Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2½ hours · Total marks 75 · 21 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in two sentence
Any six · 12 Marks
Answer
The difference lies in the source of the duty and in who it is owed to.
In tort the duty is fixed by law, is owed to persons generally, and is therefore a right in rem. In contract the duty is fixed by the parties themselves, is owed only to the other contracting party, and is a right in personam.
Two consequences follow: damages in tort are always unliquidated, assessed by the court, while in contract they may be liquidated by the agreement; and in tort no privity is required, while in contract a stranger to the agreement cannot sue on it.
Answer
Volenti non fit injuria means to a willing person no injury is done. It is a general defence: where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run that risk, he cannot afterwards sue for the harm it causes.
Two elements must both be proved: knowledge of the risk and consent to bear it. Knowledge alone will not do, which is why scienti non fit injuria is not the law.
Answer
Assault is an act of the defendant which causes the plaintiff a reasonable apprehension of the infliction of immediate and unlawful force upon his person. It is a form of trespass to the person and is actionable per se, so no damage need be proved.
Its essentials are an act creating reasonable apprehension of immediate force, an apparent present ability to carry out the threat, and an intention to create that apprehension.
Answer
Joint tort-feasors are two or more persons whose conduct causes a single, indivisible injury to the plaintiff, so that in law they are treated as having committed one tort and not several. The recognised categories are principal and agent, master and servant, partners in a firm, and persons acting in furtherance of a common design.
Their liability is joint and several: the plaintiff may sue any one of them or all, and recover the whole of the damages from any one, though he may have only one satisfaction in total.
Answer
Nervous shock is a recognisable psychiatric illness caused by the defendant's wrongful act, without any direct physical impact on the plaintiff. It is compensable in tort, and the requirement is a medically recognised condition, such as post-traumatic stress disorder or clinical depression; mere grief, sorrow, fright or distress is not enough.
Liability may arise from an act done intentionally, as in Wilkinson v Downton (1897), or negligently, where the ordinary requirements of duty, breach and damage apply.
Answer
The rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) is subject to five exceptions:
Answer
Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines "consumer" as any person who:
but does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or goods or services for any commercial purpose.
Explanation (a) provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. Explanation (b) provides that buying goods and availing services include offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing.
Answer
Liability without fault, also called no fault liability, is liability imposed although the defendant neither intended the harm nor was negligent. The plaintiff need prove only that the defendant carried on the activity and that the harm resulted; he need not prove any breach of a duty of care.
It takes three forms in Indian law:
Write short notes on any two 12 Marks
Answer
Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy", commonly rendered as there is no wrong without a remedy. Jus here means the legal right to be protected, and remedium the right of action by which it is enforced.
The principle. Wherever the law confers a right, it also confers the means of vindicating and maintaining it, and a redress for its invasion. A right without a remedy would be no right at all, since a right is only as good as the machinery for enforcing it.
The leading case: Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938. The defendant, a returning officer, wrongfully and maliciously refused to register the vote of the plaintiff, a qualified elector. The candidate the plaintiff wished to support was elected in any event, so the plaintiff suffered no actual loss. Holt CJ held the action lay, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise of it, and that want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal. The case is the foundation both of this maxim and of injuria sine damno.
Limitations of the maxim. It is not as wide as its words suggest, and an answer must say so:
Indian application. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677 is the modern illustration. A member of the Legislative Assembly was wrongfully arrested and detained so as to prevent him attending the session. Although he had been released by the time the case was decided, the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000 as exemplary compensation, saying that the Court would not be doing its duty if it merely declared the violation and passed on. The constitutional tort line, from Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141 to Nilabati Behera v State of Orissa (1993) 2 SCC 746, is the maxim applied to fundamental rights.
Answer
Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word comes from the French nuire, to injure.
Nuisance is of two kinds, and the division governs who may sue and where.
A. Public nuisance.
An act or omission which causes common injury, danger or annoyance to the public, or to people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which obstructs the public in the exercise of a common right.
B. Private nuisance.
An unlawful interference with the use or enjoyment of the land of a particular occupier, or of some right over it. It is actionable at the suit of the person in possession.
Its essentials are: (i) an unreasonable interference; (ii) with the use or enjoyment of land or a right over it; (iii) causing damage, either physical injury to property or substantial discomfort to the occupier.
