Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Torts
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2017-18 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Attempt the following in not more than two sentences each
all compulsory · 20 Marks
Answer
Malfeasance means the doing of an act which is wrongful and unlawful in itself, an act which the person had no right to do at all. The act is a tort because of what it is, not because of the manner in which it was done.
The word belongs to a set of three:
Answer
Winfield's definition is: "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages."
Three elements follow from it. The duty is fixed by law, not by the agreement of the parties, which separates tort from contract. The duty is owed to persons generally, that is a right in rem, which separates tort from a right in personam. And the remedy is unliquidated damages, that is damages assessed by the court, which separates tort from a claim on a liquidated demand.
Answer
Vis major, literally "a superior force", is the civil law name for what English law calls an act of God: an operation of natural forces so extraordinary that no human foresight could reasonably anticipate it, and against which no reasonable care could provide.
Two elements must be shown: the event must be the result of natural forces without any human intervention, and it must be so extraordinary that it could not reasonably be foreseen or guarded against. It is a good defence even to strict liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.
Answer
Joint tort-feasors are two or more persons whose conduct results in a single, indivisible injury to the plaintiff, so that in law they are treated as having committed one tort and not several. The classic instances are principal and agent, master and servant, partners in a firm, and persons acting in furtherance of a common design.
Their liability is joint and several. The plaintiff may sue any one of them, or all of them, and recover the whole of the damages from any one, although he can only have one satisfaction in total.
Answer
Battery is the intentional and direct application of force to another person without lawful justification. The essentials are the use of force, however slight, applied directly to the plaintiff's body, intentionally, and without consent or lawful excuse.
No physical harm need result. As Cole v Turner (1704) put it, the least touching of another in anger is a battery, and throwing water on a person, snatching a book from his hand or pulling his chair away are all batteries.
Answer
"Appropriate laboratory" is defined in Section 2(1)(a) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 as a laboratory or organisation recognised by the Central Government, or recognised by a State Government subject to such guidelines as may be prescribed by the Central Government, or any laboratory or organisation established by or under any law for the time being in force which is maintained, financed or aided by the Central or a State Government, and which is engaged in carrying out analysis or test of any goods with a view to determining whether such goods suffer from any defect.
Answer
The maxim is volenti non fit injuria: to one who is willing, no injury is done. Where the plaintiff has freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk, agreed to run that risk, he cannot afterwards complain of the harm it causes him.
Two conditions must both be satisfied: the plaintiff must have knowledge of the risk, and he must have consented to bear it. Mere knowledge is not enough, which is expressed in the companion maxim scienti non fit injuria being rejected as a sufficient test.
Answer
The scienter rule governs the liability of the keeper of an animal for damage done by it, and turns on the keeper's knowledge ("scienter" means "knowingly") of the animal's dangerous disposition.
Animals are divided into two classes. For animals ferae naturae, that is of a naturally dangerous species such as a lion, elephant or bear, knowledge of the vicious propensity is presumed and the keeper is strictly liable. For animals mansuetae naturae, that is of a harmless domestic species such as a dog, horse or cow, the keeper is liable only if the plaintiff proves that he knew of that particular animal's vicious propensity.
Answer
Section 26 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides that where a complaint instituted before the District Forum, the State Commission or the National Commission is found to be frivolous or vexatious, it shall, for reasons to be recorded in writing, dismiss the complaint and make an order that the complainant shall pay to the opposite party such cost, not exceeding Rs. 10,000, as may be specified in the order.
Answer
Section 24A of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides that the District Forum, the State Commission or the National Commission shall not admit a complaint unless it is filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen.
The bar is not absolute. Section 24A(2) allows a complaint filed after two years to be entertained if the complainant satisfies the Forum or Commission that he had sufficient cause for not filing it within that period, and no such complaint shall be entertained unless the reasons for condoning the delay are recorded.
Write short notes
any 4 · 20 Marks
Answer
The pigeon-hole theory is Salmond's answer to the question whether there is a law of tort or a law of torts. His position was that there is no general principle of tortious liability. The law knows a fixed number of specific, nominate torts, each with its own name and its own ingredients, and these sit like pigeon-holes in a cabinet. If the plaintiff can fit his facts into one of the pigeon-holes he succeeds; if his harm falls outside every pigeon-hole, he has no remedy however real his loss, because the law does not recognise a residual wrong of "causing harm".
