Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2018-19 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2018-19 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2018-19 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2018-19 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2018-19 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in not more than two sentences
all compulsory · 20 Marks
Answer
A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract or breach of trust, for which the remedy is an action for unliquidated damages. The word comes from the Latin tortum, meaning twisted or crooked, through the French tort, a wrong.
Salmond's definition is the one just given. Winfield's is fuller: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."
Answer
Accord and satisfaction is one of the modes by which tortious liability is discharged.
Accord is the agreement by which the person injured by a tort agrees to accept some consideration in place of his right of action. Satisfaction is the actual payment or performance of that consideration.
Both are necessary. An accord without satisfaction is no discharge: the promise to accept does not extinguish the claim until what was promised has actually been given.
Answer
Extra-judicial remedies are those which the injured party may take by his own act, without going to court. They are also called remedies by self-help.
The recognised ones are:
Answer
Battery is the intentional and direct application of physical force to another person without lawful justification. The essentials are the use of force, however slight; applied directly to the plaintiff's body; intentionally; and without the plaintiff's consent or any lawful excuse.
No injury need result. Cole v Turner (1704) states that the least touching of another in anger is a battery, and throwing water on a person, spitting at him or pulling away his chair as he sits are all batteries.
Answer
Malfeasance is the doing of an act which is wrongful and unlawful in itself, an act which the defendant had no right to do at all, such as a trespass or an assault.
Misfeasance is the improper or negligent performance of an act which is in itself lawful, such as a contractor who is entitled to dig up a road but leaves the trench unlit and unguarded.
The third member of the group is non-feasance, the omission to do an act which the defendant was under a duty to do.
Answer
Volenti non fit injuria means "to a willing person no injury is done". It is a general defence in tort: where the plaintiff has, freely and voluntarily and with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run that risk, he cannot afterwards sue for the harm it causes.
Two elements must both be established: the plaintiff's knowledge of the risk, and his consent to bear it. Knowledge alone is not enough, which is why scienti non fit injuria is not the law.
Answer
The scienter rule fixes the liability of the keeper of an animal for damage done by it, and turns on his knowledge of the animal's dangerous disposition ("scienter" is Latin for "knowingly").
Animals are divided into two classes:
Answer
Section 2(1)(a) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines "appropriate laboratory" as a laboratory or organisation:
for carrying out analysis or test of any goods with a view to determining whether such goods suffer from any defect.
Answer
Section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines "complainant" as meaning:
who or which makes a complaint.
Answer
Section 2(1)(g) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines "deficiency" as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service.
Short Notes
any four · 20 Marks
Answer
Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word derives from the French nuire, to injure.
Nuisance and trespass distinguished. Trespass is a direct interference with possession and is actionable per se; nuisance is a consequential interference with enjoyment and generally requires proof of damage. Placing stones on a neighbour's land is trespass; allowing the roots of a tree to spread under it is nuisance.
Kinds.
Essentials of private nuisance. (i) An unreasonable interference; (ii) with the use or enjoyment of land or a right over it; (iii) causing damage, either physical injury to the property or discomfort to the occupier.
Factors deciding reasonableness.
Remedies. Damages, injunction, and the extra-judicial remedy of abatement.
Answer
Section 2(1)(d) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines "consumer" in two limbs.
Goods. Any person who buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods other than the buyer, when such use is made with the approval of the buyer. It excludes a person who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purpose.
Services. Any person who hires or avails of any services for a consideration paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any beneficiary of such services other than the person who hires them, when the services are availed of with the approval of that person. Services availed of for a commercial purpose are excluded.
The Explanation provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him, or services availed by him, exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment.
Four propositions follow.
Answer
The Central Consumer Protection Council is the apex advisory body constituted under Section 4 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Constitution (Section 4). The Central Government shall, by notification, establish the Council, consisting of:
Procedure (Section 5). The Council shall meet as and when necessary, but at least one meeting shall be held every year. It meets at such time and place as the Chairman thinks fit and observes such procedure in regard to the transaction of its business as may be prescribed.
