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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Torts 2022-23 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Torts

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2022-23 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2½ hours  ·  Total marks 75  ·  21 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer in two sentence

Any six · 12 Marks

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1.How tort is distinct from breach of contract?[2]

Answer

The difference lies in the source of the duty and in who it is owed to.

In tort the duty is fixed by law, is owed to persons generally, and is therefore a right in rem. In contract the duty is fixed by the parties themselves, is owed only to the other contracting party, and is a right in personam.

Two consequences follow: damages in tort are always unliquidated, assessed by the court, while in contract they may be liquidated by the agreement; and in tort no privity is required, while in contract a stranger to the agreement cannot sue on it.

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2.Explain the maxim 'Volenti non fit injuria'[2]

Answer

Volenti non fit injuria means to a willing person no injury is done. It is a general defence: where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run that risk, he cannot afterwards sue for the harm it causes.

Two elements must both be proved: knowledge of the risk and consent to bear it. Knowledge alone will not do, which is why scienti non fit injuria is not the law.

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3.What is meant by assault?[2]

Answer

Assault is an act of the defendant which causes the plaintiff a reasonable apprehension of the infliction of immediate and unlawful force upon his person. It is a form of trespass to the person and is actionable per se, so no damage need be proved.

Its essentials are an act creating reasonable apprehension of immediate force, an apparent present ability to carry out the threat, and an intention to create that apprehension.

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4.What is meant by joint tort Feasors?[2]

Answer

Joint tort-feasors are two or more persons whose conduct causes a single, indivisible injury to the plaintiff, so that in law they are treated as having committed one tort and not several. The recognised categories are principal and agent, master and servant, partners in a firm, and persons acting in furtherance of a common design.

Their liability is joint and several: the plaintiff may sue any one of them or all, and recover the whole of the damages from any one, though he may have only one satisfaction in total.

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5.What is meant by nervous shock?[2]

Answer

Nervous shock is a recognisable psychiatric illness caused by the defendant's wrongful act, without any direct physical impact on the plaintiff. It is compensable in tort, and the requirement is a medically recognised condition, such as post-traumatic stress disorder or clinical depression; mere grief, sorrow, fright or distress is not enough.

Liability may arise from an act done intentionally, as in Wilkinson v Downton (1897), or negligently, where the ordinary requirements of duty, breach and damage apply.

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6.State the exceptions to principle of strict liability.[2]

Answer

The rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) is subject to five exceptions:

  1. Plaintiff's own default, including damage arising from the abnormal sensitivity of his property (Ponting v Noakes, 1894);
  2. Act of God, or vis major (Nichols v Marsland, 1876);
  3. Consent of the plaintiff, which covers the common benefit cases where the dangerous thing is kept for the benefit of both parties (Carstairs v Taylor, 1871);
  4. Act of a third party, that is the unforeseeable act of a stranger over whom the defendant has no control (Box v Jubb, 1879; Rickards v Lothian, 1913); and
  5. Statutory authority, where the accumulation is authorised by an enactment and the escape is the inevitable consequence, without negligence (Green v Chelsea Waterworks Co, 1894).
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7.Define the consumer.[2]

Answer

Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines "consumer" as any person who:

  1. buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods other than the buyer, when such use is made with the approval of the buyer; or
  2. hires or avails of any service for a consideration so paid or promised, and includes any beneficiary of such service other than the person who hires it, when the service is availed of with the approval of that person;

but does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or goods or services for any commercial purpose.

Explanation (a) provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. Explanation (b) provides that buying goods and availing services include offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing.

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8.What is meant by liability without fault?[2]

Answer

Liability without fault, also called no fault liability, is liability imposed although the defendant neither intended the harm nor was negligent. The plaintiff need prove only that the defendant carried on the activity and that the harm resulted; he need not prove any breach of a duty of care.

It takes three forms in Indian law:

  1. Strict liability, the rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868), subject to five exceptions;
  2. Absolute liability, the rule in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395, for hazardous or inherently dangerous industry, subject to no exception; and
  3. Statutory no fault liability, most importantly Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, under which the owner of a vehicle is liable to pay a fixed sum on death or permanent disablement, and Section 140(3) provides that the claimant need not plead or establish any wrongful act, neglect or default.
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SECTION II

Write short notes on any two 12 Marks

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9.Ubi Jus Ibi remedium[6]

Answer

Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy", commonly rendered as there is no wrong without a remedy. Jus here means the legal right to be protected, and remedium the right of action by which it is enforced.

The principle. Wherever the law confers a right, it also confers the means of vindicating and maintaining it, and a redress for its invasion. A right without a remedy would be no right at all, since a right is only as good as the machinery for enforcing it.

The leading case: Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938. The defendant, a returning officer, wrongfully and maliciously refused to register the vote of the plaintiff, a qualified elector. The candidate the plaintiff wished to support was elected in any event, so the plaintiff suffered no actual loss. Holt CJ held the action lay, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise of it, and that want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal. The case is the foundation both of this maxim and of injuria sine damno.

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Limitations of the maxim. It is not as wide as its words suggest, and an answer must say so:

  1. The right must be a legal right, not a merely moral, social, political or religious one. There is no remedy for hurt feelings, ingratitude or a broken promise unsupported by consideration.
  2. The maxim gives no remedy where there is no right, which is the whole of damnum sine injuria. In the Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence because a rival school opened, and there was no remedy, since he had no right that his pupils should stay.
  3. It does not apply where the law has provided a different or exclusive remedy, for example where a statute creates a right and prescribes a particular mode of enforcing it.
  4. It does not apply to damnum absque injuria arising from the lawful exercise of a right, as in Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895), even where the motive is malicious.
  5. It does not help where the right has been lost by the plaintiff's own conduct, by waiver, acquiescence, release or limitation.
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Indian application. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677 is the modern illustration. A member of the Legislative Assembly was wrongfully arrested and detained so as to prevent him attending the session. Although he had been released by the time the case was decided, the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000 as exemplary compensation, saying that the Court would not be doing its duty if it merely declared the violation and passed on. The constitutional tort line, from Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141 to Nilabati Behera v State of Orissa (1993) 2 SCC 746, is the maxim applied to fundamental rights.