Winfield took the opposite view. On his definition, tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty fixed by law towards persons generally, so all harm is prima facie tortious unless there is some justification, and the courts are free to create new torts as new kinds of harm appear.
The arguments against Salmond are historical. Courts have in fact created new pigeon-holes: strict liability in Rylands v Fletcher (1868), intentional infliction of nervous shock in Wilkinson v Downton (1897), negligent misstatement in Hedley Byrne v Heller (1964), the manufacturer's duty in Donoghue v Stevenson (1932), and in India absolute liability in M C Mehta v Union of India (1987) and the constitutional tort of compensation for violation of fundamental rights.
The arguments for Salmond are practical. A litigant is not asked in court whether the defendant has committed "a tort" in the abstract; he is asked which tort, and he must prove its ingredients. In that sense the working lawyer lives in a world of pigeon-holes.
The modern reconciliation, associated with Glanville Williams, is that the two views describe the same law at different levels of abstraction. Salmond describes the law as it stands at any given moment, which is indeed a list; Winfield describes its capacity for growth, which is indeed general. Salmond himself never denied that the courts could create new torts; he only denied that there was a general principle waiting to be applied.
Answer
Damages are the pecuniary compensation which the law awards to a person for the injury he has sustained by the wrong of another. In tort they are unliquidated, that is assessed by the court and not fixed in advance by the parties.
The governing principle is restitutio in integrum: so far as money can do it, the plaintiff is to be placed in the position he would have occupied had the tort not been committed.
The kinds are:
Answer
An unfair trade practice is defined by Section 2(1)(r) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 as a trade practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or the provision of any services, adopts any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice, including the practices the section then lists.
The listed practices include:
The remedy is that the Forum may, under Section 14(1)(f), direct the trader to discontinue the practice and not to repeat it, and under Section 14(1)(hc) direct the issue of a corrective advertisement to neutralise the effect of a misleading one.
Answer
Malicious prosecution is the institution of unsuccessful criminal proceedings, maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause, against the plaintiff, which results in damage to him.
The plaintiff must prove five things, and failure on any one defeats the action:
What each ingredient requires.
"Prosecuted". The defendant must have been the person who actively instigated the proceedings. Merely giving information to the police, on which they decide to prosecute, is generally not prosecuting, because the decision is then the officer's.
"Terminated in the plaintiff's favour". Until the proceedings end favourably no cause of action arises, and time does not begin to run. It is not necessary that he was acquitted on the merits: a discharge, withdrawal or quashing will do.
"Without reasonable and probable cause" means the absence of an honest belief, founded on reasonable grounds, in the guilt of the accused. It must be proved by the plaintiff as a positive fact, which is one of the rare instances of a plaintiff being required to prove a negative.
"Malice" means any motive other than a desire to bring an offender to justice. It is a separate ingredient from want of reasonable cause and neither implies the other, though malice may be inferred from a total want of cause, which is how it is usually proved.
Indian authority: West Bengal State Electricity Board v Dilip Kumar Ray (2007) 14 SCC 568 collects the elements.
Distinguish false imprisonment, where the restraint is imposed without legal authority and is actionable per se without proof of malice or damage. In malicious prosecution the injury comes about through regular legal process, so the plaintiff must attack the motive and the want of cause behind that process.
Remedy: damages for injury to reputation, for the costs of defending, and for the deprivation of liberty, with aggravated damages where the conduct was high-handed.
Answer
Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v Morts Dock and Engineering Co Ltd, known as The Wagon Mound (No. 1) [1961] AC 388, is the Privy Council decision which settled that the test of remoteness of damage in negligence is reasonable foreseeability and not directness.
Facts. The defendants' ship, the Wagon Mound, was taking on furnace oil in Sydney Harbour. Through the carelessness of their servants a large quantity of oil was spilled into the bay and drifted to the plaintiffs' wharf about 200 yards away, where welding was going on. The plaintiffs stopped work, were advised that the oil could not be ignited on water, and resumed. Molten metal from the welding fell on floating cotton waste, which acted as a wick, set the oil alight, and destroyed the wharf.