Objects (Section 6). The objects of the Council are to promote and protect the rights of the consumers, namely:
The parallel bodies. Section 7 provides for a State Consumer Protection Council in each State, chaired by the State Minister in charge of consumer affairs, meeting at least twice a year; Section 8A, inserted in 2002, provides for a District Consumer Protection Council in each district, chaired by the Collector, meeting at least twice a year.
Answer
The Six Carpenters' Case (1610) 8 Co Rep 146a is the authority for the doctrine of trespass ab initio, and for the limits on it.
Facts. Six carpenters entered an inn at Cripplegate, a house which was open to the public and which they therefore had a right to enter by authority of law. They ordered and were served bread and wine, and paid for them. They then ordered and consumed more wine, and refused to pay for it. The innkeeper sued them in trespass, arguing that by refusing to pay they had abused their authority and so became trespassers from the beginning.
Held. The carpenters were not liable as trespassers ab initio. The court laid down two rules.
The requirements of the doctrine, drawn from those two rules, are: an entry under authority of law; a subsequent abuse of that authority; and the abuse must be a positive act and not a mere omission.
Illustrations. A police officer entering under a warrant who then ransacks the house; a customs officer entering to inspect who steals goods; a distrainor entering to distrain who works or uses the goods distrained; and a guest at a common inn who commits a positive wrong on the premises.
The modern limit: Elias v Pasmore (1934) 2 KB 164. Police entered premises lawfully in order to arrest a man and seized documents, some lawfully and some unlawfully. They were held trespassers only as to the unlawful seizure, and not ab initio in respect of the entry. The doctrine has been criticised as an unnecessary fiction and is now applied narrowly.
Why the fiction exists. Where authority is given by the party, the occupier chose to admit the entrant, can revoke the licence and can sue on the terms he granted. Where it is given by law, he never chose to admit him, has no contract with him and cannot revoke a statutory power, so the fiction gives him a single complete remedy in trespass and places the whole loss on the person who abused a public authority.
Answer
Res ipsa loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself". It is a rule of evidence, not a rule of law: in certain circumstances the mere fact that the accident happened is itself evidence of negligence, so the plaintiff need not prove any specific act of carelessness.
Conditions for its application. Three must be satisfied:
Effect. The maxim raises an inference of negligence which shifts the evidential burden to the defendant, who must then offer an explanation consistent with the exercise of reasonable care. If he cannot, the inference stands and the plaintiff succeeds.
Cases.
Answer
Libel is defamation in a permanent form. It is the publication of a defamatory statement in some lasting medium which is visible to the eye, such as writing, print, a painting, a photograph, a caricature, a statue, an effigy, a film or a broadcast.
Essentials. The plaintiff must prove the three ingredients of defamation:
Libel and slander distinguished.
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| Defamation in a permanent form: writing, print, picture, film, broadcast. | Defamation in a transient form: spoken words or gestures. |
| Actionable per se: no proof of special damage is required. | In English law, requires proof of special damage, save in four exceptional cases. |
| Libel | Slander |
|---|---|
| Addressed to the eye. | Addressed to the ear. |
| A crime as well as a tort in English law. | Generally only a tort in English law. |
The four slanders actionable per se in English law are an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; of a contagious or infectious disease such as would cause others to shun the plaintiff; of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl under the Slander of Women Act, 1891; and of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business.
The position in India. The distinction has been held to be of little practical importance. The High Courts have generally taken the view that slander is also actionable per se in India, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167), on the ground that the English rule rests on historical accidents of jurisdiction between the common law and ecclesiastical courts which never applied here. Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both libel and slander are equally the offence of defamation.
Solve
any Two · 12 Marks
Answer
Asha is liable to Divya in negligence.
These are the facts of Byrne v Boadle (1863) 2 H and C 722, where a barrel of flour rolled out of a first floor window of the defendant's warehouse and struck a passer-by in the street. The plaintiff could not say how or why the barrel fell, and it was argued that he had proved no negligence. Pollock CB held that a barrel of flour cannot roll out of a warehouse window without negligence, and that the accident itself was evidence of it.