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10.Kind of nuisance[6]

Answer

Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word comes from the French nuire, to injure.

Nuisance is of two kinds, and the division governs who may sue and where.

A. Public nuisance.

An act or omission which causes common injury, danger or annoyance to the public, or to people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which obstructs the public in the exercise of a common right.

  • It is a crime under Section 268 of the Indian Penal Code, punishable under Section 290, and a Magistrate may order its removal summarily under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  • As a tort, a private individual may sue only if he proves special damage, that is damage over and above that suffered by the public generally, and the damage must be direct and substantial and not merely consequential.
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  • Under Section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 a suit for a declaration and injunction in respect of a public nuisance may be brought by the Advocate General, or by two or more persons with the leave of the court, without proof of special damage.
  • Standard instances: obstruction of a highway, carrying on an offensive trade, polluting a public water supply, and keeping premises in an insanitary condition.

B. Private nuisance.

An unlawful interference with the use or enjoyment of the land of a particular occupier, or of some right over it. It is actionable at the suit of the person in possession.

Its essentials are: (i) an unreasonable interference; (ii) with the use or enjoyment of land or a right over it; (iii) causing damage, either physical injury to property or substantial discomfort to the occupier.

Private nuisance takes three forms:

  1. Nuisance by encroachment on a neighbour's land, for example overhanging branches or spreading roots;
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  1. Nuisance by direct physical injury to a neighbour's land, for example by vibrations, fumes or flooding; and
  2. Nuisance by interference with the quiet enjoyment of a neighbour's land, for example by noise, smell, smoke or dust.

C. The factors deciding unreasonableness.

  • Nature of the harm. St Helen's Smelting Co v Tipping (1865): where there is material injury to property, the character of the locality is no defence; where there is only personal discomfort, the locality is highly relevant.
  • Locality. Sturges v Bridgman (1879): what would be a nuisance in Belgrave Square would not necessarily be so in Bermondsey.
  • Duration and continuity: a nuisance is normally a continuing state of affairs, and an isolated act rarely qualifies.
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  • Abnormal sensitivity: Robinson v Kilvert (1889), where heat damaged exceptionally delicate brown paper but would not have harmed ordinary paper, and the claim failed.
  • Malice: Christie v Davey (1893), where a neighbour deliberately banged trays to disrupt music lessons and was restrained. In nuisance the reasonableness of the user is itself an ingredient, so malice can turn a tolerable use into an unreasonable one.

D. Remedies. Damages; injunction, which is what a plaintiff usually wants because it stops the interference; and the extra-judicial remedy of abatement, exercisable on notice, without unnecessary damage, and choosing the less mischievous of two methods.

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11.Principle of absolute liability[6]

Answer

Absolute liability is the rule laid down by the Supreme Court in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395, the oleum gas leak case: an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected by an accident in the operation of that activity, and the liability is subject to no exception whatever.

Facts. In December 1985, within a year of the Bhopal gas disaster, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries situated in a densely populated part of Delhi. Several persons were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died. The matter came before a Constitution Bench on a public interest petition under Article 32.

Held. Bhagwati CJ, delivering the judgment, held that the Court was not bound to follow the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher, which had evolved in a different social and economic context, and that Indian law must develop its own principles to meet the needs of a fast-developing country. He laid down:

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where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident, and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.

Two reasons were given. The enterprise alone has the resource to discover and guard against hazards and dangers, and to provide warning against potential hazards. And it is under an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results to anyone from the hazardous activity it has undertaken for private profit.

The measure of damages. The Court further held that the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because such compensation must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable.

How it differs from strict liability.

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Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher)Absolute liability (M C Mehta)
Five exceptions: act of God, act of a stranger, plaintiff's default, consent, statutory authority.No exception at all.
An escape from the defendant's premises is essential (Read v Lyons, 1947), so persons inside are not protected.No escape is required; persons inside the premises, including workmen, are covered.
Requires a non-natural use of land and the accumulation of a dangerous thing.Applies to any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity or industry.
Damages are compensatory.Compensation is correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, and is therefore deterrent.
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Later development. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India (1996) 3 SCC 212, the Bichhri case, applied absolute liability to chemical units which had poisoned groundwater, and adopted the polluter pays principle, holding the polluter liable both to compensate the victims and to bear the cost of restoring the degraded environment. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v Union of India (1996) 5 SCC 647 read the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle into Indian law. The statutory expressions of the doctrine are the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and Section 17 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

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12.Deficient service[6]

Answer

"Deficiency" is defined in Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and includes:

  1. any act of negligence or omission or commission by such person which causes loss or injury to the consumer; and
  2. deliberate withholding of relevant information by such person to the consumer.
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"Service" is defined in Section 2(42) as service of any description made available to potential users, and includes, but is not limited to, the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but does not include the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.

The two standards. A service is measured against either the standard imposed by law, such as directions of the Reserve Bank binding a bank or civil aviation requirements binding an airline, or the standard the provider undertook for himself, whether by contract, brochure or advertisement. It is never measured against the complainant's expectations.

Established instances of deficiency:

  • a builder delivering possession of a flat years late, or not at all: Lucknow Development Authority v M K Gupta (1994) 1 SCC 243;
  • a surgeon leaving a swab inside the patient: Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634;
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  • a bank dishonouring a properly drawn cheque despite sufficient funds;
  • an insurer repudiating a claim on a ground not open to it under the policy;
  • an airline failing to inform a passenger of a change in the time of departure, or delivering baggage damaged and rifled;
  • an educational institution withholding certificates, though the Supreme Court has held that the core of education itself, including the conduct of examinations and the award of results, is not a "service" within the Act.

Reliefs. Section 39 of the 2019 Act empowers the Commission to order removal of the deficiency, return of the charges paid, payment of compensation for the loss or injury suffered, including punitive damages, discontinuance of the unfair trade practice, cessation of misleading advertisements, and costs.