Private nuisance takes three forms:
C. The factors deciding unreasonableness.
D. Remedies. Damages; injunction, which is what a plaintiff usually wants because it stops the interference; and the extra-judicial remedy of abatement, exercisable on notice, without unnecessary damage, and choosing the less mischievous of two methods.
Answer
Absolute liability is the rule laid down by the Supreme Court in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395, the oleum gas leak case: an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate all those affected by an accident in the operation of that activity, and the liability is subject to no exception whatever.
Facts. In December 1985, within a year of the Bhopal gas disaster, oleum gas escaped from a plant of Shriram Foods and Fertiliser Industries situated in a densely populated part of Delhi. Several persons were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died. The matter came before a Constitution Bench on a public interest petition under Article 32.
Held. Bhagwati CJ, delivering the judgment, held that the Court was not bound to follow the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher, which had evolved in a different social and economic context, and that Indian law must develop its own principles to meet the needs of a fast-developing country. He laid down:
where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident, and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.
Two reasons were given. The enterprise alone has the resource to discover and guard against hazards and dangers, and to provide warning against potential hazards. And it is under an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results to anyone from the hazardous activity it has undertaken for private profit.
The measure of damages. The Court further held that the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, because such compensation must have a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable.
How it differs from strict liability.
| Strict liability (Rylands v Fletcher) | Absolute liability (M C Mehta) |
|---|---|
| Five exceptions: act of God, act of a stranger, plaintiff's default, consent, statutory authority. | No exception at all. |
| An escape from the defendant's premises is essential (Read v Lyons, 1947), so persons inside are not protected. | No escape is required; persons inside the premises, including workmen, are covered. |
| Requires a non-natural use of land and the accumulation of a dangerous thing. | Applies to any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity or industry. |
| Damages are compensatory. | Compensation is correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, and is therefore deterrent. |
Later development. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India (1996) 3 SCC 212, the Bichhri case, applied absolute liability to chemical units which had poisoned groundwater, and adopted the polluter pays principle, holding the polluter liable both to compensate the victims and to bear the cost of restoring the degraded environment. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v Union of India (1996) 5 SCC 647 read the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle into Indian law. The statutory expressions of the doctrine are the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and Section 17 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Answer
"Deficiency" is defined in Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service, and includes:
"Service" is defined in Section 2(42) as service of any description made available to potential users, and includes, but is not limited to, the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but does not include the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
The two standards. A service is measured against either the standard imposed by law, such as directions of the Reserve Bank binding a bank or civil aviation requirements binding an airline, or the standard the provider undertook for himself, whether by contract, brochure or advertisement. It is never measured against the complainant's expectations.
Established instances of deficiency:
Reliefs. Section 39 of the 2019 Act empowers the Commission to order removal of the deficiency, return of the charges paid, payment of compensation for the loss or injury suffered, including punitive damages, discontinuance of the unfair trade practice, cessation of misleading advertisements, and costs.
Answer any two situational based questions 12 Marks
Answer
No. The suit must fail.
The old restaurant has suffered real and substantial loss, but no legal right of its has been infringed, and the law of torts gives a remedy only for the infringement of a right, not for the infliction of loss.
The old restaurant had no right that customers should continue to come to it. Every person is entitled to carry on a lawful trade at a place of his own choosing, and to attract customers by better food, lower prices or a better location. The loss which lawful competition inflicts on a rival is loss for which the law provides no remedy.
The new restaurant has used no unlawful means. It has not defamed the old restaurant, not published injurious falsehood about its food, not passed off its business as the old one's, not induced a breach of contract by enticing away staff under contract, and not entered into an unlawful conspiracy. It has simply opened and traded.
The answer would be different only if unlawful means were used. False statements about the old restaurant's hygiene would be injurious falsehood or defamation; adopting a confusingly similar name and get-up would be passing off; persuading its chef to break a subsisting contract would be inducement of breach of contract. On the facts none of these is alleged.
The principle is damnum sine injuria, that is damage without legal injury: actual and even substantial loss, unaccompanied by the violation of any legal right, is not actionable.
The leading authority is the Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) YB 11 Hen IV of 47, whose facts are almost identical. The defendant, a schoolmaster, set up a rival school in the same town. Because of the competition the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence. The action failed, and Hankford J famously observed that damage without injury is no cause of action; the defendant had done nothing unlawful in setting up his school.
Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor, Gow and Co (1892) AC 25 applied the principle at commercial scale. A combination of shipowners drove the plaintiff out of the China tea trade by offering rebates and cutting freight rates below profitability. The House of Lords held there was no actionable wrong, because the means employed were lawful and the object was the advancement of the defendants' own trade.
Ushaben v Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir (AIR 1978 Guj 13) is the Indian illustration of the same maxim in a different setting.
The converse maxim is injuria sine damno, the infringement of a legal right without actual loss, which is actionable because the law presumes damage: Ashby v White (1703), where a returning officer wrongly refused a qualified elector's vote and was held liable although the candidate he supported won.
Answer
Yes. Anita will succeed.
Her claim is in negligence, and she must establish three things: a duty of care, a breach of it, and damage caused by the breach. All three are made out.
Duty. A doctor owes his patient a duty of care from the moment he undertakes treatment, and a hospital owes a duty in respect of the treatment given on its premises. In Laxman Balkrishna Joshi v Trimbak Bapu Godbole (AIR 1969 SC 128) the Supreme Court held that a person who holds himself out as ready to give medical advice and treatment owes the patient a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case, a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give, and a duty of care in the administration of that treatment.
Breach. Leaving a surgical gauze inside the patient's abdomen is a breach on any view of the standard. It is not an error of judgment about a difficult clinical question, on which the law is protective of doctors; it is a failure of an elementary precaution, the counting of swabs and instruments before closure, which every operating theatre observes as routine. The standard applied is the Bolam test, adopted in India in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1: a doctor is not negligent if he acted in accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of medical men skilled in that art. No responsible body of surgeons regards leaving a swab in the abdomen as proper practice.
Damage. Continuing pain, infection and, on the facts of the standard cases, the need for a second operation to remove the foreign object.
Anita does not have to prove how it happened. The maxim res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself, applies, and its three conditions are satisfied: the instrumentality was in the exclusive control of the surgeon and theatre staff; the accident is one which does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used; and the cause is unknown to the plaintiff, who was unconscious throughout. The evidential burden therefore shifts to the hospital to offer an explanation consistent with reasonable care, and there is none available.
The hospital, and not only the surgeon, is liable. A hospital is vicariously liable for the negligence of the surgeons, anaesthetists, nurses and technicians it employs, acting in the course of their employment. The Indian authority is Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, where a mop was left in the patient's abdomen during a sterilisation operation at a government hospital, peritonitis followed and the patient died. The Supreme Court applied res ipsa loquitur, held the doctors negligent and the State vicariously liable, and rejected the plea of sovereign immunity, since running a hospital is not a sovereign function.
Anita may also complain to the consumer commission. Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 holds that medical treatment for a fee is a service, that it is not a contract of personal service, and that the patient is a consumer. The complaint would be for deficiency in service under Section 2(11) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which now expressly includes any act of negligence, and the reliefs under Section 39 include compensation for loss and injury, for mental agony, and punitive damages. V Kishan Rao v Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital (2010) 5 SCC 513 held that expert evidence is not required in every case, and that a forum may decide on the material before it, particularly where res ipsa loquitur applies. Section 100 preserves both remedies, so Anita may choose.
The principle is res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself: a rule of evidence under which the mere fact that the accident happened is itself evidence of negligence, so the plaintiff need not prove any particular act of carelessness.
Its three conditions:
Its effect. It raises an inference of negligence which shifts the evidential burden to the defendant to explain. It does not shift the legal burden, which remains on the plaintiff throughout. It is a rule of evidence, not a rule of law, and it has no application once the actual cause of the accident is established by evidence.
Its authorities. Byrne v Boadle (1863), the barrel of flour rolling out of a warehouse window; Scott v London and St Katherine Docks Co (1865), where six bags of sugar fell from a crane and Erle CJ gave the classic statement of the conditions; Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti (AIR 1966 SC 1750), the collapse of the eighty-year-old Clock Tower in Chandni Chowk; and, on facts identical to this problem, Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa.
Answer
The tort is false imprisonment.