Held. The defendants were not liable for the fire damage. Although some damage by fouling of the wharf was foreseeable, damage by fire was not, and a defendant is liable only for consequences of a kind that a reasonable man would have foreseen. The Board expressly disapproved Re Polemis (1921), which had held a defendant liable for all direct consequences of his negligent act however unforeseeable.
The sequel. In The Wagon Mound (No. 2) [1967] 1 AC 617, brought by the owners of ships damaged in the same fire, the Privy Council held the defendants liable, because on the evidence in that case a reasonable engineer would have realised there was a small but real risk of the oil catching fire, and there was no justification for taking even a small risk. So a risk that is foreseeable though slight is enough if there is no good reason to run it.
What the rule requires to be foreseeable. Not the extent of the damage, and not the precise manner of its occurrence, but its kind.
The eggshell skull rule survives Wagon Mound. Once damage of a foreseeable kind is established, the defendant takes his victim as he finds him and answers for its full extent, however unusual the plaintiff's susceptibility: Smith v Leech Brain and Co [1962] 2 QB 405, where a negligent burn on the lip turned a pre-malignant condition cancerous and the employers were held liable for the death.
Answer
The 1986 Act provides an appeal at every tier, in each case within thirty days, extendable for sufficient cause.
In each case the proviso allows the appellate authority to entertain an appeal after thirty days if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it in time.
Separately, Section 21(b) gives the National Commission revisional jurisdiction over a State Commission where it has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it, or acted illegally or with material irregularity.
What is appealable, and what is not. An appeal lies only from an order made in ORIGINAL jurisdiction. An order made by the State Commission in appeal from a District Forum is not further appealable to the National Commission; the only route against it is revision under Section 21(b), which is narrower, being confined to jurisdictional error and material irregularity. Getting that distinction right is what the question is testing.
Powers of the appellate authority. It may confirm, modify or set aside the order, or remand the matter for fresh disposal. Section 22A empowers the National Commission to set aside an ex parte order of a State Commission.
Finality and execution. Under Section 24 an order becomes final where no appeal is preferred within the time allowed. Under Section 25 it is executable as a decree of a civil court, and under Section 27 failure to comply is punishable with imprisonment of one month to three years, or fine of Rs. 2,000 to Rs. 10,000, or both.
Solve any two of the following problems 12 Marks
Answer
No, X is not liable. The case is a textbook instance of damnum sine injuria: B has suffered actual loss but no legal injury, and the law gives no remedy for harm which is not the invasion of a legal right.
B has no right that students should continue to come to him. Every person is entitled to carry on a lawful trade at a place of his choosing, and the loss which competition inflicts on a rival is damnum absque injuria. X has used no unlawful means: he has not defamed B, not induced a breach of contract, not conspired, and not misrepresented anything. Competition, however ruinous, is a lawful act.
The governing authority is the Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410), where the defendant schoolmaster set up a rival school in the same town, the plaintiff's fees fell from 40 pence to 12 pence, and the action failed because the defendant had done nothing unlawful. Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor, Gow & Co (1892) applied the same principle to a shipping combine that undercut a rival out of business, and the Indian case is Ushaben v Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir (AIR 1978 Guj 13).
The answer would change only if X had used unlawful means: false statements about B's classes would be injurious falsehood or defamation, and persuading B's teachers to break their contracts would be inducement of breach of contract.
| Injuria sine damnum | Damnum sine injuria |
|---|---|
| Legal injury without actual loss: a legal right is violated but no damage results. | Actual loss without legal injury: real damage is suffered but no legal right is violated. |
| Actionable, because the law presumes damage where a right is infringed. These are torts actionable per se, such as trespass and libel. | Not actionable, because there is no cause of action at all. |
| Injuria sine damnum | Damnum sine injuria |
|---|---|
| The remedy may be nominal damages where the loss is nil, and substantial or exemplary damages where the infringement is grave. | There is no remedy, however heavy the loss. |
| Ashby v White (1703): a returning officer wrongfully refused the plaintiff's vote; the candidate he supported won anyway; the action succeeded because the right to vote had been infringed. Bhim Singh v State of J and K (1985) awarded Rs. 50,000 for wrongful detention of an MLA. | Gloucester Grammar School Case (1410) and Mogul Steamship Co v McGregor Gow (1892): lawful competition; Bradford Corporation v Pickles (1895): a landowner drained water maliciously and was held not liable. |
Answer
Yes, in tort. X may sue the charitable trust in negligence, and the trust is vicariously liable for the negligence of the surgeon and staff it engaged for the camp. A charity enjoys no immunity in Indian law from liability for the torts of its servants; the fact that the treatment was given free affects the consumer remedy, not the tortious one.