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SECTION III

Answer any two situational based questions 12 Marks

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13.A new restaurant opened in the Motinagar near by the old restaurant. Due to this old restaurant lost its 50% consumers and so as 50% revenue. Since it was very heavy loss to old restaurant, it filed a civil suit for damages against new restaurant.[6]

  • (a) Whether old restaurant can succeed in suit for damages against the new restaurant? Why?
  • (b) Explain the principle involved in this situation.

Answer

a. Whether old restaurant can succeed in suit for damages against the new restaurant? Why?

No. The suit must fail.

The old restaurant has suffered real and substantial loss, but no legal right of its has been infringed, and the law of torts gives a remedy only for the infringement of a right, not for the infliction of loss.

The old restaurant had no right that customers should continue to come to it. Every person is entitled to carry on a lawful trade at a place of his own choosing, and to attract customers by better food, lower prices or a better location. The loss which lawful competition inflicts on a rival is loss for which the law provides no remedy.

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The new restaurant has used no unlawful means. It has not defamed the old restaurant, not published injurious falsehood about its food, not passed off its business as the old one's, not induced a breach of contract by enticing away staff under contract, and not entered into an unlawful conspiracy. It has simply opened and traded.

The answer would be different only if unlawful means were used. False statements about the old restaurant's hygiene would be injurious falsehood or defamation; adopting a confusingly similar name and get-up would be passing off; persuading its chef to break a subsisting contract would be inducement of breach of contract. On the facts none of these is alleged.

b. Explain the principle involved in this situation.

The principle is damnum sine injuria, that is damage without legal injury: actual and even substantial loss, unaccompanied by the violation of any legal right, is not actionable.

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The leading authority is the Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) YB 11 Hen IV of 47, whose facts are almost identical. The defendant, a schoolmaster, set up a rival school in the same town. Because of the competition the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence. The action failed, and Hankford J famously observed that damage without injury is no cause of action; the defendant had done nothing unlawful in setting up his school.

Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor, Gow and Co (1892) AC 25 applied the principle at commercial scale. A combination of shipowners drove the plaintiff out of the China tea trade by offering rebates and cutting freight rates below profitability. The House of Lords held there was no actionable wrong, because the means employed were lawful and the object was the advancement of the defendants' own trade.

Ushaben v Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir (AIR 1978 Guj 13) is the Indian illustration of the same maxim in a different setting.

The converse maxim is injuria sine damno, the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because the law presumes damage: Ashby v White (1703), where a returning officer wrongly refused a qualified elector's vote and was held liable although the candidate he supported won.

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14.The Plaintiff Ms. Anita filed a civil suit for damages against the hospital where she was operated for stone removal surgery from her gall bladder. But she continued to feel pain. After few days it was detected that a gauge was left in her abdomen by the surgeon operated her.[6]

  • (a) Whether Ms. Anita would succeed in suit for damages against hospital? Why?
  • (b) Explain the principle involved in this case.

Answer

a. Whether Ms. Anita would succeed in suit for damages against hospital? Why?

Yes. Anita will succeed.

Her claim is in negligence, and she must establish three things: a duty of care, a breach of it, and damage caused by the breach. All three are made out.

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Duty. A doctor owes his patient a duty of care from the moment he undertakes treatment, and a hospital owes a duty in respect of the treatment given on its premises. In Laxman Balkrishna Joshi v Trimbak Bapu Godbole (AIR 1969 SC 128) the Supreme Court held that a person who holds himself out as ready to give medical advice and treatment owes the patient a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case, a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give, and a duty of care in the administration of that treatment.

Breach. Leaving a surgical gauze inside the patient's abdomen is a breach on any view of the standard. It is not an error of judgment about a difficult clinical question, on which the law is protective of doctors; it is a failure of an elementary precaution, the counting of swabs and instruments before closure, which every operating theatre observes as routine. The standard applied is the Bolam test, adopted in India in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1: a doctor is not negligent if he acted in accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of medical men skilled in that art. No responsible body of surgeons regards leaving a swab in the abdomen as proper practice.

Damage. Continuing pain, infection and, on the facts of the standard cases, the need for a second operation to remove the foreign object.

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Anita does not have to prove how it happened. The maxim res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself, applies, and its three conditions are satisfied: the instrumentality was in the exclusive control of the surgeon and theatre staff; the accident is one which does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used; and the cause is unknown to the plaintiff, who was unconscious throughout. The evidential burden therefore shifts to the hospital to offer an explanation consistent with reasonable care, and there is none available.

The hospital, and not only the surgeon, is liable. A hospital is vicariously liable for the negligence of the surgeons, anaesthetists, nurses and technicians it employs, acting in the course of their employment. The Indian authority is Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, where a mop was left in the patient's abdomen during a sterilisation operation at a government hospital, peritonitis followed and the patient died. The Supreme Court applied res ipsa loquitur, held the doctors negligent and the State vicariously liable, and rejected the plea of sovereign immunity, since running a hospital is not a sovereign function.

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Anita may also complain to the consumer commission. Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 holds that medical treatment for a fee is a service, that it is not a contract of personal service, and that the patient is a consumer. The complaint would be for deficiency in service under Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which now expressly includes any act of negligence, and the reliefs under Section 39 include compensation for loss and injury, for mental agony, and punitive damages. V Kishan Rao v Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital (2010) 5 SCC 513 held that expert evidence is not required in every case, and that a forum may decide on the material before it, particularly where res ipsa loquitur applies. Section 100 preserves both remedies, so Anita may choose.

b. Explain the principle involved in this case.

The principle is res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself: a rule of evidence under which the mere fact that the accident happened is itself evidence of negligence, so the plaintiff need not prove any particular act of carelessness.

Its three conditions:

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  1. the thing causing the damage was under the exclusive control or management of the defendant or of persons for whom he is responsible;
  2. the accident is such as in the ordinary course of things does not happen if those who have the management use proper care; and
  3. the cause of the accident is unknown, that is there is no evidence explaining how it occurred.

Its effect. It raises an inference of negligence which shifts the evidential burden to the defendant to explain. It does not shift the legal burden, which remains on the plaintiff throughout. It is a rule of evidence, not a rule of law, and it has no application once the actual cause of the accident is established by evidence.