False imprisonment is the total restraint of a person's liberty, for however short a time, without lawful justification. Its essentials are:
Is there a lawful justification? The school will rely on the authority of a schoolmaster in loco parentis to impose reasonable discipline. That defence protects reasonable correction and reasonable detention for a disciplinary purpose connected with the child's conduct or education. It fails here on the purpose: the child was detained not for misbehaviour or unfinished work, but as a means of pressing his parents to pay the fees. Using a child's liberty as leverage against a third party is not discipline at all, and the law will not treat it as reasonable.
The Indian statutory position puts the matter beyond argument. Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment of a child and makes contravention liable to disciplinary action; the Act also forbids the denial of education for non-payment. Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 punishes cruelty by a person having actual charge of a child.
Liability lies against the teacher or officer who imposed the detention, personally, and against the school vicariously, because the act was done by its employee in the course of employment, in the purported exercise of the authority the school entrusted to him.
No. Knowledge of the restraint is not an essential ingredient of false imprisonment.
The authorities move in one direction:
Why knowledge is not required. The tort protects liberty itself, not the plaintiff's feelings. If knowledge were essential, the law would be unable to protect precisely those least able to protect themselves: the sleeping, the unconscious, the very young and the mentally incapacitated. Lord Griffiths made the point in Murray: the law attaches supreme importance to the liberty of the individual, and if a person is unlawfully imprisoned without knowing it he should still have a remedy, though the damages will be small.
Applying this to the problem. The fact that the child was not told why he had to remain, and did not appreciate that his freedom was being restricted, does not defeat the action. It bears only on the quantum of damages, and even that is qualified here, because the child was in fact kept back and knew he was not free to go home, whatever he understood of the reason.
Answer
The case is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562, and the principle is the manufacturer's duty of care to the ultimate consumer, resting on Lord Atkin's neighbour principle.
Facts of the case. On 26 August 1928 Mrs May Donoghue went to the Wellmeadow Cafe in Paisley with a friend, who bought her a bottle of ginger beer. The bottle was of dark opaque glass and was sealed with a metal cap, so its contents could not be seen or examined. She drank part of it, and when her friend poured out the remainder the decomposed remains of a snail floated out. She suffered shock and severe gastro-enteritis and sued the manufacturer, Stevenson, with whom she had no contract whatever, since her friend had made the purchase.
Held. By a majority of three to two the House of Lords held that the manufacturer owed her a duty of care. Lord Atkin stated the neighbour principle:
"You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. Who, then, in law, is my neighbour? The answer seems to be persons who are so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question."
The narrower rule of the case, which is the one that applies to Mrs D, is that:
a manufacturer of products, which he sells in such a form as to show that he intends them to reach the ultimate consumer in the form in which they left him, with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination, and with the knowledge that the absence of reasonable care in the preparation of the product will result in injury to the consumer's life or property, owes a duty to the consumer to take that reasonable care.
The principle has three limbs, and each of them is satisfied on Mrs D's facts.
Proof. Mrs D does not have to prove how the snail got into the bottle. The maxim res ipsa loquitur applies: the bottling process was in the exclusive control of the manufacturer, decomposed snails do not get into sealed bottles if proper care is taken, and the cause is unknown to her. The evidential burden shifts to the manufacturer to explain.
Her remedies in India.
Answer any three question in detail 39 Marks
Answer
A. Why a new Act was needed.
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was a landmark, but by 2019 the market it was written for had disappeared. Four changes drove the replacement:
B. The Preamble and the statement of object.
The Act is described as "an Act to provide for protection of the interests of consumers and for the said purpose, to establish authorities for timely and effective administration and settlement of consumers' disputes and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."
Two words in that Preamble mark the change from 1986. "Authorities", in the plural, points to the new Central Consumer Protection Authority alongside the adjudicatory Commissions; and "timely" points to the procedural reforms.
C. The aims and objects in detail.
1. To protect and promote the six consumer rights. Section 2(9) defines "consumer rights" as including:
The 1986 Act stated these as the objects of the Councils. The 2019 Act makes them a defined term in the Act itself, which is a change of legal quality, not merely of drafting.