To succeed X must show the three ingredients of negligence: a duty of care, which a doctor owes his patient from the moment he undertakes treatment; a breach of that duty, judged by the standard in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee (1957), adopted in India in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1, namely the standard of the ordinary competent practitioner exercising that particular art; and damage caused by the breach.
The loss of an eye in the course of an eye operation is the classic occasion for res ipsa loquitur: the thing speaks for itself, the instrumentality was under the exclusive control of the defendant, and the accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen if proper care is used. The burden then shifts to the trust to explain.
On the consumer side the answer depends on how the camp was funded. Under Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 the Supreme Court held that:
So if the camp was free to all and financed only by donation, X's remedy lies in the civil court in tort; if the trust runs a hospital where paying patients subsidise the camp, X is a consumer and may complain to the District Forum.
"Deficiency" is defined in Section 2(1)(g) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 as any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force, or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service.
Three points follow. The standard against which the service is measured is set either by law or by the undertaking the provider himself gave. The definition covers not only failure to perform but imperfect performance. And it applies to a service, which Section 2(1)(o) defines widely to include banking, insurance, transport, housing construction, entertainment and medical treatment, but which excludes services rendered free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
Established instances of deficiency are a surgeon leaving a swab inside the patient, a bank dishonouring a properly drawn cheque, a builder delivering possession years late, an airline failing to inform passengers of a change of schedule, and an insurer repudiating a claim on a ground not open to it.
Under the 2019 Act the definition is in Section 2(11) and has been enlarged to include, expressly, any act of negligence or omission or commission which causes loss or injury to the consumer, and deliberate withholding of relevant information from the consumer.
Answer
The liability, if any, would be in tort, under the principle of vicarious liability of a master for the torts of his servant, expressed in the maxims respondeat superior and qui facit per alium facit per se. It could not be in contract, because the victim of Y's fraud has no contract with X; X's only contract is with Y, and a contract binds only the parties to it.
But on these facts X is not liable. Vicarious liability arises only where the servant's wrongful act was committed in the course of employment, and that means either an act authorised by the master or an unauthorised mode of doing an authorised act. A fraud committed after working hours, on the guard's own account, having nothing to do with guarding the premises, is neither. It is what the cases call a frolic of his own.
The authorities line up on both sides of the line:
Lloyd v Grace, Smith is the case a student must distinguish here, and the distinction is that the clerk's fraud was in the very transaction he was employed to conduct, whereas Y's fraud has no connection with the work of guarding and was committed outside working hours. X would be liable only if the fraud were shown to have been committed in the course of Y's duties as a guard, for example by using access to X's clients which the post gave him.
X remains liable for his own negligence if he employed a guard he knew or ought to have known was dishonest, but that is primary liability for negligent selection, not vicarious liability.
No. Criminal liability is personal. There is no general doctrine of vicarious liability in criminal law, and a master is not punished for the crime of his servant unless he authorised it, abetted it, or a statute expressly imposes liability on him. Y alone answers for the fraud, which would be cheating under the Indian Penal Code.
Two points of distinction between crime and tort:
| Tort | Crime |
|---|---|
| A private wrong against an individual. The injured party himself sues, and may compromise or waive the claim. | A public wrong against the community. The State prosecutes, and most offences cannot be compounded without the court's leave. |
| The remedy is compensation: unliquidated damages paid to the plaintiff to restore him. | The consequence is punishment: imprisonment or fine, the fine going to the State and not to the victim. |
A third distinction, if you have room, is the standard of proof: a tort must be proved on the balance of probabilities, a crime beyond reasonable doubt.