Its authorities. Byrne v Boadle (1863), the barrel of flour rolling out of a warehouse window; Scott v London and St Katherine Docks Co (1865), where six bags of sugar fell from a crane and Erle CJ gave the classic statement of the conditions; Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti (AIR 1966 SC 1750), the collapse of the eighty-year-old Clock Tower in Chandni Chowk; and, on facts identical to this problem, Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa.

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15.A seven year old student was asked to remain in school after school hour for non-payment of school fee. However, the student was not told this fact. But this fact was informed to his parent. A student was not aware that his freedom was restricted by the School.[6]

  • (a) What kind of tort is committed by the school? Explain.
  • (b) Whether it is necessary that person must know that his freedom is restricted? Explain.

Answer

a. What kind of tort is committed by the school? Explain.

The tort is false imprisonment.

False imprisonment is the total restraint of a person's liberty, for however short a time, without lawful justification. Its essentials are:

  1. Total restraint. The confinement must be complete, leaving no reasonable means of escape. A merely partial obstruction is not enough: Bird v Jones (1845), where part of a public bridge was fenced off and the plaintiff could have gone another way. Here the child was required to remain on the premises after school hours and was not free to leave, so the restraint is total.
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  1. Absence of lawful justification.
  2. The period is immaterial. The tort is actionable per se and needs no proof of damage; duration goes only to the quantum.
  3. The means may be physical or by the assertion of authority. A locked door is one way. The assertion of authority by a person the plaintiff is bound to obey, submitted to by the plaintiff, is another, and that is exactly what happens when a school tells a child of seven to stay behind. A child of that age has no practical choice but to obey, and the restraint is therefore real even without a lock.

Is there a lawful justification? The school will rely on the authority of a schoolmaster in loco parentis to impose reasonable discipline. That defence protects reasonable correction and reasonable detention for a disciplinary purpose connected with the child's conduct or education. It fails here on the purpose: the child was detained not for misbehaviour or unfinished work, but as a means of pressing his parents to pay the fees. Using a child's liberty as leverage against a third party is not discipline at all, and the law will not treat it as reasonable.

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The Indian statutory position puts the matter beyond argument. Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment of a child and makes contravention liable to disciplinary action; the Act also forbids the denial of education for non-payment. Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 punishes cruelty by a person having actual charge of a child.

Liability lies against the teacher or officer who imposed the detention, personally, and against the school vicariously, because the act was done by its employee in the course of employment, in the purported exercise of the authority the school entrusted to him.

b. Whether it is necessary that person must know that his freedom is restricted? Explain.

No. Knowledge of the restraint is not an essential ingredient of false imprisonment.

The authorities move in one direction:

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  • Herring v Boyle (1834) held the opposite, on facts closely resembling this problem. A schoolmaster refused to allow a boy to go home with his mother for the holidays until the fees were paid. The boy was not aware of the refusal, which was communicated to the mother only. The Court of Exchequer held there was no false imprisonment, because the child had not been conscious of any restraint. This is the case the examiner has built the problem on.
  • Meering v Grahame-White Aviation Co (1919) held the contrary. The plaintiff was asked to go to a room in the defendant's works while a theft was investigated, and two works policemen remained outside, ready to prevent him leaving. He did not know he was being detained. Atkin LJ held that it is false imprisonment, saying that a person can be imprisoned while he is asleep, while he is in a state of drunkenness, while he is unconscious, and while he is a lunatic, and that it is not necessary that he should know of the restraint.
  • Murray v Ministry of Defence (1988) settled the point in the House of Lords in favour of the Meering view: knowledge is not essential, though a plaintiff who was unaware of the restraint and suffered no harm will recover only nominal damages.
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Why knowledge is not required. The tort protects liberty itself, not the plaintiff's feelings. If knowledge were essential, the law would be unable to protect precisely those least able to protect themselves: the sleeping, the unconscious, the very young and the mentally incapacitated. Lord Griffiths made the point in Murray: the law attaches supreme importance to the liberty of the individual, and if a person is unlawfully imprisoned without knowing it he should still have a remedy, though the damages will be small.

Applying this to the problem. The fact that the child was not told why he had to remain, and did not appreciate that his freedom was being restricted, does not defeat the action. It bears only on the quantum of damages, and even that is qualified here, because the child was in fact kept back and knew he was not free to go home, whatever he understood of the reason.

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16.Mrs. D went to a cafe and got bottle of ginger beer. The ginger beer contained a decomposed snail. Mrs. D suffered from personal injury due to consumption therefore she proceeded claim compensation from the manufacturer.[6]

  • (a) Identify the case and the principle involved.
  • (b) Explain the principle involved.

Answer

a. Identify the case and the principle involved.

The case is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, and the principle is the manufacturer's duty of care to the ultimate consumer, resting on Lord Atkin's neighbour principle.

Facts of the case. On 26 August 1928 Mrs May Donoghue went to the Wellmeadow Cafe in Paisley with a friend, who bought her a bottle of ginger beer. The bottle was of dark opaque glass and was sealed with a metal cap, so its contents could not be seen or examined. She drank part of it, and when her friend poured out the remainder the decomposed remains of a snail floated out. She suffered shock and severe gastro-enteritis and sued the manufacturer, Stevenson, with whom she had no contract whatever, since her friend had made the purchase.

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Held. By a majority of three to two the House of Lords held that the manufacturer owed her a duty of care. Lord Atkin stated the neighbour principle:

"You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. Who, then, in law, is my neighbour? The answer seems to be persons who are so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question."

The narrower rule of the case, which is the one that applies to Mrs D, is that:

a manufacturer of products, which he sells in such a form as to show that he intends them to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which they left him, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination, and with the knowledge that the absence of reasonable care in the preparation of the product will result in injury to the consumer's life or property, owes a duty to the consumer to take that reasonable care.

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b. Explain the principle involved.

The principle has three limbs, and each of them is satisfied on Mrs D's facts.