2. To establish a regulator: the Central Consumer Protection Authority. Sections 10 to 27 create the CCPA, to regulate matters relating to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of the public and consumers, and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. Its powers include:
3. To create simple, speedy and inexpensive redressal, and to make it reachable. The three-tier machinery is retained, renamed the District Commission, State Commission and National Commission (Sections 28, 42 and 53), with three material improvements:
4. To introduce mediation. Chapter V (Sections 74 to 81) establishes a consumer mediation cell attached to each Commission. Under Section 37 the Commission may, at the first hearing or at any later stage, if it appears that there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to both parties, refer the matter to mediation with their written consent. A settlement so recorded is not appealable (Section 81).
5. To create product liability. Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87) is entirely new. A product liability action may be brought by a complainant against a product manufacturer, product service provider or product seller for any harm caused by a defective product. Under Section 84 a product manufacturer is liable where the product contains a manufacturing defect, is defective in design, deviates from manufacturing specifications, does not conform to an express warranty, or fails to contain adequate instructions of correct usage or warnings. Section 84(2) makes him liable on an express warranty even if he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making it. Section 87 sets out the exceptions, including misuse, alteration and, in the case of a product used in a workplace, harm to an employee.
6. To regulate e-commerce and direct selling. Section 2(7), read with its Explanation, brings offline and online transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling and multi-level marketing within the definition of consumer. Section 94 empowers the Central Government to take measures to prevent unfair trade practices in e-commerce and direct selling, under which the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were made, requiring platforms to display seller details, country of origin and grievance redressal machinery.
7. To strike at unfair contract terms. Section 2(46) defines an "unfair contract" as a contract between a manufacturer or trader or service provider and a consumer which causes significant change in the rights of the consumer, including excessive security deposits, disproportionate penalties, unilateral termination without cause, and the imposition of unreasonable charges. Sections 49(2) and 59(2) empower the State and National Commissions to declare any such term null and void.
8. To deter by penalties. Section 88 punishes non-compliance with an order of the CCPA; Section 89 punishes false or misleading advertisements with imprisonment up to two years and fine up to Rs. 10 lakh, and up to five years and Rs. 50 lakh for a subsequent offence; Sections 90 and 91 punish the manufacture or sale of adulterated or spurious goods, with punishment graded by the injury caused and extending to life imprisonment where death results; Section 72 punishes non-compliance with an order of a Commission.
9. To remain an additional remedy. Section 100 provides that the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law, so the consumer retains his remedies in contract and in tort and may choose between them.
Answer
Even where the plaintiff proves every ingredient of a tort, the defendant may escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is a defence available across the law of torts rather than one peculiar to a particular tort.
1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). No injury is done to a willing person. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies.
Two elements. Knowledge and consent must both be proved; mere knowledge is not enough, and scienti non fit injuria is not the law. Smith v Baker (1891): a workman who knew stones were being swung over his head and worked on had not consented, because a man under economic compulsion is not a volunteer. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933): a spectator at a motor race accepted the inherent risks. Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222) in India.
Limits. Consent obtained by fraud is no consent (Hegarty v Shine, 1878); consent under legal or moral compulsion is no consent, so a rescuer is not met by the defence (Haynes v Harwood, 1935, the bolting horse); volenti is no answer to a breach of statutory duty, and none to an unlawful act.
2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause. The defence is narrow: the illegality must be connected with the harm, and not every unlawful act by the plaintiff bars him. Bird v Holbrook (1828): a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered.
3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by ordinary care, caution and skill. Stanley v Powell (1891), the pellet glancing off a tree; Brown v Kendall (1850), the fighting dogs; Assam State Cooperative Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18). It is no defence to strict liability.
4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it. Nichols v Marsland (1876) succeeded; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917) failed, the rainfall being heavy but not unprecedented; Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197): the act of an unruly mob is the act of man, not of God. Unlike inevitable accident, act of God is an exception to Rylands v Fletcher.
5. Private defence. Reasonable and proportionate force may be used to protect one's own person or property, or that of another. Setting a spring gun without notice is not private defence (Bird v Holbrook), and the force must match the threat.
6. Mistake. As a general rule, mistake of fact or of law is no defence: a person who enters land honestly believing it to be his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the state of mind is an ingredient, notably malicious prosecution and deceit, and the defence of qualified privilege in defamation, where honest belief negatives malice.
7. Necessity. An act which causes damage but was done to prevent a greater harm is not actionable: throwing cargo overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to arrest a fire, operating on an unconscious patient. Cope v Sharpe (1912); Leigh v Gladstone (1909). Distinguish private defence, where the plaintiff is the source of the danger, and inevitable accident, where the damage was not intended at all.