The principle is res ipsa loquitur, the thing speaks for itself. Its three conditions are satisfied here:
The effect is that an inference of negligence arises, and the evidential burden shifts to Asha to offer an explanation consistent with reasonable care. If she can show, for example, that a stranger over whom she had no control pushed the barrel out, or that the fall was caused by an event she could not have guarded against, she escapes; if she offers no explanation, Divya succeeds.
Two supporting points. Divya was on a public highway, where she was lawfully entitled to be and where the occupier of adjoining premises owes a duty to take care that things do not fall from the premises onto passers-by. And if the barrel was being handled by Asha's servants in the course of their employment, Asha is additionally vicariously liable for their negligence.
Contributory negligence is the failure of the plaintiff to take reasonable care of his own safety, which contributes, along with the defendant's negligence, to the damage he has suffered. It is not the breach of a duty owed to the defendant; it is a want of care by the plaintiff for himself.
At common law it was a complete defence: Butterfield v Forrester (1809), where the plaintiff rode violently into an obstruction he could have seen, and recovered nothing. The harshness of that rule was softened by the last opportunity rule in Davies v Mann (1842), that the party who had the last chance of avoiding the accident bears the loss.
The modern rule is apportionment. Under the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945 in England the claim is not defeated, but the damages are reduced to the extent the court thinks just and equitable having regard to the plaintiff's share in the responsibility. India has no general statute, but the courts apply apportionment as a rule of justice, equity and good conscience: Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731.
On the present facts there is no contributory negligence, because Divya was doing nothing more than walking along a public street and could not have guarded against a barrel falling from above.
Answer
B has a remedy against the conductor A personally, but not against the Omnibus company.
These are the facts of Beard v London General Omnibus Co [1900] 2 QB 530. At the end of a journey, in the driver's absence, the conductor drove the omnibus in order to turn it round for the return journey and negligently injured the plaintiff. The Court of Appeal held the company was not liable, because driving the bus was no part of the conductor's employment, and there was no evidence that he had any authority, express or implied, to drive.
The governing principle is that a master is liable for the tort of his servant only where it was committed in the course of employment, and that means either:
A conductor's authorised acts are collecting fares, issuing tickets and looking after passengers. Driving is not an unauthorised mode of conducting; it is a different act altogether. So the conductor stepped outside the course of his employment and the company is not answerable.
B is not without a remedy. He may sue A personally in negligence, because a servant is always personally liable for his own tort; the difficulty is practical rather than legal, since a conductor is unlikely to satisfy a judgment.
Two qualifications are worth stating. If the company knew and permitted conductors to move buses in the driver's absence, an implied authority would arise and the company would be liable. And in India a claim arising out of the use of a motor vehicle would in any event be made before the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal under Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, where the insurer is joined; the insurer's liability depends on the terms of the policy and on whether the person driving held a valid licence, which A did not.
The company would be liable.
If the driver were driving, he would be doing the very act he was employed to do, and any negligence in doing it would be an unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act. That falls squarely within the course of employment and the master is vicariously liable.
Limpus v London General Omnibus Co (1862) 1 H and C 526 puts the point at its strongest. A driver, contrary to express instructions not to race or obstruct other omnibuses, drove across a rival bus and caused a collision. The company was held liable, because the driver was doing his authorised work, badly and disobediently, but still his authorised work. A prohibition on the manner of doing the work does not take the act outside the employment; only a prohibition on the kind of act does.
Contrast Storey v Ashton (1869) LR 4 QB 476, where a carman, having finished his round, drove off on a private errand of his own and injured the plaintiff. The master was not liable, because the servant had embarked on a new and independent journey, a frolic of his own.
Answer
Ravi's remedy is a complaint before the consumer forum for deficiency in service, with a claim for compensation.
The chain of reasoning is:
Yes, on the facts as stated.