  1. The duty arises in tort, independently of contract. Before 1932 it was widely thought that a manufacturer owed duties only to the person he contracted with, so the ultimate consumer, whose contract was with the retailer, had no claim against the only party who could have prevented the harm. Donoghue separated the duty in tort, owed to persons generally, from the duty in contract, owed only to the other party. Mrs D therefore has a claim although she bought nothing and, on the facts of the original case, although a friend paid.
  2. The product must reach the consumer in the form in which it left the manufacturer, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination. This is why the opaque sealed bottle was decisive. If the container had been transparent, or if the retailer would ordinarily have opened and inspected it, the chain would have been broken and the manufacturer might have escaped.
  3. The consumer must suffer injury to person or property caused by the want of care. Mrs D's gastro-enteritis satisfies this.
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Proof. Mrs D does not have to prove how the snail got into the bottle. The maxim res ipsa loquitur applies: the bottling process was in the exclusive control of the manufacturer, decomposed snails do not get into sealed bottles if proper care is taken, and the cause is unknown to her. The evidential burden shifts to the manufacturer to explain.

Her remedies in India.

  • In tort, a suit for negligence against the manufacturer, on the Donoghue principle.
  • Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a complaint for a defect in goods. She is a consumer under Section 2(7), being a user with the approval of the buyer even though her friend paid, which is the statutory answer to the privity problem that Donoghue solved at common law. Defect is defined in Section 2(10).
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  • Product liability under Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87) of the 2019 Act, which is the most powerful route now available. A product liability action may be brought against the product manufacturer, product service provider or product seller for harm caused by a defective product, and under Section 84 a product manufacturer is liable if the product contains a manufacturing defect, is defective in design, deviates from manufacturing specifications, does not conform to an express warranty, or fails to contain adequate instructions or warnings. Under Section 84(2) he is liable on an express warranty even if he proves he was not negligent or fraudulent.
  • Also, if the label made claims the product did not answer to, an unfair trade practice under Section 2(47), and offences under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
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SECTION IV

Answer any three question in detail 39 Marks

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17.Discuss the aims and objects of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.[13]

Answer

A. Why a new Act was needed.

The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was a landmark, but by 2019 the market it was written for had disappeared. Four changes drove the replacement:

  1. E-commerce. The 1986 Act was drafted for a transaction across a counter. It said nothing about online marketplaces, aggregators, sellers located in another State or another country, or platforms which take payment but disclaim responsibility for the goods.
  2. Advertising. Misleading advertisement and celebrity endorsement had become the main vehicle of consumer harm, and the 1986 Act had no regulator and no power to act on its own motion; everything depended on an individual consumer complaining.
  3. Product safety. India had no product liability regime. A consumer injured by a defective product had to prove negligence in a civil court, or fit his case into a complaint about a defect.
  4. Delay. Ironically, the machinery created to be fast had itself become congested, and there was no alternative dispute resolution built into it.
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B. The Preamble and the statement of object.

The Act is described as "an Act to provide for protection of the interests of consumers and for the said purpose, to establish authorities for timely and effective administration and settlement of consumers' disputes and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."

Two words in that Preamble mark the change from 1986. "Authorities", in the plural, points to the new Central Consumer Protection Authority alongside the adjudicatory Commissions; and "timely" points to the procedural reforms.

C. The aims and objects in detail.

1. To protect and promote the six consumer rights. Section 2(9) defines "consumer rights" as including:

  • the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property;
  • the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services, so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices;
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  • the right to be assured, wherever possible, of access to a variety of goods, products or services at competitive prices;
  • the right to be heard and to be assured that consumers' interests will receive due consideration at appropriate fora;
  • the right to seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation; and
  • the right to consumer awareness.

The 1986 Act stated these as the objects of the Councils. The 2019 Act makes them a defined term in the Act itself, which is a change of legal quality, not merely of drafting.

2. To establish a regulator: the Central Consumer Protection Authority. Sections 10 to 27 create the CCPA, to regulate matters relating to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of the public and consumers, and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. Its powers include:

  • inquiry or investigation on its own motion, on a complaint or on the direction of the Central Government (Section 19);
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  • an Investigation Wing headed by a Director General (Section 15);
  • power to recall goods or withdraw services which are dangerous, hazardous or unsafe, to order reimbursement of the price and to order discontinuance of unfair trade practices (Section 20);
  • power against false or misleading advertisements: to direct the trader or advertiser to discontinue it or modify it, and to impose a penalty up to Rs. 10 lakh on a manufacturer or endorser, rising to Rs. 50 lakh for every subsequent contravention (Section 21); and
  • power to prohibit an endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making any endorsement for up to one year, extending to three years for a subsequent contravention.

3. To create simple, speedy and inexpensive redressal, and to make it reachable. The three-tier machinery is retained, renamed the District Commission, State Commission and National Commission (Sections 28, 42 and 53), with three material improvements:

  • jurisdiction based on the consideration paid, not on the compensation claimed, so a complainant cannot choose his forum by inflating the claim;
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  • filing where the complainant resides or personally works for gain (Section 34(2)(d)), which reverses the rule that made the consumer travel to the trader; and
  • electronic filing and hearing by video conferencing (Section 38(6A)).

4. To introduce mediation. Chapter V (Sections 74 to 81) establishes a consumer mediation cell attached to each Commission. Under Section 37 the Commission may, at the first hearing or at any later stage, if it appears that there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to both parties, refer the matter to mediation with their written consent. A settlement so recorded is not appealable (Section 81).

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5. To create product liability. Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87) is entirely new. A product liability action may be brought by a complainant against a product manufacturer, product service provider or product seller for any harm caused by a defective product. Under Section 84 a product manufacturer is liable where the product contains a manufacturing defect, is defective in design, deviates from manufacturing specifications, does not conform to an express warranty, or fails to contain adequate instructions of correct usage or warnings. Section 84(2) makes him liable on an express warranty even if he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making it. Section 87 sets out the exceptions, including misuse, alteration and, in the case of a product used in a workplace, harm to an employee.

6. To regulate e-commerce and direct selling. Section 2(7), read with its Explanation, brings offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing within the definition of consumer. Section 94 empowers the Central Government to take measures to prevent unfair trade practices in e-commerce and direct selling, under which the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were made, requiring platforms to display seller details, country of origin and grievance redressal machinery.