8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the defendant is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute, where the act must be done, or conditional, where it may be done only without infringing private rights. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860); Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869); Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881) on the limits of a conditional authority.
9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts. A judge is not liable for acts done in the discharge of his judicial function, protected in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850, and the immunity extends to persons exercising quasi-judicial powers in good faith.
10. Parental and quasi-parental authority. A parent, and a person in loco parentis, may impose reasonable correction and restraint. The defence has been much narrowed in India by Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 and Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex. The law does not concern itself with trifles.
Answer
Definition. Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid him, or which exposes him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification. The interest protected is reputation, that is what others think of the plaintiff, and not his own feelings.
Forms. Libel is defamation in a permanent form addressed to the eye: writing, print, a picture, an effigy, a film, a broadcast. Slander is defamation in a transient form, principally the spoken word or a gesture.
In English law libel is actionable per se while slander requires proof of special damage, except in four cases: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business. In India the distinction is treated as of little consequence, and the High Courts have generally held slander also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167). Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both are equally the offence of defamation.
A. The essential elements.
1. The statement must be defamatory.
The test is objective, judged by the standard of right-thinking members of society generally, and not by the plaintiff's own sensitivity or by the standards of a particular section of society. Mere insult, abuse or vulgar language is not defamation if it lowers nobody's opinion of the plaintiff.
The words may be defamatory on their face, or by innuendo, that is by a secondary meaning conveyed to persons who know extrinsic facts. Cassidy v Daily Mirror Newspapers (1929): a photograph of a man with a woman described as his fiancée was defamatory of his actual wife, because those who knew her inferred she was not married to him. To plead an innuendo the plaintiff must prove the extrinsic facts and that the statement was published to persons who knew them.
2. The statement must refer to the plaintiff.
It is enough that reasonable people would understand it to refer to him; the defendant's intention is irrelevant. Hulton v Jones (1910): a humorous article about a fictional "Artemus Jones" was held to defame a real barrister of that name, although the writer had never heard of him.
A statement about a class of persons is not actionable unless the class is so small, or the words so pointed, that they can reasonably be taken to refer to the plaintiff individually. Saying "all lawyers are thieves" defames nobody; saying "the three partners of X and Co are thieves" defames each of them.
3. The statement must be published.
Publication means communication to at least one person other than the plaintiff. Communication to the plaintiff alone is not defamation, however offensive, because his reputation in the eyes of others is untouched.
Dictating a defamatory letter to a typist is publication; sending it in a sealed envelope to the plaintiff is not, unless the defendant knew someone else would open it. Sending it on a postcard, or by telegram, is publication, because interception is to be expected. Every repetition is a fresh publication, and the repeater is liable as well as the originator, so a newspaper cannot escape by attributing the words to someone else.
B. The defences.
1. Justification, or truth. In civil law truth is a complete defence, however malicious the motive, because the law will not protect a reputation the plaintiff does not deserve. The defendant must prove the substantial truth of the sting of the charge, not the literal accuracy of every detail. Note the burden: falsity is presumed once the words are shown to be defamatory, so it is the defendant who must prove truth. Under criminal law the First Exception to Section 499 IPC is narrower, requiring the imputation to be true and its publication to be for the public good.
2. Fair comment. A comment, that is an expression of opinion and not an assertion of fact, made honestly and fairly, on a matter of public interest, on facts which are truly stated or sufficiently indicated, and without malice.
The line between fact and comment is the whole of this defence. "He misappropriated the fund" is an assertion of fact and must be justified as true; "his stewardship of the fund is indefensible" is a comment. The comment need not be reasonable in the eyes of the court; it is enough that an honest person could hold it on the facts, however prejudiced or exaggerated. Matters of public interest include the administration of government, the conduct of public officers, the management of public institutions, and works of art submitted to public judgment.
3. Privilege.
4. Apology. Under the Libel Acts an apology published at the earliest opportunity, with a payment into court, is a defence to an action against a newspaper or periodical where the libel was inserted without actual malice and without gross negligence. In India an apology operates principally in mitigation of damages.