The liability rests not on the delay alone but on the failure to inform. Delay by itself may be excusable: bad weather, air traffic congestion, a technical fault discovered on inspection or an order of the authorities are matters beyond the airline's control, and an airline which shows that the delay was caused by such a factor, and that it did what could reasonably be expected, is not deficient.
What the airline cannot excuse is not telling the passenger. It held Ravi's booking and his contact details; the change was known to it; and a single message would have saved him six to seven hours at the airport. That omission is a shortcoming in the manner of performance and it is what makes the deficiency.
Two supports for the answer. Section 2(1)(r) would additionally be attracted if the airline had advertised a schedule it had no intention or ability to keep, which would be an unfair trade practice. And the Civil Aviation Requirements issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (Section 3, Series M, Part IV) oblige airlines to provide passengers with information and, on delays beyond stated thresholds, with meals, refreshments and in some cases hotel accommodation or a refund; a breach of those requirements is a breach of a standard "required to be maintained by or under any law", which is the first limb of the definition of deficiency.
The measure of compensation is the actual loss and the mental agony and inconvenience proved, and Indian consumer commissions have consistently awarded modest but real sums for avoidable airport waits caused by uncommunicated schedule changes.
Answer in detail
any four · 48 Marks
Answer
When the plaintiff has proved the ingredients of a tort, the defendant may still escape liability by establishing a general defence, that is a defence available across the law of torts rather than one peculiar to a particular tort. The recognised general defences are:
1. Volenti non fit injuria (consent). Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run it, no action lies. Knowledge alone is insufficient: Smith v Baker (1891), where a workman who knew stones were being swung overhead was held not to have consented, because he worked on under economic compulsion. Compare Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933), where a spectator at a motor race was held to have accepted the inherent risks, and Padmavati v Dugganaika (1975 ACJ 222) in India.
Limits. The consent must be free, so it fails if obtained by fraud (Hegarty v Shine, 1878), or where the plaintiff acted under legal or moral compulsion, as a rescuer does (Haynes v Harwood, 1935, the bolting horse case). It is no defence to a breach of statutory duty, and it does not protect the defendant against an unlawful act.
2. Plaintiff the wrongdoer: ex turpi causa non oritur actio. No action arises from a base cause. The law will not assist a plaintiff whose claim is founded on his own illegal act. The defence is narrow: the illegality must be connected with the harm, and it is not every unlawful act by the plaintiff that bars him. In Bird v Holbrook (1828) a trespasser injured by a spring gun set without notice recovered damages, which shows that the defendant does not get a free hand merely because the plaintiff was in the wrong.
3. Inevitable accident. An accident which could not have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill by a reasonable man. In Stanley v Powell (1891) a pellet from the defendant's gun glanced off a tree and struck a beater; the defence succeeded because there was no negligence. Brown v Kendall (1850) is the case of the man separating two fighting dogs who accidentally struck a bystander in the eye. The Indian illustration is Assam State Coop Marketing Federation v Anubha Sinha (AIR 2001 Gau 18).
4. Act of God (vis major). An operation of natural forces, without human intervention, so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it and no reasonable care could guard against it. Nichols v Marsland (1876), where extraordinary rainfall burst the defendant's ornamental lakes, is the successful case; Greenock Corporation v Caledonian Railway (1917), where the rainfall was heavy but not unprecedented, is the failed one. Ramalinga Nadar v Narayana Reddiar (AIR 1971 Ker 197) holds that the act of an unruly mob is the act of man, not of God.
5. Private defence. A person may use reasonable force to protect his own person or property, or that of another. The force must be proportionate to the threat: shooting a trespasser who is merely walking across a field is not private defence, and setting a spring gun without notice is not (Bird v Holbrook).
6. Mistake. As a rule mistake, whether of fact or of law, is no defence in tort. A person who trespasses on land honestly believing it to be his own is still a trespasser. The exceptions are torts in which the defendant's state of mind is itself an ingredient, such as malicious prosecution and deceit, and the qualified privilege defence in defamation, where honest belief negatives malice.