Answer in detail
any 4 · 48 Marks
Answer
Contributory negligence is the failure of the plaintiff to take reasonable care of his own safety, which combines with the defendant's negligence to cause the damage he complains of. It is not a duty owed to the defendant; it is a want of care by the plaintiff for himself, and the question is always whether he took the care that a reasonable and prudent person would have taken in his own interest.
The old common law rule. At common law contributory negligence was a complete defence. Butterfield v Forrester (1809) is the origin: the defendant wrongfully put a pole across a road; the plaintiff, riding violently at dusk, did not see it and was thrown. He recovered nothing, because with ordinary care he would have seen the obstruction. The rule was harsh, because it made the plaintiff's smallest carelessness a complete answer to the defendant's gross negligence.
The judicial correction: the last opportunity rule. To soften the rule the courts developed the doctrine of last opportunity, that whichever party had the last opportunity of avoiding the accident by reasonable care is liable for the whole loss. Davies v Mann (1842) is the case: the plaintiff negligently left his donkey fettered on the highway; the defendant drove his wagon into it at speed. The defendant was liable, because he had the last chance of avoiding the collision.
The rule was extended in British Columbia Electric Railway Co v Loach (1916) to the doctrine of constructive last opportunity: the defendant's tram had defective brakes, so it did not in fact have the last chance, but it would have had one but for its own earlier negligence, and it was held liable.
The statutory solution: apportionment. The doctrine of last opportunity was itself unsatisfactory, because it still gave an all-or-nothing result. The Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act, 1945 in England replaced it with apportionment: where a person suffers damage partly through his own fault and partly through the fault of another, the claim is not defeated, but the damages are reduced to such extent as the court thinks just and equitable having regard to the claimant's share in the responsibility.
The position in India. India has no corresponding general statute. The Kerala Torts (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1976 applies apportionment locally, and outside it the courts have simply adopted the apportionment principle as a rule of justice, equity and good conscience. The Supreme Court applied it in Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v Laxman Iyer (2003) 8 SCC 731, holding that where both parties are at fault the loss is apportioned according to the degree of responsibility, and that the last opportunity rule survives only as one way of deciding whose negligence was the effective cause. Motor accident claims are additionally governed by the no fault liability provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, where contributory negligence does not defeat the statutory award.
Exceptions and situations where the defence fails:
Answer
Who is a consumer. Section 2(1)(d) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines "consumer" in two limbs.
In relation to goods, a consumer is any person who buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods other than the buyer himself, when such use is made with the approval of the buyer. It does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purpose.
In relation to services, a consumer is any person who hires or avails of any services for a consideration paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any beneficiary of such services other than the person who hired them, when the services are availed of with the approval of that person. Services availed of for a commercial purpose are excluded.
The Explanation to the section is what saves the small trader: "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him, or services availed by him, exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment. So a driver who buys a taxi and drives it himself is a consumer; a company that buys a fleet of fifteen taxis is not.
Three features of the definition are examined repeatedly. Consideration is essential: a wholly gratuitous service is outside the Act, subject to Indian Medical Association v V P Shantha (1995) 6 SCC 651 on free treatment in hospitals which also charge. The user and the beneficiary are consumers even though they paid nothing, provided the buyer approved, which is why a member of the family injured by a defective pressure cooker may complain. And resale and commercial purpose are excluded, because the Act is a welfare statute for the ultimate consumer and not a substitute for commercial litigation.
Aims and objects of the Act. The Preamble states the object as "an Act to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers and for that purpose to make provision for the establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumers' disputes and for matters connected therewith". The Statement of Objects and Reasons expanded it into the following aims:
Answer
The 1986 Act established a three-tier quasi-judicial machinery for the settlement of consumer disputes: the District Forum in each district, the State Commission in each State, and the National Commission at the centre, with a further appeal to the Supreme Court.
1. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (Sections 9 to 15).
2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 16 to 19).
3. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (Sections 20 to 23).
Finality and execution. Under Section 24 an order becomes final if no appeal is preferred. Under Section 25 it is executable as a decree of a civil court, and under Section 27 failure to comply is punishable with imprisonment of one month to three years or fine of Rs. 2,000 to Rs. 10,000, or both.
Who may complain, Section 2(1)(b). A consumer; a registered voluntary consumer association; the Central Government or any State Government; one or more consumers where there are numerous consumers having the same interest, with the permission of the Forum under Section 12(1)(c); and, on the death of a consumer, his legal heir or representative.