5. Consent. Where the plaintiff expressly or impliedly assented to the publication.
6. Innocent dissemination. A merely mechanical distributor, such as a newsagent, a library or a carrier, is not liable if he did not know and had no reason to suspect that the publication contained a libel.
C. The Indian constitutional dimension.
Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of, among other things, defamation, under Article 19(2). R Rajagopal v State of Tamil Nadu (1994) 6 SCC 632, the Auto Shankar case, held that no action for damages is maintainable in respect of a publication concerning a public official's discharge of his public duties, even if untrue, unless the official proves that the publication was made with reckless disregard for the truth; and that the protection does not extend to matters unrelated to official duties. Subramanian Swamy v Union of India (2016) 7 SCC 221 upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation under Sections 499 and 500 IPC.
Answer
The remedies for a tort are of two kinds: judicial remedies, obtained by an action in a court of law, and extra-judicial remedies, which the injured party may take by his own act, without the intervention of a court. The latter are also called remedies by self-help.
A. Judicial remedies.
1. Damages.
The principal remedy, and in most torts the only one sought. Damages in tort are unliquidated, assessed by the court, on the principle of restitutio in integrum: the plaintiff is to be placed, so far as money can, in the position he would have occupied had the tort not been committed.
Kinds of damages:
Controls on the award: causation, remoteness (reasonable foreseeability since The Wagon Mound, 1961), the eggshell skull rule (Smith v Leech Brain, 1962), and mitigation.
2. Injunction.
An order of the court directing a person to do, or more usually to refrain from doing, a particular act. It is an equitable and discretionary remedy, granted where damages would be inadequate, and it is the remedy that actually matters in nuisance, trespass and the protection of easements, because the plaintiff wants the interference stopped.
Kinds:
The court weighs the balance of convenience, the plaintiff's conduct and delay, and whether the injury is trifling; Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act lists the cases in which an injunction is refused. Where the injury is small and can be estimated in money, the court may award damages in lieu of an injunction.
3. Specific restitution of property.
Where the plaintiff has been wrongfully dispossessed of movable or immovable property, he may recover the property itself rather than its value. For immovable property, Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows a summary suit for possession by a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law, within six months, without any enquiry into title. For movable property, Sections 7 and 8 of the same Act, and in tort the action of detinue.
B. Extra-judicial remedies (self-help).
1. Self-defence. A person may use reasonable force to defend his own person, or that of another, and his property. The force must be proportionate to the threat and must be used for defence and not for retaliation.
2. Expulsion of a trespasser. An occupier may remove a trespasser from his land using reasonable force, but only after a request to leave and a reasonable opportunity to comply, unless the entry was forcible.
3. Re-entry on land. A person wrongfully dispossessed may re-enter peaceably. He may not use force such as would amount to a breach of the peace, and if he cannot enter peaceably his remedy is a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act.
4. Recaption of goods (recapture of chattels). The owner of goods wrongfully taken may retake them from the wrongdoer, peaceably and without unnecessary force. He may enter the land of the wrongdoer to do so, but not the land of an innocent third party except on request and refusal.
5. Abatement of nuisance. The person injured may remove or end the nuisance himself, for example by cutting overhanging branches or removing an obstruction. The right is hedged with conditions: notice must ordinarily be given to the wrongdoer before entering his land, except in an emergency; no more damage may be done than is necessary; and where two methods are available the less mischievous must be chosen. The law tolerates abatement but does not encourage it, because it invites breaches of the peace.
6. Distress damage feasant. Where a chattel or an animal strays onto a person's land and does damage there, he may seize and detain it until compensation is paid. It is a right of detention as security only: he may not use, work or sell the thing, and he must feed and care for an animal so detained.
Answer
A. Negligence as a tort.
Definition. Negligence is the breach of a legal duty to take care, which results in damage, undesired by the defendant, to the plaintiff. The classic judicial definition is that of Baron Alderson in Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks Co (1856): "Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do."
Objective, not subjective. On the subjective theory, associated with Salmond, negligence is a state of mind. On the objective theory, associated with Pollock, it is a type of conduct, and the objective theory is the law. Pollock's answer to Salmond is the sentence to quote: "negligence is the contrary of diligence, and no one describes diligence as a state of mind."
The three essentials.
1. A duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff.
The foundation is Donoghue v Stevenson [1932] AC 562 and Lord Atkin's neighbour principle: "You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour", a neighbour being anyone "so closely and directly affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation".