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7. To strike at unfair contract terms. Section 2(46) defines an "unfair contract" as a contract between a manufacturer or trader or service provider and a consumer which causes significant change in the rights of the consumer, including excessive security deposits, disproportionate penalties, unilateral termination without cause, and the imposition of unreasonable charges. Sections 49(2) and 59(2) empower the State and National Commissions to declare any such term null and void.

8. To deter by penalties. Section 88 punishes non-compliance with an order of the CCPA; Section 89 punishes false or misleading advertisements with imprisonment up to two years and fine up to Rs. 10 lakh, and up to five years and Rs. 50 lakh for a subsequent offence; Sections 90 and 91 punish the manufacture or sale of adulterated or spurious goods, with punishment graded by the injury caused and extending to life imprisonment where death results; Section 72 punishes non-compliance with an order of a Commission.

9. To remain an additional remedy. Section 100 provides that the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law, so the consumer retains his remedies in contract and in tort and may choose between them.

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18.Explain the general defences in torts.[13]

Answer

Even where the plaintiff proves every ingredient of a tort, the defendant may escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is a defence available across the law of torts rather than one peculiar to a particular tort.

1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). No injury is done to a willing person. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies.

Two elements. Knowledge and consent must both be proved; mere knowledge is not enough, and scienti non fit injuria is not the law. Smith v Baker (1891): a workman who knew stones were being swung over his head and worked on had not consented, because a man under economic compulsion is not a volunteer. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933): a spectator at a motor race accepted the inherent risks. Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222) in India.

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Limits. Consent obtained by fraud is no consent (Hegarty v Shine, 1878); consent under legal or moral compulsion is no consent, so a rescuer is not met by the defence (Haynes v Harwood, 1935, the bolting horse); volenti is no answer to a breach of statutory duty, and none to an unlawful act.

2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause. The defence is narrow: the illegality must be connected with the harm, and not every unlawful act by the plaintiff bars him. Bird v Holbrook (1828): a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered.

3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by ordinary care, caution and skill. Stanley v Powell (1891), the pellet glancing off a tree; Brown v Kendall (1850), the fighting dogs; Assam State Cooperative Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18). It is no defence to strict liability.

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4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it. Nichols v Marsland (1876) succeeded; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917) failed, the rainfall being heavy but not unprecedented; Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197): the act of an unruly mob is the act of man, not of God. Unlike inevitable accident, act of God is an exception to Rylands v Fletcher.

5. Private defence. Reasonable and proportionate force may be used to protect one's own person or property, or that of another. Setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence (Bird v Holbrook), and the force must match the threat.

6. Mistake. As a general rule, mistake of fact or of law is no defence: a person who enters land honestly believing it to be his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the state of mind is an ingredient, notably malicious prosecution and deceit, and the defence of qualified privilege in defamation, where honest belief negatives malice.

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7. Necessity. An act which causes damage but was done to prevent a greater harm is not actionable: throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to arrest a fire, operating on an unconscious patient. Cope v Sharpe (1912); Leigh v Gladstone (1909). Distinguish private defence, where the plaintiff is the source of the danger, and inevitable accident, where the damage was not intended at all.

8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the defendant is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute, where the act must be done, or conditional, where it may be done only without infringing private rights. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860); Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869); Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881) on the limits of a conditional authority.

9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts. A judge is not liable for acts done in the discharge of his judicial function, protected in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850, and the immunity extends to persons exercising quasi-judicial powers in good faith.

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10. Parental and quasi-parental authority. A parent, and a person in loco parentis, may impose reasonable correction and restraint. The defence has been much narrowed in India by Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 and Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.

11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex. The law does not concern itself with trifles.

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19.Explain the essential elements of defamation. State the defences in defamation.[13]

Answer

Definition. Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid him, or which exposes him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification. The interest protected is reputation, that is what others think of the plaintiff, and not his own feelings.

Forms. Libel is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye: writing, print, a picture, an effigy, a film, a broadcast. Slander is defamation in a transient form, principally the spoken word or a gesture.

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In English law libel is actionable per se while slander requires proof of special damage, except in four cases: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business. In India the distinction is treated as of little consequence, and the High Courts have generally held slander also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167). Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both are equally the offence of defamation.

A. The essential elements.

1. The statement must be defamatory.

The test is objective, judged by the standard of right-thinking members of society generally, and not by the plaintiff's own sensitivity or by the standards of a particular section of society. Mere insult, abuse or vulgar language is not defamation if it lowers nobody's opinion of the plaintiff.

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The words may be defamatory on their face, or by innuendo, that is by a secondary meaning conveyed to persons who know extrinsic facts. Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph of a man with a woman described as his fiancée was defamatory of his actual wife, because those who knew her inferred she was not married to him. To plead an innuendo the plaintiff must prove the extrinsic facts and that the statement was published to persons who knew them.

2. The statement must refer to the plaintiff.

It is enough that reasonable people would understand it to refer to him; the defendant's intention is irrelevant. Hulton v Jones (1910): a humorous article about a fictional "Artemus Jones" was held to defame a real barrister of that name, although the writer had never heard of him.

A statement about a class of persons is not actionable unless the class is so small, or the words so pointed, that they can reasonably be taken to refer to the plaintiff individually. Saying "all lawyers are thieves" defames nobody; saying "the three partners of X and Co are thieves" defames each of them.

3. The statement must be published.

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Publication means communication to at least one person other than the plaintiff. Communication to the plaintiff alone is not defamation, however offensive, because his reputation in the eyes of others is untouched.

Dictating a defamatory letter to a typist is publication; sending it in a sealed envelope to the plaintiff is not, unless the defendant knew someone else would open it. Sending it on a postcard, or by telegram, is publication, because interception is to be expected. Every repetition is a fresh publication, and the repeater is liable as well as the originator, so a newspaper cannot escape by attributing the words to someone else.

B. The defences.

1. Justification, or truth. In civil law truth is a complete defence, however malicious the motive, because the law will not protect a reputation the plaintiff does not deserve. The defendant must prove the substantial truth of the sting of the charge, not the literal accuracy of every detail. Note the burden: falsity is presumed once the words are shown to be defamatory, so it is the defendant who must prove truth. Under criminal law the First Exception to Section 499 IPC is narrower, requiring the imputation to be true and its publication to be for the public good.

