornamental lakes, succeeded; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917), where the rainfall was heavy but not unprecedented, failed; Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197): the act of an unruly mob is the act of man, not of God. Unlike inevitable accident, act of God is an exception to Rylands v Fletcher.
5. Private defence. A person may use reasonable and proportionate force to defend his own person or property, or that of another. The force must match the threat: setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence, and shooting a boy scrumping apples is not.
6. Mistake. As a general rule mistake, of fact or of law, is no defence in tort: a person who enters land honestly believing it his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the defendant's state of mind is an ingredient, notably malicious prosecution and deceit, and the defence of qualified privilege in defamation, where honest belief negatives malice.
7. Necessity. An act which causes damage but was done to prevent a greater harm is not actionable. Throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to arrest a fire, and operating on an unconscious patient are the standard instances; the maxim is salus populi suprema lex. Cope v Sharpe (1912): a gamekeeper who burned strips of heather to prevent a fire spreading to his master's nesting pheasants was not liable in trespass. Leigh v Gladstone (1909): forcible feeding of a hunger-striking prisoner was justified. Distinguish private defence, where the plaintiff is the source of the danger, and inevitable accident, where the harm was not intended at all.
8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the defendant is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute, where the act must be done, or conditional, where it may be done only if it can be done without infringing private rights. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860): sparks from an authorised railway engine set fire to woods; not liable. Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869): vibrations from an authorised railway; not liable. Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881): a smallpox hospital established under a permissive power was restrained as a nuisance, the authority being conditional.
9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts. A judge is not liable for acts done in the discharge of his judicial function, however erroneous, a protection given in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850, and extended to persons exercising quasi-judicial powers in good faith.
10. Parental and quasi-parental authority. A parent, and a person in loco parentis such as a schoolmaster, may impose reasonable correction and restraint. The defence has been much narrowed in India by Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, which prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment, and Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex. The law does not concern itself with trifles.
A partial defence: contributory negligence. The plaintiff's own want of care no longer defeats the claim but reduces the damages in proportion to his share of responsibility: the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945 in England, and in India Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731.
Answer
A. What absolute liability is.
Absolute liability is liability without fault and without exception: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable to compensate everyone harmed by an accident in the operation of that activity, and none of the exceptions which qualify strict liability is available to it.
It was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395.
B. The background: the rule it replaced.
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330 had established strict liability. Blackburn J: "the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape." Lord Cairns LC added the requirement of a non-natural use of land.
Its three essentials were a dangerous thing, an escape and a non-natural use; and it was subject to five exceptions: plaintiff's own default, act of God, consent of the plaintiff, act of a stranger and statutory authority.
Those exceptions, with the narrow reading of "escape" in Read v J Lyons and Co (1947) and the generous reading of "natural use" in Rickards v Lothian (1913), had very nearly swallowed the rule. A liability defeated by an act of God, by the act of any stranger and by statutory authority is not, in practice, liability without fault at all.
C. M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395.
Facts. In December 1985, within a year of the Bhopal gas disaster, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries, a unit of Delhi Cloth Mills, situated in a densely populated part of Delhi. Several persons were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died. A second leak followed two days later. The matter came before a Constitution Bench of five judges on a public interest petition under Article 32, brought by M C Mehta, which had originally sought closure and relocation of the plant.
Held. Bhagwati CJ, delivering the judgment, held that the Court was not bound to follow the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher, which had evolved in a different social and economic context in an England of the industrial revolution, and that Indian law must evolve new principles and lay down new norms adequate to the problems of a highly industrialised economy. He laid down:
where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example, in the escape of toxic gas, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident, and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.
The measure of compensation. The Court further held that the measure of compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because such compensation must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable.
D. The rationale: the reasons the Court gave and the reasons behind them.
1. The enterprise alone can know and control the risk. The Court said the enterprise alone has the resource to discover and guard against hazards and dangers, and to provide warning against potential hazards. A person living near a chemical plant knows nothing of what is stored, how it is handled, or what the maintenance schedule is.
2. The duty is absolute and non-delegable. An enterprise which carries on a hazardous activity for private profit owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results. It cannot discharge that duty by delegating the work, nor by proving that it took care.
3. Difficulty of proof. In an industrial accident the victim can prove nothing about what happened inside the plant. Requiring proof of negligence, or allowing a defence of sabotage or of an act of God, would mean in practice that the loss lies where it falls: on the person least able to bear it and least able to prevent it.
4. He who creates the risk for his own benefit should bear its cost. The activity is carried on for profit, and the cost of the harm it causes is properly a cost of that activity, not a burden on the neighbourhood.
5. Loss distribution. The enterprise can insure, and can pass the cost on through its prices, so that the loss is spread across everyone who benefits from the activity.
6. Deterrence. This is why the Court tied the quantum to the capacity of the enterprise. A fixed sum would be a licence fee for a large company and a death sentence for a small one, and neither would deter. Making the award proportionate to size gives every enterprise the same incentive to take precautions.
E. How absolute liability differs from strict liability.
| Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher) | Absolute liability (M C Mehta) |
|---|---|
| Five exceptions are available. | No exception whatever. |
| An escape from the defendant's premises is essential (Read v Lyons), so persons inside are unprotected. | No escape is required; persons inside, including workmen, are covered. |
| Requires a non-natural use of land and the accumulation of a dangerous thing. | Applies to any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity or industry. |
| Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher) | Absolute liability (M C Mehta) |
|---|---|
| Damages are compensatory. | Compensation is correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, and is therefore deterrent. |
| A rule of the common law, developed in England. | A rule evolved by the Supreme Court of India for Indian conditions. |
F. The later development.
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