The modern formulation is the three-stage test in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman (1990): foreseeability of damage, a relationship of proximity, and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty.
2. Breach of that duty.
Judged by the standard of the reasonable man, objectively. The factors which fix the standard in a given case are the magnitude of the risk, the seriousness of the injury which may result, the importance or utility of the defendant's object, and the cost and practicability of precautions. Bolton v Stone (1951): a cricket ball hit out of a ground about six times in thirty years injured a passer-by; the risk was so small that a reasonable man would not have guarded against it, and there was no breach. Paris v Stepney Borough Council (1951): an employer who knew a workman had only one good eye was negligent in not providing goggles, because for that man the seriousness of the injury was far greater.
It is no defence that the defendant did his incompetent best. A learner driver is judged by the standard of a competent driver: Nettleship v Weston (1971).
3. Damage caused by the breach, which is not too remote.
Causation is tested by the but for rule. Remoteness is tested by reasonable foreseeability of the kind of damage since The Wagon Mound (1961), which displaced the directness test of Re Polemis (1921). Once a foreseeable kind of harm is shown, the eggshell skull rule makes the defendant liable for its full extent: Smith v Leech Brain and Co (1962).
Proof: res ipsa loquitur. Where the thing causing the damage was in the defendant's exclusive control, the accident is one which does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used, and the cause is unknown, the accident is itself evidence of negligence, and the evidential burden shifts to the defendant. Byrne v Boadle (1863); Scott v London and St Katherine Docks Co (1865); Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti (AIR 1966 SC 1750).
Defences: contributory negligence, which since the apportionment principle reduces rather than defeats the claim (Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer, 2003) 8 SCC 731; volenti non fit injuria; inevitable accident; and act of God.
B. Professional negligence.
The standard. A professional does not guarantee a result. He undertakes to bring to his task a reasonable degree of skill and knowledge, and to exercise a reasonable degree of care. The governing test is Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee (1957): a professional is not negligent if he has acted in accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of men skilled in that particular art, even though other practitioners would have acted differently.
In India the Bolam test was adopted and explained in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1, which laid down that:
Kusum Sharma v Batra Hospital (2010) 3 SCC 480 collected the principles and cautioned that the courts must be careful not to hold professionals liable merely because something has gone wrong, since defensive medicine harms patients as a class.
The doctor's three duties. Laxman Balkrishna Joshi v Trimbak Bapu Godbole (AIR 1969 SC 128): a person who holds himself out ready to give medical advice and treatment owes his patient a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case, a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give, and a duty of care in the administration of that treatment.
Where liability is clear. The courts distinguish an error of judgment, on which they are protective, from a failure of a basic precaution, on which they are not. A swab or instrument left inside the patient is the standing example: Achutrao Haribhau Khodwa v State of Maharashtra (1996) 2 SCC 634, where a mop left after a sterilisation operation caused peritonitis and death, and the State was held vicariously liable, res ipsa loquitur being applied.
Practising a system one is not qualified in is negligence per se. Poonam Verma v Ashwin Patel (1996) 4 SCC 332: a practitioner registered in homoeopathy prescribed allopathic medicines and the patient died. The Supreme Court held that a person registered in one system has no licence to practise another, that doing so is a breach of a statutory prohibition, and that it amounts to negligence per se, so that the question whether he exercised reasonable skill does not arise.
The consumer jurisdiction. Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 held that medical treatment is a service under the Consumer Protection Act, that it is not a contract of personal service, and that a paying patient is a consumer; that where treatment is free to everybody the patient is not a consumer, but that where a hospital charges some and treats others free, the patient treated free is a consumer as a beneficiary. V Kishan Rao v Nikhil Super Speciality Hospital (2010) 5 SCC 513 held that expert evidence is not required in every case. Under the 2019 Act, deficiency in Section 2(11) now expressly includes any act of negligence or omission or commission.
Other professions. The same standard applies to advocates, architects, chartered accountants and engineers. An advocate is liable for want of reasonable skill and care in advice and in the conduct of a case, though an error of judgment in the conduct of litigation is not negligence, and professional misconduct is separately dealt with under the Advocates Act, 1961.
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This volume prints the 2022-23 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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