7. Necessity. An act which causes damage but was done to prevent a greater harm is not actionable. Throwing goods overboard to save a ship, pulling down a house to stop the spread of a fire, and performing an operation on an unconscious patient to save his life are the standard instances. Necessity must be distinguished from private defence, where the plaintiff himself is the source of the threat, and from inevitable accident, where the harm was not intended at all. Leigh v Gladstone (1909) and Cope v Sharpe (1912) are the cases.
8. Statutory authority. Where a statute authorises the very act complained of, the person doing it is not liable, provided he acts without negligence and the damage is the inevitable consequence of what was authorised. The authority may be absolute, where the act must be done, or conditional, where it may be done only if it can be done without causing a nuisance. Vaughan v Taff Vale Railway (1860) and Hammersmith Railway v Brand (1869) are the classic cases; Metropolitan Asylum District v Hill (1881) shows the limits of a conditional authority.
9. Judicial and quasi-judicial acts. A judge is not liable for acts done in the discharge of his judicial functions, a protection given in India by the Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850, and extended to persons exercising quasi-judicial powers acting in good faith.
10. Parental and quasi-parental authority. A parent, and a schoolmaster in loco parentis, may administer reasonable correction and restraint.
11. Acts causing slight harm: de minimis non curat lex. The law does not concern itself with trifles.
Answer
Strict liability is liability without proof of fault: the defendant is answerable for the harm his activity causes although he was not negligent and intended no injury. Its foundation in the common law is the rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330.
Facts. The defendant, a mill owner, employed independent contractors who were competent engineers to construct a reservoir on his land to supply water to his mill. In the course of the work the contractors came upon disused mine shafts filled with earth, which they did not block properly. Neither they nor the defendant knew that these shafts communicated with the workings of the plaintiff's coal mine on adjoining land. When the reservoir was filled, water escaped down the shafts and flooded the plaintiff's mine. The defendant himself was not negligent, and he was not liable for the contractors' negligence under the ordinary rules.
Held. The defendant was liable. Blackburn J in the Court of Exchequer Chamber stated the rule:
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape."
On appeal, Lord Cairns LC affirmed the rule and added the further requirement that the defendant's use of the land must have been a non-natural use, that is a special use bringing with it increased danger, and not the ordinary use of land or such use as is proper for the general benefit of the community.
Essentials of the rule. Three must be established.
Exceptions to the rule.
The rationale. Four reasons are given for imposing liability without fault:
The Indian development: absolute liability. In M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) 1 SCC 395, the oleum gas leak case arising from Shriram Foods and Fertilisers in Delhi, the Supreme Court held that the nineteenth century rule in Rylands v Fletcher was inadequate for an industrialised country, and laid down the rule of absolute liability:
an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry which poses a potential threat to the health and safety of persons working in it and residing in the surrounding areas owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results, and if harm does result the enterprise is absolutely liable to compensate, subject to no exceptions.
The differences from Rylands v Fletcher are three, and they are the marks in this part of the answer: no exceptions are admitted, no escape from the premises is required so that workers inside are covered, and the measure of compensation is to be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so that it has a deterrent effect.
The doctrine was applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India (1996) 3 SCC 212, the Bichhri case, together with the polluter pays principle, and it lies behind the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, which requires occupiers handling hazardous substances to insure and provides no-fault relief, and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Answer
Damages are the pecuniary compensation which the law awards for the injury caused by a tort. In tort they are unliquidated, that is assessed by the court, and the governing principle is restitutio in integrum: the plaintiff is to be placed, so far as money can, in the position he would have been in had the tort not been committed.
The kinds of damages.
1. Nominal damages. A small sum awarded where a legal right has been infringed but no actual loss has been suffered. They vindicate the right rather than compensate for loss, and are the natural award in torts actionable per se, such as trespass, libel and assault. Ashby v White (1703): a returning officer wrongfully refused to register the plaintiff's vote; the candidate he supported was elected anyway and the plaintiff lost nothing, yet the action succeeded, because the infringement of a legal right imports damage.