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2. Fair comment. A comment, that is an expression of opinion and not an assertion of fact, made honestly and fairly, on a matter of public interest, on facts which are truly stated or sufficiently indicated, and without malice.

The line between fact and comment is the whole of this defence. "He misappropriated the fund" is an assertion of fact and must be justified as true; "his stewardship of the fund is indefensible" is a comment. The comment need not be reasonable in the eyes of the court; it is enough that an honest person could hold it on the facts, however prejudiced or exaggerated. Matters of public interest include the administration of government, the conduct of public officers, the management of public institutions, and works of art submitted to public judgment.

3. Privilege.

  • Absolute privilege confers complete immunity, however false the statement and however malicious the maker. It covers parliamentary proceedings (Articles 105(2) and 194(2) of the Constitution), judicial proceedings, protecting judges, counsel, parties and witnesses, and State communications made by one officer of State to another in the course of official duty.
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  • Qualified privilege protects a statement made on an occasion where the maker has a legal, moral or social duty to make it and the recipient has a corresponding interest in receiving it, or where both share a common interest; and fair and accurate reports of parliamentary and judicial proceedings. Qualified privilege is defeated by proof of malice, meaning an improper motive, and that is the entire difference between the two kinds. Employment references, complaints to a superior officer, and answers to enquiries about a person's creditworthiness are the standard occasions.

4. Apology. Under the Libel Acts an apology published at the earliest opportunity, with a payment into court, is a defence to an action against a newspaper or periodical where the libel was inserted without actual malice and without gross negligence. In India an apology operates principally in mitigation of damages.

5. Consent. Where the plaintiff expressly or impliedly assented to the publication.

6. Innocent dissemination. A merely mechanical distributor, such as a newsagent, a library or a carrier, is not liable if he did not know and had no reason to suspect that the publication contained a libel.

C. The Indian constitutional dimension.

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Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of, among other things, defamation, under Article 19(2). R Rajagopal v State of Tamil Nadu (1994) 6 SCC 632, the Auto Shankar case, held that no action for damages is maintainable in respect of a publication concerning a public official's discharge of his public duties, even if untrue, unless the official proves that the publication was made with reckless disregard for the truth; and that the protection does not extend to matters unrelated to official duties. Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221 upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation under Sections 499 and 500 IPC.

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20.Discuss in detail the different judicial and extra-judicial remedies.[13]

Answer

The remedies for a tort are of two kinds: judicial remedies, obtained by an action in a court of law, and extra-judicial remedies, which the injured party may take by his own act, without the intervention of a court. The latter are also called remedies by self-help.

A. Judicial remedies.

1. Damages.

The principal remedy, and in most torts the only one sought. Damages in tort are unliquidated, assessed by the court, on the principle of restitutio in integrum: the plaintiff is to be placed, so far as money can, in the position he would have occupied had the tort not been committed.

Kinds of damages:

  • Nominal damages: a small sum where a legal right is infringed but no loss is suffered. They vindicate the right, and are the natural award in torts actionable per se. Ashby v White (1703).
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  • Contemptuous damages: the smallest coin in the realm, where the plaintiff has a technical right but the court disapproves of his suing. He is usually refused his costs as well.
  • Compensatory or ordinary damages: measured by the actual loss, both pecuniary (expenses, loss of earnings, loss of future earning capacity by the multiplicand and multiplier method) and non-pecuniary (pain and suffering, loss of amenities, loss of expectation of life).
  • Aggravated damages: an increased compensatory award where the manner of the wrong, or the defendant's conduct afterwards, injured the plaintiff's feelings and dignity.
  • Exemplary, punitive or vindictive damages: awarded to punish and deter, not to compensate. Rookes v Barnard (1964) confined them in England to three categories: oppressive, arbitrary or unconstitutional action by servants of the government; conduct calculated to make a profit exceeding the compensation payable; and where authorised by statute. Indian courts have not treated those limits as binding, and have awarded exemplary sums against the State in the constitutional tort line beginning with Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141.
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  • Prospective damages, for future loss, awarded once and for all because a cause of action may not be split.
  • General and special damages, the first presumed by law and needing no proof of amount, the second specifically pleaded and strictly proved.

Controls on the award: causation, remoteness (reasonable foreseeability since The Wagon Mound, 1961), the eggshell skull rule (Smith v Leech Brain, 1962), and mitigation.

2. Injunction.

An order of the court directing a person to do, or more usually to refrain from doing, a particular act. It is an equitable and discretionary remedy, granted where damages would be inadequate, and it is the remedy that actually matters in nuisance, trespass and the protection of easements, because the plaintiff wants the interference stopped.

Kinds:

  • Temporary or interim, granted during the pendency of the suit to preserve the position, under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; and perpetual, granted by the decree on the merits, under Sections 37 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
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  • Prohibitory, restraining a wrongful act; and mandatory, compelling the defendant to undo what he has done, for example to pull down a wall or remove an obstruction.

The court weighs the balance of convenience, the plaintiff's conduct and delay, and whether the injury is trifling; Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act lists the cases in which an injunction is refused. Where the injury is small and can be estimated in money, the court may award damages in lieu of an injunction.

3. Specific restitution of property.

Where the plaintiff has been wrongfully dispossessed of movable or immovable property, he may recover the property itself rather than its value. For immovable property, Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows a summary suit for possession by a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law, within six months, without any enquiry into title. For movable property, Sections 7 and 8 of the same Act, and in tort the action of detinue.

B. Extra-judicial remedies (self-help).

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1. Self-defence. A person may use reasonable force to defend his own person, or that of another, and his property. The force must be proportionate to the threat and must be used for defence and not for retaliation.

2. Expulsion of a trespasser. An occupier may remove a trespasser from his land using reasonable force, but only after a request to leave and a reasonable opportunity to comply, unless the entry was forcible.

3. Re-entry on land. A person wrongfully dispossessed may re-enter peaceably. He may not use force such as would amount to a breach of the peace, and if he cannot enter peaceably his remedy is a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act.