On what grounds, Section 2(1)(c). That an unfair or restrictive trade practice has been adopted; that the goods suffer from a defect; that the services suffer from a deficiency; that a price in excess of that fixed by law, displayed or agreed has been charged; or that goods hazardous to life and safety are being offered for sale in contravention of a law requiring the display of information.
How the complaint is decided, Section 13. The complaint is referred to the opposite party, who must reply within thirty days, extendable by fifteen. Where goods require testing, a sample is sealed and authenticated and sent to an appropriate laboratory defined in Section 2(1)(a), the complainant depositing its fee; the report goes to both sides and objections are heard. The Forum has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning and enforcing attendance, examination on oath, discovery and production of documents, and receiving evidence on affidavit, and its proceedings are judicial proceedings within Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 13(3A) requires disposal within three months, or five months where analysis is required.
Limitation, Section 24A. A complaint must be filed within two years of the date on which the cause of action arose, and may be entertained later only on sufficient cause shown and reasons recorded.
Frivolous complaints, Section 26. A complaint found frivolous or vexatious is dismissed, for reasons recorded in writing, with costs up to Rs. 10,000 payable to the opposite party.
Answer
The governing principle. Damages in tort are assessed on the principle of restitutio in integrum: the plaintiff is to be put, so far as money can do it, in the position he would have been in had the tort not been committed. This differs from contract, where damages put the plaintiff in the position he would have occupied had the contract been performed. In tort the court looks backwards to the status quo ante; in contract it looks forward to the bargain.
The controls on the calculation. Four rules limit what may be recovered.
The heads of assessment in a personal injury claim. The court separates pecuniary from non-pecuniary loss.
In fatal accident claims the Indian courts apply the multiplier method laid down in Sarla Verma v Delhi Transport Corporation (2009) 6 SCC 121 and confirmed by the Constitution Bench in National Insurance Co Ltd v Pranay Sethi (2017) 16 SCC 680, which also fixed the additions for future prospects and the conventional sums for loss of estate, funeral expenses and loss of consortium.
Where the loss is to property, the measure is the diminution in value, that is the difference between the value of the property before and after the tort, or the reasonable cost of repair where repair is the sensible course, together with consequential loss such as loss of use during repair.
The kinds of damages.
Answer
Definition. Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right-thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid him, or which exposes him to hatred, contempt or ridicule, without lawful justification.
The interest protected is reputation, which is what others think of the plaintiff, and not his own feelings, so a statement which insults him privately is not defamation.
The two forms.
In English law the distinction matters because libel is actionable per se while slander requires proof of special damage, except in four cases: an imputation of a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment; an imputation of a contagious or infectious disease which would cause others to shun the plaintiff; an imputation of unchastity or adultery to a woman or girl (Slander of Women Act, 1891); and an imputation of unfitness, dishonesty or incompetence in any office, profession, calling, trade or business. In Indian law the distinction has been treated as of little consequence, and the High Courts have generally held that slander is also actionable per se, following Hirabai Jehangir v Dinshaw Edulji (ILR 1927 Bom 167). Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code both forms are equally an offence.
Essentials of the tort. The plaintiff must prove three things.
Defences.
Answer
Definition. Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. The word comes from the French nuire, to injure, and the tort protects the enjoyment of land, as distinct from trespass, which protects possession of it.
Trespass and nuisance distinguished. Trespass is a direct physical interference with possession and is actionable per se; nuisance is a consequential interference with enjoyment and generally requires proof of damage. Planting a tree on the neighbour's land is trespass; allowing its roots or branches to grow over the boundary is nuisance.
Kinds of nuisance.
Essentials of private nuisance.
The factors which decide reasonableness.
Defences to nuisance.
Defences which are not good defences. These are as heavily examined as the real ones.
Remedies. The remedies are damages; an injunction, which is discretionary and is the relief usually sought because the plaintiff wants the nuisance stopped; and abatement, the self-help remedy of removing the nuisance oneself, which the law permits but does not encourage, requires notice save in an emergency, and must be exercised without causing unnecessary damage or breach of the peace.
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This volume prints the 2017-18 Torts paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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