2. Contemptuous damages. The smallest coin in the realm, awarded where the plaintiff had a technical legal right but the court disapproves of his conduct or of his having brought the action at all. The plaintiff is usually deprived of his costs as well. The difference from nominal damages is not the amount but the reason: nominal damages say the right was worth vindicating, contemptuous damages say the suit should not have been brought.
3. Compensatory or ordinary damages. The principal class, measured by the plaintiff's actual loss. In a personal injury case the court separates:
In fatal accident claims the Indian courts apply the multiplier table in Sarla Verma v Delhi Transport Corporation (2009) 6 SCC 121, confirmed by the Constitution Bench in National Insurance Co Ltd v Pranay Sethi (2017) 16 SCC 680, which also settled the additions for future prospects and the conventional sums for loss of estate, funeral expenses and loss of consortium.
Where the damage is to property, the measure is the diminution in value or the reasonable cost of repair, with consequential loss such as loss of use.
4. Aggravated damages. An increased compensatory award given where the manner in which the wrong was committed, or the defendant's conduct after it, has injured the plaintiff's feelings, dignity or pride. They remain compensatory, and are common in defamation, malicious prosecution and false imprisonment.
5. Exemplary, punitive or vindictive damages. Awarded not to compensate the plaintiff but to punish the defendant and deter others. In Rookes v Barnard (1964) the House of Lords confined them in England to three categories:
Cassell and Co v Broome (1972) affirmed the categories. Indian courts have not treated the Rookes v Barnard limits as binding, and have awarded exemplary damages more freely, particularly against the State in the constitutional tort line that begins with Rudul Sah v State of Bihar (1983) 4 SCC 141. Section 14(1)(d) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 expressly empowered the forum to award punitive damages.
6. Prospective or future damages. Compensation for loss reasonably expected to arise in the future from the same tort. They are awarded once and for all, because the law does not permit a single cause of action to be split, so a plaintiff cannot return to court when his condition worsens.
7. General damages. Loss which the law presumes to flow from the wrong. They need not be pleaded with particulars or proved in amount, and the court assesses them: pain and suffering, loss of reputation, loss of amenity.
8. Special damages. Loss actually and specifically incurred, which must be specifically pleaded and strictly proved: hospital bills, repair invoices, wages actually lost.
Answer
The two maxims express the fundamental proposition that the law of torts protects legal rights, not merely interests, and that the presence or absence of loss is not what decides whether an action lies.
The vocabulary first. Damnum means damage, in the sense of substantial loss of money, comfort, health or the like. Injuria means legal injury, that is the infringement of a legal right. Sine means without.
A. Injuria sine damno: legal injury without actual loss.
This is the infringement of a legal right without any actual damage. It is actionable, because where a legal right is violated the law presumes damage, and the plaintiff need prove none. Torts of this kind are said to be actionable per se, and the leading examples are trespass to land, trespass to the person and libel.
Ashby v White (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938 is the leading case. The defendant, a returning officer, wrongfully and maliciously refused to register the vote of the plaintiff, a qualified voter. The candidate for whom the plaintiff wished to vote was elected in any event, so the plaintiff suffered no actual loss. Holt CJ held the defendant liable, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise of it; want of right and want of remedy are reciprocal. The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium, where there is a right there is a remedy, is the other side of the same coin.
Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir (1985) 4 SCC 677 is the Indian application. The petitioner, a sitting member of the Legislative Assembly, was wrongfully arrested and detained by the police and deliberately prevented from attending the session of the Assembly; he was not produced before a Magistrate within the required time. Although he had been released by the time the case was decided, the Supreme Court awarded Rs. 50,000 as exemplary compensation for the violation of his constitutional rights under Articles 21 and 22(2).
Other illustrations: Marzetti v Williams (1830), where a banker with sufficient funds of the customer in hand refused to honour his cheque and was held liable although the customer suffered no actual loss; and any trespass on land, however harmless, which is actionable without proof of damage.
B. Damnum sine injuria: actual loss without legal injury.
This is actual and substantial damage without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable, however heavy the loss, because there is no cause of action at all. The law recognises many ways in which a person may lawfully cause harm to another.
Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) YB 11 Hen IV of 47 is the classic authority. The defendant schoolmaster set up a rival school in the same town, and because of the competition the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence. The action failed: the defendant had done nothing unlawful, and damage caused by lawful competition is not actionable.
Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor, Gow and Co (1892) AC 25 applied the principle on a commercial scale. A group of shipowners combined to drive the plaintiff out of the China tea trade by offering rebates and reduced freight. The House of Lords held there was no actionable wrong, because the defendants had used lawful means to advance their own trade interests, however ruinous the effect on the plaintiff.
Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895) AC 587 is the strongest form of the principle. The defendant sank a shaft on his own land, intercepting underground water which percolated to the Corporation's works, in order to force the Corporation to buy his land at his own price. The House of Lords held him not liable, laying down that an act which is lawful in itself does not become unlawful merely because the motive behind it is bad. Chasemore v Richards (1859) had already decided that there is no right to percolating underground water.
Ushaben v Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir (AIR 1978 Guj 13) is the Indian illustration. The plaintiff sought an injunction against the screening of a film on the ground that it hurt her religious feelings. The court refused: hurt to religious feelings is not an actionable wrong, and the loss, if any, was damnum sine injuria.
Others: Action v Blundell (1843), on drawing away percolating water; Dickson v Reuter's Telegraph Co (1877); and Town Area Committee v Prabhu Dayal (AIR 1975 All 132), where the demolition of an illegally constructed building was held not to found an action, since no legal right of the plaintiff had been infringed.
Comparison.
| Injuria sine damno | Damnum sine injuria |
|---|---|
| Violation of a legal right without actual loss. | Actual loss without violation of a legal right. |
| Actionable, and damage is presumed. | Not actionable; there is no cause of action. |
| Applies to torts actionable per se: trespass, libel, assault. | Applies where the defendant's act is lawful: competition, lawful use of one's own property. |
| Remedy: nominal damages where the loss is nil; substantial or exemplary damages where the infringement is grave. | No remedy at all. |
| Ashby v White; Bhim Singh v State of J and K; Marzetti v Williams. | Gloucester Grammar School Case; Mogul Steamship; Bradford Corporation v Pickles; Ushaben. |
Answer
Section 9 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 establishes a three-tier quasi-judicial machinery for the redressal of consumer disputes: a District Forum in each district, a State Commission in each State, and the National Commission at the apex, with a further appeal to the Supreme Court.
1. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (Sections 9 to 15).
Composition (Section 10). A President, who is or has been or is qualified to be a District Judge, and two other members who shall be not less than thirty-five years of age, possess a bachelor's degree from a recognised university, and be persons of ability, integrity and standing with adequate knowledge or experience of, or having shown capacity in dealing with, problems relating to economics, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, public affairs or administration, one of whom shall be a woman. Appointment is by the State Government on the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of the President of the State Commission, the Secretary of the Law Department and the Secretary in charge of consumer affairs. The term is five years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
Pecuniary jurisdiction (Section 11(1)). Complaints where the value of the goods or services and the compensation claimed does not exceed Rs. 20 lakh.
Territorial jurisdiction (Section 11(2)). Where the opposite party actually and voluntarily resides, carries on business, has a branch office or personally works for gain; or, where there are several opposite parties, where any of them does so with the permission of the Forum or the acquiescence of the others; or where the cause of action wholly or in part arises.
Procedure (Section 13). The complaint is referred to the opposite party, who must reply within thirty days, extendable by fifteen. Where goods require testing, a sample is sealed and sent to an appropriate laboratory. The Forum has the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure in respect of summoning and enforcing attendance, discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavit and requisitioning records; its proceedings are judicial proceedings within Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 13(3A) requires disposal within three months, or five months where analysis is required.