4. Recaption of goods (recapture of chattels). The owner of goods wrongfully taken may retake them from the wrongdoer, peaceably and without unnecessary force. He may enter the land of the wrongdoer to do so, but not the land of an innocent third party except on request and refusal.

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5. Abatement of nuisance. The person injured may remove or end the nuisance himself, for example by cutting overhanging branches or removing an obstruction. The right is hedged with conditions: notice must ordinarily be given to the wrongdoer before entering his land, except in an emergency; no more damage may be done than is necessary; and where two methods are available the less mischievous must be chosen. The law tolerates abatement but does not encourage it, because it invites breaches of the peace.

6. Distress damage feasant. Where a chattel or an animal strays onto a person's land and does damage there, he may seize and detain it until compensation is paid. It is a right of detention as security only: he may not use, work or sell the thing, and he must feed and care for an animal so detained.

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21.Explain negligence as tort. Discuss the professional negligence.[13]

Answer

A. Negligence as a tort.

Definition. Negligence is the breach of a legal duty to take care, which results in damage, undesired by the defendant, to the plaintiff. The classic judicial definition is that of Baron Alderson in Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks Co (1856): "Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do."

Objective, not subjective. On the subjective theory, associated with Salmond, negligence is a state of mind. On the objective theory, associated with Pollock, it is a type of conduct, and the objective theory is the law. Pollock's answer to Salmond is the sentence to quote: "negligence is the contrary of diligence, and no one describes diligence as a state of mind."

The three essentials.

1. A duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff.

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The foundation is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562 and Lord Atkin's neighbour principle: "You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour", a neighbour being anyone "so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation".

The modern formulation is the three-stage test in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman (1990): foreseeability of damage, a relationship of proximity, and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty.

2. Breach of that duty.

Judged by the standard of the reasonable man, objectively. The factors which fix the standard in a given case are the magnitude of the risk, the seriousness of the injury which may result, the importance or utility of the defendant's object, and the cost and practicability of precautions. Bolton v Stone (1951): a cricket ball hit out of a ground about six times in thirty years injured a passer-by; the risk was so small that a reasonable man would not have guarded against it, and there was no breach. Paris v Stepney Borough Council (1951): an employer who knew a workman had only one good eye was negligent in not providing goggles, because for that man the seriousness of the injury was far greater.

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It is no defence that the defendant did his incompetent best. A learner driver is judged by the standard of a competent driver: Nettleship v Weston (1971).

3. Damage caused by the breach, which is not too remote.

Causation is tested by the but for rule. Remoteness is tested by reasonable foreseeability of the kind of damage since The Wagon Mound (1961), which displaced the directness test of Re Polemis (1921). Once a foreseeable kind of harm is shown, the eggshell skull rule makes the defendant liable for its full extent: Smith v Leech Brain and Co (1962).

Proof: res ipsa loquitur. Where the thing causing the damage was in the defendant's exclusive control, the accident is one which does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used, and the cause is unknown, the accident is itself evidence of negligence, and the evidential burden shifts to the defendant. Byrne v Boadle (1863); Scott v London and St Katherine Docks Co (1865); Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti (AIR 1966 SC 1750).

Defences: contributory negligence, which since the apportionment principle reduces rather than defeats the claim (Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer, 2003) 8 SCC 731; volenti non fit injuria; inevitable accident; and act of God.

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B. Professional negligence.

The standard. A professional does not guarantee a result. He undertakes to bring to his task a reasonable degree of skill and knowledge, and to exercise a reasonable degree of care. The governing test is Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee (1957): a professional is not negligent if he has acted in accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of men skilled in that particular art, even though other practitioners would have acted differently.

In India the Bolam test was adopted and explained in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1, which laid down that:

  • a professional may be held liable on one of two findings: either he did not possess the requisite skill which he professed to have, or he did not exercise, with reasonable competence, the skill which he did possess;
  • the standard is that of an ordinary competent person exercising ordinary skill in that profession, and it is not necessary that he should possess the highest level of expertise;
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  • a mere error of judgment, or an unsuccessful outcome, is not by itself negligence; and
  • for criminal liability under Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code the negligence must be of a gross degree, and, as a matter of practice, an FIR against a doctor should ordinarily not be registered without an independent and competent medical opinion.

Kusum Sharma v Batra Hospital (2010) 3 SCC 480 collected the principles and cautioned that the courts must be careful not to hold professionals liable merely because something has gone wrong, since defensive medicine harms patients as a class.

The doctor's three duties. Laxman Balkrishna Joshi v Trimbak Bapu Godbole (AIR 1969 SC 128): a person who holds himself out ready to give medical advice and treatment owes his patient a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case, a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give, and a duty of care in the administration of that treatment.

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Where liability is clear. The courts distinguish an error of judgment, on which they are protective, from a failure of a basic precaution, on which they are not. A swab or instrument left inside the patient is the standing example: Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, where a mop left after a sterilisation operation caused peritonitis and death, and the State was held vicariously liable, res ipsa loquitur being applied.

Practising a system one is not qualified in is negligence per se. Poonam Verma v Ashwin Patel (1996) 4 SCC 332: a practitioner registered in homoeopathy prescribed allopathic medicines and the patient died. The Supreme Court held that a person registered in one system has no licence to practise another, that doing so is a breach of a statutory prohibition, and that it amounts to negligence per se, so that the question whether he exercised reasonable skill does not arise.

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The consumer jurisdiction. Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 held that medical treatment is a service under the Consumer Protection Act, that it is not a contract of personal service, and that a paying patient is a consumer; that where treatment is free to everybody the patient is not a consumer, but that where a hospital charges some and treats others free, the patient treated free is a consumer as a beneficiary. V Kishan Rao v Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital (2010) 5 SCC 513 held that expert evidence is not required in every case. Under the 2019 Act, deficiency in Section 2(11) now expressly includes any act of negligence or omission or commission.

Other professions. The same standard applies to advocates, architects, chartered accountants and engineers. An advocate is liable for want of reasonable skill and care in advice and in the conduct of a case, though an error of judgment in the conduct of litigation is not negligence, and professional misconduct is separately dealt with under the Advocates Act, 1961.

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Notes on These Answers

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2022-23 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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