Reliefs (Section 14). Removal of the defect; replacement of the goods with new goods of similar description free from defect; return of the price or charges paid; payment of compensation for loss or injury suffered due to the negligence of the opposite party, including punitive damages; removal of the deficiency in service; discontinuance of an unfair or restrictive trade practice and an order not to repeat it; withdrawal of hazardous goods from sale; discontinuance of the manufacture of hazardous goods; payment of a sum to the Consumer Welfare Fund where the loss cannot be attributed to identifiable consumers; corrective advertisement; and adequate costs.
2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 16 to 19).
Composition (Section 16). A President who is or has been a Judge of a High Court, appointed by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, and not less than two members, one of whom shall be a woman, with the same qualifications as District Forum members. Not more than fifty per cent of the members shall be from among persons having a judicial background.
Jurisdiction (Section 17).
Appeal (Section 19). To the National Commission within thirty days from an order made in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent of the amount ordered or Rs. 35,000, whichever is less.
3. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 20 to 23).
Composition (Section 20). A President who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court, appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and not less than four members, one of whom shall be a woman.
Jurisdiction (Section 21).
Appeal (Section 23). To the Supreme Court within thirty days from an order made in original jurisdiction, on deposit of fifty per cent or Rs. 50,000, whichever is less.
Finality, execution and penalty. Under Section 24 an order becomes final where no appeal is preferred. Under Section 25 it may be executed as a decree of a civil court. Under Section 27 failure or omission to comply is punishable with imprisonment of not less than one month and up to three years, or fine of not less than Rs. 2,000 and up to Rs. 10,000, or both.
Answer
The setting. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was enacted because the ordinary law gave the consumer a remedy that was, in practice, no remedy at all. A suit under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 or in tort meant court fees, lawyers, the Code of Civil Procedure and years of delay, for a claim that was often worth a few hundred rupees. The doctrine of caveat emptor, let the buyer beware, threw the risk on the person least able to bear it, and privity of contract barred the ultimate consumer from suing the manufacturer. The Act was passed to replace caveat emptor with caveat venditor in practical effect, and to give the consumer a forum he could actually reach.
The Preamble states the object as "an Act to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers and for that purpose to make provision for the establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumers' disputes and for matters connected therewith".
The aims and objects in detail.
1. To protect and promote the six rights of the consumer. Section 6 states the objects of the Central Council as the promotion and protection of:
These six were drawn from the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection, and they are the only place in the Act where its purpose is stated as a list of substantive entitlements.
2. To provide speedy, simple and inexpensive redressal. The Act was designed as an alternative to the civil court, and every feature follows from that:
3. To establish consumer councils as advisory bodies. The Central Consumer Protection Council under Section 4, chaired by the Union Minister in charge of consumer affairs, meeting at least once a year; the State Councils under Section 7, chaired by the State Minister, meeting at least twice a year; and the District Councils under Section 8A, chaired by the Collector, meeting at least twice a year.
4. To create a three-tier adjudicatory machinery. The District Forum, State Commission and National Commission under Sections 9 to 23, with defined pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction, a right of appeal at each level, execution as a decree of a civil court under Section 25, and punishment for non-compliance under Section 27.
5. To give remedies suited to consumer disputes. Section 14 goes far beyond damages: removal of defect, replacement, refund of price, compensation including punitive damages, discontinuance of unfair trade practices, withdrawal of hazardous goods, corrective advertisement, and costs. These are remedies a civil court would not ordinarily grant, and they exist because the consumer usually wants the product put right rather than a sum of money.
6. To supplement and not to supplant existing law. Section 3 provides that the Act is "in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law for the time being in force". The consumer therefore retains his remedies in contract, in tort and under the Sale of Goods Act, and may choose between them. The Supreme Court has consistently held that the existence of an arbitration clause or of another statutory remedy does not oust the consumer forum.
7. To reach the consumer wherever the harm occurs. The definition of "service" in Section 2(1)(o) is inclusive and very wide, covering banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, board or lodging, housing construction, entertainment, amusement and the purveying of news or other information. Judicial decisions have brought medical services (Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha, 1995), education in certain respects, housing construction (Lucknow Development Authority v M K Gupta, 1994) and statutory authorities acting as service providers within its reach.
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This volume prints the 2018-19 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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